From eca3d65b52ac21265479972428cfb54fef089b66 Mon Sep 17 00:00:00 2001 From: Roque Lopez Date: Mon, 21 Oct 2024 17:03:44 -0400 Subject: [PATCH] feat: Restructure packages to streamline the addition of new standards --- bdikit/api.py | 27 +- bdikit/resource/gdc_data.json | 19958 +++++++++++++++++++++++++ bdikit/standards/__init__.py | 3 + bdikit/standards/base.py | 20 + bdikit/standards/gdc.py | 70 + bdikit/standards/standard_factory.py | 28 + bdikit/utils.py | 91 +- 7 files changed, 20101 insertions(+), 96 deletions(-) create mode 100644 bdikit/resource/gdc_data.json create mode 100644 bdikit/standards/__init__.py create mode 100644 bdikit/standards/base.py create mode 100644 bdikit/standards/gdc.py create mode 100644 bdikit/standards/standard_factory.py diff --git a/bdikit/api.py b/bdikit/api.py index d3172d10..4cdf3ecd 100644 --- a/bdikit/api.py +++ b/bdikit/api.py @@ -18,7 +18,6 @@ import numpy as np import panel as pn from IPython.display import display, Markdown -from bdikit.utils import get_gdc_data, get_gdc_metadata from bdikit.schema_matching.best.base import BaseSchemaMatcher from bdikit.schema_matching.best.matcher_factory import SchemaMatchers @@ -27,6 +26,7 @@ from bdikit.value_matching.base import BaseValueMatcher, ValueMatch, ValueMatchingResult from bdikit.value_matching.matcher_factory import ValueMatchers +from bdikit.standards.standard_factory import Standards from bdikit.mapping_functions import ( ValueMapper, FunctionValueMapper, @@ -36,7 +36,6 @@ pn.extension("tabulator") -GDC_DATA_PATH = join(dirname(__file__), "./resource/gdc_table.csv") DEFAULT_VALUE_MATCHING_METHOD = "tfidf" DEFAULT_SCHEMA_MATCHING_METHOD = "coma" logger = logging.getLogger(__name__) @@ -92,10 +91,10 @@ def _load_table_for_standard(name: str) -> pd.DataFrame: Load the table for the given standard data vocabulary. Currently, only the GDC standard is supported. """ - if name == "gdc": - return pd.read_csv(GDC_DATA_PATH) - else: - raise ValueError(f"The {name} standard is not supported") + standard = Standards.get_instance(name) + df = standard.get_dataframe_rep() + + return df def top_matches( @@ -439,9 +438,10 @@ def _format_value_matching_input( f"The source column '{source_column}' is not present in the source dataset." ) - if isinstance(target, str) and target == "gdc": + if isinstance(target, str): column_names = mapping_df["target"].unique().tolist() - target_domain = get_gdc_data(column_names) + standard = Standards.get_instance(target) + target_domain = standard.get_column_values(column_names) elif isinstance(target, pd.DataFrame): target_domain = { column_name: target[column_name].unique().tolist() @@ -518,11 +518,12 @@ def preview_domain( (if applicable). """ - if isinstance(dataset, str) and dataset == "gdc": - gdc_metadata = get_gdc_metadata() - value_names = gdc_metadata[column]["value_names"] - value_descriptions = gdc_metadata[column]["value_descriptions"] - column_description = gdc_metadata[column]["description"] + if isinstance(dataset, str): + standard = Standards.get_instance(dataset) + column_metadata = standard.get_column_metadata([column]) + value_names = column_metadata[column]["value_names"] + value_descriptions = column_metadata[column]["value_descriptions"] + column_description = column_metadata[column]["description"] assert len(value_names) == len(value_descriptions) elif isinstance(dataset, pd.DataFrame): value_names = dataset[column].unique() diff --git a/bdikit/resource/gdc_data.json b/bdikit/resource/gdc_data.json new file mode 100644 index 00000000..29f5883b --- /dev/null +++ b/bdikit/resource/gdc_data.json @@ -0,0 +1,19958 @@ +{ + "workflow_type": { + "column_description": "Generic name for the workflow used to analyze a data set.", + "value_data": { + "CaVEMan": "", + "GATK4 MuTect2": "", + "GATK4 MuTect2 Tumor-Only": "", + "MuSE": "", + "MuTect2": "", + "Pindel": "", + "SomaticSniper": "", + "Strelka2 RNA": "", + "VarScan2": "" + } + }, + "aligned_reads_files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "submitted_genotyping_arrays": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "workflow_link": { + "column_description": "Link to Github hash for the CWL workflow used.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "workflow_version": { + "column_description": "Major version for a GDC workflow.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "workflow_start_datetime": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "workflow_end_datetime": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "type": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "id": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "submitter_id": { + "column_description": "A project-specific identifier for a node. This property is the calling card/nickname/alias for a unit of submission. It can be used in place of the uuid for identifying or recalling a node.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "batch_id": { + "column_description": "GDC submission batch indicator. It is unique within the context of a project.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "state": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "project_id": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "created_datetime": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "updated_datetime": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "data_category": { + "column_description": "Broad categorization of the contents of the data file.", + "value_data": { + "Biospecimen": "" + } + }, + "data_type": { + "column_description": "Specific content type of the data file.", + "value_data": { + "Biospecimen Supplement": "" + } + }, + "data_format": { + "column_description": "Format of the data files.", + "value_data": { + "BCR Auxiliary XML": "", + "BCR Biotab": "", + "BCR SSF XML": "", + "BCR PPS XML": "", + "BCR XML": "", + "CDC JSON": "", + "FoundationOne XML": "", + "TSV": "", + "XLSX": "" + } + }, + "experimental_strategy": { + "column_description": "The sequencing strategy used to generate the data file.", + "value_data": { + "ATAC-Seq": "", + "Bisulfite-Seq": "", + "ChIP-Seq": "", + "miRNA-Seq": "", + "RNA-Seq": "", + "Targeted Sequencing": "", + "WGS": "", + "WXS": "" + } + }, + "platform": { + "column_description": "Name of the platform used to obtain data.", + "value_data": { + "Illumina Human Methylation 27": "", + "Illumina Human Methylation 450": "" + } + }, + "copy_number_variation_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "genomic_profile_harmonization_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "somatic_copy_number_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "file_name": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "file_size": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "md5sum": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "file_state": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "registered": "", + "uploading": "", + "uploaded": "", + "validating": "", + "validated": "", + "submitted": "", + "processing": "", + "processed": "", + "released": "", + "error": "", + "deleted": "" + } + }, + "error_type": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "file_size": "", + "file_format": "", + "md5sum": "" + } + }, + "state_comment": { + "column_description": "Optional comment about why the file is in the current state, mainly for invalid state.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "a260_a280_ratio": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the sample ratio of nucleic acid absorbance at 260 nm and 280 nm, used to determine a measure of DNA purity.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "amount": { + "column_description": "Weight in grams or volume in mL.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "analyte_quantity": { + "column_description": "The quantity in micrograms (ug) of the analyte(s) derived from the analyte(s) shipped for sequencing and characterization.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "analyte_type": { + "column_description": "Text term that represents the kind of molecular specimen analyte.", + "value_data": { + "cfDNA": "", + "DNA": "A long linear double-stranded polymer formed from nucleotides attached to a deoxyribose backbone and found in the nucleus of a cell; associated with the transmission of genetic information.", + "EBV Immortalized Normal": "", + "FFPE DNA": "", + "FFPE RNA": "", + "GenomePlex (Rubicon) Amplified DNA": "", + "m6A Enriched RNA": "", + "Nuclei RNA": "", + "Repli-G (Qiagen) DNA": "", + "Repli-G Pooled (Qiagen) DNA": "", + "Repli-G X (Qiagen) DNA": "", + "RNA": "", + "Total RNA": "A biological sample comprised of all of the RNA collected from an experimental subject." + } + }, + "analyte_type_id": { + "column_description": "A single letter code used to identify a type of molecular analyte.", + "value_data": { + "D": "", + "E": "", + "G": "", + "H": "", + "R": "", + "S": "", + "T": "", + "W": "", + "X": "", + "Y": "" + } + }, + "analyte_volume": { + "column_description": "The volume in microliters (ul) of the aliquot(s) derived from the analyte(s) shipped for sequencing and characterization.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "concentration": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the concentration of an analyte or aliquot extracted from the sample or sample portion, measured in milligrams per milliliter.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "experimental_protocol_type": { + "column_description": "The type of experiment used to extract the analyte.", + "value_data": { + "aDNA Preparation Type": "", + "Allprep FFPE DNA": "", + "Allprep RNA Extraction": "", + "Chemical Lysis DNA Extraction": "", + "Genomplex": "", + "HighPure miRNA (Allprep DNA) FFPE RNA": "", + "mirVana (Allprep DNA) RNA": "", + "nRNA - Melanoma Protocol": "", + "Pre-extracted DNA received by TSS": "", + "Repli-G": "", + "Repli-G X": "", + "Total RNA": "A biological sample comprised of all of the RNA collected from an experimental subject." + } + }, + "normal_tumor_genotype_snp_match": { + "column_description": "Text term that represents whether or not the genotype of the normal tumor matches or if the data is not available.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "ribosomal_rna_28s_16s_ratio": { + "column_description": "The 28S/18S ribosomal RNA band ratio used to assess the quality of total RNA.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "rna_integrity_number": { + "column_description": "A numerical assessment of the integrity of RNA based on the entire electrophoretic trace of the RNA sample, including the presence or absence of degradation products.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "spectrophotometer_method": { + "column_description": "Name of the method used to determine the concentration of purified nucleic acid within a solution.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "well_number": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the well location within a plate for the analyte or aliquot from the sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "portions": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "samples": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "additional_pathology_findings": { + "column_description": "A section header that includes additional pathologic findings.", + "value_data": { + "Adenomyosis": "", + "Asbestos bodies": "", + "Atrophic endometrium": "", + "Atypical hyperplasia/Endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia (EIN)": "", + "Autoimmune atrophic chronic gastritis": "", + "Benign endocervical polyp": "", + "Bilateral ovaries with endometriotic cyst and surface adhesions": "", + "Bone marrow concordant histology": "", + "Bone marrow discordant histology": "", + "Carcinoma in situ": "", + "Cirrhosis": "", + "Clostridioides difficile (c. diff)": "", + "Colonization; bacterial": "", + "Colonization; fungal": "", + "Cyst(s)": "", + "Diffuse and early nodular diabetic glomerulosclerosis": "", + "Dysplasia; high grade": "", + "Dysplasia; low grade": "", + "Endometrial polyp": "", + "Endometriosis": "", + "Endometroid carcinoma with local mucinous differentiation": "", + "Endosalpingiosis": "", + "Epithelial dysplasia": "", + "Epithelial hyperplasia": "", + "Extravascular Matrix Loops": "A microscopic finding indicating the presence or absence of extravascular matrix loops in uveal melanoma.", + "Gallbladder adenomyomatosis": "", + "Glomerular disease": "", + "Hyperkeratosis": "", + "Inflammation": "", + "Intestinal metaplasia": "", + "Keratinizing dysplasia; mild": "", + "Keratinizing dysplasia; moderate": "", + "Keratinizing dysplasia; severe (carcinoma in situ)": "", + "Leiomyoma": "", + "Leiomyomata w/ degenerative changes": "", + "Nonkeratinizing dysplasia; mild": "", + "Nonkeratinizing dysplasia; moderate": "", + "Nonkeratinizing dysplasia; severe (carcinoma in situ)": "", + "Other Complex Extravascular Matrix Patterns": "A microscopic finding indicating the presence of patterns formed by malignant cells outside the blood vessel circulation in uveal melanoma. The patterns are detectable using PAS stain without counterstaining with hematoxylin.", + "PD-L1 CPS (223C LDT) - 20%": "", + "Percent follicular component <= 10%": "", + "Percent follicular component > 10%": "", + "Platinum-resistant": "", + "Pleural plaque": "", + "Poorly Differentiated": "Describes tumor cells that generally have lost most of the appearance of normal cells. They tend to grow and spread.", + "Pulmonary interstitial fibrosis": "", + "Sialadenitis": "", + "Sinonasal papilloma": "", + "Squamous metaplasia": "", + "Squamous papilloma; solitary": "", + "Squamous papillomatosis": "", + "Tubular (papillary) adenoma(s)": "", + "Tumor has rough spikey edges": "", + "Tumor-associated lymphoid proliferation": "", + "Well Differentiated": "Describes tumor cells that generally retain the appearance of normal cells and tend to grow and spread at a slower rate than undifferentiated or poorly differentiated tumor cells.", + "Other": "" + } + }, + "anaplasia_present": { + "column_description": "Yes/no/unknown/not reported indicator used to describe whether anaplasia was present at the time of diagnosis.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "anaplasia_present_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the morphologic findings indicating the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate characterized by the presence of large pleomorphic cells, necrosis, and high mitotic activity in a tissue sample.", + "value_data": { + "Absent": "", + "Diffuse": "", + "Equivocal": "", + "Focal": "", + "Present": "A morphologic finding indicating the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate characterized by the presence of large pleomorphic cells, necrosis, and high mitotic activity in a tissue sample.", + "Sclerosis": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "bone_marrow_malignant_cells": { + "column_description": "The text term used to indicate whether there are malignant cells in the bone marrow.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "breslow_thickness": { + "column_description": "The number that describes the distance, in millimeters, between the upper layer of the epidermis and the deepest point of tumor penetration.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "circumferential_resection_margin": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the non-peritonealised bare area of rectum, comprising anterior and posterior segments, when submitted as a surgical specimen resulting from excision of cancer of the rectum.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "columnar_mucosa_present": { + "column_description": "Indicator noting whether columnar mucosa was present within the tissue.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "consistent_pathology_review": { + "column_description": "Indicates whether a recent review of tissue is consistent with a prior pathology review.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "days_to_pathology_detail": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date a pathologic review of a specific sample or slide was performed.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "dysplasia_degree": { + "column_description": "The degree to which dysplasia was involved.", + "value_data": { + "High Grade": "A subjective characterization of the phenomenon of dysplasia, based on microscopic examination of the architectural and/or cytological changes in a tissue sample, that is determined to be high.", + "Indefinite": "An indication that there is an ambiguous morphological pattern in a tissue sample such that the presence or absence of dysplasia cannot be determined.", + "Low Grade": "A subjective characterization of the phenomenon of dysplasia, based on microscopic examination of the architectural and/or cytological changes in a tissue sample, that is determined to be low.", + "Mild": "Gentle or temperate in nature or degree.", + "Moderate": "The quality of being within reasonable or average limits; not excessive or extreme.", + "No Dysplasia": "An indication that signs of dysplasia were not found in a sample.", + "Severe": "Intensely bad or unpleasant in degree, quality or extent.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "dysplasia_type": { + "column_description": "The type of dysplasia involved.", + "value_data": { + "Epithelial": "", + "Esophageal Columnar Dysplasia": "A morphologic finding the replacement of the normal lower esophagus squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium.", + "Esophageal Mucosa Columnar Dysplasia": "", + "Keratinizing": "Epithelial dysplasia in which the dysplastic changes, although limited to the lower basal zone, are so severe that there is a high probability of progression to invasive carcinoma.", + "Nonkeratinizing": "Epithelial dysplasia in which there is continuum from mild dysplasia to moderate dysplasia to severe dysplasia before the development of invasive carcinoma.", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "epithelioid_cell_percent": { + "column_description": "The percent of uveal melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "extracapsular_extension": { + "column_description": "The extension of malignant tissue situated outside of a specific capsule.", + "value_data": { + "Extensive": "", + "Focal": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "extracapsular_extension_present": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "extranodal_extension": { + "column_description": "Extension of a malignant neoplasm beyond the lymph node capsule.", + "value_data": { + "Gross Extension": "", + "Microscopic Extension": "", + "No Extranodal Extension": "" + } + }, + "extrascleral_extension": { + "column_description": "Spread of uveal melanoma beyond the sclera.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "extrathyroid_extension": { + "column_description": "Text term to describe the degree to which the primary tumor has extra thyroid extension.", + "value_data": { + "None": "No person or thing, nobody, not any.", + "Minimal (T3)": "Thyroid cancer with a tumor size greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension and limited to the thyroid gland, or a tumor of any size with minimal extrathyroid extension (e.g., extension to sternothyroid muscle or perithyroid soft tissues). (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)", + "Moderate/Advanced (T4a)": "Thyroid cancer with moderately advanced local disease. Tumor of any size extending beyond the thyroid gland capsule to invade subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus, or recurrent laryngeal nerve. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)", + "Very Advanced (T4b)": "Thyroid cancer with very advanced disease. Tumor invades prevertebral fascia or encases carotid artery or mediastinal vessels. (from AJCC 7th Ed.)", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "greatest_tumor_dimension": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the measurement of the widest portion of the tumor in centimeters.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "gross_tumor_weight": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the gross pathologic tumor weight, measured in grams.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "histologic_progression_type": { + "column_description": "Text term to describe the disease progression as determined by microscopic review of cells and their surrounding extracellular environment in tissues.", + "value_data": { + "Anaplastic": "", + "Poorly differentiated": "Describes tumor cells that generally have lost most of the appearance of normal cells. They tend to grow and spread.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "largest_extrapelvic_peritoneal_focus": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the diameter of the largest focus originating outside of the pelvic peritoneal region.", + "value_data": { + "Macroscopic (2cm or less)": "Lesion with Diameter of 2 cm or Less", + "Macroscopic (greater than 2cm)": "Lesion with Diameter Greater than 2 cm", + "Microscopic": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "lymph_node_dissection_method": { + "column_description": "The method employed to remove a lymph nodes(s)", + "value_data": { + "Functional (Limited) Neck Dissection": "", + "Modified Radical Neck Dissection": "", + "Radical Neck Dissection": "" + } + }, + "lymph_node_dissection_site": { + "column_description": "The named location(s) within the body where a lymph node(s) were removed.", + "value_data": { + "Neck, Left": "", + "Neck, NOS": "", + "Neck, Right": "" + } + }, + "lymph_node_involved_site": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the anatomic site of lymph node involvement.", + "value_data": { + "Aortic": "", + "Axillary": "One of approximately 20-30 lymph nodes in chain formation that traverse the concavity of the underarm to the clavicle.", + "Cervical": "Any of the lymph nodes located in the neck.", + "Cervical, Central": "", + "Cervical, Lateral": "", + "Cervical, NOS": "", + "Epitrochlear": "A lymph node located above and adjacent to the elbow.", + "Femoral": "A lymph node located in the upper inner portion of the thigh.", + "Hilar": "A lymph node located in the area around the hilum.", + "Iliac, NOS": "One of the three lymph nodes of the pelvis: the superior gluteal, interior gluteal or sacral.", + "Iliac-common": "A lymph node located adjacent to the common iliac artery. (NCI)", + "Iliac-external": "A lymph node located along the external iliac artery.", + "Inguinal": "A superficial or deep lymph node located in the inguinal area.", + "Mediastinal": "A lymph node located in the mediastinum. Mediastinal lymph nodes are arranged in three groups, one on the lateral, another on the medial, and a third on the anterior aspect of the vessels; the third group is, however, sometimes absent.", + "Mesenteric": "A lymph node located in the mesentery.", + "None": "No person or thing, nobody, not any.", + "Occipital": "A lymph node located in the back of the head adjacent to the trapezius muscle.", + "Paraaortic": "A lymph node located adjacent to the lumbar region of the spine.", + "Parotid": "A lymph node located close to, on, or within the parotid gland.", + "Pelvis, NOS": "", + "Popliteal": "Lymph node located within the fat layer of the knee joint.", + "Retroperitoneal": "A lymph node located in the retroperitoneal space.", + "Splenic": "Any lymph node located along the splenic artery that receives afferent drainage from the pancreas, spleen, and stomach, and which generally has their efferents join the celiac group of preaortic lymph nodes.", + "Submandibular": "A lymph node located beneath the floor of the oral cavity.", + "Supraclavicular": "A lymph node which is located above the clavicle.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "lymph_node_involvement": { + "column_description": "Indicator noting whether lymph nodes were involved.", + "value_data": { + "Indeterminant": "Cannot distinguish between two or more possible values in the current context.", + "Negative": "A finding of normality following an examination or investigation looking for the presence of a microorganism, disease, or condition.", + "Positive": "A finding of abnormality following an examination or observation confirming something, such as the presence of a disease, condition, or microorganism.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "lymph_nodes_positive": { + "column_description": "The number of lymph nodes involved with disease as determined by pathologic examination.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "lymph_nodes_removed": { + "column_description": "The number of lymph nodes removed during a biopsy or surgical procedure.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "", + "No": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "lymph_nodes_tested": { + "column_description": "The number of lymph nodes tested to determine whether lymph nodes were involved with disease as determined by a pathologic examination.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "lymphatic_invasion_present": { + "column_description": "A yes/no indicator to ask if small or thin-walled vessel invasion is present, indicating lymphatic involvement", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "margin_status": { + "column_description": "The determination of the presence of actual or potential neoplastic tissue which has been left outside the boundary of a resected specimen within the patient.", + "value_data": { + "Indeterminant": "Cannot distinguish between two or more possible values in the current context.", + "Involved": "Specifies whether the margins of surgical resection are infiltrated by disease.", + "Uninvolved": "Indicates the absence of tumor cells at the edge of a surgically excised specimen.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "measurement_type": { + "column_description": "The method used to measure tumor size.", + "value_data": { + "Echographic": "", + "Pathologic": "", + "Radiologic": "Imaging results obtained through a radiology procedure." + } + }, + "measurement_unit": { + "column_description": "The type of unit of measure being used to express a length or distance.", + "value_data": { + "Centimeters": "A basic unit of length in the former CGS version of metric system, equal to one hundredth of a meter or approximately 0.393 700 787 inch.", + "Millimeters": "A metric unit of length equal to one thousandth of a meter (10E-3 meter) or approximately 0.03937 inch." + } + }, + "metaplasia_present": { + "column_description": "Indicator noting whether metaplasia was present.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "micrometastasis_present": { + "column_description": "Indication of metastasis in the form of small clusters of malignant cells identifiable only under the microscope.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "morphologic_architectural_pattern": { + "column_description": "A specific morphologic or pathologic architectural pattern was discovered within the sample studied.", + "value_data": { + "Cohesive": "", + "Cribiform": "A morphologic finding indicating the presence of sheets of malignant epithelial cells punctuated by gland-like spaces in a tissue sample.", + "Micropapillary": "A morphologic finding indicating the presence of an architectural pattern dominated by the presence of small papillary structures.", + "Non-cohesive": "", + "Papillary Renal Cell": "Also known as chromophil carcinoma, it represents a minority of renal cell carcinomas. It can be hereditary or sporadic. The sporadic papillary renal cell carcinoma is characterized by trisomy of chromosomes 7, 16, and 17, and loss of chromosome Y. The peak incidence is in the sixth and seven decades. It is classified as type 1 or 2, based on the cytoplasmic volume and the thickness of the lining neoplastic cells. The prognosis is more favorable than for conventional (clear cell) renal cell carcinoma.", + "Papillary, NOS": "A morphologic finding indicating the presence of a cellular infiltrate with papillary growth in a tissue sample.", + "Solid": "A microscopic finding indicating that the neoplastic cells are arranged in solid sheets in a tumor sample.", + "Tubular": "A morphological appearance characteristic of neoplasms which arise from the glandular or ductal (or both) epithelium, consisting of glandular or ductal neoplastic proliferations forming small tubules with a lumen lined by neoplastic cells." + } + }, + "necrosis_percent": { + "column_description": "A quantitative measurement of the percent of cells undergoing necrosis compared to the number of total cells present in a sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "necrosis_present": { + "column_description": "Indicator describing whether the presence of necrosis was confirmed.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "", + "No": "", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "non_nodal_regional_disease": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe whether the patient had non-nodal regional disease.", + "value_data": { + "Absent": "", + "Indeterminate": "", + "Present": "A finding of abnormality following an examination or observation confirming something, such as the presence of a disease, condition, or microorganism.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "non_nodal_tumor_deposits": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe the presence of tumor deposits in the pericolic or perirectal fat or in adjacent mesentery away from the leading edge of the tumor.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "number_proliferating_cells": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the count of proliferating cells determined during pathologic review of the sample slide(s).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_tumor_invasion": { + "column_description": "The percentage of tumor cells spread locally in a malignant neoplasm through infiltration or destruction of adjacent tissue.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_tumor_nuclei": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the percentage of tumor nuclei in a malignant neoplasm sample or specimen.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "perineural_invasion_present": { + "column_description": "a yes/no indicator to ask if perineural invasion or infiltration of tumor or cancer is present.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "peripancreatic_lymph_nodes_positive": { + "column_description": "Enumerated numeric value or range of values used to describe the number of peripancreatic lymph nodes determined to be positive.", + "value_data": { + "0": "A mathematical element that when added to another number yields the same number; the cardinal number meaning one less than one.", + "1-3": "An indication that cancer cells have been detected in one, two or three lymph nodes.", + "4 or More": "An indication that cancer cells have been detected in four or more lymph nodes.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "peripancreatic_lymph_nodes_tested": { + "column_description": "The total number of peripancreatic lymph nodes tested for the presence of pancreatic cancer cells.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "prostatic_chips_positive_count": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the number of positive prostatic chips, which are generated from transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) procedures and are generally used for relieving urinary obstruction due to nodular hyperplasia of the prostate (benign prostatic hyperplasia).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "prostatic_chips_total_count": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the total number of prostatic chips, which are generated from transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) procedures and are generally used for relieving urinary obstruction due to nodular hyperplasia of the prostate (benign prostatic hyperplasia).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "prostatic_involvement_percent": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the percentage of prostatic involvement found in a specific tissue sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "residual_tumor": { + "column_description": "Tumor cells that remain in the body following cancer treatment.", + "value_data": { + "R0": "", + "R1": "", + "R2": "", + "RX": "" + } + }, + "residual_tumor_measurement": { + "column_description": "A measurement of the tumor cells that remain in the body following cancer treatment.", + "value_data": { + "1-10 mm": "", + "11-20 mm": "", + ">20 mm": "", + "No macroscopic disease": "" + } + }, + "rhabdoid_percent": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the percentage of rhabdoid features found in a specific tissue sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "rhabdoid_present": { + "column_description": "Indicator describing whether rhabdoid features were present.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "", + "No": "", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "sarcomatoid_percent": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the percentage of sarcomatoid features found in a specific tissue sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "sarcomatoid_present": { + "column_description": "Indicator describing whether sarcomatoid features were present.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "", + "No": "", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "size_extraocular_nodule": { + "column_description": "The size of the nodule that is outside the eye.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "spindle_cell_percent": { + "column_description": "The percent of uveal melanoma arising from the choroid, ciliary body, or the iris and characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped melanocytes.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "transglottic_extension": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe an extension of the tumor beyond the opening into the ventricles and vocal cords.", + "value_data": { + "Absent": "", + "Present": "Extension of a laryngeal tumor beyond the glottic opening into the ventricles and vocal cords.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "tumor_depth_descriptor": { + "column_description": "Text term for the degree to which a tumor has penetrated into organ or tissue.", + "value_data": { + "Deep": "Extending relatively far inward.", + "Superficial": "Of little substance or significance; involving only a surface.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "tumor_depth_measurement": { + "column_description": "The numerical measurement of tumor depth.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tumor_infiltrating_lymphocytes": { + "column_description": "Lymphocytes that show specificity for autologous tumor cells and can infiltrate a tumor.", + "value_data": { + "Few": "An indefinite but relatively small number.", + "Many": "An indefinite large quantity that is considered to be greater than several.", + "Moderate": "The quality of being within reasonable or average limits; not excessive or extreme." + } + }, + "tumor_infiltrating_macrophages": { + "column_description": "Non-neoplastic macrophages that infiltrate a tumor.", + "value_data": { + "Few": "An indefinite but relatively small number.", + "Many": "An indefinite large quantity that is considered to be greater than several.", + "Moderate": "The quality of being within reasonable or average limits; not excessive or extreme." + } + }, + "tumor_largest_dimension_diameter": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the maximum diameter or dimension of the primary tumor, measured in centimeters.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tumor_length_measurement": { + "column_description": "The numerical measurement of tumor length.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tumor_level_prostate": { + "column_description": "The level(s) of the prostate from which the tumor originated.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tumor_shape": { + "column_description": "Text term to represent the description of the shape of a tumor determined by clinical or pathological techniques.", + "value_data": { + "Diffuse": "Widely spread; not localized or confined.", + "Dome": "A lesion having the shape of a dome.", + "Mushroom": "A lesion having the shape of a mushroom.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "tumor_thickness": { + "column_description": "A measurement of the thickness of a sectioned slice (of tissue or mineral or other substance) in millimeters (mm).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tumor_width_measurement": { + "column_description": "The numerical measurement of tumor width.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "vascular_invasion_present": { + "column_description": "The yes/no indicator to ask if large vessel or venous invasion was detected by surgery or presence in a tumor specimen.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "vascular_invasion_type": { + "column_description": "Text term that represents the type of vascular tumor invasion.", + "value_data": { + "Extramural": "", + "Intramural": "", + "Macro": "", + "Micro": "", + "No Vascular Invasion": "An indication that signs of vascular invasion have not been found in a sample.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "zone_of_origin_prostate": { + "column_description": "The location or position of the tumor by zone of the prostate.", + "value_data": { + "Central zone": "", + "Overlapping/multiple zones": "", + "Peripheral zone": "", + "Transition zone": "", + "Unknown zone": "" + } + }, + "diagnoses": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "average_base_quality": { + "column_description": "Average base quality collected from samtools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "average_insert_size": { + "column_description": "Average insert size collected from samtools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "average_read_length": { + "column_description": "Average read length collected from samtools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "contamination": { + "column_description": "Fraction of reads coming from cross-sample contamination collected from GATK4.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "contamination_error": { + "column_description": "Estimation error of cross-sample contamination collected from GATK4.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "mean_coverage": { + "column_description": "Mean coverage for whole genome sequencing, or mean target coverage for whole exome and targeted sequencing, collected from Picard Tools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "msi_score": { + "column_description": "Numeric score denoting the aligned reads file's MSI score from MSIsensor.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "msi_status": { + "column_description": "MSIsensor determination of either microsatellite stability or instability.", + "value_data": { + "MSI": "", + "MSS": "" + } + }, + "pairs_on_diff_chr": { + "column_description": "Pairs on different chromosomes collected from samtools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "proportion_base_mismatch": { + "column_description": "Proportion of mismatched bases collected from samtools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "proportion_coverage_10x": { + "column_description": "Proportion of all reference bases for whole genome sequencing, or targeted bases for whole exome and targeted sequencing, that achieves 10X or greater coverage from Picard Tools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "proportion_coverage_30x": { + "column_description": "Proportion of all reference bases for whole genome sequencing, or targeted bases for whole exome and targeted sequencing, that achieves 30X or greater coverage from Picard Tools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "proportion_reads_duplicated": { + "column_description": "Proportion of duplicated reads collected from samtools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "proportion_reads_mapped": { + "column_description": "Proportion of mapped reads collected from samtools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "proportion_targets_no_coverage": { + "column_description": "Proportion of targets that did not reach 1X coverage over any base from Picard Tools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "total_reads": { + "column_description": "Total number of reads collected from samtools.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tumor_ploidy": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the number of sets of chromosomes in a cell or an organism. For example, haploid means one set and diploid means two sets.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tumor_purity": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the ratio of tumor cells compared to total cells present in a sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "wgs_coverage": { + "column_description": "Range of coverage values for WGS aligned reads. Each range is non-inclusive to the lower bound.", + "value_data": { + "0x-10x": "", + "10x-25x": "", + "25x-150x": "", + "150x+": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context." + } + }, + "alignment_cocleaning_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "alignment_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "submitted_unaligned_reads_files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "submitted_aligned_reads_files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "name": { + "column_description": "name of this tag", + "value_data": { + "aliquot": "", + "allcnv": "", + "alleleSpecificCN": "", + "analyte": "", + "auxiliary": "", + "B_Allele_Freq": "", + "batch_effect_removed": "", + "BioSizing": "", + "bisulfite": "", + "byallele": "", + "cgh": "", + "cnv": "", + "control": "", + "cov": "", + "coverage": "", + "cqcf": "", + "Delta_B_Allele_Freq": "", + "DGE": "", + "diagnostic_slides": "", + "drug": "", + "exon": "Exon number targeted or included in a molecular analysis. If a specific genetic variant is being reported, this property can be used to capture the exon where that variant is located.", + "FIRMA": "", + "follow_up": "", + "gene": "", + "Genotypes": "", + "germline": "", + "harmonized": "", + "hg18": "", + "hg19": "", + "hpv": "", + "image": "", + "indel": "", + "ismpolish": "", + "isoform": "", + "junction": "", + "LOH": "", + "lowess_normalized_smoothed": "", + "meth": "", + "miRNA": "", + "MSI": "", + "msi": "", + "nocnv": "", + "Normal_LogR": "", + "normalized": "", + "nte": "", + "omf": "", + "OptionAnalysisPipeline2": "", + "original": "", + "Paired_LogR": "", + "pairedcn": "", + "patient": "", + "PilotAnalysisPipeline2": "", + "portion": "", + "protocol": "", + "QA": "", + "qc": "", + "radiation": "", + "raw": "", + "sample": "", + "seg": "", + "segmented": "", + "segmentation": "", + "segnormal": "", + "sif": "", + "slide": "", + "snv": "", + "somatic": "", + "sv": "", + "summary": "", + "Tag": "", + "tangent": "", + "tr": "", + "unnormalized": "", + "Unpaired_LogR": "", + "v1": "", + "v2": "" + } + }, + "dbgap_accession_number": { + "column_description": "The dbgap accession number for the project.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "aids_risk_factors": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe a risk factor of the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) that the patient either had at time time of the study or experienced in the past.", + "value_data": { + "Candidiasis": "", + "Coccidioidomycosis": "", + "Cryptococcosis": "", + "Cryptosporidiosis, Chronic Intestinal": "", + "Cytomegalovirus": "", + "Encephalopathy": "", + "Herpes Simplex Virus": "", + "Histoplasmosis": "", + "Isosporiasis": "", + "Mycobacterium avium Complex": "", + "Mycobacterium tuberculosis": "", + "Mycobacterium, NOS": "", + "Nocardiosis": "", + "Pneumocystis Pneumonia": "", + "Pneumonia, NOS": "", + "Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy": "", + "Salmonella Septicemia": "", + "Toxoplasmosis": "", + "Wasting Syndrome": "" + } + }, + "bmi": { + "column_description": "A calculated numerical quantity that represents an individual's weight to height ratio.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "body_surface_area": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to represent the 2-dimensional extent of the body surface relating height to weight.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "cd4_count": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the outcome of the procedure to determine the amount of the CD4 expressing cells in a sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "cdc_hiv_risk_factors": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe a risk factor for human immunodeficiency virus, as described by the Center for Disease Control.", + "value_data": { + "Hemophiliac": "", + "Heterosexual Contact": "", + "Homosexual Contact": "", + "Intravenous Drug User": "", + "None": "No person or thing, nobody, not any.", + "Transfusion Recipient": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "comorbidities": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe a comorbidity disease, which coexists with the patient's malignant disease.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "comorbidity_method_of_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the method used to diagnose the patient's comorbidity disease.", + "value_data": { + "Histology": "", + "Pathology": "", + "Radiology": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "days_to_comorbidity": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "diabetes_treatment_type": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the types of treatment used to manage diabetes.", + "value_data": { + "Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitor": "", + "Biguanide": "", + "Diet": "", + "Injected Insulin": "", + "Insulin": "", + "Linagliptin": "", + "Oral Hypoglycemic": "", + "Sulfonylurea": "", + "Thiazolidinedione": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "dlco_ref_predictive_percent": { + "column_description": "The value, as a percentage of predicted lung volume, measuring the amount of carbon monoxide detected in a patient's lungs.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "exercise_frequency_weekly": { + "column_description": "Text term that indicates the number of days that exercise occurred in the past seven days.", + "value_data": { + "5 or More Days": "", + "3 to 4 Days": "", + "1 to 2 Days": "", + "None": "No person or thing, nobody, not any." + } + }, + "eye_color": { + "column_description": "The color of the iris of the eye", + "value_data": { + "Amber": "", + "Blue": "", + "Brown": "", + "Gray": "", + "Green": "", + "Hazel": "", + "Red & Violet": "", + "Other": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "fev1_fvc_post_bronch_percent": { + "column_description": "Percentage value to represent result of Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1) divided by the Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) post-bronchodilator.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "fev1_fvc_pre_bronch_percent": { + "column_description": "Percentage value to represent result of Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1) divided by the Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) pre-bronchodilator.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "fev1_ref_post_bronch_percent": { + "column_description": "The percentage comparison to a normal value reference range of the volume of air that a patient can forcibly exhale from the lungs in one second post-bronchodilator.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "fev1_ref_pre_bronch_percent": { + "column_description": "The percentage comparison to a normal value reference range of the volume of air that a patient can forcibly exhale from the lungs in one second pre-bronchodilator.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "haart_treatment_indicator": { + "column_description": "The text term used to indicate whether the patient received Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART).", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "height": { + "column_description": "The height of the patient in centimeters.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "hepatitis_sustained_virological_response": { + "column_description": "An indication as to whether sustained virological response was obtained in responses to viral hepatitis treatment.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "hiv_viral_load": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the concentration of an analyte or aliquot extracted from the sample or sample portion, measured in milligrams per milliliter.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "hormonal_contraceptive_type": { + "column_description": "The specific type of hormonal contraceptives used by the subject.", + "value_data": { + "Progestin": "", + "Progestin and Estrogen": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "hormonal_contraceptive_use": { + "column_description": "The text term used to indicate whether the patient used hormonal contraceptives.", + "value_data": { + "Current User": "", + "Former User": "", + "Never Used": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "hormone_replacement_therapy_type": { + "column_description": "The specific type of hormone replacement therapy received by the patient.", + "value_data": { + "Estrogen only": "", + "Progesterone and Estrogen": "", + "Progesterone only": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "hysterectomy_margins_involved": { + "column_description": "The text term used to indicate whether the patient's disease was determined to be involved based on the surgical margins of the hysterectomy.", + "value_data": { + "Bladder": "", + "Macroscopic Parametrium": "", + "Microscopic Parametrium": "", + "None": "No person or thing, nobody, not any.", + "Vagina": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "hysterectomy_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of hysterectomy the patient had.", + "value_data": { + "Hysterectomy, NOS": "", + "Not performed": "", + "Radical Hysterectomy": "", + "Simple Hysterectomy": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "immunosuppressive_treatment_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of immunosuppresive treatment the patient received.", + "value_data": { + "Anti-TNF Therapy": "", + "Azathioprine": "", + "Cyclophosphamide": "", + "Methotrexate": "", + "None": "No person or thing, nobody, not any.", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "menopause_status": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the patient's menopause status.", + "value_data": { + "Perimenopausal": "", + "Postmenopausal": "", + "Premenopausal": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "myasthenia_gravis_classification": { + "column_description": "A finding associated with a patient with myasthenia gravis that is based on the classification system developed by the Myasthenia Gravis Foundation of America (MGFA) for grading myasthenia gravis that divides the disease into 5 main classes and several subclasses.", + "value_data": { + "Class I": "Myasthenia gravis presenting with any ocular weakness; may have weakness of eye closure. All other muscles strength is normal.", + "Class II": "Myasthenia gravis presenting with mild weakness affecting non-ocular muscles. May also have ocular muscle weakness of any severity.", + "Class III": "Myasthenia gravis presenting with moderate weakness affecting non-ocular muscles. May also have ocular muscle weakness of any severity.", + "Class IV": "Myasthenia gravis presenting with severe weakness affecting non-ocular muscles. May also have ocular muscle weakness of any severity.", + "Class V": "Myasthenia gravis presenting with severe muscle weakness that requires intubation, with or without mechanical ventilation, except when employed during routine postoperative management." + } + }, + "nadir_cd4_count": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the lowest point to which the CD4 count has dropped (nadir).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "nononcologic_therapeutic_agents": { + "column_description": "Text identification of the individual agent(s) used as part of a treatment regimen not related to an oncologic disease.", + "value_data": { + "Acetaminophen": "A p-aminophenol derivative with analgesic and antipyretic activities. Although the exact mechanism through which acetaminophen exert its effects has yet to be fully determined, acetaminophen may inhibit the nitric oxide (NO) pathway mediated by a variety of neurotransmitter receptors including N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) and substance P, resulting in elevation of the pain threshold. The antipyretic activity may result from inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis and release in the central nervous system (CNS) and prostaglandin-mediated effects on the heat-regulating center in the anterior hypothalamus.", + "Aspirin": "An orally administered non-steroidal antiinflammatory agent. Acetylsalicylic acid binds to and acetylates serine residues in cyclooxygenases, resulting in decreased synthesis of prostaglandin, platelet aggregation, and inflammation. This agent exhibits analgesic, antipyretic, and anticoagulant properties.", + "Metformin": "An agent belonging to the biguanide class of antidiabetics with antihyperglycemic activity. Metformin is associated with a very low incidence of lactic acidosis. This agent helps reduce LDL cholesterol and triglyceride levels, and is not associated with weight gain, and prevents the cardiovascular complications of diabetes. Metformin is not metabolized and is excreted unchanged by the kidneys.", + "Statin, NOS": "" + } + }, + "oxygen_use_indicator": { + "column_description": "An indication whether administration of oxygen to an individual occurred.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "oxygen_use_type": { + "column_description": "Text term to describe the type of oxygen the patient uses at home.", + "value_data": { + "Continuous": "Remain in force or carry on without letup; keep or maintain in unaltered condition; exist in time or space without stop or interruption.", + "Intermittent": "Periodically stopping and starting." + } + }, + "pancreatitis_onset_year": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the year that the patient was diagnosed with clinical chronic pancreatitis.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "pregnancy_count": { + "column_description": "The number of times an individual has become pregnant.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "pregnancy_outcome": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of pregnancy the patient had.", + "value_data": { + "Ectopic Pregnancy": "", + "Induced Abortion": "", + "Live Birth": "", + "Miscarriage": "", + "Spontaneous Abortion": "", + "Stillbirth": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "pregnant_at_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "The text term used to indicate whether the patient was pregnant at the time they were diagnosed.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "premature_at_birth": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether the patient was premature (less than 37 weeks gestation) at birth.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "reflux_treatment_type": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the types of treatment used to manage gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).", + "value_data": { + "Antacids": "", + "H2 Blockers": "", + "Medically Treated": "", + "No Treatment": "", + "Proton Pump Inhibitors": "", + "Surgically Treated": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context." + } + }, + "risk_factor_method_of_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "The clinical or laboratory procedure(s) used in the determination of a diagnosis described in this context as a risk factor.", + "value_data": { + "Biochemical Assessment": "", + "Both Clinical and Biochemical Assessments": "", + "Clinical Assessment": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "risk_factor_treatment": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether the patient received treatment for a risk factor the patient had at the time of or prior to their diagnosis.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "risk_factors": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe a risk factor the patient had at the time of or prior to their diagnosis.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "timepoint_category": { + "column_description": "Category describing a specific point in the time continuum, including those established relative to an event.", + "value_data": { + "Adjuvant Therapy": "", + "Adolescence": "", + "Adulthood": "", + "Childhood": "", + "Follow-up": "", + "Initial Diagnosis": "", + "Last Contact": "", + "Post Adjuvant Therapy": "", + "Post Hormone Therapy": "", + "Post Secondary Therapy": "", + "Postoperative": "", + "Preoperative": "", + "Prior to Diagnosis": "", + "Prior to Treatment": "", + "Recurrence/Progression": "", + "Within 3 Months of Surgery": "", + "Other": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "treatment_frequency": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the frequency the patient received an agent or regimen.", + "value_data": { + "Every Hour": "", + "Five Times Daily": "", + "Four Times Daily": "", + "Three Times Daily": "", + "Twice Daily": "", + "Every 24 Hours": "", + "Every Other Day": "", + "Twice Weekly": "", + "Once Weekly": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "undescended_testis_corrected": { + "column_description": "Indicates whether the patient's undescended testis was corrected.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "undescended_testis_corrected_age": { + "column_description": "The patient's age when their undescended testis was corrected.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "undescended_testis_corrected_laterality": { + "column_description": "Describes the lateral location of the patient's undescended testis correction.", + "value_data": { + "Bilateral": "", + "Left": "", + "Right": "", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "undescended_testis_corrected_method": { + "column_description": "Describes the method used to correct the patient's undescended testis.", + "value_data": { + "Hormones": "", + "Orchiopexy": "", + "Spontaneous Descent": "", + "Testis Removed": "", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "undescended_testis_history": { + "column_description": "The persistent failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "undescended_testis_history_laterality": { + "column_description": "Describes the lateral location of the patient's undescended testis.", + "value_data": { + "Bilateral": "", + "Left": "", + "Right": "", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "viral_hepatitis_serologies": { + "column_description": "Text term that describes the kind of serological laboratory test used to determine the patient's hepatitis status.", + "value_data": { + "HBV Core Antibody": "", + "HBV DNA": "", + "HBV Genotype": "", + "HBV Surface Antibody": "", + "HCV Genotype": "", + "Hepatitis B Surface Antigen": "", + "Hepatitis C Antibody": "", + "Hepatitis C Virus RNA": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "weeks_gestation_at_birth": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the number of weeks starting from the approximate date of the biological mother's last menstrual period and ending with the birth of the patient.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "weight": { + "column_description": "The weight of the patient measured in kilograms.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "cases": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "follow_ups": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "adapter_content": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "basic_statistics": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "encoding": { + "column_description": "Version of ASCII encoding of quality values found in the file.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "fastq_name": { + "column_description": "The name (or part of a name) of a file (of any type).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "kmer_content": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "overrepresented_sequences": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "per_base_sequence_quality": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "per_tile_sequence_quality": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "per_sequence_quality_score": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "per_base_sequence_content": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "per_sequence_gc_content": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "per_base_n_content": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "percent_gc_content": { + "column_description": "The overall %GC of all bases in all sequences.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "sequence_length_distribution": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "sequence_duplication_levels": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": { + "FAIL": "", + "PASS": "", + "WARN": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "total_sequences": { + "column_description": "A count of the total number of sequences processed.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "read_groups": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "aliquot_quantity": { + "column_description": "The quantity in micrograms (ug) of the aliquot(s) derived from the analyte(s) shipped for sequencing and characterization.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "aliquot_volume": { + "column_description": "The volume in microliters (ul) of the aliquot(s) derived from the analyte(s) shipped for sequencing and characterization.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "no_matched_normal_low_pass_wgs": { + "column_description": "There will be no matched normal low pass WGS aliquots for this case that can be used for variant calling purposes. The GDC may elect to use a single tumor calling pipeline to process this data.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "no_matched_normal_targeted_sequencing": { + "column_description": "There will be no matched normal Targeted Sequencing aliquots for this case that can be used for variant calling purposes. The GDC may elect to use a single tumor calling pipeline to process this data.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "no_matched_normal_wgs": { + "column_description": "There will be no matched normal WGS aliquots for this case that can be used for variant calling purposes. The GDC may elect to use a single tumor calling pipeline to process this data.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "no_matched_normal_wxs": { + "column_description": "There will be no matched normal WXS aliquots for this case that can be used for variant calling purposes. The GDC may elect to use a single tumor calling pipeline to process this data.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "source_center": { + "column_description": "Name of the center that provided the item.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "selected_normal_wxs": { + "column_description": "Denotes which WXS normal aliquot the submitter prefers to use for variant calling. Only one normal per experimental strategy per case can be selected.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "selected_normal_wgs": { + "column_description": "Denotes which WGS normal aliquot the submitter prefers to use for variant calling. Only one normal per experimental strategy per case can be selected.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "selected_normal_targeted_sequencing": { + "column_description": "Denotes which targeted_sequencing normal aliquot the submitter prefers to use for variant calling. Only one normal per experimental strategy per case can be selected.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "selected_normal_low_pass_wgs": { + "column_description": "Denotes which low-pass WGS normal aliquot the submitter prefers to use for variant calling. Only one normal per experimental strategy per case can be selected.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "analytes": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "centers": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "submitted_genomic_profiles": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "copy_number_liftover_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "revision": { + "column_description": "The revision of this archive in the DCC.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "projects": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "related_to_files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "somatic_mutation_calling_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "submitted_methylation_beta_values": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "awg_review": { + "column_description": "Indicates that the project is an AWG project.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "code": { + "column_description": "Numeric code for the center.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "disease_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of malignant disease, as categorized by the World Health Organization's (WHO) International Classification of Diseases for Oncology (ICD-O).", + "value_data": { + "Acinar Cell Neoplasms": "", + "Adenomas and Adenocarcinomas": "", + "Adnexal and Skin Appendage Neoplasms": "", + "Basal Cell Neoplasms": "", + "Blood Vessel Tumors": "", + "Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders": "", + "Complex Epithelial Neoplasms": "", + "Complex Mixed and Stromal Neoplasms": "", + "Cystic, Mucinous and Serous Neoplasms": "", + "Ductal and Lobular Neoplasms": "", + "Epithelial Neoplasms, NOS": "", + "Fibroepithelial Neoplasms": "", + "Fibromatous Neoplasms": "", + "Germ Cell Neoplasms": "", + "Giant Cell Tumors": "", + "Gliomas": "", + "Granular Cell Tumors and Alveolar Soft Part Sarcomas": "", + "Hodgkin Lymphoma": "", + "Immunoproliferative Diseases": "", + "Leukemias, NOS": "", + "Lipomatous Neoplasms": "", + "Lymphatic Vessel Tumors": "", + "Lymphoid Leukemias": "", + "Malignant Lymphomas, NOS or Diffuse": "", + "Mast Cell Tumors": "", + "Mature B-Cell Lymphomas": "", + "Mature T- and NK-Cell Lymphomas": "", + "Meningiomas": "", + "Mesonephromas": "", + "Mesothelial Neoplasms": "", + "Miscellaneous Bone Tumors": "", + "Miscellaneous Tumors": "", + "Mucoepidermoid Neoplasms": "", + "Myelodysplastic Syndromes": "", + "Myeloid Leukemias": "", + "Myomatous Neoplasms": "", + "Myxomatous Neoplasms": "", + "Neoplasms of Histiocytes and Accessory Lymphoid Cells": "", + "Neoplasms, NOS": "", + "Nerve Sheath Tumors": "", + "Neuroepitheliomatous Neoplasms": "", + "Nevi and Melanomas": "", + "Odontogenic Tumors": "", + "Osseous and Chondromatous Neoplasms": "", + "Other Hematologic Disorders": "", + "Other Leukemias": "", + "Paragangliomas and Glomus Tumors": "", + "Plasma Cell Tumors": "", + "Precursor Cell Lymphoblastic Lymphoma": "", + "Soft Tissue Tumors and Sarcomas, NOS": "", + "Specialized Gonadal Neoplasms": "", + "Squamous Cell Neoplasms": "", + "Synovial-like Neoplasms": "", + "Thymic Epithelial Neoplasms": "", + "Transitional Cell Papillomas and Carcinomas": "", + "Trophoblastic neoplasms": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context." + } + }, + "intended_release_date": { + "column_description": "Tracks a Project's intended release date.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "in_review": { + "column_description": "Indicates that the project is under review by the submitter. Upload and data modification is disabled.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "is_legacy": { + "column_description": "Indicates whether a project will appear in the Legacy Archive.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "primary_site": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the primary site of disease, as categorized by the World Health Organization's (WHO) International Classification of Diseases for Oncology (ICD-O). This categorization groups cases into general categories. Reference tissue_or_organ_of_origin on the diagnosis node for more specific primary sites of disease.", + "value_data": { + "Accessory sinuses": "", + "Adrenal gland": "", + "Anus and anal canal": "", + "Base of tongue": "", + "Bladder": "", + "Bones, joints and articular cartilage of limbs": "", + "Bones, joints and articular cartilage of other and unspecified sites": "", + "Brain": "", + "Breast": "", + "Bronchus and lung": "", + "Cervix uteri": "", + "Colon": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues": "", + "Corpus uteri": "", + "Esophagus": "", + "Eye and adnexa": "", + "Floor of mouth": "", + "Gallbladder": "", + "Gum": "", + "Heart, mediastinum, and pleura": "", + "Hematopoietic and reticuloendothelial systems": "", + "Hypopharynx": "", + "Kidney": "", + "Larynx": "", + "Lip": "", + "Liver and intrahepatic bile ducts": "", + "Lymph nodes": "", + "Meninges": "", + "Nasal cavity and middle ear": "", + "Nasopharynx": "", + "Oropharynx": "", + "Other and ill-defined digestive organs": "", + "Other and ill-defined sites": "", + "Other and ill-defined sites in lip, oral cavity and pharynx": "", + "Other and ill-defined sites within respiratory system and intrathoracic organs": "", + "Other and unspecified female genital organs": "", + "Other and unspecified major salivary glands": "", + "Other and unspecified male genital organs": "", + "Other and unspecified parts of biliary tract": "", + "Other and unspecified parts of mouth": "", + "Other and unspecified parts of tongue": "", + "Other and unspecified urinary organs": "", + "Other endocrine glands and related structures": "", + "Ovary": "", + "Palate": "", + "Pancreas": "", + "Parotid gland": "", + "Penis": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system": "", + "Placenta": "", + "Prostate gland": "", + "Pyriform sinus": "", + "Rectosigmoid junction": "", + "Rectum": "", + "Renal pelvis": "", + "Retroperitoneum and peritoneum": "", + "Skin": "", + "Small intestine": "", + "Spinal cord, cranial nerves, and other parts of central nervous system": "", + "Stomach": "", + "Testis": "", + "Thymus": "", + "Thyroid gland": "", + "Tonsil": "", + "Trachea": "", + "Ureter": "", + "Uterus, NOS": "", + "Vagina": "", + "Vulva": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context." + } + }, + "release_requested": { + "column_description": "User requests that the GDC release the project. Release can only be requested if the project is releasable.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "released": { + "column_description": "Indicates if it is the current release.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "releasable": { + "column_description": "A project can only be released by the user when `releasable` is true.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "request_submission": { + "column_description": "Indicates that the user has requested submission to the GDC for harmonization.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "submission_enabled": { + "column_description": "Indicates if submission to a project is allowed.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "programs": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "consent_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of consent obtain from the subject for participation in the study.", + "value_data": { + "Consent by Death": "", + "Consent Exemption": "", + "Consent Waiver": "", + "Informed Consent": "" + } + }, + "days_to_consent": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date the subject consent was obtained for participation in the study.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_lost_to_followup": { + "column_description": "The number of days between the date used for index and to the date the patient was lost to follow-up.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "index_date": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the reference or anchor date used when for date obfuscation, where a single date is obscurred by creating one or more date ranges in relation to this date.", + "value_data": { + "Diagnosis": "", + "First Patient Visit": "", + "First Treatment": "", + "Initial Genomic Sequencing": "", + "Recurrence": "", + "Sample Procurement": "", + "Study Enrollment": "" + } + }, + "lost_to_followup": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether a patient was unable to be contacted or seen for follow-up information.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "tissue_source_sites": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "schema_version": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "simple_somatic_mutations": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "structural_variant_calling_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "expression_analysis_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "read_pair_number": { + "column_description": "Denotes whether a submitted FASTQ file contains forward (R1) or reverse (R2) reads for paired-end sequencing.", + "value_data": { + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context.", + "R1": "", + "R2": "", + "R3": "" + } + }, + "imaging_date": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "magnification": { + "column_description": "Magnification used to capture the image.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "stain_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of stain used on a slide.", + "value_data": { + "Haemotoxylin and Eosin (H&E)": "", + "Immunohistochemistry (IHC)": "" + } + }, + "slides": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "data_types": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "aliquots": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "annotated_somatic_mutations": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "structural_variations": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "copy_number_segments": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "archives": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "rna_expression_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "chemo_concurrent_to_radiation": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe whether the patient was receiving chemotherapy concurrent to radiation.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "clinical_trial_indicator": { + "column_description": "Indicator used to describe whether the treatment was part of a clinical trial.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "course_number": { + "column_description": "The number assigned to a course of therapeutic agent administration, indicating where a particular course of treatment falls within a sequence of treatments.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_treatment_end": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date the treatment ended.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_treatment_start": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date the treatment started.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "drug_category": { + "column_description": "A broad categorization of the type of drug administered.", + "value_data": { + "Glucocorticoid": "", + "Growth factor": "", + "PARP inhibitor": "" + } + }, + "embolic_agent": { + "column_description": "A substance used to block an artery, thereby eliminating the blood flow to a specific part of an organ. An embolic agent may cause permanent or temporary blockage depending on the nature of the material used.", + "value_data": { + "Gelfoam": "", + "Lipiodol": "", + "Plastic Beads": "", + "PVA Particles": "", + "Spherical Particles": "", + "Y-90 Sirsphere": "", + "Y-90 Therasphere": "", + "Other": "" + } + }, + "initial_disease_status": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the status of the patient's malignancy when the treatment began.", + "value_data": { + "Initial Diagnosis": "", + "Persistent Disease": "", + "Progressive Disease": "", + "Recurrent Disease": "", + "Refractory Disease": "", + "Residual Disease": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "lesions_treated_number": { + "column_description": "The number of lesions treated.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "number_of_cycles": { + "column_description": "The numeric value used to describe the number of cycles of a specific treatment or regimen the patient received.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "number_of_fractions": { + "column_description": "The total number of divided radiation doses received.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "prescribed_dose": { + "column_description": "A quantity of an agent prescribed to the study participant.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "protocol_identifier": { + "column_description": "A sequence of letters, numbers, or other characters that uniquely identifies a study protocol.", + "value_data": { + "321P2": "", + "321P3": "", + "323P": "", + "901": "", + "911": "", + "914": "", + "925": "", + "935": "", + "937": "", + "3881": "", + "3891": "", + "4941": "", + "8605": "", + "9047": "", + "9082": "", + "9340": "", + "9341": "", + "9342": "", + "9343": "", + "9464": "", + "9640": "", + "9906": "", + "A3961": "", + "A3973": "", + "A081105": "", + "A081801": "", + "AADM01P1": "", + "AALL03B1": "", + "AALL07P4": "", + "AALL08P1": "", + "AALL0031": "", + "AALL0232": "", + "AALL0331": "", + "AALL0434": "", + "AALL1131": "", + "AAML00P2": "", + "AAML03P1": "", + "AAML0531": "", + "AAML0631": "", + "AAML1031": "", + "AB9804": "", + "ACCL05C1": "", + "ACCL0331": "", + "ACCL0431": "", + "ACCL0934": "", + "ACCL1031": "", + "ADVL06B1": "", + "ADVL0018": "", + "ADVL0212": "", + "ADVL0214": "", + "ADVL0215": "", + "ADVL0421": "", + "ADVL0524": "", + "ADVL0525": "", + "ADVL0714": "", + "ADVL0812": "", + "ADVL0813": "", + "ADVL0821": "", + "ADVL0911": "", + "ADVL0912": "", + "ADVL0918": "", + "ADVL0921": "", + "ADVL1011": "", + "ADVL1111": "", + "ADVL1112": "", + "ADVL1115": "", + "ADVL1213": "", + "ADVL1412": "", + "AEPI07N1": "", + "ALTE03N1": "", + "ALTE05N1": "", + "ANBL00B1": "", + "ANBL00P1": "", + "ANBL00P3": "", + "ANBL02P1": "", + "ANBL09P1": "", + "ANBL0032": "", + "ANBL0321": "", + "ANBL0322": "", + "ANBL0421": "", + "ANBL0531": "", + "ANBL0532": "", + "ANBL0621": "", + "ANBL0931": "", + "ANBL1021": "", + "ANBL1221": "", + "ANUR1131": "", + "AOST06B1": "", + "AOST06P1": "", + "AOST0121": "", + "AOST0331": "", + "AREN03B2": "", + "B003": "", + "B903": "", + "B947": "", + "B954": "", + "B973": "", + "BCM": "", + "CCG2961": "", + "D9902": "", + "E04": "", + "E18": "", + "E4512": "", + "EA5142": "", + "GBCTTO/99": "", + "GLATO 2006": "", + "I03": "", + "IHRT": "", + "INT-0133": "", + "N891": "", + "NWTS-4": "", + "NWTS-5": "", + "Not Reported": "", + "OSTEO 2006": "", + "P9407": "", + "P9462": "", + "P9641": "", + "P9754": "", + "P9851": "", + "P9906": "", + "P9963": "", + "R9702": "", + "S31": "", + "S921": "", + "STB": "" + } + }, + "radiosensitizing_agent": { + "column_description": "Indication if an agent that makes tumor cells more sensitive to radiation therapy was used in treatment.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "reason_treatment_ended": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the reason a specific treatment or regimen ended.", + "value_data": { + "Adverse Event": "", + "Course of Therapy Completed": "", + "Death": "", + "Disease Progression": "", + "Withdrawal by Subject": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned." + } + }, + "reason_treatment_not_given": { + "column_description": "The reason the treatment was not administered.", + "value_data": { + "Adverse Event/Complications": "", + "Not Done per Treating Physician's Discretion": "", + "Participant Refusal": "", + "Scheduling Problems": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "regimen_or_line_of_therapy": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the regimen or line of therapy.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "residual_disease": { + "column_description": "Tumor cells that remain in the body following cancer treatment.", + "value_data": { + "R0": "No detectable presence of residual tumor after treatment", + "R1": "Presence of microscopic residual tumor after treatment.", + "R2": "Presence of macroscopic residual tumor after treatment.", + "RX": "Presence of residual tumor after treatment cannot be assessed.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "route_of_administration": { + "column_description": "The pathway by which a substance is administered in order to reach the site of action in the body.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "therapeutic_agents": { + "column_description": "Text identification of the individual agent(s) used as part of a treatment regimen.", + "value_data": { + "2'-F-ara-deoxyuridine": "", + "2,6-Diaminopurine": "", + "2,6-Dimethoxyquinone": "", + "2-Deoxy-D-glucose": "", + "2-Ethylhydrazide": "", + "2-Fluoroadenine": "", + "2-Fluorofucose-containing SGN-2FF": "", + "2-Hydroxyestradiol": "", + "2-Hydroxyestrone": "", + "2-Hydroxyflutamide Depot": "", + "2-Hydroxyoleic Acid": "", + "2-Methoxyestradiol": "", + "2-Methoxyestradiol Nanocrystal Colloidal Dispersion": "", + "2-Methoxyestrone": "", + "2-O, 3-O Desulfated Heparin": "", + "3'-C-ethynylcytidine": "", + "3'-dA Phosphoramidate NUC-7738": "A phosphoramidate derivative of the monophosphate form of cordycepin (3'-deoxyadenosine; 3'-dA), an adenosine derivative first isolated from Cordyceps sinensis, with potential antineoplastic, antioxidant, and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon administration and cellular uptake of NUC-7738 by passive diffusion, cordycepin monophosphate (3'-dAMP) is converted into its active anti-cancer metabolite 3'-deoxyadenosine triphosphate (3'-dATP). 3'-dATP functions as a ribonucleoside analogue and competes with ATP during transcription. Therefore, this agent causes RNA synthesis inhibition, inhibits cellular proliferation, and induces apoptosis. Also, 3'-dAMP activates AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) and reduces mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) signaling. This prevents the hyperphosphorylation of the translation repressor protein 4E-BP1. This results in the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. mTOR, a serine/threonine kinase belonging to the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K)-related kinase (PIKK) family, plays an important role in the PI3K/AKT/mTOR signaling pathway that regulates cell growth and proliferation, and its expression or activity is frequently dysregulated in human cancers. Compared to cordycepin alone, the addition of the phosphoramidate moiety may overcome cancer resistance and allow for greater cytotoxicity as NUC-7738 does not require a nucleoside transporter for cellular uptake, is independent of enzymatic activation by adenosine kinase (AK) and is not susceptible to enzymatic degradation by adenosine deaminase (ADA). Altogether, this may help overcome cancer resistance to cordycepin.", + "4'-Iodo-4'-Deoxydoxorubicin": "", + "4-Nitroestrone 3-Methyl Ether": "", + "4-Thio-2-deoxycytidine": "", + "5-Aza-4'-thio-2'-deoxycytidine": "", + "5-Fluoro-2-Deoxycytidine": "", + "6-Phosphofructo-2-kinase/fructose-2,6-bisphosphatases Isoform 3 Inhibitor ACT-PFK-158": "", + "7-Cyanoquinocarcinol": "", + "7-Ethyl-10-Hydroxycamptothecin": "", + "7-Hydroxystaurosporine": "", + "8-Azaguanine": "", + "9-Ethyl 6-Mercaptopurine": "", + "9H-Purine-6Thio-98D": "", + "10-Deacetyltaxol": "", + "11C Topotecan": "", + "11D10 AluGel Anti-Idiotype Monoclonal Antibody": "", + "12-Allyldeoxoartemisinin": "", + "13-Deoxydoxorubicin": "", + "14C BMS-275183": "", + "17beta-Hydroxysteroid Dehydrogenase Type 5 Inhibitor ASP9521": "", + "A2A Receptor Antagonist EOS100850": "An orally bioavailable immune checkpoint inhibitor and antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, A2AR antagonist EOS100850 selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors, thereby blocking the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-lymphocytes, and stimulates a T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells. A2AR, a G protein-coupled receptor, is highly expressed on the cell surfaces of T-cells and, upon activation by adenosine, inhibits their proliferation and activation. Adenosine is often overproduced by cancer cells and plays a key role in immunosuppression.", + "Abagovomab": "", + "Abarelix": "", + "Abemaciclib": "", + "Abemaciclib Mesylate": "", + "Abexinostat": "", + "Abexinostat Tosylate": "", + "Abiraterone": "", + "Abiraterone Acetate": "", + "Abituzumab": "", + "Acai Berry Juice": "", + "Acalabrutinib": "", + "Acalisib": "", + "Aceglatone": "", + "Acetylcysteine": "", + "Acitretin": "", + "Acivicin": "", + "Aclacinomycin B": "", + "Aclarubicin": "", + "Acodazole": "", + "Acodazole Hydrochloride": "", + "Acolbifene Hydrochloride": "", + "Acridine": "", + "Acridine Carboxamide": "", + "Acronine": "", + "Actinium Ac 225 Lintuzumab": "", + "Actinium Ac 225-FPI-1434": "", + "Actinium Ac-225 Anti-PSMA Monoclonal Antibody J591": "", + "Actinomycin C2": "", + "Actinomycin C3": "", + "Actinomycin F1": "", + "Activin Type 2B Receptor Fc Fusion Protein STM 434": "", + "Acyclic Nucleoside Phosphonate Prodrug ABI-1968": "", + "Ad-RTS-hIL-12": "", + "Adagloxad Simolenin": "", + "Adavosertib": "", + "Adecatumumab": "", + "Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist AZD4635": "", + "Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist CS3005": "An orally bioavailable immune checkpoint inhibitor and antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, A2AR antagonist CS3005 selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents tumor-released adenosine from interacting with the A2A receptors, thereby blocking the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-lymphocytes, and stimulates a T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells. A2AR, a G protein-coupled receptor, is highly expressed on the cell surfaces of T-cells and, upon activation by adenosine, inhibits their proliferation and activation. Adenosine is often overproduced by cancer cells and plays a key role in immunosuppression.", + "Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist NIR178": "", + "Adenosine A2A Receptor Antagonist/Phosphodiesterase 10A PBF-999": "", + "Adenosine A2A/A2B Receptor Antagonist AB928": "", + "Adenosine A2B Receptor Antagonist PBF-1129": "", + "Adenovector-transduced AP1903-inducible MyD88/CD40-expressing Autologous PSMA-specific Prostate Cancer Vaccine BPX-201": "", + "Adenoviral Brachyury Vaccine ETBX-051": "", + "Adenoviral Cancer Vaccine PF-06936308": "", + "Adenoviral MUC1 Vaccine ETBX-061": "", + "Adenoviral PSA Vaccine ETBX-071": "", + "Adenoviral Transduced hIL-12-expressing Autologous Dendritic Cells INXN-3001 Plus Activator Ligand INXN-1001": "", + "Adenoviral Tumor-specific Neoantigen Priming Vaccine GAd-209-FSP": "", + "Adenoviral Tumor-specific Neoantigen Priming Vaccine GRT-C901": "", + "Adenovirus 5/F35-Human Guanylyl Cyclase C-PADRE": "A recombinant adenoviral serotype 5 (Ad5) in which the Ad5-based vector fiber is replaced by the fiber from the human B adenovirus serotype 35 (F35), encoding for the human guanylyl cyclase C (hGCC), and fused to the synthetic Pan DR epitope (PADRE), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon intramuscular administration of the Ad5/F35-hGCC-PADRE, the Ad5/F35 targets CD46, which is expressed widely on most tumor cells, and the virus is taken up by cells. Once inside the cells, the virus expresses hGCC. The expressed hGCC induces both humoral and cellular immune responses against tumor cells expressing the hGCC antigen. This results in the immune-mediated killing of tumor cells. The hGCC protein is normally restricted to intestinal epithelial cells but is overexpressed by metastatic colorectal tumors. PADRE is a helper T-lymphocyte epitope that is able to augment the magnitude and duration of the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response. The inclusion of the chimeric Ad5/F35 fiber increases viral uptake in cells through CD46.", + "Adenovirus Serotype 26-expressing HPV16 Vaccine JNJ-63682918": "A prime cancer vaccine comprised of a genetically engineered, replication-deficient adenovirus serotype 26 (Ad26) encoding the oncogenic human papillomavirus 16 (HPV16), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of Ad26-expressing HPV16 vaccine JNJ-63682918, the adenovirus infects and expresses HPV16. The expressed proteins stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing HPV16 antigens, thereby inducing tumor cell lysis. HPV16 infection plays a key role in the development of a variety of cancers.", + "Adenovirus Serotype 26-expressing HPV18 Vaccine JNJ-63682931": "A prime cancer vaccine comprised of a genetically engineered, replication-deficient adenovirus serotype 26 (Ad26) encoding the oncogenic human papillomavirus 18 (HPV18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of Ad26-expressing HPV18 vaccine JNJ-63682931, the adenovirus infects and expresses HPV18. The expressed proteins stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing HPV18 antigens, thereby inducing tumor cell lysis. HPV18 infection plays a key role in the development of a variety of cancers.", + "Adenovirus-expressing TLR5/TLR5 Agonist Nanoformulation M-VM3": "", + "Adenovirus-mediated Human Interleukin-12 INXN-2001 Plus Activator Ligand INXN-1001": "", + "Aderbasib": "", + "ADH-1": "", + "AE37 Peptide/GM-CSF Vaccine": "", + "AEE788": "", + "Aerosol Gemcitabine": "", + "Aerosolized Aldesleukin": "", + "Aerosolized Liposomal Rubitecan": "", + "Afatinib": "", + "Afatinib Dimaleate": "", + "Afimoxifene": "", + "Afuresertib": "", + "Agatolimod Sodium": "", + "Agerafenib": "", + "Aglatimagene Besadenovec": "", + "Agonistic Anti-CD40 Monoclonal Antibody ADC-1013": "", + "Agonistic Anti-OX40 Monoclonal Antibody INCAGN01949": "", + "Agonistic Anti-OX40 Monoclonal Antibody MEDI6469": "", + "AKR1C3-activated Prodrug OBI-3424": "", + "AKT 1/2 Inhibitor BAY1125976": "", + "AKT Inhibitor ARQ 092": "", + "Akt Inhibitor LY2780301": "", + "Akt Inhibitor MK2206": "", + "Akt Inhibitor SR13668": "", + "Akt/ERK Inhibitor ONC201": "", + "Alacizumab Pegol": "", + "Alanosine": "", + "Albumin-binding Cisplatin Prodrug BTP-114": "", + "Aldesleukin": "", + "Aldoxorubicin": "", + "Alectinib": "", + "Alefacept": "", + "Alemtuzumab": "", + "Alestramustine": "", + "Alflutinib Mesylate": "", + "Algenpantucel-L": "", + "Alisertib": "", + "Alitretinoin": "", + "ALK Inhibitor": "", + "ALK Inhibitor ASP3026": "", + "ALK Inhibitor PLB 1003": "", + "ALK Inhibitor RO5424802": "", + "ALK Inhibitor TAE684": "A small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and nucleophosmin-anaplastic lymphoma kinase (NPM-ALK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, TAE684 binds to and inhibits ALK and NPM-ALK tyrosine kinases, which leads to a disruption of ALK- and NPM-ALK mediated signaling and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK- and NPM-ALK overexpressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfamily and plays an important role in nervous system development. ALK dysregulation and gene rearrangements are associated with a series of tumors. NPM-ALK is an oncogenic fusion protein associated with ALK-positive anaplastic large cell lymphoma. ALK mutations are also associated with acquired resistance to small molecule tyrosine kinase inhibitors.", + "ALK Inhibitor WX-0593": "", + "ALK-2 Inhibitor TP-0184": "", + "ALK-FAK Inhibitor CEP-37440": "", + "ALK/c-Met Inhibitor TQ-B3139": "", + "ALK/FAK/Pyk2 Inhibitor CT-707": "", + "ALK/ROS1/Met Inhibitor TQ-B3101": "An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), C-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1) and Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR; c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, TQ-B3101 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of ALK, ROS1 and c-Met, which leads to the disruption of ALK-, ROS1- and c-Met-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK-, ROS1- and c-Met-expressing tumor cells. ALK, ROS1 and c-Met, overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, play key roles in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion and metastasis.", + "ALK/TRK Inhibitor TSR-011": "", + "Alkotinib": "", + "Allodepleted T Cell Immunotherapeutic ATIR101": "", + "Allogeneic Anti-BCMA CAR-transduced T-cells ALLO-715": "A preparation of allogeneic, 'off-the-shelf' (OTS), universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered, gene-edited T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) derived from a monoclonal antibody specific for the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Using TALEN technology, the T-cell receptor (TCR) alpha chain (TRAC) and CD52 genes are deleted from the CAR T-cells. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-BCMA CAR-transduced T-cells ALLO-715 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF). BCMA is found on the surfaces of plasma cells, is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells and plays a key role in plasma cell proliferation and survival. Deletion of the CD52 gene makes the modified donor T-cells resistant to an anti-CD52 monoclonal antibody treatment, that is used during lymphodepletion. The knockout of TRAC eliminates TCR expression and is intended to abrogate the potential induction of graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) by the donor T-cells. The donor-derived, gene-edited CAR T cells have reduced production times and have increased availability when compared to autologous CAR-T cells, which use the patient's own cells and are produced on an individual basis. In addition, if the ALLO-715 cells cause unacceptable side effects, the incorporated CD20-based off-switch permits selective depletion of the ALLO-715 cells when the anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody rituximab is administered.", + "Allogeneic Anti-BCMA-CAR T-cells PBCAR269A": "A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf, T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified using a proprietary synthetic nuclease-based system to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-BCMA-CAR T-cells PBCAR269A specifically recognize and kill BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF). BCMA is found on the surfaces of plasma cells, is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells and plays a key role in plasma cell proliferation and survival.", + "Allogeneic Anti-BCMA/CS1 Bispecific CAR-T Cells": "A preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting both the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17) and human CS1 (CD2 subset 1; SLAM family member 7; SLAMF7; CD319; CRACC), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the allogeneic anti-BCMA/CS1 bispecific CAR-T cells target and bind to tumor cells expressing BCMA and/or CS1 and induce selective cytotoxicity in those cells. BCMA, a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF). BCMA is found on the surfaces of plasma cells, is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells and plays a key role in plasma cell proliferation and survival. SLAMF7 is a member of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family of transmembrane receptors that modulate the function of immune cells through immunoreceptor tyrosine-based switch motifs (ITSMs) and intracellular adaptor proteins. SLAMF7 is highly expressed on certain malignant plasma cells and is minimally expressed on healthy immune cells. Targeting the two different TAAs highly expressed on malignant plasma cells may improve coverage and protect against antigen escape and resistance as tumor cells would need to lose both antigens.", + "Allogeneic Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells ALLO-501A": "A preparation of allogeneic, frozen, 'off-the-shelf', universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered, gene-edited T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Using TALEN technology, the T-cell receptor (TCR) alpha chain and CD52 genes are deleted from the CAR19 T-cells. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD19 CAR T-cells ALLO-501A specifically target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby selectively lysing CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies. Deletion of the CD52 gene makes the modified donor T-cells resistant to the anti-CD52 monoclonal antibody alemtuzumab, which is used during lymphodepletion. The knockout of the TCR alpha gene eliminates TCR expression and is intended to abrogate the potential induction of graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) by the donor T-cells. ALLO-501A lacks the rituximab recognition domains of ALLO-501.", + "Allogeneic Anti-CD19 Universal CAR-T Cells CTA101": "A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), universal, gene-edited T-lymphocytes expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD19 universal CAR-T cells CTA101 specifically target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, thereby selectively lysing CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage malignancies. CTA101 is genetically engineered to prevent graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) by the donor T-cells. OTS CAR-T cells require reduced production times when compared to autologous CAR-T cells.", + "Allogeneic Anti-CD19-CAR T-cells PBCAR0191": "", + "Allogeneic Anti-CD20 CAR T-cells LUCAR-20S": "A preparation of donor-derived T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 (cluster of differentiation 20), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD20 CAR T-cells LUCAR-20S specifically recognize and kill CD20-expressing tumor cells. The CD20 antigen, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein, is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in B-cell lineage malignancies.", + "Allogeneic Anti-CD20-CAR T-cells PBCAR20A": "A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), T-lymphocytes, derived from healthy donors, that have been genetically modified using a proprietary synthetic endonuclease-based system to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 (cluster of differentiation 20), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, allogeneic anti-CD20-CAR T-cells PBCAR20A specifically recognize and kill CD20-expressing tumor cells. The CD20 antigen, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein, is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in B-cell lineage malignancies.", + "Allogeneic CD3- CD19- CD57+ NKG2C+ NK Cells FATE-NK100": "", + "Allogeneic CD8+ Leukemia-associated Antigens Specific T Cells NEXI-001": "A preparation of allogeneic CD8+ T cells targeting multiple undisclosed leukemia-associated antigens, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Following peripheral blood mononuclear cell (PBMC) collection from the original stem cell donor and ex vivo priming and expansion, the allogeneic CD8+ leukemia-associated antigens specific T cells NEXI-001 are re-introduced into the leukemia patient, where they target and kill tumor cells expressing these leukemia-associated antigens.", + "Allogeneic CD22-specific Universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UCART22": "A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human CD22 with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, allogeneic CD22-specific universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UCART22 express anti-CD22-CAR on their cell surfaces and bind to the CD22 antigen on tumor cell surfaces, resulting in lysis of CD22-expressing tumor cells. CD22, a cell surface glycoprotein, is expressed on mature B-cells and on most malignant B-cells.", + "Allogeneic CD56-positive CD3-negative Natural Killer Cells CYNK-001": "A population of cryopreserved, off-the-shelf (OTS) allogeneic natural killer (NK) cells derived from human placental hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) and expressing the CD56 surface antigen and exhibiting a lack of CD3, with potential immunomodulating, antineoplastic and antiviral activities. Upon infusion of allogeneic CD56-positive CD3-negative NK cells CYNK-001, these cells are able to recognize tumor cells as well as virally-infected cells, secrete perforins, granzymes and cytokines, and induce apoptosis in tumor and virally-infected cells.", + "Allogeneic Cellular Vaccine 1650-G": "", + "Allogeneic CRISPR-Cas9 Engineered Anti-BCMA T Cells CTX120": "A preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to disrupt expression of endogenous TCR and major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules and modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction into the patient, the allogeneic CRISPR-Cas9 engineered anti-BCMA CAR T-cells CTX120 recognize and bind to BCMA-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killing of BCMA-positive tumor cells. BCMA, a receptor for proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily (TNFRSF) and plays a key role in plasma cell survival. BCMA is found on the surfaces of plasma cells and overexpressed on malignant plasma cells. The disruption of endogenous TCR prevents graft-versus-host disease (GvHD). The disruption of MHC class I molecules increases the persistence of the CAR T-cells.", + "Allogeneic CRISPR-Cas9 Engineered Anti-CD70 CAR-T Cells CTX130": "A preparation of human allogeneic T-lymphocytes gene-edited with the clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)-Cas9 nuclease complex to disrupt expression of endogenous TCR and major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules and modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human cluster of differentiation 70 (CD70), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction into the patient, the allogeneic CRISPR-Cas9 engineered anti-CD70 CAR T-cells CTX130 recognize and bind to CD70-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killing of CD70-positive tumor cells. CD70, the ligand for the costimulatory receptor CD27 and a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family, is found on the surfaces of various types of cancer cells. Disruption of endogenous TCR prevents graft-versus-host disease (GvHD); the disruption of MHC class I molecules increases the persistence of the CAR T-cells.", + "Allogeneic CS1-specific Universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UCARTCS1A": "A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS), universal transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN)-engineered T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human CS1 (CD2 subset 1; SLAM family member 7; SLAMF7; CD319; CRACC), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion of allogeneic CS1-specific universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UCARTCS1A, these cells target and bind to cancer cells expressing CS1. This induces selective toxicity in and causes lysis of CS1-expressing tumor cells. SLAMF7 is a member of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family of transmembrane receptors that modulate the function of immune cells through immunoreceptor tyrosine-based switch motifs (ITSMs) and intracellular adaptor proteins. SLAMF7 is highly expressed on certain malignant plasma cells and is minimally expressed on healthy immune cells.", + "Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Breast Cancer Vaccine SV-BR-1-GM": "", + "Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Lethally Irradiated Prostate Cancer Vaccine": "", + "Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Lethally Irradiated Whole Melanoma Cell Vaccine": "", + "Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Tumor Vaccine PANC 6.03 pcDNA-1/GM-Neo": "", + "Allogeneic GM-CSF-secreting Tumor Vaccine PANC 10.05 pcDNA-1/GM-Neo": "", + "Allogeneic IL13-Zetakine/HyTK-Expressing-Glucocorticoid Resistant Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes GRm13Z40-2": "", + "Allogeneic Irradiated Melanoma Cell Vaccine CSF470": "", + "Allogeneic Large Multivalent Immunogen Melanoma Vaccine LP2307": "", + "Allogeneic Melanoma Vaccine AGI-101H": "", + "Allogeneic Natural Killer Cell Line MG4101": "", + "Allogeneic Natural Killer Cell Line NK-92": "", + "Allogeneic Plasmacytoid Dendritic Cells Expressing Lung Tumor Antigens PDC*lung01": "An off-the-shelf (OTS) preparation composed of irradiated allogeneic plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs) loaded with seven immunogenic, human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02:01 serotype-restricted peptides derived from the lung tumor antigens cancer/testis antigen 1 (NY-ESO-1), melanoma antigen A3 (MAGE-A3), MAGE-A4, multi-MAGE, a peptide shared by multiple MAGE-A proteins, survivin, mucin1 (MUC1) and melanoma antigen recognized by T-cells 1 (Mart-1; Melan-A), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the allogeneic pDCs expressing lung tumor antigens PDC*lung01, the pDCs may activate the immune system to mount a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against HLA-A*0201 positive lung cancer cells expressing the TAAs NY-ESO-1, MAGE-A3, MAGEA4, multi-MAGE, survivin, MUC1 and melan-A. The pDCs are derived from a distinct subset of dendritic cells (DCs) with a plasma cell-like morphology and express a characteristic set of surface markers and may increase the anti-tumor immune responses.", + "Allogeneic Renal Cell Carcinoma Vaccine MGN1601": "", + "Allogeneic Third-party Suicide Gene-transduced Anti-HLA-DPB1*0401 CD4+ T-cells CTL 19": "A preparation of allogeneic, third-party, CD4+ T-lymphocytes that specifically recognizes the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-DPB1*0401 and transduced with a suicide gene, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, allogeneic third-party suicide gene-transduced anti-HLA-DPB1*0401 CD4+ T-cells CTL 19 specifically target and kill HLA-DPB1*0401-positive leukemic cells. The suicide gene causes the destruction of the T-cell clone upon the administration and presence of ganciclovir, which enhances the safety of the agent. HLA-DP is expressed by many leukemic cells.", + "Allosteric ErbB Inhibitor BDTX-189": "An orally bioavailable, irreversible, selective, small-molecule inhibitor of certain oncogenic driver, allosteric mutations of the ErbB receptor tyrosine kinases epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR/ErbB1) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2/neu or ErbB2), including extracellular domain allosteric mutations of HER2, and EGFR and HER2 exon 20 insertion mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the allosteric ErbB inhibitor BDTX-189 selectively binds to and inhibits these allosteric ErbB mutants while sparing wild-type EGFR, which may result in the selective inhibition of cellular proliferation and angiogenesis in tumor cells and tumors expressing these allosteric ErbB mutations. EGFR and HER2, ErbB receptor tyrosine kinases mutated or overexpressed in many tumor cell types, play a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization.", + "Allovectin-7": "", + "Almurtide": "", + "Alobresib": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, alobresib binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs in the bromodomains of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histones. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to an inhibition of proliferation in BET-overexpressing tumor cells. BET proteins, comprised of BRD2, BRD3, BRD4 and BRDT, are transcriptional regulators that play an important role during development and cellular growth.", + "Alofanib": "An inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) type 2 (FGFR2), with potential antineoplastic and anti-angiogenic activities. Upon administration, alofanib targets, allosterically binds to the extracellular domain of FGFR2 and inhibits the activity of FGFR2, which may result in the inhibition of basic FGF (bFGF)/FGFR2-related signal transduction pathways. This inhibits FGF-induced endothelial cell proliferation and migration, and inhibits the proliferation of FGFR2-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR2, a receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular proliferation, migration and survival.", + "Alpelisib": "", + "Alpha Galactosylceramide": "", + "Alpha V Beta 1 Inhibitor ATN-161": "", + "Alpha V Beta 8 Antagonist PF-06940434": "An antagonist of integrin alpha v beta 8, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PF-06940434 selectively binds to and blocks the receptor for integrin alpha v beta 8, thereby preventing integrin alpha v beta 8 binding. This may result in the inhibition of cell adhesion in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and blocks the activation of the cytokine transforming growth factor-beta 1 (TGF-b1), preventing TGF-b1-mediated signal transduction. This abrogates TGF-b1-mediated immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the TME and promotes a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells leading to tumor cell death. This may lead to a reduction in TGF-b1-dependent proliferation of cancer cells. Alpha v beta 8 integrin plays a key role in tumor initiation, growth, and progression through TGF-b1 activation. It is expressed in a variety of tumor cell types and is associated with poor prognosis.", + "alpha-Folate Receptor-targeting Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor ONX-0801": "", + "Alpha-Gal AGI-134": "", + "Alpha-lactalbumin-derived Synthetic Peptide-lipid Complex Alpha1H": "", + "Alpha-Thioguanine Deoxyriboside": "", + "Alpha-tocopheryloxyacetic Acid": "", + "Alsevalimab": "A fully human, glycoengineered monoclonal antibody targeting B7-H4 (V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; VTCN1; B7x; B7S1) with potential antineoplastic and immune checkpoint inhibitory activities. Upon intravenous administration, alsevalimab binds to B7-H4 on the surface of tumor cells, thereby preventing B7-H4 binding to T-cells and abrogating the B7-H4-mediated negative regulation of T-cell activation. This increases a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against B7-H4-expressing tumor cells. In addition, the afucosylated Fc region of the anti-B7-H4 monoclonal antibody FPA150 enhances its binding affinity for human FcgammaRIIIa receptors (CD16) on natural killer (NK) cells, resulting in enhanced antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against B7-H4-expressing tumor cells. B7-H4, a member of the B7 family of immune modulators, is upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types and negatively regulates T-cell immune responses.", + "Altiratinib": "", + "Altretamine": "", + "Alvespimycin": "", + "Alvespimycin Hydrochloride": "", + "Alvocidib": "", + "Alvocidib Hydrochloride": "", + "Alvocidib Prodrug TP-1287": "", + "Amatuximab": "", + "Ambamustine": "", + "Ambazone": "", + "Amblyomin-X": "", + "Amcasertib": "", + "Ametantrone": "", + "Amifostine": "", + "Amino Acid Injection": "", + "Aminocamptothecin": "", + "Aminocamptothecin Colloidal Dispersion": "", + "Aminoflavone Prodrug AFP464": "", + "Aminopterin": "", + "Aminopterin Sodium": "", + "Amivantamab": "A human bispecific antibody targeting both epidermal growth factor receptor EGFR and hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR; cMet), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, amivantamab simultaneously targets and binds to wild-type or certain mutant forms of both EGFR and cMet expressed on cancer cells, thereby preventing receptor phosphorylation. This prevents the activation of both EGFR- and cMet-mediated signaling pathways. In addition, binding results in receptor degradation, which further inhibits EGFR- and cMet-mediated signaling. JNJ-61186372 also causes antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). Altogether, this results in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. EGFR and cMet, both upregulated or mutated in a variety of tumor cell types, play key roles in tumor cell proliferation.", + "Amolimogene Bepiplasmid": "", + "Amonafide L-Malate": "", + "Amrubicin": "", + "Amrubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Amsacrine": "", + "Amsacrine Lactate": "", + "Amsilarotene": "", + "Amustaline": "", + "Amustaline Dihydrochloride": "", + "Amuvatinib": "", + "Amuvatinib Hydrochloride": "", + "Anakinra": "", + "Anastrozole": "", + "Anaxirone": "", + "Ancitabine": "", + "Ancitabine Hydrochloride": "", + "Andecaliximab": "A humanized monoclonal antibody against matrix metalloproteinase 9 (MMP-9), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, andecaliximab binds to MMP-9 and inhibits its enzymatic activity. This results in an inhibition of extracellular matrix protein degradation and, potentially, the inhibition of angiogenesis, tumor growth, invasion, and metastasis. MMP-9, a protein belonging to the MMP family, plays a key role in the degradation of collagens and proteoglycans; increased activity of MMP-9 has been associated with increased invasion and metastasis of cancer.", + "Androgen Antagonist APC-100": "", + "Androgen Receptor Antagonist BAY 1161116": "", + "Androgen Receptor Antagonist SHR3680": "", + "Androgen Receptor Antagonist TAS3681": "", + "Androgen Receptor Antagonist TRC253": "", + "Androgen Receptor Antisense Oligonucleotide AZD5312": "", + "Androgen Receptor Antisense Oligonucleotide EZN-4176": "", + "Androgen Receptor Degrader ARV-110": "", + "Androgen Receptor Degrader CC-94676": "An orally bioavailable androgen receptor (AR) degrader, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, AR degrader CC-94676 causes degradation of AR, prevents AR-mediated signaling and inhibits the proliferation of AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation in castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC).", + "Androgen Receptor Downregulator AZD3514": "", + "Androgen Receptor Inhibitor EPI-7386": "An orally bioavailable, second-generation inhibitor of the N-terminal domain (NTD) of androgen receptor (AR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AR inhibitor EPI-7386 specifically binds to the NTD of AR, thereby inhibiting both AR activation and the AR-mediated signaling pathway. This may inhibit cell growth in AR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR is overexpressed in prostate cancers and is involved in the proliferation, survival and chemoresistance of tumor cells. EPI-7386 may be more active and metabolically stable than first-generation AR NTD inhibitors.", + "Androgen Receptor Ligand-binding Domain-encoding Plasmid DNA Vaccine MVI-118": "", + "Androgen Receptor/Glucocorticoid Receptor Antagonist CB-03-10": "An orally bioavailable steroidal cortexolone derivative and antagonist of the androgen receptor (AR) and glucocorticoid receptor (GR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AR/GR antagonist CB-03-10 specifically binds to AR and GR, inhibits AR and GR activation, and prevents AR- and GR-mediated signaling. This leads to an induction of both extrinsic and intrinsic apoptotic pathways and inhibits cell growth in AR- and GR-overexpressing tumor cells. AR and GR are overexpressed in certain types of cancer cells and are involved in proliferation, survival and chemoresistance of tumor cells.", + "Andrographolide": "", + "Androstane Steroid HE3235": "", + "Anetumab Ravtansine": "", + "Ang2/VEGF-Binding Peptides-Antibody Fusion Protein CVX-241": "", + "Angiogenesis Inhibitor GT-111": "", + "Angiogenesis Inhibitor JI-101": "", + "Angiogenesis/Heparanase Inhibitor PG545": "", + "Angiopoietin-2-specific Fusion Protein PF-04856884": "", + "Anhydrous Enol-oxaloacetate": "The anhydrous form of enol-oxaloacetate, a small molecule blood glutamate scavenger, that can be used to lower glutamate plasma levels, and has potential neuroprotective activity. Upon administration, enol-oxaloacetate targets and binds to glutamate in the bloodstream. This lowers glutamate plasma levels and lowers the free glutamate available to be picked up by cells, such as tumor brain cells, thereby preventing glutamate metabolism and glutamate-mediated signaling. This prevents the proliferation of rapidly growing cells, such as brain tumor cells. And by lowering glutamate plasma levels, a molecular imbalance is formed and glutamate is excreted across the blood-brain barrier, resulting in lower free brain glutamate. This may help protect the brain from excitotoxicity in conditions where there is a surge of glutamate production, such as traumatic brain injury, thereby protecting neuronal cells. Glutamate, a non-essential amino acid and the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS), provides energy and generates building blocks for the production of macromolecules, which are needed for cellular growth and survival.", + "Anhydrovinblastine": "", + "Aniline Mustard": "", + "Anlotinib Hydrochloride": "", + "Annamycin": "", + "Annamycin Liposomal": "", + "Annonaceous Acetogenins": "", + "Ansamitomicin P-3": "", + "Anthramycin": "", + "Anthrapyrazole": "", + "Anti c-KIT Antibody-drug Conjugate LOP628": "", + "Anti-5T4 Antibody-drug Conjugate ASN004": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody directed against 5T4 and conjugated, via a non-cleavable linker, to a proprietary polymer carrying multiple auristatin analog molecules via a cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of ASN004 selectively binds to cells expressing the 5T4 oncofetal antigen. After internalization and cleavage within the tumor cell cytosol, free auristatin analog molecules binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which may result in G2/M phase arrest and tumor cell apoptosis. 5T4, a transmembrane glycoprotein, is overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types; its expression is correlated with increased invasiveness.", + "Anti-5T4 Antibody-Drug Conjugate PF-06263507": "", + "Anti-5T4 Antibody-drug Conjugate SYD1875": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the oncofetal antigen 5T4 and site-specifically conjugated to a duocarmycin-based linker-drug valine-citrulline-seco-DUocarmycin-hydroxyBenzamide-Azaindole (vc-seco-DUBA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of SYD1875 selectively binds to cells expressing the 5T4 oncofetal antigen. After internalization and cleavage within the tumor cell by proteases, the free and activated duocarmycin payload binds to the minor groove of DNA and alkylates adenine at the N3 position, which eventually leads to tumor cell apoptosis. 5T4, a transmembrane glycoprotein, is overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types; its expression is correlated with increased invasiveness.", + "Anti-A5B1 Integrin Monoclonal Antibody PF-04605412": "", + "Anti-A33 Monoclonal Antibody KRN330": "", + "Anti-ACTR/4-1BB/CD3zeta-Viral Vector-transduced Autologous T-Lymphocytes ACTR087": "", + "Anti-AG7 Antibody Drug Conjugate AbGn-107": "", + "Anti-AGS-5 Antibody-Drug Conjugate ASG-5ME": "", + "Anti-AGS-8 Monoclonal Antibody AGS-8M4": "", + "Anti-AGS-16 Monoclonal Antibody AGS-16M18": "", + "Anti-alpha5beta1 Integrin Antibody MINT1526A": "", + "Anti-alpha BCMA/Anti-alpha CD3 T-cell Engaging Bispecific Antibody TNB-383B": "", + "Anti-ANG2 Monoclonal Antibody MEDI-3617": "", + "Anti-angiopoietin Monoclonal Antibody AMG 780": "", + "Anti-APRIL Monoclonal Antibody BION-1301": "", + "Anti-AXL Fusion Protein AVB-S6-500": "", + "Anti-AXL/PBD Antibody-drug Conjugate ADCT-601": "", + "Anti-B7-H3 Antibody DS-5573a": "", + "Anti-B7-H3/DXd Antibody-drug Conjugate DS-7300a": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody against the immunoregulatory protein B7-homologue 3 (B7-H3, CD276) conjugated, via an enzymatically cleavable tetrapeptide-based linker, to the cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor and exatecan (DX-8951) derivative DXd (MAAA-1181a; MAAA-1181), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-B7-H3/DXd ADC DS-7300a, the anti-B7-H3 antibody targets and binds to B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake and lysosomal degradation of the linker, DXd targets and binds to DNA topoisomerase I, thereby stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA, resulting in DNA breaks, inhibition of DNA replication and apoptosis. This inhibits the proliferation of B7-H3-expressing tumor cells. B7-H3, a type I transmembrane protein and a member of the B7 co-stimulatory protein superfamily, is overexpressed on certain tumor cell types and on various immune cells. It plays a key role in tumor growth and immune responses. The ADC allows for reduced systemic exposure and enhanced delivery of the cytotoxic agent DXd.", + "Anti-B7-H4 Monoclonal Antibody FPA150": "", + "Anti-B7H3 Antibody-drug Conjugate MGC018": "", + "Anti-BCMA Antibody SEA-BCMA": "", + "Anti-BCMA Antibody-drug Conjugate AMG 224": "", + "Anti-BCMA Antibody-drug Conjugate CC-99712": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA, TNFRSF17), linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-BCMA ADC CC-99712, the antibody moiety targets and binds to the cell surface antigen BCMA expressed on certain cancer cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the BCMA-expressing cancer cells through an as of yet unknown mechanism of action. BCMA, a receptor for a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL; tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 13; TNFSF13), and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily and plays a key role in plasma survival. It is found on the surfaces of plasma cells and is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells.", + "Anti-BCMA Antibody-drug Conjugate GSK2857916": "", + "Anti-BCMA SparX Protein Plus BCMA-directed Anti-TAAG ARC T-cells CART-ddBCMA": "An immunotherapeutic combination agent composed of antigen receptor complex T cells (ARC-T cells) which contain a proprietary binding domain specific for a universal TAG instead of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) binding domain, and a tumor-targeting antigen protein, soluble protein antigen-receptor X-linker (sparX) protein, containing a TAG moiety fused to two B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) binding domains, with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the anti-BCMA sparX protein plus BCMA-directed ARC T-cells CART-ddBCMA, the sparX protein, with its two BCMA binding domains, specifically targets and binds to two BCMA expressed on tumor cells. In turn, the ARC-T cells, with their anti-TAG domain, target and bind to the TAG domain on the sparX protein. This directly links the ARC-T cells to the BCMA-expressing tumor cells, through the ARC-T cell- sparX -tumor cell complex formation, thereby causing direct tumor cell killing. BCMA, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is found on the surfaces of plasma cells and is overexpressed on a variety of tumor cell types. Compared to anti-BCMA CAR-T cells, CART-ddBCMA, containing ARC-T cells that are re-programmed in vivo by the TAG sparX protein, shows enhanced efficiency and an improved safety profile. As ARC-T activity is dependent on the sparX dose administered, the rate of tumor cell killing, and related toxicities are also dependent on the sparX dose administered.", + "Anti-BCMA/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody REGN5459": "A human bispecific antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and another directed against the T-cell surface antigen CD3, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-BCMA/anti-CD3 bispecific antibody REGN5459 binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and BCMA on BCMA-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to BCMA-expressing tumor cells, leading to CTL-mediated killing of BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily that is specifically overexpressed on malignant plasma cells, plays a key role in promoting plasma cell survival.", + "Anti-BCMA/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 420": "", + "Anti-BCMA/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 701": "", + "Anti-BCMA/CD3 BiTE Antibody REGN5458": "", + "Anti-BCMA/PBD ADC MEDI2228": "", + "Anti-BTLA Monoclonal Antibody TAB004": "A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G4 kappa (IgG4k) monoclonal antibody directed against B- and T-lymphocyte attenuator (BTLA), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous infusion administration, anti-BTLA monoclonal antibody TAB004 targets and binds to BTLA. This prevents BTLA-mediated inhibition of T-cell activation leading to antigen specific T-cell proliferation and activation of a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. BTLA, an immunoglobulin (Ig) receptor family member expressed on activated T- and B- lymphocytes, subsets of dendritic cells (DCs), macrophages, and nature killer (NK) cells, is an immune checkpoint involved in suppressing immune responses. It mediates inhibition of human tumor-specific CTLs upon engagement by tumor expressed herpesvirus-entry mediator (HVEM).", + "Anti-BTN3A Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody ICT01": "A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody directed against butyrophilin subfamily 3 member A (BTN3A; CD277), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-BTN3A agonistic monoclonal antibody ICT01 targets and binds to BTN3A present on epithelial and tumor cells. BTN3A binding may sensitize tumor cells to gamma 9 delta 2 (Vg9Vd2) T cell killing. The Vg9Vd2 T cells secrete effector cytokines and exert a cytolytic effect on tumor cells. This may abrogate BTN3A-mediated tumor immunity and may enhance anti-tumor immune response. BTN3A, a member of the butyrophilin superfamily of immunomodulators, is upregulated in tumor cells.", + "Anti-C4.4a Antibody-Drug Conjugate BAY1129980": "", + "Anti-C5aR Monoclonal Antibody IPH5401": "", + "Anti-c-fms Monoclonal Antibody AMG 820": "", + "Anti-c-KIT Monoclonal Antibody CDX 0158": "", + "Anti-c-Met Antibody-drug Conjugate HTI-1066": "", + "Anti-c-Met Antibody-drug Conjugate TR1801": "", + "Anti-c-Met Monoclonal Antibody ABT-700": "", + "Anti-c-Met Monoclonal Antibody ARGX-111": "", + "Anti-c-Met Monoclonal Antibody HLX55": "A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G2 monoclonal antibody directed against the human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-c-Met monoclonal antibody HLX55 specifically binds to the semaphorin (Sema)/Plexins-Semaphorins-Integrins (PSI) domain of c-Met, which prevents the binding of c-Met to its ligand HGF and the subsequent activation of the HGF/c-Met signaling pathway. In addition, HLX55 promotes c-Met degradation, which further inhibits c-Met-mediated signaling. This may result in cell death in c-Met-expressing tumor cells. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cancer cell growth, survival, angiogenesis, invasion, and metastasis.", + "Anti-c-MET Monoclonal Antibody LY2875358": "", + "Anti-C-met Monoclonal Antibody SAIT301": "", + "Anti-CA6-DM4 Immunoconjugate SAR566658": "", + "Anti-CA19-9 Monoclonal Antibody 5B1": "", + "Anti-CCR7 Antibody-drug Conjugate JBH492": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody targeting CC chemokine receptor 7 (CCR7) and conjugated to the cytotoxic maytansinoid DM4, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CCR7 ADC JBH492, the antibody moiety targets and binds to CCR7 on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the ADC releases DM4, which binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics. This results in the inhibition of cell division and cell growth of CCR7-expressing tumor cells. CCR7, a G-protein coupled receptor, is normally expressed by subsets of immune cells and overexpressed by various types of cancer cells. Its overexpression has been associated with lymph node metastasis and poor survival.", + "Anti-CD3 Immunotoxin A-dmDT390-bisFv(UCHT1)": "", + "Anti-CD3/Anti-5T4 Bispecific Antibody GEN1044": "A recombinant immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both the human T-cell surface antigen CD3 and oncofetal antigen 5T4, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD3/anti-5T4 bispecific antibody GEN1044 simultaneously targets and binds to CD3 expressed on T-cells and 5T4 expressed on tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the 5T4-expressing tumor cells. 5T4, a transmembrane glycoprotein, is overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types; its expression is correlated with increased invasiveness.", + "Anti-CD3/Anti-BCMA Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody JNJ-64007957": "", + "Anti-CD3/Anti-BCMA Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody PF-06863135": "", + "Anti-CD3/Anti-CD20 Trifunctional Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody FBTA05": "", + "Anti-CD3/Anti-GPRC5D Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody JNJ-64407564": "", + "Anti-CD3/Anti-GUCY2C Bispecific Antibody PF-07062119": "A bispecific antibody against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and human guanylate cyclase 2C (GUCY2C; GCC; guanylyl cyclase C; heat-stable enterotoxin receptor; hSTAR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD3/anti-GUCY2C bispecific antibody PF-07062119 targets and binds to both CD3 on T-cells and GUCY2C expressed on certain tumor cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against GUCY2C-expressing tumor cells. GUCY2C, a transmembrane receptor expressed on intestinal epithelial cells, is overexpressed on certain tumors of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.", + "Anti-CD3/CD7-Ricin Toxin A Immunotoxin": "An immunotoxin (IT) combination composed of two antibody-drug conjugates (ADCs), one containing a monoclonal antibody against CD3 and one against the CD7 antigen on activated T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells, and both conjugated to ricin toxin A (RTA), the A-chain form of the potent plant toxin ricin, that can potentially be used to destroy activated T- and NK cells. Upon administration of the anti-CD3/CD7-RTA immunotoxin, the anti-CD3 antibody moiety targets and binds to activated T-cells; the anti-CD7 antibody moiety targets and binds to CD7 on activated T-cells and NK cells. Upon internalization and cleavage, the RTA moiety irreversibly inhibits protein synthesis and induces apoptosis in the activated T-cells. This may eliminate activated T-cells and may improve conditions such as graft-versus-host-disease (GvHD). In addition, the binding and blocking of the anti-CD3 antibody to the T-cell receptor/CD3 complex (TCR/CD3) results in activation-induced cell death (AICD) and immunosuppression.", + "Anti-CD3/CD20 Bispecific Antibody GEN3013": "", + "Anti-CD3/CD38 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody AMG 424": "", + "Anti-CD19 Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-CD19B": "", + "Anti-CD19 Antibody-T-cell Receptor-expressing T-cells ET019003": "A preparation of T-lymphocytes that have been engineered by incorporating an as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory molecule into T-cells expressing an anti-CD19 antibody T-cell receptor (AbTCR) structure (ET190L1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19 AbTCR-expressing T-cells ET019003 targets and binds to CD19-expressing tumor cells. This results in cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated elimination of CD19-positive tumor cells. The binding to CD19-expressing tumor cells may also activate the undisclosed costimulatory domain, leading to further T-cell proliferation. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage malignancies. ET019003 is able to match the anticancer activity of chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cells, while they are less likely to stimulate cytokine release syndrome (CRS) and less likely to cause cytokine-related toxicities.", + "Anti-CD19 iCAR NK Cells": "A preparation of natural killer (NK) cells engineered to express an inhibitory chimeric antigen receptor (iCAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD19 iCAR-NK cells recognize, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. The iCAR is designed to spare normal cells from NK cell actions by including an inhibitory receptor that is activated upon binding to antigens that are present on normal cells only. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies.", + "Anti-CD19 Monoclonal Antibody DI-B4": "", + "Anti-CD19 Monoclonal Antibody MDX-1342": "", + "Anti-CD19 Monoclonal Antibody MEDI-551": "", + "Anti-CD19 Monoclonal Antibody XmAb5574": "", + "Anti-CD19-DM4 Immunoconjugate SAR3419": "", + "Anti-CD19/Anti-CD22 Bispecific Immunotoxin DT2219ARL": "", + "Anti-CD19/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 562": "", + "Anti-CD19/CD3 Tetravalent Antibody AFM11": "", + "Anti-CD19/CD22 CAR NK Cells": "A preparation of natural killer (NK) cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and CD22, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD19/CD22 CAR-NK cells target and bind to CD19 and CD22 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells expressing these TAAs. CD19 and CD22, both transmembrane phosphoglycoproteins expressed on the surface of cells in the B lineage, are often overexpressed on malignant B-cells. By simultaneously targeting two B-cell antigens, this preparation may minimize relapse due to single antigen loss in patients with B-cell malignancies.", + "Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody B001": "", + "Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody BAT4306F": "A recombinant, glycosylation-modified monoclonal antibody directed against the human B-cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration of anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody BAT4306F, the antibody specifically targets and binds to CD20. This induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD20-expressing B-cells, which leads to B-cell apoptosis and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CD20, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein that is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development, is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. The complete defucosylation of BAT4306F may result in enhanced ADCC.", + "Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody MIL62": "A glyco-engineered recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human B-cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration of anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody MIL62, the antibody specifically targets and binds to CD20. This induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD20-expressing B-cells, which leads to B-cell apoptosis and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. In addition, MIL62 inhibits CD20-mediated signaling which further induces apoptosis in and inhibits proliferation of CD20-expressing tumor cells. CD20, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein that is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development, is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies.", + "Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody PRO131921": "", + "Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody SCT400": "", + "Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody TL011": "", + "Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody-Interferon-alpha Fusion Protein IGN002": "", + "Anti-CD20-engineered Toxin Body MT-3724": "", + "Anti-CD20/Anti-CD3 Bispecific IgM Antibody IGM2323": "", + "Anti-CD20/CD3 Monoclonal Antibody REGN1979": "", + "Anti-CD20/CD3 Monoclonal Antibody XmAb13676": "", + "Anti-CD22 ADC TRPH-222": "", + "Anti-CD22 Monoclonal Antibody-MMAE Conjugate DCDT2980S": "", + "Anti-CD25 Monoclonal Antibody RO7296682": "A monoclonal antibody against CD25 (IL-2R alpha), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody RO7296682 targets and binds to CD25 expressed on tumor-infiltrating regulatory T (Treg) cells. This may deplete Treg cells and prevent immunosuppression, thereby enhancing anti-tumor immune responses. CD25, the alpha chain of the interleukin (IL)-2 receptor, is highly expressed on Treg cells but not on effector T (Teff) cells in tumors.", + "Anti-CD25-PBD Antibody-drug Conjugate ADCT-301": "", + "Anti-CD26 Monoclonal Antibody YS110": "", + "Anti-CD27 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody MK-5890": "A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the cell surface antigen CD27, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD27 agonistic monoclonal antibody MK-5890 targets and binds to CD27 on a variety of immune cell types, including most T-lymphocytes. This induces CD27-dependent signaling pathways and enhances T-cell-mediated responses, including the expansion of antigen-activated T-cells and the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. CD27, a co-stimulatory molecule and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF), is expressed on T-lymphocytes, memory B-cells and natural killer (NK) cells. It plays an important role in NK cell-mediated cytolytic activity and T- and B-lymphocyte proliferation and activation. It is overexpressed in certain tumor cell types.", + "Anti-CD27L Antibody-Drug Conjugate AMG 172": "", + "Anti-CD30 Monoclonal Antibody MDX-1401": "", + "Anti-CD30 Monoclonal Antibody XmAb2513": "", + "Anti-CD30/CD16A Monoclonal Antibody AFM13": "", + "Anti-CD30/DM1 Antibody-drug Conjugate F0002": "An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor CD30 conjugated, via a nonreducible thioether linker (succinimidyl trans-4-(maleimidylmethyl)cyclohexane-1-carboxylate or SMCC), to the cytotoxic agent maytansinoid mertansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of F0002 targets and binds to CD30-expressing tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake and internalization, the mertansine moiety binds to tubulin and interferes with microtubule assembly and disassembly dynamics. This inhibits both cell division and the proliferation of tumor cells that express CD30. Transiently activated during lymphocyte activation, CD30 (tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 8; TNFRSF8) may be constitutively expressed in some hematologic malignancies.", + "Anti-CD32B Monoclonal Antibody BI-1206": "", + "Anti-CD33 Antibody-drug Conjugate IMGN779": "", + "Anti-CD33 Antigen/CD3 Receptor Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody AMV564": "", + "Anti-CD33 Monoclonal Antibody BI 836858": "", + "Anti-CD33 Monoclonal Antibody-DM4 Conjugate AVE9633": "", + "Anti-CD33/CD3 Bispecific Antibody GEM 333": "", + "Anti-CD33/CD3 Bispecific Antibody JNJ-67571244": "", + "Anti-CD33/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 330": "", + "Anti-CD33/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 673": "", + "Anti-CD37 Antibody-Drug Conjugate IMGN529": "", + "Anti-CD37 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody GEN3009": "An Fc-engineered, humanized, bispecific hexamer formation-enhanced immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody that targets two separate epitopes on the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD37, with the E430G hexamerization-enhancing mutation, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-CD37 bispecific monoclonal antibody GEN3009 specifically targets and binds to two non-overlapping CD37 epitopes, thereby inducing an assembly of antibody hexamers through intermolecular Fc-Fc interactions at the cell surface of CD37-overexpressing tumor cells. These hexamers recruit and activate C1, the first component of complement, thereby triggering the complement cascade which activates the immune system to induce complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC). In addition, GEN3009 binding to the CD37-overexpressing tumor cells also causes antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) and antibody-dependent cellular phagocytosis (ADCP). CD37, a member of the tetraspanin superfamily of cell surface antigens, is expressed at high-levels on B cells and to a lesser extent on T cells and myeloid cells. The E430G mutation in the Fc domains enhances Fc-mediated IgG hexamerization upon cellular target binding, and enhances CDC.", + "Anti-CD37 MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate AGS67E": "", + "Anti-CD37 Monoclonal Antibody BI 836826": "", + "Anti-CD38 Antibody-drug Conjugate STI-6129": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of STI-5171, a fully human monoclonal antibody targeting human cell surface glycoprotein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD38, site-specifically conjugated, via a non-polyethylene glycol linker, to a monomethyl auristatin F (MMAF)-derived cytotoxic payload, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-CD38 ADC STI-6129, the antibody moiety targets and binds to CD38 on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the MMAF derivative binds to and inhibits tubulin polymerization, which results in G2/M phase arrest and tumor cell apoptosis. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells and hematologic malignancies; its expression has been correlated with poor prognosis.", + "Anti-CD38 Monoclonal Antibody MOR03087": "", + "Anti-CD38 Monoclonal Antibody SAR442085": "A preparation of Fc-engineered monoclonal antibody that targets the cell surface glycoprotein CD-38 with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanisms(s) through which this agent exerts its effects have yet to be fully elucidated, upon administration, anti-CD38 monoclonal antibody SAR442085 targets and binds to CD38 on CD38-positive tumor cells. This may trigger, in addition to other possible responses, antitumoral antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and may eventually lead to cell lysis in CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells and hematologic malignancies.", + "Anti-CD38 Monoclonal Antibody TAK-079": "", + "Anti-CD38-targeted IgG4-attenuated IFNa TAK-573": "", + "Anti-CD38/CD3 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody GBR 1342": "", + "Anti-CD38/CD28xCD3 Tri-specific Monoclonal Antibody SAR442257": "A tri-specific T-cell engager and monoclonal antibody targeting CD38, a human cell surface glycoprotein and tumor-associated antigen (TAA), CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and CD28, a T-cell specific surface glycoprotein and co-stimulatory molecule, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD38/CD3/CD28 tri-specific monoclonal antibody SAR442257 targets and binds to CD3 and CD28 on T-cells and CD38 expressed on tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD38-expressing tumor cells. In addition, SAR442257 can also directly target CD28 expressed on tumor cells, such as multiple myeloma cells, thereby enhancing the anti-tumor activity of this agent and allowing it to bind to tumor cells when CD38 is occupied by other antibodies. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells and hematologic malignancies; its expression has been correlated with poor prognosis.", + "Anti-CD39 Monoclonal Antibody SRF617": "A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD39 (cluster of differentiation 39; ectonucleoside triphosphate diphosphohydrolase-1; NTPDase1; ENTPD1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD39 monoclonal antibody SRF617 specifically binds to the CD39 antigen, thereby preventing the conversion and degradation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine monophosphate (AMP). This leads to an increase in the extracellular levels of immunogenic ATP and a decrease in the levels of immunosuppressive adenosine within the tumor microenvironment (TME). A high level of ATP increases pro-inflammatory cytokine levels and promotes both T-cell proliferation and the stimulation of dendritic and other myeloid-derived cells that are necessary for innate and adaptive immunity. CD39, a cell surface ectonucleosidase, is upregulated on tumor cells as an immune evasion strategy. Blocking its action may improve anti-tumor immune responses.", + "Anti-CD39 Monoclonal Antibody TTX-030": "", + "Anti-CD40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody ABBV-927": "", + "Anti-CD40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody CDX-1140": "", + "Anti-CD40 Monoclonal Antibody Chi Lob 7/4": "", + "Anti-CD40 Monoclonal Antibody SEA-CD40": "", + "Anti-CD40/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Agonist Monoclonal Antibody GEN1042": "A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G1, Fc-silenced, bispecific, agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting both CD40 and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-CD40/anti-4-1BB bispecific agonist monoclonal antibody GEN1042 simultaneously binds to CD40 and 4-1BB, crosslinks CD40 and 4-1BB positive cells, induces conditional stimulation, and activates both CD40- and 4-1BB-medicated signaling. The activation of CD40-mediated signaling triggers the proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and activates T-cells. This results in an enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. The activation of 4-1BB-mediated signaling induces cytokine production and promotes T-cell mediated anti-tumor immune responses. CD40, a cell surface receptor and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF), is expressed on various immune cells, such as dendritic cells (DCs), macrophages and B-cells, and plays a key role in the activation of the immune system. 4-1BB, a surface glycoprotein of the TNFRSF, is an inducible costimulatory receptor that plays a key role in T-cell proliferation, survival and cytolytic activity.", + "Anti-CD40/Anti-TAA Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody ABBV-428": "", + "Anti-CD40L Fc-Fusion Protein BMS-986004": "", + "Anti-CD44 Monoclonal Antibody RO5429083": "", + "Anti-CD45 Monoclonal Antibody AHN-12": "", + "Anti-CD46 Antibody-drug Conjugate FOR46": "", + "Anti-CD47 ADC SGN-CD47M": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against human cell surface antigen CD47 conjugated to an as of yet not fully elucidated toxin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of SGN-CD47M, the anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to CD47 on tumor cell surfaces; upon internalization, the toxin moiety kills tumor cells through a mechanism of action that has not been elucidated. CD47, also called integrin-associated protein (IAP), is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed on normal, healthy hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) and overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells.", + "Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody AO-176": "", + "Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody CC-90002": "", + "Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody Hu5F9-G4": "", + "Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody IBI188": "", + "Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody IMC-002": "A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting leukocyte surface antigen CD47, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD47 monoclonal antibody IMC-002 targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells, blocking the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa) expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macrophage activation and phagocytosis of cancer cells. This induces pro-phagocytic signaling mediated by the binding of calreticulin (CRT), which is specifically expressed on the surface of tumor cells, to low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor-related protein-1 (LRP-1), which is expressed on macrophages, and results in macrophage activation and the specific phagocytosis of tumor cells. CD47, also called integrin-associated protein (IAP), is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed on normal, healthy hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) and overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells. Expression of CD47, and its interaction with SIRPa, leads to the inhibition of macrophage activation and protects cancer cells from phagocytosis, thereby allowing cancer cells to proliferate. IMC-002 does not bind to red blood cells (RBCs). This may prevent adverse effects such as anemia that can result from the blockade of CD47 expressed on RBCs.", + "Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody SHR-1603": "", + "Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody SRF231": "", + "Anti-CD47 Monoclonal Antibody TJC4": "", + "Anti-CD47/CD19 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody TG-1801": "A bispecific monoclonal antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD19, and another that is directed against the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CD47/CD19 bispecific monoclonal antibody TG-1801, the anti-CD19 moiety selectively targets and binds to CD19 on CD19-positive B-cells, thereby improving binding of the anti-CD47 moiety to the CD19+ malignant B-cells. The CD47 binding by TG-1801 blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha), an inhibitory protein expressed on macrophages and dendritic cells (DCs), which prevents CD47/SIRPalpha-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPalpha-mediated inhibition of phagocytosis. This induces pro-phagocytic signaling mediated by the binding of calreticulin (CRT), which is specifically expressed on the surface of tumor cells, to low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor-related protein (LRP), expressed on macrophages, which results in macrophage activation and the specific phagocytosis of the CD19/CD47-expressing tumor cells. Additionally, blocking CD47 signaling activates an anti-tumor T-lymphocyte immune response and T-cell-mediated killing of CD19/CD47-expressing tumor cells. In addition, TG-1801 induces an anti-tumor activity through the induction of antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). CD47, also called integrin-associated protein (IAP), is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), widely expressed on normal, healthy cells, such as red blood cells and platelets, and overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells. Expression of CD47, and its interaction with SIRPalpha, leads to the inhibition of macrophage activation and protects cancer cells from phagocytosis, which allows cancer cells to proliferate. CD19 is a membrane antigen that is widely expressed during B-cell development and in B-cell malignancies. By co-targeting CD47 and CD19, TG-1801 has the potential to overcome the limitations of existing CD47-targeted therapies by possibly avoiding the side effects caused by binding to CD47 on healthy hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) which causes unwanted macrophage-mediated phagocytosis.", + "Anti-CD48/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-CD48A": "", + "Anti-CD52 Monoclonal Antibody ALLO-647": "", + "Anti-CD70 Antibody-Drug Conjugate MDX-1203": "", + "Anti-CD70 Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-CD70A": "", + "Anti-CD70 CAR-expressing T Lymphocytes": "", + "Anti-CD70 Monoclonal Antibody MDX-1411": "", + "Anti-CD71/vcMMAE Probody-drug Conjugate CX-2029": "", + "Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986179": "", + "Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody CPI-006": "", + "Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody NZV930": "", + "Anti-CD73 Monoclonal Antibody TJ4309": "", + "Anti-CD74 Antibody-drug Conjugate STRO-001": "", + "Anti-CD98 Monoclonal Antibody IGN523": "", + "Anti-CD117 Monoclonal Antibody JSP191": "A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against CD117 (tyrosine-protein kinase KIT; c-Kit; mast/stem cell growth factor receptor; SCFR), that can potentially be used to deplete hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs). Upon administration, the anti-CD117 monoclonal antibody JSP191 targets and binds to CD117. This prevents the binding of stem cell factor (SCF) to its receptor CD117 on HSCs. As CD117 binding to SCF is critical for survival and maintenance of blood forming stem cells, blocking this interaction causes the HSCs that are present in the bone marrow niches to be depleted. JSP191 can potentially be used as a conditioning regimen to prepare patients for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.", + "Anti-CD122 Humanized Monoclonal Antibody Mik-Beta-1": "", + "Anti-CD123 ADC IMGN632": "", + "Anti-CD123 Monoclonal Antibody CSL360": "", + "Anti-CD123 Monoclonal Antibody KHK2823": "", + "Anti-CD123 x Anti-CD3 Bispecific Antibody XmAb1404": "", + "Anti-CD123-Pyrrolobenzodiazepine Dimer Antibody Drug Conjugate SGN-CD123A": "", + "Anti-CD123/CD3 Bispecific Antibody APVO436": "", + "Anti-CD123/CD3 Bispecific Antibody JNJ-63709178": "", + "Anti-CD123/CD3 BiTE Antibody SAR440234": "", + "Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody ADG106": "", + "Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody AGEN2373": "A conditionally-active, fully human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the costimulatory receptor CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137 agonistic monoclonal antibody AGEN2373 targets and binds to a non-ligand blocking epitope on CD137, thereby activating CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. This enhances CD137-mediated signaling, induces cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) proliferation, cytokine production and promotes a CTL-mediated anti-tumor immune response as well as induces NK-mediated tumor cell killing and suppresses the immunosuppressive activity of T-regulatory cells (Tregs). CD137, a surface glycoprotein of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, is an inducible costimulatory receptor that plays a key role in T-cell proliferation, survival and cytolytic activity. In addition, as AGEN2373 engages with CD137 only in the presence of CD137 ligand and/or Fc gamma receptor-expressing antigen-presenting cells (APCs), this agent may have a decreased toxicity profile and improved tolerability compared to other agents that activate CD137 signaling beyond the tumor site in humans.", + "Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody ATOR-1017": "A humanized agonistic immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody targeting the costimulatory receptor CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137 agonistic monoclonal antibody ATOR-1017 targets and binds to CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells, and CD137 is activated upon crosslinking to Fc-gamma receptors (FcgRs) on macrophages. This enhances CD137-mediated signaling, induces cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) proliferation, cytokine production and promotes a CTL-mediated anti-tumor immune response as well as induces NK-mediated tumor cell killing and suppresses the immunosuppressive activity of T-regulatory cells (Tregs). CD137, a surface glycoprotein of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, is an inducible costimulatory receptor that plays a key role in T-cell proliferation, survival and cytolytic activity. 4-1BB and FcgRs are both highly expressed in the tumor environment (TME) while their co-expression in non-tumor tissues is low. This may prevent systemic adverse effects.", + "Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody CTX-471": "", + "Anti-CD137 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody LVGN6051": "A humanized agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the costimulatory receptor CD137 (4-1BB; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CD137 agonistic monoclonal antibody LVGN6051 targets and binds to CD137, thereby activating CD137 expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. This enhances CD137-mediated signaling, induces cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) proliferation, cytokine production and promotes a CTL-mediated anti-tumor immune response as well as induces NK-mediated tumor cell killing and suppresses the immunosuppressive activity of T-regulatory cells (Tregs). CD137, a surface glycoprotein of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, is an inducible costimulatory receptor that plays a key role in T-cell proliferation, survival and cytolytic activity.", + "Anti-CD157 Monoclonal Antibody MEN1112": "", + "Anti-CD166 Probody-drug Conjugate CX-2009": "", + "Anti-CD205 Antibody-drug Conjugate OBT076": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) comprised of an anti-CD205 (lymphocyte antigen 75; Ly75) humanized immunoglobin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody conjugated to DM4, a maytansinoid microtubule disruptor, via a cleavable N-succinimidyl-4-(2-pyridyldithio) butanoate (SPDB) linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CD205 ADC OBT076 specifically targets and binds to CD205, a receptor involved in antigen capture and endocytosis, expressed on tumor cells. Following rapid internalization of the ADC/CD205 complex, OBT076 releases its DM4 payload due to cleavage of the SPDB linker by intracellular proteases. Then the DM4 binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, resulting in the inhibition of both cell division and cell growth of CD205-expressing tumor cells. CD205, a type I transmembrane surface glycoprotein belonging to the C-type lectin receptor family, is normally expressed on various antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and some leukocyte sub-populations but it is overexpressed in multiple cancer types where it plays a key role in facilitating metastatic invasion.", + "Anti-CD228/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-CD228A": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized antibody targeting the cell surface antigen cluster of differentiation (CD228; melanotransferrin; MFI2; MELTF) that is conjugated, via a beta-glucuronidase-cleavable linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Following administration, the antibody moiety of anti-CD228/MMAE ADC SGN-CD228A targets and binds to CD228 on the surface of tumor cells. Following internalization of SGN-CD228A and release of MMAE, MMAE targets and binds to tubulin, and inhibits microtubule polymerization. This results in G2/M phase cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in CD228-expressing tumor cells. CD228, a cell-surfaced, glycosylphosphatidylinoitol (GPI)-anchored glycoprotein, belongs to the transferrin family of iron-binding proteins.", + "Anti-CD352 Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-CD352A": "", + "Anti-CDH6 Antibody-drug Conjugate HKT288": "", + "Anti-CEA BiTE Monoclonal Antibody AMG211": "", + "Anti-CEA/Anti-DTPA-In (F6-734) Bispecific Antibody": "", + "Anti-CEA/Anti-HSG Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody TF2": "", + "Anti-CEACAM1 Monoclonal Antibody CM-24": "", + "Anti-CEACAM5 Antibody-Drug Conjugate SAR408701": "", + "Anti-CEACAM6 AFAIKL2 Antibody Fragment/Jack Bean Urease Immunoconjugate L-DOS47": "", + "Anti-CEACAM6 Antibody BAY1834942": "", + "Anti-claudin18.2 Monoclonal Antibody AB011": "A recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-claudin18.2 monoclonal antibody AB011 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may kill CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells and inhibit cell proliferation. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein and stomach-specific isoform of claudin-18, is expressed on a variety of tumor cells, but its expression in healthy tissues is strictly confined to short-lived differentiated epithelial cells of the gastric mucosa.", + "Anti-Claudin18.2 Monoclonal Antibody TST001": "A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Claudin18.2 (CLDN18.2; A2 isoform of claudin-18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-claudin18.2 monoclonal antibody TST001 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits CLDN18.2 expressed on tumor cells. This may kill CLDN18.2-expressing tumor cells by antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC), and inhibit cell proliferation. CLDN18.2, a tight junction protein and stomach-specific isoform of claudin-18, is overexpressed on a variety of tumor cells, but its expression in healthy tissues is strictly confined to short-lived differentiated epithelial cells of the gastric mucosa. TST001 is produced with reduced fucosylation.", + "Anti-CLDN6 Monoclonal Antibody ASP1650": "", + "Anti-CLEC12A/CD3 Bispecific Antibody MCLA117": "", + "Anti-CLEVER-1 Monoclonal Antibody FP-1305": "", + "Anti-CSF1 Monoclonal Antibody PD-0360324": "", + "Anti-CSF1R Monoclonal Antibody IMC-CS4": "", + "Anti-CSF1R Monoclonal Antibody SNDX-6352": "", + "Anti-CTGF Monoclonal Antibody FG-3019": "", + "Anti-CTLA4 Antibody Fc Fusion Protein KN044": "A recombinant, humanized fusion protein consisting of a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4) single domain antibody linked to a Fc domain, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA4 antibody Fc fusion protein KN044 targets and binds to CTLA4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA4, an inhibitory receptor and member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), plays a key role in the downregulation of the immune system.", + "Anti-CTLA4 Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986218": "", + "Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody ADG116": "A human monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody ADG116 targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells, thereby killing cancer cells. CTLA-4, an inhibitory receptor and member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), plays a key role in the downregulation of the immune system.", + "Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody ADU-1604": "", + "Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody AGEN1181": "", + "Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody BCD-145": "", + "Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody HBM4003": "A recombinant human heavy chain only antibody (HCAb) directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4;CTLA4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody HBM4003 targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells, and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. In addition, HBM4003 induces an antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity (ADCC). CTLA-4, an inhibitory receptor and member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), plays a key role in the downregulation of the immune system. HBM4003, being a HCAb, is smaller than conventional antibodies which may allow for increased tissue penetration.", + "Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody MK-1308": "", + "Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody ONC-392": "A humanized, pH-sensitive immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4; CD152), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibody ONC-392 targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells, thereby killing cancer cells. As ONC-392 is dissociated from CTLA-4 under low pH, it does not cause lysosomal degradation of CTLA-4, preserving CTLA-4 and allowing the recycling of CTLA-4. This may result in more efficient and selective CTLA-4-targeted regulatory T-cell (Treg) depletion within the tumor microenvironment (TME) while preserving CTLA-4 functions outside the TME, thereby reducing toxicities. CTLA-4, an inhibitory receptor and member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), plays a key role in the downregulation of the immune system.", + "Anti-CTLA-4 Monoclonal Antibody REGN4659": "", + "Anti-CTLA-4 Probody BMS-986288": "A probody composed of a modified version of ipilimumab, a recombinant human monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), linked to a proprietary masking peptide that covers the active antigen-binding site of the antibody through a protease-cleavable linker, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-CTLA-4 probody BMS-986288, the masking peptide is cleaved by tumor-associated proteases upon extravasation into the tumor microenvironment (TME). Protease-mediated removal of the linker enables binding of the unmasked monoclonal antibody moiety to CTLA-4, which is expressed on certain T-cells. This inhibits the CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation, and leads to both activation of tumor infiltrating T-effector cells and a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA4, an inhibitory receptor and member of the immunoglobulin superfamily expressed on activated effector T-cells (Teffs) and regulatory T-cells (Tregs), plays a key role in the inhibition of T-cell activity and downregulation of the immune system. The peptide masking of BMS-986288 minimizes binding to CTLA-4 in normal tissues and may reduce systemic toxicity, when compared to ipilimumab. Tumor-associated proteases are present in high concentrations and aberrantly activated in the TME.", + "Anti-CTLA-4/Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody Combination BCD-217": "A fixed dose combination of two monoclonal antibodies of which one is directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the other one is directed against the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-CTLA-4/anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody combination BCD-217 targets and binds to both PD-1 and CTLA-4 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and inhibits the PD-1- and CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation and proliferation. This restores immune function and activates a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. Both PD-1 and CTLA-4 are selectively expressed on TILs in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and negatively regulate the activation and effector functions of T-cells. They play key roles in the downregulation of the immune system and tumor evasion from host immunity. Dual checkpoint blockade of PD-1 and CTLA-4 enhances T-cell activation and proliferation more than the blockade of either immune checkpoint receptor alone.", + "Anti-CTLA-4/LAG-3 Bispecific Antibody XmAb22841": "", + "Anti-CTLA-4/OX40 Bispecific Antibody ATOR-1015": "", + "Anti-CXCR4 Monoclonal Antibody PF-06747143": "", + "Anti-Denatured Collagen Monoclonal Antibody TRC093": "", + "Anti-DKK1 Monoclonal Antibody BHQ880": "", + "Anti-DKK-1 Monoclonal Antibody LY2812176": "", + "Anti-DLL3/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 757": "", + "Anti-DLL4 Monoclonal Antibody MEDI0639": "", + "Anti-DLL4/VEGF Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody OMP-305B83": "", + "Anti-DR5 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody TRA-8": "", + "Anti-DR5 Agonistic Antibody DS-8273a": "", + "Anti-DR5 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody INBRX-109": "", + "Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody CPGJ 602": "", + "Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody EMD 55900": "", + "Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody GC1118": "", + "Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody GT-MAB 5.2-GEX": "", + "Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody HLX-07": "", + "Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody Mixture MM-151": "", + "Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody RO5083945": "", + "Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody SCT200": "", + "Anti-EGFR Monoclonal Antibody SYN004": "", + "Anti-EGFR TAP Antibody-drug Conjugate IMGN289": "", + "Anti-EGFR/c-Met Bispecific Antibody EMB-01": "", + "Anti-EGFR/c-Met Bispecific Antibody JNJ-61186372": "", + "Anti-EGFR/CD16A Bispecific Antibody AFM24": "A human, tetravalent, bispecific antibody targeting both the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and the human low affinity IgG Fc region receptor IIIA (FCGR3A; CD16A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-EGFR/CD16A bispecific antibody AFM24 simultaneously targets and binds to the CD16A expressed on natural killer (NK) cells and macrophages, and to EGFR on EGFR-expressing tumor cells, thereby selectively cross-linking EGFR-expressing tumor cells with NK cells and macrophages. This may result in NK cell and macrophage activation, antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), antibody-dependent cellular phagocytosis (ADCP), and eventually tumor cell lysis. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. CD16A is specifically expressed on the surface of NK cells and macrophages.", + "Anti-EGFR/DM1 Antibody-drug Conjugate AVID100": "", + "Anti-EGFR/HER2/HER3 Monoclonal Antibody Mixture Sym013": "", + "Anti-EGFR/PBD Antibody-drug Conjugate ABBV-321": "", + "Anti-EGFRvIII Antibody Drug Conjugate AMG 595": "", + "Anti-EGFRvIII Immunotoxin MR1-1": "", + "Anti-EGFRvIII/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 596": "", + "Anti-EGP-2 Immunotoxin MOC31-PE": "", + "Anti-ENPP3 Antibody-Drug Conjugate AGS-16C3F": "", + "Anti-ENPP3/MMAF Antibody-Drug Conjugate AGS-16M8F": "", + "Anti-Ep-CAM Monoclonal Antibody ING-1": "", + "Anti-EphA2 Antibody-directed Liposomal Docetaxel Prodrug MM-310": "", + "Anti-EphA2 Monoclonal Antibody DS-8895a": "", + "Anti-EphA2 Monoclonal Antibody-MMAF Immunoconjugate MEDI-547": "", + "Anti-ErbB2/Anti-ErbB3 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody MM-111": "", + "Anti-ErbB3 Antibody ISU104": "", + "Anti-ErbB3 Monoclonal Antibody AV-203": "", + "Anti-ErbB3 Monoclonal Antibody CDX-3379": "", + "Anti-ErbB3 Monoclonal Antibody REGN1400": "", + "Anti-ErbB3/Anti-IGF-1R Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody MM-141": "", + "Anti-ETBR/MMAE Antibody-Drug Conjugate DEDN6526A": "", + "Anti-FAP/Interleukin-2 Fusion Protein RO6874281": "", + "Anti-FCRH5/CD3 BiTE Antibody BFCR4350A": "", + "Anti-FGFR2 Antibody BAY1179470": "", + "Anti-FGFR3 Antibody-drug Conjugate LY3076226": "", + "Anti-FGFR4 Monoclonal Antibody U3-1784": "", + "Anti-FLT3 Antibody-drug Conjugate AGS62P1": "", + "Anti-FLT3 Monoclonal Antibody 4G8-SDIEM": "", + "Anti-FLT3 Monoclonal Antibody IMC-EB10": "", + "Anti-FLT3/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 427": "", + "Anti-Folate Receptor-alpha Antibody Drug Conjugate STRO-002": "", + "Anti-FRA/Eribulin Antibody-drug Conjugate MORAb-202": "An antibody drug conjugate (ADC) composed of farletuzumab, a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the folate receptor alpha (FRA; FolRa; FOLR1), and conjugated, via a cathepsin B-cleavable linker, to the microtubule-targeting agent (MTA) eribulin, a derivative of the macrocyclic polyether natural product halichondrin B, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of MORAb-202, the farletuzumab moiety targets and binds to FRA expressed on certain tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization, and enzymatic cleavage, eribulin binds to the vinca domain of tubulin and inhibits the polymerization of tubulin and the assembly of microtubules, resulting in inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly, induction of cell cycle arrest at G2/M phase, and the induction of tumor cell death in FRA-expressing cells. FRA is a glycosylphosphatidylinositol linked cell-surface glycoprotein that is widely expressed in certain cancers while its expression is limited in normal tissues.", + "Anti-fucosyl-GM1 Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986012": "", + "Anti-Ganglioside GM2 Monoclonal Antibody BIW-8962": "", + "Anti-GARP Monoclonal Antibody ABBV-151": "A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the transforming growth factor beta (TGFbeta) activator, glycoprotein A repetitions predominant (GARP; leucine-rich repeat-containing protein 32; LRRC32), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-GARP monoclonal antibody ABBV-151 selectively targets and binds to GARP which interferes with the production and release of active TGFbeta by regulatory T-cells (Tregs). Selective inhibition of the release of TGFbeta from Tregs leads to a reversal of immunosuppression thereby increasing the immune response to tumor cells. GARP, a leucine-rich repeat-containing protein, is essential for the expression of TGFbeta on the cell surface of activated Tregs; it plays an important role in regulation of the immune cell function.", + "Anti-GCC Antibody-Drug Conjugate MLN0264": "", + "Anti-GCC Antibody-Drug Conjugate TAK-164": "", + "Anti-GD2 hu3F8/Anti-CD3 huOKT3 Bispecific Antibody": "", + "Anti-GD2 Monoclonal Antibody hu14.18K322A": "", + "Anti-GD2 Monoclonal Antibody MORAb-028": "", + "Anti-GD3 Antibody-drug Conjugate PF-06688992": "", + "Anti-GITR Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody ASP1951": "", + "Anti-GITR Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986156": "", + "Anti-GITR Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody INCAGN01876": "", + "Anti-GITR Monoclonal Antibody GWN 323": "", + "Anti-GITR Monoclonal Antibody MK-4166": "", + "Anti-Globo H Monoclonal Antibody OBI-888": "", + "Anti-Globo H/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate OBI 999": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of OBI-888 (OBI 888), a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) globohexaosylceramide (globo H), covalently linked to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-globo H/MMAE ADC OBI 999, the antibody moiety of OBI 999, OBI 888, targets and binds to globo H on tumor cells and is rapidly internalized, thereby delivering MMAE intracellularly. Upon proteolytic cleavage, MMAE targets and binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, resulting in G2/M checkpoint arrest and apoptosis in globo H-expressing tumor cells. Globo H, a hexasaccharide glycosphingolipid, is (over)expressed on the surface of many types of tumor cells. Globo H is minimally or not expressed on healthy, normal cells; its expression on cancer cells is associated with increased proliferation and poor prognosis.", + "Anti-Glypican 3/CD3 Bispecific Antibody ERY974": "", + "Anti-GnRH Vaccine PEP223": "", + "Anti-gpA33/CD3 Monoclonal Antibody MGD007": "", + "Anti-GPR20/DXd Antibody-drug Conjugate DS-6157a": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the G protein-coupled receptor 20 (GPR20) conjugated to the cytotoxic DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor and exatecan derivative DXd (MAAA-1181a; MAAA-1181), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-GPR20/DXd ADC DS-6157a, the anti-GPR20 antibody targets and binds to GPR20-expressing tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake, the DXd moiety targets and binds to DNA topoisomerase I, thereby stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA, resulting in DNA breaks, inhibition of DNA replication and apoptosis. This inhibits the proliferation of GPR20-expressing tumor cells. GPR20 is overexpressed on certain tumor cell types.", + "Anti-gremlin-1 Monoclonal Antibody UCB6114": "A monoclonal antibody directed against gremlin-1 (GREM1; Drm), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-gremlin-1 antibody UCB6114 specifically targets and binds to gremlin-1, thereby neutralizing Gremlin-1. This may block the gremlin-1-mediated inhibition of bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) signaling pathways, and may lead to the inhibition of tumor cell growth and proliferation. Gremlin-1, a BMP antagonist that is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, is involved in cancer cell growth and proliferation as well as tissue fibrosis.", + "Anti-GRP78 Monoclonal Antibody PAT-SM6": "", + "Anti-HA Epitope Monoclonal Antibody MEDI8852": "", + "Anti-HB-EGF Monoclonal Antibody KHK2866": "", + "Anti-HBEGF Monoclonal Antibody U3-1565": "", + "Anti-hepcidin Monoclonal Antibody LY2787106": "", + "Anti-HER2 ADC DS-8201a": "", + "Anti-HER2 Antibody Conjugated Natural Killer Cells ACE1702": "An off-the-shelf preparation of natural killer (NK) cells conjugated to a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER2 antibody conjugated natural killer cells ACE1702, the antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cells, which may lead to cell lysis of HER2-expressing tumor cells by the NK cells. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types.", + "Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate A166": "", + "Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate ARX788": "", + "Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate BAT8001": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) conjugated via an uncleavable linker to an as of yet undisclosed maytansine derivative, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-HER2 ADC BAT8001, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake, the cytotoxic maytansine derivative binds to tubulin, thereby affecting microtubule assembly and disassembly dynamics. This inhibits tumor cell proliferation and induces apoptosis in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types.", + "Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate DP303c": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) and conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER2 ADC DP303c, the antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent induces tumor cell apoptosis, through an as of yet not publicly known mechanism. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types.", + "Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate MEDI4276": "", + "Anti-HER2 Antibody-drug Conjugate RC48": "", + "Anti-HER2 Bi-specific Monoclonal Antibody ZW25": "", + "Anti-HER2 Bispecific Antibody-drug Conjugate ZW49": "", + "Anti-HER2 Immune Stimulator-antibody Conjugate NJH395": "", + "Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody B002": "A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody B002 targets and binds to HER2 on HER2-expressing tumor cells. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and may lead to antitumor activity. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types.", + "Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody CT-P6": "", + "Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody HLX22": "A humanized immunoglobulin (lg) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody HLX22 targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cell surface. This may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response as well as an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor cells that overexpress HER2. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types.", + "Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody/Anti-CD137Anticalin Bispecific Fusion Protein PRS-343": "", + "Anti-HER2-DM1 ADC B003": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of a recombinant humanized anti-epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) monoclonal antibody conjugated to the maytansinoid DM1 via a nonreducible thioether linkage (MCC), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of B003, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cell surfaces; upon internalization, the DM1 moiety is released and binds to tubulin, thereby disrupting microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, inhibiting cell division and the proliferation of cancer cells that overexpress HER2.", + "Anti-HER2-DM1 Antibody-drug Conjugate GQ1001": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) and conjugated, via a site-specific linker, to the cytotoxic maytansinoid mertansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-HER2-DM1 ADC GQ1001, the antibody moiety targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cell surfaces. Upon cellular uptake and internalization, DM1 binds to tubulin and interferes with microtubule assembly and disassembly dynamics. This inhibits cell division and the proliferation of tumor cells that overexpress HER2. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types.", + "Anti-HER2-vc0101 ADC PF-06804103": "", + "Anti-HER2/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody BTRC 4017A": "", + "Anti-HER2/Anti-CD3 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody GBR 1302": "", + "Anti-HER2/Anti-HER3 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody MCLA-128": "", + "Anti-HER2/Auristatin Payload Antibody-drug Conjugate XMT-1522": "", + "Anti-HER2/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate MRG002": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Following administration, the antibody moiety of anti-HER2/MMAE ADC MRG002 targets and binds to HER2 on the surface of tumor cells. Following internalization of MRG002, MMAE targets and binds to tubulin, and inhibits microtubule polymerization. This results in G2/M phase cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types.", + "Anti-HER2/PBD-MA Antibody-drug Conjugate DHES0815A": "", + "Anti-HER3 Antibody-drug Conjugate U3 1402": "", + "Anti-HER3 Monoclonal Antibody GSK2849330": "", + "Anti-HER-2 Bispecific Antibody KN026": "", + "Anti-HGF Monoclonal Antibody TAK-701": "", + "Anti-HIF-1alpha LNA Antisense Oligonucleotide EZN-2968": "", + "Anti-HIV-1 Lentiviral Vector-expressing sh5/C46 Cal-1": "", + "Anti-HLA-DR Monoclonal Antibody IMMU-114": "", + "Anti-HLA-G Antibody TTX-080": "An antibody targeting HLA-G histocompatibility antigen, class I, G (human leukocyte antigen G; HLA-G), with potential immune checkpoint inhibiting, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-HLA-G antibody TTX-080 targets and binds to HLA-G, thereby preventing the binding of HLA-G to its inhibitory receptors on a variety of immune cells, such as natural killer cells (NKs), T- and B-lymphocytes, and dendritic cells (DCs). This may prevent the HLA-G-mediated immune suppression, thereby activating both innate and adaptive immune responses. This may activate anti-tumor immune responses. HLA-G, an immune checkpoint normally expressed at the maternal-fetal interface, is expressed across multiple tumor types and plays a key role in cancer immune evasion.", + "Anti-human GITR Monoclonal Antibody AMG 228": "", + "Anti-human GITR Monoclonal Antibody TRX518": "", + "Anti-ICAM-1 Monoclonal Antibody BI-505": "", + "Anti-ICOS Agonist Antibody GSK3359609": "", + "Anti-ICOS Agonist Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986226": "", + "Anti-ICOS Monoclonal Antibody KY1044": "", + "Anti-ICOS Monoclonal Antibody MEDI-570": "", + "Anti-IGF-1R Monoclonal Antibody AVE1642": "", + "Anti-IGF-1R Recombinant Monoclonal Antibody BIIB022": "", + "Anti-IL-1 alpha Monoclonal Antibody MABp1": "", + "Anti-IL-8 Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986253": "A human monoclonal antibody against the pro-inflammatory mediator interleukin-8 (IL-8; CXCL8), with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, BMS-986253 directly binds to IL-8, thereby inhibiting the binding of IL-8 to its receptors CXCR1 and CXCR2. This inhibits activation of IL-8-mediated signaling transduction pathways, which decreases proliferation of susceptible tumor cells. Also, BMS-986253 effectively blocks binding of IL-8 to neutrophils and inhibits neutrophil activation and recruitment towards sites of inflammation, which reduces inflammation. IL-8, a member of the CXC chemokine family, is upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types and inflammatory diseases; it plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation, endothelial cell proliferation, and cancer stem cell (CSC) renewal.", + "Anti-IL-8 Monoclonal Antibody HuMax-IL8": "", + "Anti-IL-13 Humanized Monoclonal Antibody TNX-650": "", + "Anti-IL-15 Monoclonal Antibody AMG 714": "", + "Anti-ILDR2 Monoclonal Antibody BAY 1905254": "", + "Anti-ILT4 Monoclonal Antibody MK-4830": "", + "Anti-integrin Beta-6/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate SGN-B6A": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized antibody targeting integrin beta-6 and conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of anti-integrin beta-6/MMAE ADC SGN-B6A targets and binds to integrin beta-6 on the surface of tumor cells. Following internalization of SGN-B6A and release of MMAE, MMAE targets and binds to tubulin, and inhibits microtubule polymerization. This results in G2/M phase cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in integrin beta-6-expressing tumor cells. Integrin beta-6 is a subunit of integrin alpha-V beta-6 (aVb6). Integrin aVb6, a cell adhesion and signaling receptor, is upregulated in certain cancer cell types and has been associated with increased proliferation, migration and invasion of tumor cells.", + "Anti-Integrin Monoclonal Antibody-DM4 Immunoconjugate IMGN388": "", + "Anti-IRF4 Antisense Oligonucleotide ION251": "An antisense oligonucleotide (ASO) targeting the interferon regulatory factor 4 (IRF4) mRNA, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, anti-IRF4 ASO ION251 hybridizes with IRF4 mRNA, which blocks translation of the IRF4 protein. Reduction of IRF4 levels prevents the expression of IRF4-controlled tumor promoter genes, and may enhance tumor cell apoptosis and prevent T-cell exhaustion. IRF4, a transcription factor expressed in lymphocytes and essential for plasma cell differentiation, is involved in immune cell development and plays a key role in T-cell functions. It is overexpressed in certain tumor cell types and is a key regulator of multiple genes controlling tumor cell survival.", + "Anti-KIR Monoclonal Antibody IPH 2101": "", + "Anti-KSP/Anti-VEGF siRNAs ALN-VSP02": "", + "Anti-LAG3 Monoclonal Antibody BI 754111": "", + "Anti-LAG3 Monoclonal Antibody MK-4280": "", + "Anti-LAG3 Monoclonal Antibody TSR-033": "", + "Anti-LAG-3 Monoclonal Antibody IBI-110": "A monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory receptor lymphocyte-activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LAG-3 monoclonal antibody IBI110 targets and binds to LAG-3 expressed by tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks the interaction between LAG-3 and major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC II) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and tumor cells. This prevents the negative regulation of T-cell activity that occurs via LAG-3-MHC II binding and enhances a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells, leading to a reduction in tumor growth. LAG-3, a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), negatively regulates both the proliferation and activation of T-cells. Its expression on TILs is associated with tumor-mediated immune suppression.", + "Anti-LAG-3 Monoclonal Antibody INCAGN02385": "", + "Anti-LAG-3 Monoclonal Antibody LAG525": "", + "Anti-LAG-3 Monoclonal Antibody REGN3767": "", + "Anti-LAG-3/PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody FS118": "", + "Anti-LAMP1 Antibody-drug Conjugate SAR428926": "", + "Anti-latent TGF-beta 1 Monoclonal Antibody SRK-181": "A monoclonal antibody directed against latent human transforming growth factor (TGF)-beta 1 (TGFb1; TGF-b1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-latent TGFb1 monoclonal antibody SRK-181 specifically targets, binds to, and inhibits the activation of latent TGFb1 complexes, thereby preventing TGFb1-mediated signaling. This abrogates TGFb1-mediated immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and promotes a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells leading to tumor cell death. This may lead to a reduction in TGFb1-dependent proliferation of cancer cells. The TGF-beta signaling pathway is often deregulated in tumors and plays a key role in the regulation of cell growth, differentiation, apoptosis, motility, invasion, and angiogenesis. It plays a key role in immunosuppression in the TME. TGFb1 is the predominant isoform in many tumors.", + "Anti-Lewis B/Lewis Y Monoclonal Antibody GNX102": "A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human tumor-associated carbohydrate antigens (TACAs) Lewis B (LeB) and Lewis Y (LeY), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-LeB/LeY monoclonal antibody GNX102 binds to branched LeB and LeY glycans, which may induce an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) response against LeB- and LeY-expressing tumor cells. LeB and LeY antigens, tetrasaccharides with low to moderate expression in monomeric form in normal adult tissues, is overexpressed in branched form in multiple forms of cancers.", + "Anti-LGR5 Monoclonal Antibody BNC101": "", + "Anti-LIF Monoclonal Antibody MSC-1": "", + "Anti-LILRB4 Monoclonal Antibody IO-202": "A monoclonal antibody directed against the immune inhibitory receptor leukocyte immunoglobulin-like receptor B4 (LILRB4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-LILRB4 monoclonal antibody IO-202 targets, binds to and inhibits LILRB4 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells, and inhibit tumor infiltration. LILRB4, an immune inhibitory receptor normally expressed on monocytic cells and highly expressed on monocytic acute myeloid leukemia (AML) cells, functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation as its extracellular domain inhibits T-cell activity. It plays an important role in tumor infiltration in leukemias through multiple signaling pathways.", + "Anti-LIV-1 Monoclonal Antibody-MMAE Conjugate SGN-LIV1A": "", + "Anti-Ly6E Antibody-Drug Conjugate RG 7841": "", + "Anti-MAGE-A4 T-cell Receptor/Anti-CD3 scFv Fusion Protein IMC-C103C": "", + "Anti-Melanin Monoclonal Antibody PTI-6D2": "", + "Anti-mesothelin Antibody-drug Conjugate BMS-986148": "", + "Anti-mesothelin-Pseudomonas Exotoxin 24 Cytolytic Fusion Protein LMB-100": "", + "Anti-mesothelin/MMAE Antibody-Drug Conjugate DMOT4039A": "", + "Anti-mesothelin/MMAE Antibody-drug Conjugate RC88": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody directed against the human cell surface glycoprotein mesothelin and conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of anti-mesothelin/MMAE ADC RC88 targets and binds to the tumor associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin on the surface of tumor cells. Upon internalization and the release of MMAE, MMAE targets and binds to tubulin, and inhibits microtubule polymerization. This results in G2/M phase cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in mesothelin-expressing tumor cells. Mesothelin is overexpressed by all mesotheliomas and a variety of other cancers, while it is minimally expressed in normal tissue.", + "Anti-Met Monoclonal Antibody Mixture Sym015": "", + "Anti-Met/EGFR Monoclonal Antibody LY3164530": "", + "Anti-MMP-9 Monoclonal Antibody GS-5745": "", + "Anti-MUC1 Monoclonal Antibody BTH1704": "", + "Anti-MUC16/CD3 Bispecific Antibody REGN4018": "A bispecific, human monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. REGN4018 contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T cell surface antigen that is part of the T cell receptor complex, and one for human mucin 16 (MUC16, cancer antigen 125; CA125; FLJ14303), a member of the mucin family of glycoproteins that is overexpressed by several epithelial cancers, including ovarian cancer. Upon administration, REGN4018 binds to both T-cells and MUC16-expressing tumor cells, which cross-links the T-cells to the tumor cells, and may result in a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the MUC16-expressing tumor cells.", + "Anti-MUC16/CD3 BiTE Antibody REGN4018": "", + "Anti-MUC16/MMAE Antibody-Drug Conjugate DMUC4064A": "", + "Anti-MUC17/CD3 BiTE Antibody AMG 199": "A half-life extended (HLE), human bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human mucin 17 (MUC17), and one directed against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, anti-MUC17/CD3 BiTE antibody AMG 199 binds to both CD3 on T-cells and MUC17 expressed on tumor cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against MUC17-expressing tumor cells. MUC17, a member of the mucin family of glycoproteins, is overexpressed in a variety of tumor cells of epithelial origin and plays a key role in tumor cell dissemination.", + "Anti-Myeloma Monoclonal Antibody-DM4 Immunoconjugate BT-062": "", + "Anti-myostatin Monoclonal Antibody LY2495655": "", + "Anti-NaPi2b Antibody-drug Conjugate XMT-1592": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of XMT-1535, a humanized monoclonal antibody against human sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 2B (SLC34A2; NaPi2b), that is site-specifically bioconjugated to the cytotoxic aurastatin derivative auristatin F-HPA (AF-HPA; auristatin F-hydroxypropylamide), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of anti-NaPi2b ADC XMT-1592, the antibody moiety targets and binds to NaPi2b expressed on tumor cells. Following internalization of XMT-1592 and release of AF-HPA, the AF-HPA binds to tubulin and inhibits microtubule polymerization, which results in G2/M phase arrest and apoptosis of NaPi2b-expressing tumor cells. NaPi2b, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is overexpressed on a variety of cancer cells and plays a key role in the transport of inorganic phosphate (Pi) and the maintenance of phosphate homeostasis.", + "Anti-NaPi2b Monoclonal Antibody XMT-1535": "", + "Anti-nectin-4 Monoclonal Antibody-Drug Conjugate AGS-22M6E": "", + "Anti-Neuropilin-1 Monoclonal Antibody MNRP1685A": "", + "Anti-nf-P2X7 Antibody Ointment BIL-010t": "", + "Anti-NRP1 Antibody ASP1948": "A human immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against neuropilin-1 (NRP1; CD304; BDCA-4), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-NRP1 antibody ASP1948 specifically targets and binds to NRP1. This prevents the binding of NRP1 to its ligand and may block the immune inhibitory actions of regulatory T-cells (Tregs) mediated by the interaction of NRP1 with its ligand. This may enhance the immune response against tumor cells. NRP1 is a transmembrane co-receptor protein expressed in Tregs; it plays an important role in maintaining the stability and function of Tregs.", + "Anti-Nucleolin Aptamer AS1411": "", + "Anti-NY-ESO1/LAGE-1A TCR/scFv Anti-CD3 IMCnyeso": "", + "Anti-NY-ESO-1 Immunotherapeutic GSK-2241658A": "", + "Anti-OFA Immunotherapeutic BB-MPI-03": "", + "Anti-OX40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody ABBV-368": "", + "Anti-OX40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody BGB-A445": "An agonistic monoclonal antibody targeting the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-OX40 agonist monoclonal antibody BGB-A445 selectively binds to OX40, thereby activating OX40. This induces the proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and results in a T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells, which leads to tumor cell lysis. OX40, a cell surface glycoprotein and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF), is expressed on T-lymphocytes and provides a co-stimulatory signal that promotes both the proliferation and survival of activated T-cells.", + "Anti-OX40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody PF-04518600": "", + "Anti-OX40 Antibody BMS 986178": "", + "Anti-OX40 Hexavalent Agonist Antibody INBRX-106": "An agonistic, recombinant, humanized, hexavalent immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibody targeting the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-OX40 hexavalent agonist antibody INBRX-106 selectively binds to six OX40 receptors per molecule, thereby clustering and activating OX40. This induces the proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and results in a T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells, which leads to tumor cell lysis. OX40, a cell surface glycoprotein and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF), is expressed on T-lymphocytes and provides a co-stimulatory signal that promotes both the proliferation and survival of activated T-cells. Utilizing a hexavalent OX40 antibody may improve receptor clustering and downstream signaling over tetravalent or bivalent OX40 antibodies.", + "Anti-OX40 Monoclonal Antibody GSK3174998": "", + "Anti-OX40 Monoclonal Antibody IBI101": "", + "Anti-PD1 Monoclonal Antibody AGEN2034": "", + "Anti-PD1/CTLA4 Bispecific Antibody XmAb20717": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Antibody-interleukin-21 Mutein Fusion Protein AMG 256": "An antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) fused to a mutein of the cytokine interleukin-21 (IL-21), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-PD-1 antibody-IL-21 mutein fusion protein AMG 256, the antibody moiety specifically targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. The IL-21 mutein moiety binds to the IL-21 receptor and activates IL-21 cytokine signaling in PD-1-expressing cells. This may modulate the proliferation and/or differentiation, promote survival, and increase the cytolytic activity of PD-1-expressing T-cells, thereby enhancing T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) or 2 (PD-L2); it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity. IL-21 plays an important role in the regulation of cellular immune responses.", + "Anti-PD-1 Checkpoint Inhibitor PF-06801591": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Fusion Protein AMP-224": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody 609A": "A recombinant immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) kappa monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody 609A targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) or 2 (PD-L2); it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody AK105": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody AMG 404": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody BAT1306": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody BCD-100": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody BI 754091": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody CS1003": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody F520": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody GLS-010": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody HLX10": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody HX008": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody JTX-4014": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody LZM009": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody MEDI0680": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody MGA012": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody SCT-I10A": "A recombinant, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1 monoclonal antibody SCT-I10A targets, binds to, and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune functions through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) or 2 (PD-L2); it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody Sym021": "", + "Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody TSR-042": "", + "Anti-PD-1/Anti-CTLA4 DART Protein MGD019": "", + "Anti-PD-1/Anti-HER2 Bispecific Antibody IBI315": "A recombinant human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) and the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-PD-1/anti-HER2 bispecific antibody IBI315 simultaneously targets, binds to and inhibits HER2 and PD-1 and their downstream signaling pathways, and bridges PD-1-expressing T-cells to HER2-expressing tumor cells. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation of HER2-overexpressing cells. Inhibition of PD-1-mediated signaling may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against the HER2-expressing tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) or 2 (PD-L2); it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Anti-PD-1/Anti-LAG-3 Bispecific Antibody RO7247669": "A bispecific antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PD1; PDCD1; CD279; Programmed Death 1) and lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-LAG-3 bispecific antibody RO7247669 targets and binds to both PD-1 and LAG-3 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the PD-1- and LAG-3-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation and proliferation. This may lead to cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. PD-1 and LAG-3 play key roles in suppressing T-cell activation and proliferation.", + "Anti-PD-1/Anti-LAG-3 DART Protein MGD013": "", + "Anti-PD-1/Anti-PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody IBI318": "A recombinant immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and its ligand, human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1; CD274), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-1/anti-PD-L1 bispecific antibody IBI318 simultaneously targets and binds to PD-1, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and PD-L1, which is expressed on tumor cells. This crosslinks PD-1-expressing T cells and PD-L1-expressing tumor cells. This prevents PD-L1 from binding to and activating its receptor PD-1 and inhibits the PD-L1/PD-1-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation and proliferation. This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which may lead to a reduction in tumor growth. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on activated T-cells inhibits the expansion and survival of CD8-positive T-cells, suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion.", + "Anti-PD-1/Anti-PD-L1 Bispecific Antibody LY3434172": "", + "Anti-PD-1/CD47 Infusion Protein HX009": "A bispecific antibody fusion protein directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating, phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-PD-1/CD47 infusion protein HX009, the agent simultaneously and selectively targets and binds to PD-1 expressed on T-lymphocytes and CD47 on tumor cells. The CD47 binding by HX009 blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha), an inhibitory protein expressed on macrophages and dendritic cells (DCs), which prevents CD47/SIRPalpha-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPalpha-mediated inhibition of phagocytosis. This induces pro-phagocytic signaling mediated by the binding of calreticulin (CRT), which is specifically expressed on the surface of tumor cells, to low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor-related protein (LRP), expressed on macrophages, which results in macrophage activation and the specific phagocytosis of the CD47-expressing tumor cells. The binding of HX009 to PD-1 blocks the interaction between PD-1 and its ligands, PD-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) and PD-1 ligand 2 (PD-L2). This prevents the activation of PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore effector T-cell functions and may further activate cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated tumor cell killing. CD47, also called integrin-associated protein (IAP), is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), widely expressed on normal, healthy cells, such as red blood cells and platelets, and overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells. Expression of CD47, and its interaction with SIRPalpha, leads to the inhibition of macrophage activation and protects cancer cells from phagocytosis, which allows cancer cells to proliferate. By co-targeting CD47 and PD-1, HX009 has the potential to overcome the limitations of existing CD47-targeted therapies by possibly avoiding the side effects caused by binding to CD47 on healthy hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs), which causes unwanted macrophage-mediated phagocytosis. PD-1, an inhibitory receptor belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), is expressed on activated T-lymphocytes; it functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands, and plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Anti-PD-1/CTLA-4 Bispecific Antibody AK104": "", + "Anti-PD-1/CTLA-4 Bispecific Antibody MEDI5752": "An engineered fragment crystallizable (Fc) domain bispecific human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human negative immunoregulatory checkpoint receptors programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD1/CTLA4 bispecific antibody MEDI5752 targets and binds to both PD-1 and CTLA4 expressed on tumor-infiltrating T lymphocytes (TILs), and inhibits the PD-1- and CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation and proliferation. In addition, MEDI5752 is internalized and is able to degrade PD-1. This restores immune function and activates a sustained cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. Both PD-1 and CTLA4 are selectively expressed on TILs in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and negatively regulate the activation and effector functions of T-cells. They play key roles in the downregulation of the immune system and tumor evasion from host immunity. Dual checkpoint blockade of PD1 and CTLA4 with MEDI5752 may enhance T-cell activation and proliferation more than the blockade of either immune checkpoint receptor alone. It may also decrease toxicity by avoiding the binding to CTLA-4-expressing T-cells that are devoid of PD-1. The engineered Fc domain may reduce Fc effector function.", + "Anti-PD-1/TIM-3 Bispecific Antibody RO7121661": "", + "Anti-PD-1/VEGF Bispecific Antibody AK112": "A bispecific antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279) and the human vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-PD-1/VEGF bispecific antibody AK112, this agent simultaneously targets and binds to both PD-1 expressed on certain T-cells and VEGF. The binding of AK112 to PD-1 prevents the activation of PD-1 by its ligands, programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) and/or 2 (PD-L2). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated tumor cell lysis, which may lead to a reduction in tumor growth. The binding of AK112 to VEGF prevents binding of VEGF to its receptor VEGFR, abrogates VEGF/VEGFR-mediated signaling and may lead to the inhibition of vascular endothelial cell proliferation. The inhibition of tumor angiogenesis may further decrease tumor cell proliferation and prevent metastasis. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands PD-L1/ or PD-L2; it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity. VEGF is overexpressed in a variety of cancers and is associated with increased invasiveness and decreased survival.", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody A167": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody BCD-135": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody BGB-A333": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody CBT-502": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody CK-301": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody CS1001": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody FAZ053": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody GR1405": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody HLX20": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody IMC-001": "A human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1 monoclonal antibody IMC-001 specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling and enhances the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune response against PD-L1-expressing tumor cells. In addition, anti-PD-L1 monoclonal antibody IMC-001 also induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). PD-L1 is overexpressed by many human cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cells suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. PD-1, a transmembrane protein belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on activated T-cells, is a negative regulator of the immune system that limits the expansion and survival of CD8-positive T-cells.", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody LY3300054": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody MDX-1105": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody MSB2311": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody RC98": "A monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1 monoclonal antibody RC98 specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling and enhances the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune response against PD-L1-expressing tumor cells. PD-L1 is overexpressed by many human cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cells suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. PD-1, a transmembrane protein belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on activated T-cells, is a negative regulator of the immune system that limits the expansion and survival of CD8-positive T-cells.", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody SHR-1316": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody TG-1501": "", + "Anti-PD-L1 Monoclonal Antibody ZKAB001": "", + "Anti-PD-L1/4-1BB Bispecific Antibody INBRX-105": "", + "Anti-PD-L1/Anti-4-1BB Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody GEN1046": "A recombinant, Fc-silenced immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific antibody targeting both the human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-PD-L1/4-1BB bispecific antibody GEN1046 simultaneously targets and binds to 4-1BB, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes, and PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells. Through 4-1BB binding, GEN1046 acts as a conditional 4-1BB agonist, resulting in T-cell co-stimulation and enhances T-lymphocyte-mediated anti-tumor activity. At the same time,GEN1046 prevents PD-L1 from binding to and activating its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which may lead to a reduction in tumor growth. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on activated T-cells inhibits the expansion and survival of CD8-positive T-cells, suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. 4-1BB, a surface glycoprotein of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, is an inducible costimulatory receptor that plays a key role in T-cell proliferation, survival and cytolytic activity.", + "Anti-PD-L1/CD137 Bispecific Antibody MCLA-145": "", + "Anti-PD-L1/IL-15 Fusion Protein KD033": "A fusion protein composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) fused to the immunostimulatory cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the anti-PD-L1/IL-15 fusion protein KD033, the anti-PD-L1 antibody moiety specifically targets and binds to PD-L1 expressing cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). In turn, IL-15 stimulates the proliferation of natural killer (NK) cells, cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and memory T-cells locally in the TME, which induces an anti-tumor immune response. This may increase tumor cell killing and decrease tumor cell proliferation. IL-15 regulates CD8+ T and NK cell development, activation and proliferation. PD-L1, a transmembrane protein, is expressed on the surface of antigen presenting cells (APCs) and on many cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1, a negative regulator of the immune system on activated T-cells, limits the expansion and survival of CD8-positive T-cells, suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion.", + "Anti-PD-L1/TIM-3 Bispecific Antibody LY3415244": "", + "Anti-PGF Monoclonal Antibody RO5323441": "", + "Anti-PKN3 siRNA Atu027": "", + "Anti-PLGF Monoclonal Antibody TB-403": "", + "Anti-PR1/HLA-A2 Monoclonal Antibody Hu8F4": "", + "Anti-PRAME Immunotherapeutic GSK2302032A": "", + "Anti-PRAME T-cell Receptor/Anti-CD3 scFv Fusion Protein IMC-F106C": "A T-cell re-directing bi-specific biologic composed of a modified form of human T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) preferentially expressed antigen in melanoma (PRAME) and fused to an anti-CD3 single-chain variable fragment (scFv), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of IMC-F106C, the TCR moiety of this agent targets and binds to PRAME on tumor cells and the anti-CD3 scFv moiety binds to CD3- expressing T-lymphocytes. This selectively cross-links tumor cells and T-lymphocytes and results in a CTL-mediated death of PRAME-expressing tumor cells. The TAA PRAME is overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types.", + "Anti-PRL-3 Monoclonal Antibody PRL3-zumab": "", + "Anti-prolactin Receptor Antibody LFA102": "", + "Anti-PSCA Monoclonal Antibody AGS-1C4D4": "", + "Anti-PSMA Monoclonal Antibody MDX1201-A488": "", + "Anti-PSMA Monoclonal Antibody MLN591-DM1 Immunoconjugate MLN2704": "", + "Anti-PSMA Monoclonal Antibody-MMAE Conjugate": "", + "Anti-PSMA/CD3 Bispecific Antibody CCW702": "A bispecific antibody that targets both the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-PSMA/CD3 bispecific antibody CCW702, this bispecific antibody binds to both CD3 on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and PSMA found on PSMA-expressing tumor cells. This activates and redirects CTLs to PSMA-expressing tumor cells, which results in the CTL-mediated cell death of PSMA-expressing tumor cells. PSMA is overexpressed on the surface of metastatic and hormone-refractory prostate cancer cells.", + "Anti-PSMA/CD3 Bispecific Antibody JNJ-63898081": "", + "Anti-PSMA/CD3 Monoclonal Antibody MOR209/ES414": "", + "Anti-PSMA/CD28 Bispecific Antibody REGN5678": "", + "Anti-PSMA/PBD ADC MEDI3726": "", + "Anti-PTK7/Auristatin-0101 Antibody-drug Conjugate PF-06647020": "", + "Anti-PVRIG Monoclonal Antibody COM701": "", + "Anti-RANKL Monoclonal Antibody GB-223": "A monoclonal antibody directed against the receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa beta ligand (RANKL) with potential antiosteoclast and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-RANKL monoclonal antibody GB-223 specifically binds to RANKL and blocks the interaction of RANKL with RANK, a receptor located on osteoclast cell surfaces. This results in the inhibition of osteoclast activity, a decrease in bone resorption, and a potential increase in bone mineral density. By blocking the activation of the RANK/RANKL-mediated signaling pathway, GB-223 may also reduce tumor-associated bone destruction and may result in tumor regression in bone tumors with high RANK and RANKL expressions. RANKL, a protein expressed by osteoblastic cells, plays an important role in osteoclastic differentiation and activation. Both RANKL and RANK are overexpressed in certain bone tumors, and the RANK/RANKL-mediated signaling pathway plays an important role in certain bone tumors.", + "Anti-RANKL Monoclonal Antibody JMT103": "A recombinant, human, immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa beta ligand (RANKL), with potential antiosteoclast and bone-sparing activities. Upon administration, anti-RANKL monoclonal antibody JMT103 specifically binds to RANKL and blocks the interaction of RANKL with RANK, a receptor located on osteoclast cell surfaces. This may inhibit osteoclast activity, decrease bone resorption, increase bone mineral density, and may protect bones from tumor metastasis. This may abrogate hypercalcemia of malignancy and may correct serum calcium levels. RANKL, a protein expressed by osteoblastic cells, plays an important role in osteoclastic differentiation and activation. Both RANKL and RANK are overexpressed in certain bone tumors, and the RANK/RANKL-mediated signaling pathway plays an important role in certain bone tumors.", + "Anti-Ribonucleoprotein Antibody ATRC-101": "An engineered, human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against a ribonucleoprotein (RNP) complex, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-RNP antibody ATRC-101 targets and binds to its RNP complex antigen on tumor cells. This may activate the innate immune system, change the local tumor microenvironment (TME) and promote T cell-mediated killing of tumor cells. The tumor-restricted RNP complex is expressed in a variety of tumor cells.", + "Anti-ROR1 ADC VLS-101": "", + "Anti-ROR1/PNU-159682 Derivative Antibody-drug Conjugate NBE-002": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) receptor tyrosine kinase-like orphan receptor 1 (ROR1) site-specifically conjugated to a derivative of the highly potent anthracycline PNU-159682, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of NBE-002 targets and binds to ROR1 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the anthracycline-based toxin intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II. This leads to an inhibition of DNA replication and repair, and prevents RNA and protein synthesis. This kills the ROR1-expressing cancer cells. In addition, the PNU-159682 derivate may promote immunogenic cell death (ICD) and activate a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune response, thereby further killing the ROR1-expressing tumor cells. ROR1, also known as neurotrophic tyrosine kinase, receptor-related 1 (NTRKR1), is expressed during embryogenesis and by certain leukemias. It plays key roles in tumor cell proliferation and survival.", + "Anti-S15 Monoclonal Antibody NC318": "", + "Anti-sCLU Monoclonal Antibody AB-16B5": "", + "Anti-SIRPa Monoclonal Antibody CC-95251": "", + "Anti-SLITRK6 Monoclonal Antibody-MMAE Conjugate AGS15E": "", + "Anti-TAG-72 Monoclonal Antibody scFV CC-49/218": "", + "Anti-TF Monoclonal Antibody ALT-836": "", + "Anti-TGF-beta Monoclonal Antibody NIS793": "", + "Anti-TGF-beta Monoclonal Antibody SAR-439459": "", + "Anti-TGF-beta RII Monoclonal Antibody IMC-TR1": "", + "Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody AB154": "", + "Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody BGB-A1217": "A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT monoclonal antibody BGB-A1217 targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands CD112 (nectin-2; poliovirus receptor related-2; PRR2; PVRL2) and CD155 (poliovirus receptor; PVR; nectin-like protein 5; NECL-5). This enhances the interaction of CD112 and CD155 with the costimulatory receptor CD226 (DNAX Accessory molecule-1; DNAM-1), which is expressed on immune cells, such as natural killer (NK) cells and CD8+ T-cells. This leads to CD226 dimerization and CD226-mediated signaling and activates the immune system to exert a T-cell-mediated immune response against cancer cells. TIGIT, a member of the Ig super family (IgSF) and an immune inhibitory receptor, plays a key role in the suppression of T-cell proliferation and activation; it is involved in tumor cell immune evasion, and the inhibition of antiviral immune responses.", + "Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody BMS-986207": "", + "Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody COM902": "A fully human monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT monoclonal antibody COM902 targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands CD112 (nectin-2; poliovirus receptor related-2; PRR2; PVRL2) and CD155 (poliovirus receptor; PVR; nectin-like protein 5; NECL-5). This enhances the interaction of CD112 and CD155 with the costimulatory receptor CD226 (DNAX Accessory molecule-1; DNAM-1), which is expressed on immune cells, such as natural killer (NK) cells and CD8+ T-cells. This leads to CD226 dimerization and CD226-mediated signaling and activates the immune system to exert a T-cell-mediated immune response against cancer cells. TIGIT, a member of the Ig super family (IgSF) and an immune inhibitory receptor, plays a key role in the suppression of T-cell proliferation and activation; it is involved in tumor cell immune evasion, and the inhibition of antiviral immune responses.", + "Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody OMP-313M32": "", + "Anti-TIGIT Monoclonal Antibody SGN-TGT": "A nonfucosylated human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, anti-TIGIT monoclonal antibody SGN-TGT targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs). This prevents the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands CD112 (nectin-2; poliovirus receptor related-2; PRR2; PVRL2) and CD155 (poliovirus receptor; PVR; nectin-like protein 5; NECL-5), and enhances the interaction of CD112 and CD155 with the costimulatory receptor CD226 (DNAX Accessory molecule-1; DNAM-1), which is expressed on immune cells, such as natural killer (NK) cells and CD8+ T-cells. This enhances depletion of TIGIT-positive regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and activates the immune system to exert a T-cell-mediated immune response against cancer cells. TIGIT, a member of the Ig super family (IgSF) and an immune inhibitory receptor, plays a key role in the suppression of T-cell proliferation and activation; it is involved in tumor cell immune evasion, and the inhibition of antiviral immune responses.", + "Anti-TIM3 Monoclonal Antibody LY3321367": "", + "Anti-TIM3 Monoclonal Antibody SHR-1702": "A monoclonal antibody against the inhibitory T-cell receptor, T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-TIM3 monoclonal antibody SHR-1702 targets and binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which results in a reduction in tumor growth. TIM-3, a transmembrane protein and immune checkpoint receptor, is associated with tumor-mediated immune suppression.", + "Anti-TIM-3 Antibody BMS-986258": "", + "Anti-TIM-3 Monoclonal Antibody BGB-A425": "", + "Anti-TIM-3 Monoclonal Antibody INCAGN02390": "", + "Anti-TIM-3 Monoclonal Antibody MBG453": "", + "Anti-TIM-3 Monoclonal Antibody Sym023": "", + "Anti-TIM-3 Monoclonal Antibody TSR-022": "", + "Anti-Tissue Factor Monoclonal Antibody MORAb-066": "", + "Anti-TRAILR2/CDH17 Tetravalent Bispecific Antibody BI 905711": "A tetravalent bispecific antibody targeting both the pro-apoptotic death receptor tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL) receptor 2 (TRAILR2; death receptor 5; DR5) and cadherin-17 (CDH17), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of anti-TRAILR2/CDH17 tetravalent bispecific antibody BI 905711, the antibody targets and binds to both TRAILR2 and CDH17, expressed on tumor cells. Receptor clustering and activation of TRAILR2 induces apoptosis in CDH17-positive cancer cells. Activation of TRAILR2 plays a key role in the induction of apoptosis. CDH17-dependent clustering of TRAILR2 allows BI 905711 to selectively induce apoptosis in CDH17-expressing tumor cells thereby increasing efficacy and decreasing liver toxicity. CDH17 is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types while its expression is restricted in normal liver tissue.", + "Anti-TROP2 Antibody-drug Conjugate BAT8003": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) conjugated via an uncleavable linker to an as of yet undisclosed maytansine derivative toxin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-TROP2 ADC BAT8003, the anti-TROP2 antibody targets and binds to TROP2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake, the cytotoxic maytansine derivative binds to tubulin, thereby affecting microtubule assembly and disassembly dynamics. This inhibits tumor cell proliferation of TROP2-expressing tumor cells. TROP2 is a transmembrane protein overexpressed in various tumors. Its expression is associated with enhanced tumor aggressiveness, metastasis, drug resistance and increased tumor cell survival.", + "Anti-TROP2 Antibody-drug Conjugate SKB264": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a monoclonal antibody against tumor-associated antigen (TAA) trophoblast cell surface protein 2 (trophoblast antigen 2; calcium signal transducer 2; TROP2; TROP-2; TACSTD2; GA733-1; M1S1) conjugated to an as of yet undisclosed toxin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the anti-TROP2 ADC SKB264, the anti-TROP2 antibody targets and binds to TROP2 expressed on tumor cells. Upon cellular uptake, the undisclosed toxin exerts, through an as of yet not disclosed mechanism of action, its cytotoxic effect. This inhibits tumor cell proliferation of TROP2-expressing tumor cells. TROP2 is a transmembrane protein overexpressed in various tumors while its expression is low and/or restricted in normal, healthy tissues; its expression is associated with enhanced tumor aggressiveness, metastasis, drug resistance and increased tumor cell survival.", + "Anti-TROP2/DXd Antibody-drug Conjugate DS-1062a": "", + "Anti-TWEAK Monoclonal Antibody RG7212": "", + "Anti-VEGF Anticalin PRS-050-PEG40": "", + "Anti-VEGF Monoclonal Antibody hPV19": "", + "Anti-VEGF/ANG2 Nanobody BI 836880": "", + "Anti-VEGF/TGF-beta 1 Fusion Protein HB-002T": "", + "Anti-VEGFC Monoclonal Antibody VGX-100": "", + "Anti-VEGFR2 Monoclonal Antibody HLX06": "", + "Anti-VEGFR2 Monoclonal Antibody MSB0254": "A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against human vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR-2; VEGFR2) with potential anti-angiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, anti-VEGFR2 monoclonal antibody MSB0254 specifically binds to and inhibits VEGFR2, which may inhibit tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFR2, a tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an essential role in angiogenesis and the proliferation, survival, migration and differentiation of endothelial cells, is overexpressed in certain tumor types.", + "Anti-VEGFR3 Monoclonal Antibody IMC-3C5": "", + "Anti-VISTA Monoclonal Antibody JNJ 61610588": "", + "Antiangiogenic Drug Combination TL-118": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate ABBV-011": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate ABBV-085": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate ABBV-155": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate ABBV-176": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate ABBV-838": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate ADC XMT-1536": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate Anti-TIM-1-vcMMAE CDX-014": "", + "Antibody-Drug Conjugate DFRF4539A": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate MEDI7247": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate PF-06647263": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate PF-06664178": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-002": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-003": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-004": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-005": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-006": "", + "Antibody-drug Conjugate SC-007": "", + "Antibody-like CD95 Receptor/Fc-fusion Protein CAN-008": "", + "Antigen-presenting Cells-expressing HPV16 E6/E7 SQZ-PBMC-HPV": "", + "Antimetabolite FF-10502": "", + "Antineoplastic Agent Combination SM-88": "", + "Antineoplastic Vaccine": "", + "Antineoplastic Vaccine GV-1301": "", + "Antineoplaston A10": "", + "Antineoplaston AS2-1": "", + "Antisense Oligonucleotide GTI-2040": "", + "Antisense Oligonucleotide QR-313": "A twenty-one nucleotide-containing antisense oligonucleotide (AON) with potential use in the treatment of recessive dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa (RDEB) due to mutations in exon 73 of the COL7A1 gene. Upon topical administration, QR-313 hybridizes to a specific sequence in COL7A1 pre-mRNA, resulting in exclusion of exon 73 from mRNA and translation of a functional type VII collagen protein. This may restore functionality of integument anchoring fibrils, prevent blistering, and improve wound healing in patients with DEB. Type VII collagen is a major component of anchoring fibrils, attachment structures that mediate dermal-epidermal adherence in human skin. DEB is an inherited mechano-bullous disorder caused by mutations in the COL7A1 gene, which lead to perturbations in anchoring fibrils.", + "Antitumor B Key Active Component-alpha": "", + "Antrodia cinnamomea Supplement": "", + "Antroquinonol Capsule": "", + "Apalutamide": "", + "Apatorsen": "", + "Apaziquone": "", + "APC8015F": "", + "APE1/Ref-1 Redox Inhibitor APX3330": "", + "Aphidicoline Glycinate": "", + "Apilimod Dimesylate Capsule": "", + "Apitolisib": "", + "Apolizumab": "", + "Apomab": "", + "Apomine": "", + "Apoptosis Inducer BZL101": "", + "Apoptosis Inducer GCS-100": "", + "Apoptosis Inducer MPC-2130": "", + "Apricoxib": "", + "Aprinocarsen": "A synthetic phosphorothioate oligodeoxynucleotide. As an antisense molecule, aprinocarsen hybridizes to the 3-untranslated region of the human protein kinase C (PKC-alpha) mRNA, thereby inhibiting PKC-alpha expression and growth of PKC-alpha-dependent tumor cells. (NCI04)", + "Aprutumab": "An antibody against the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 2 (FGFR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, aprutumab binds to and inhibits FGFR2, which may result in the inhibition of both FGFR2 phosphorylation and FGFR2-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of cell proliferation and the induction of cell death of FGFR2-expressing tumor cells. FGFR2, upregulated in many tumor cell types, is a receptor tyrosine kinase, which is essential to tumor cellular proliferation, differentiation and survival.", + "Aprutumab Ixadotin": "", + "AR Antagonist BMS-641988": "", + "Arabinoxylan Compound MGN3": "", + "Aranose": "", + "ARC Fusion Protein SL-279252": "", + "Archexin": "", + "Arcitumomab": "", + "Arfolitixorin": "", + "Arginase Inhibitor INCB001158": "", + "Arginine Butyrate": "", + "Arnebia Indigo Jade Pearl Topical Cream": "", + "Arsenic Trioxide": "", + "Arsenic Trioxide Capsule Formulation ORH 2014": "", + "Artemether Sublingual Spray": "", + "Artemisinin Dimer": "", + "Artesunate": "", + "Arugula Seed Powder": "", + "Aryl Hydrocarbon Receptor Antagonist BAY2416964": "", + "Aryl Hydrocarbon Receptor Inhibitor IK-175": "An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of the aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AhR; class E basic helix-loop-helix protein 76; bHLHe76), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, AhR inhibitor IK-175 specifically targets and binds to AhR, inhibits AhR activation, prevents AhR-mediated signaling, and AhR-dependent tumor cell proliferation. Abrogation of AhR activation prevents the activation of immune-tolerant dendritic cells (DCs), regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and decreases suppressive cytokines in the tumor microenvironment (TME). It stimulates cytotoxic T-cell activation and expansion. This may restore the immune response against tumor cells. AhR, a member of the basic helix-loop-helix/Per-Arnt-Sim (bHLH/PAS) family of transcription factors, plays key roles in regulating immunity and cellular differentiation. It mediates the expression of multiple immune related and tumor cell signal transduction and proliferation genes.", + "Asaley": "", + "Asciminib": "", + "Ascrinvacumab": "", + "Ashwagandha Root Powder Extract": "", + "ASP4132": "", + "Aspacytarabine": "A small molecule pro-drug consisting of cytarabine, an antimetabolite analog of cytidine with a modified arabinose sugar moiety, covalently bonded to asparagine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, aspacytarabine targets cancer cells, which often lack asparagine synthetase and are dependent on an external source of amino acids due to their high metabolic rate. Once the prodrug is inside target cells, the cytarabine component is cleaved and competes with cytidine for incorporation into DNA. The arabinose sugar moiety of cytarabine sterically hinders the rotation of the molecule within DNA, resulting in cell cycle arrest, specifically during the S phase of replication. Cytarabine also inhibits DNA polymerase, resulting in a decrease in DNA replication and repair. Because BST-236 specifically targets cancer cells, it may spare normal tissues from cytarabine-related toxicities.", + "Asparaginase": "", + "Asparaginase Erwinia chrysanthemi": "", + "Astatine At 211 Anti-CD38 Monoclonal Antibody OKT10-B10": "", + "Astatine At 211 Anti-CD45 Monoclonal Antibody BC8-B10": "", + "Astuprotimut-R": "", + "Asulacrine": "", + "Asulacrine Isethionate": "", + "Asunercept": "A human, soluble fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domain of the CD95 receptor fused to the Fc-domain of the human IgG antibody, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, asunercept binds to the CD95 ligand (CD95L) and blocks the binding of CD95L to the CD95 receptor. In tumor cells, blockage of CD95L-mediated signaling pathways may prevent cell migration and invasive cell growth; in healthy cells, blockage of CD95L-mediated signaling pathways may prevent apoptosis and may protect cell damage. Activation of the CD95 receptor plays an important role in the initiation of apoptosis in healthy cells or the invasive growth of cancer cells.", + "At 211 Monoclonal Antibody 81C6": "", + "Atamestane": "", + "Atezolizumab": "", + "Atiprimod": "", + "Atiprimod Dihydrochloride": "", + "Atiprimod Dimaleate": "", + "ATM Inhibitor M 3541": "", + "ATM Kinase Inhibitor AZD0156": "", + "ATM Kinase Inhibitor AZD1390": "", + "Atorvastatin Calcium": "", + "Atorvastatin Sodium": "", + "ATR Inhibitor RP-3500": "An orally available inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ATR inhibitor RP-3500 selectively targets and inhibits ATR activity and blocks the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase checkpoint kinase 1 (CHK1). This prevents ATR-mediated signaling, which results in the inhibition of DNA damage checkpoint activation, the disruption of DNA damage repair, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. ATR, a serine/threonine protein kinase upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types, plays a key role in DNA repair, cell cycle progression and survival. It is activated by DNA damage caused during DNA replication-associated stress.", + "ATR Kinase Inhibitor BAY1895344": "", + "ATR Kinase Inhibitor M1774": "An orally available inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia and Rad3 related (ATR) kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ATR kinase inhibitor M1774 selectively inhibits ATR activity and blocks the downstream phosphorylation of the serine/threonine protein kinase checkpoint kinase 1 (CHK1). This prevents ATR-mediated signaling, which results in the inhibition of DNA damage checkpoint activation, the disruption of DNA damage repair, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. ATR, a serine/threonine protein kinase upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types, plays a key role in DNA repair, cell cycle progression and survival. It is activated by DNA damage caused during DNA replication-associated stress.", + "ATR Kinase Inhibitor M6620": "", + "ATR Kinase Inhibitor VX-803": "", + "Atrasentan Hydrochloride": "", + "Attenuated Listeria monocytogenes CRS-100": "", + "Attenuated Live Listeria Encoding HPV 16 E7 Vaccine ADXS11-001": "", + "Attenuated Measles Virus Encoding SCD Transgene TMV-018": "A recombinant, attenuated oncolytic measles virus (MV) encoding the prodrug converting enzyme super cytosine deaminase (SCD), that can potentially be used as an antineoplastic adjuvant and with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intra-tumoral injection, TMV-018 preferentially enters and transfects tumor cells, and expresses SCD, an enzyme that catalyzes the intracellular conversion of the prodrug flucytosine (5-fluorocytosine; 5-FC) into the antineoplastic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU). After administration of 5-FC, the tumor can be eradicated upon activation of 5-FU by SCD. In addition, the oncolytic MV may infect and lyse tumor cells. In turn, the lysed tumor cells release various tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), which induce an immune response against the tumor cells. This may further eradicate tumor cells.", + "Atuveciclib": "An inhibitor of positive transcription elongation factor b (P-TEFb), which is composed of cyclin-dependent kinase 9 (CDK9) and cyclin-T (CycT), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, atuveciclib binds to and inhibits the activity of P-TEFb, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of its downstream target, the carboxyl terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II), and inhibiting the activation of transcriptional elongation by RNA Pol II. This prevents the transcription of tumor promoting genes, induces tumor cell apoptosis, and inhibits tumor cell proliferation. P-TEFb plays an important role in the regulation of gene transcription; over-activation in cancer cells leads to both the transcription of key tumor-promoting genes and cancer cell proliferation.", + "Audencel": "A therapeutic interleukin-12 (IL-12)-expressing dendritic cell (DC)-based vaccine composed of autologous monocyte-derived DCs loaded with autologous tumor cell lysate and exposed to the microbial cell wall component lipopolysaccharide (LPS), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The monocyte-derived immature DCs are loaded with autologous tumor cell lysates and are subsequently exposed to LPS and interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma). Upon administration of audencel, the mature DCs migrate into the lymph nodes, express the immune stimulatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) and activate the immune system by promoting the activation of natural killer (NK) cells and induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells, which may result in immune-mediated tumor cell death and inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Exposure to LPS and IFN-gamma allows the maturation of DCs and optimizes the presentation of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by DCs to T-lymphocytes.", + "Auranofin": "", + "Aurora A Kinase Inhibitor LY3295668": "", + "Aurora A Kinase Inhibitor LY3295668 Erbumine": "", + "Aurora A Kinase Inhibitor MK5108": "", + "Aurora A Kinase Inhibitor TAS-119": "", + "Aurora A Kinase/Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor ENMD-2076": "", + "Aurora B Serine/Threonine Kinase Inhibitor TAK-901": "", + "Aurora B/C Kinase Inhibitor GSK1070916A": "", + "Aurora kinase A/B inhibitor TT-00420": "", + "Aurora Kinase Inhibitor AMG 900": "", + "Aurora Kinase Inhibitor BI 811283": "", + "Aurora Kinase Inhibitor MLN8054": "", + "Aurora Kinase Inhibitor PF-03814735": "", + "Aurora Kinase Inhibitor SNS-314": "", + "Aurora Kinase Inhibitor TTP607": "", + "Aurora Kinase/VEGFR2 Inhibitor CYC116": "", + "Autologous ACTR-CD16-CD28-expressing T-lymphocytes ACTR707": "", + "Autologous AFP Specific T Cell Receptor Transduced T Cells C-TCR055": "A preparation of human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding for a T-cell receptor (TCR) recognizing the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*02:01 restricted human alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) 158-166 peptide (FMNKFIYEI), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the AFP specific TCR transduced T cells recognize and bind to AFP antigen-positive cells, which results in lysis and killing of AFP-positive cancer cells. AFP is overexpressed in a variety of cancers while its expression is restricted in normal tissues.", + "Autologous Anti-BCMA CAR T-cells PHE885": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the autologous anti-BCMA CAR T-cells PHE885 recognize and induce selective toxicity against BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor-specific antigen and a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF) and plays a key role in plasma cell survival. BCMA is found on the surfaces of plasma cells and is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells.", + "Autologous Anti-BCMA CAR-transduced T-cells KITE-585": "", + "Autologous Anti-BCMA CD8+ CAR T-cells Descartes-11": "A preparation of autologous CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-BCMA CD8+ CAR T-cells Descartes-11 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor-specific antigen and a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF) and plays a key role in plasma cell survival. BCMA is found on the surfaces of plasma cells and is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells.", + "Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR Expressing Stem Memory T-cells P-BCMA-101": "", + "Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-lymphocytes JCARH125": "", + "Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing Memory T-lymphocytes bb21217": "", + "Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells C-CAR088": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the epitome cluster E3 in the extracellular domain (ECD) of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) that is fused to the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the T-cell receptor signaling domain of CD3zeta (CD3z), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells C-CAR088 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor-specific antigen and a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF) and plays a key role in the survival of B-lymphocytes and plasma cells. BCMA is found on the surfaces of B-cells and is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells.", + "Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells CT053": "", + "Autologous Anti-BCMA-CAR-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-lymphocytes FCARH143": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells 19(T2)28z1xx": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and linked to the co-stimulatory intracellular signaling domains of CD28 and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3-zeta) (CD28zeta; CD28z), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19 CAR T-cells 19(T2)28z1xx specifically recognize and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells, resulting in specific T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen, which is expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies and normal B-cells. CD28 and CD3zeta provide co-stimulatory activity and may enhance the cytotoxic effect and anti-tumor activity of the CAR T-cells. The 19(T2)28z1xx CAR T-cells include a 1928zeta mutant, 1xx, which contains one instead of all three immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs (iTAMs). This may help prevent counterproductive T-cell differentiation and exhaustion.", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR T-cells IM19": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR TCR-zeta/4-1BB-transduced T-lymphocytes huCART19": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells CNCT19": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) composed of an anti-cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) single chain variable fragment (scFv) linked to the intracellular signaling domains of 4-1BB (CD137) and the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (TCRzeta; CD247; CD3zeta), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19 CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells CNCT19 target, bind to and induce selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies.", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-CD3zeta-4-1BB-expressing T-cells PZ01": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-CD28 T-cells ET019002": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes CLIC-1901": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cells AUTO1": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a second-generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR), CAT-41BBz CAR, targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 CAR T-cells AUTO1 target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing tumor cells and tumor cell lysis. CD19, cluster of differentiation 19, is a B-cell-specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage tumors. The CAT-41BBz CAR has a faster off-rate compared with FMC63-41BBz CAR. This may minimize cytokine release and reduce toxicities, and enhance persistence of the CAR T-cells.", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cells SJCAR19": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 T-cell Receptor T cells ET190L1": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD19 TAC-T cells TAC01-CD19": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes genetically engineered with a T cell Antigen Coupler (TAC), comprising of a domain that targets the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD 19) and another domain that binds to the endogenous T cell receptor (TCR), anchored in the membrane via the CD4 co-receptor domain, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-CD19 TAC-T cells TAC01-CD19 targets and binds to CD19-expressing tumor cells and activates TCR-mediated signaling pathways, leading to T cell-mediated killing of CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage malignancies.", + "Autologous Anti-CD19/CD20 Bispecific Nanobody-based CAR-T cells": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that is nanobody-based and specific for the two tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and CD20, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19/CD20 bispecific nanobody-based CAR-T cells target and bind to CD19- and CD20-expressing tumor B-cells. This induces selective toxicity in tumor B-cells expressing these TAAs. Both CD19 and CD20 are B-cell-specific cell surface antigens overexpressed in B-cell lineage malignancies. Targeting both CD19 and CD20 may prevent tumor cell antigen escape and relapse.", + "Autologous Anti-CD19/CD22 CAR T-cells AUTO3": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD19CAR-4-1BB-CD3zeta-EGFRt-expressing CD4+/CD8+ Central Memory T-lymphocytes JCAR014": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD19CAR-HER2t/CD22CAR-EGFRt-expressing T-cells": "A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes engineered to express dual chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) consisting of both anti-CD19 and anti-CD22 binding domains, fused to an as of yet undisclosed co-stimulatory domain, and linked to truncated forms of the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2t) and the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFRt), respectively with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD19CAR-HER2t/CD22CAR-EGFRt-expressing T-cells bind to CD19 and CD22 on the surface of, and induce selective toxicity against tumor cells expressing CD19 and CD22. Devoid of both ligand binding domains and tyrosine kinase activity, the expressed EGFRt and HER2t facilitate both in vivo detection of the administered, transduced T-cells and can promote elimination of those cells through an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) response. CD19 and CD22, both transmembrane phosphoglycoproteins expressed on the surface of cells in the B lineage, are often overexpressed on malignant B-cells.", + "Autologous Anti-CD20 CAR Transduced CD4/CD8 Enriched T-cells MB-CART20.1": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD20 (cluster of differentiation 20), and CD4/CD8 enriched, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MB-CART20.1 specifically recognize and kill CD20-expressing tumor cells. The CD20 antigen, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein, is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in B-cell lineage malignancies and certain melanoma cell subpopulations.", + "Autologous Anti-CD22 CAR-4-1BB-TCRz-transduced T-lymphocytes CART22-65s": "", + "Autologous Anti-CD123 CAR-T Cells": "A preparation of autologous T-cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD123 (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain or IL3RA), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-CD123 CAR-T cells target and bind to CD123 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in CD123-expressing tumor cells. CD123, the alpha subunit of the IL-3 receptor, regulates the proliferation, survival and differentiation of hematopoietic cells. It is overexpressed on a variety of cancers, including myeloid leukemia, and the increased expression of CD123 on leukemic stem cells (LSCs) is associated with poor prognosis.", + "Autologous Anti-EGFR CAR-transduced CXCR 5-modified T-lymphocytes": "A preparation of autologous, C-X-C chemokine receptor type 5 (CXCR 5)-modified T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) targeting the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-EGFR CAR-transduced CXCR 5-modified T-lymphocytes target and bind to EGFR-expressing tumor cells, thereby inducing selective toxicity in EGFR-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation, tumor angiogenesis and radio- and chemoresistance. CXCR5, and its ligand C-X-C motif chemokine 13 (CXCL13), are associated with a variety of tumors. CXCR5-CXCL13 interactions may be involved in the regulation of lymphocyte infiltration within the tumor microenvironment (TME).", + "Autologous Anti-FLT3 CAR T Cells AMG 553": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes genetically engineered with a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the anti-FLT3 CAR T cells AMG 553 target and bind to tumor cells expressing FLT3, which results in the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated cell killing of FLT3-expressing tumor cells. FLT3, a class III receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), is overexpressed or mutated in most B-lineage neoplasms and in acute myeloid leukemias (AMLs).", + "Autologous Anti-HLA-A*02/AFP TCRm-expressing T-cells ET140202": "", + "Autologous Anti-HLA-A*0201/AFP CAR T-cells ET1402L1": "", + "Autologous Anti-ICAM-1-CAR-CD28-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells AIC100": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing the Inserted (I) domain variant of lymphocyte function-associated antigen-1 (LFA-1) which targets intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1 or CD54), and the co-stimulatory signaling domains of CD28, 4-1BB (CD137) and CD3zeta, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-ICAM-1-CAR-CD28-4-1BB-CD3zeta-expressing T-cells AIC100 recognize and kill ICAM-1-expressing tumor cells. ICAM-1, normally expressed on leukocytes and endothelial cells, may be overexpressed in a variety of cancers. CAR T-cells AIC100 are also engineered to express somatostatin receptor subtype 2 (SSTR2), allowing the imaging of the CAR T-cells in patients.", + "Autologous Anti-kappa Light Chain CAR-CD28-expressing T-lymphocytes": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes (ATL) that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) directed against the kappa light chain of immunoglobulin (Ig) and linked to the costimulatory domain of CD28, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous anti-kappa light chain CAR-CD28-expressing T-lymphocytes target and bind to the kappa light chain of Ig expressed on tumor cells, resulting in T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis. In some B-cell malignancies, the expression of the Ig light chain kappa may be increased compared to the expression of Ig light chain lambda.", + "Autologous Anti-NY-ESO-1/LAGE-1 TCR-transduced c259 T Lymphocytes GSK3377794": "", + "Autologous Anti-PD-1 Antibody-activated Tumor-infiltrating Lymphocytes": "A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) activated by an anti-programmed cell death protein 1 (PD1) antibody, with potential immunomodulating activity. The autologous TILs are isolated from an autologous tumor sample and ex-vivo activated in the presence of anti-PD-1 antibody. Upon infusion of the autologous anti-PD1 antibody-activated TILs back into the patient, the cells specifically target and kill the patient's tumor cells.", + "Autologous Anti-PSMA CAR-T Cells P-PSMA-101": "A preparation of autologous T-cells that are enriched to be primarily stem memory T-cells (Tscm) and are transfected by electroporation with a proprietary transposon-based DNA plasmid vector (PiggyBac), encoding both a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) based on a proprietary non-immunoglobulin scaffold molecule Centyrin (CARTyrin), which specifically recognizes the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), and a human-derived safety switch that can be activated by rimiducid, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous anti-PSMA CAR-T cells P-PSMA-101 specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in PSMA-expressing tumor cells. Use of CARTyrin may elicit less immunotoxicity than CAR T-cells based on antibody-derived single chain variable fragments (scFv), and may allow for increased persistence and decreased exhaustion for the administered T-cells. If significant side effects occur, the safety switch mechanism can be activated by the administration of rimiducid, which results in the rapid attenuation or elimination of P-PSMA-101. PSMA is overexpressed on the surface of metastatic and hormone-refractory prostate cancer cells.", + "Autologous AXL-targeted CAR T-cells CCT301-38": "", + "Autologous B-cell/Monocyte-presenting HER2/neu Antigen Vaccine BVAC-B": "", + "Autologous BCMA-targeted CAR T Cells CC-98633": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous BCMA-targeted CAR T cells CC-98633 specifically recognize and kill BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor specific antigen and a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily and plays a key role in plasma cell survival; it is found on the surfaces of plasma cells and overexpressed on malignant plasma cells.", + "Autologous BCMA-targeted CAR T Cells LCAR-B4822M": "", + "Autologous Bi-epitope BCMA-targeted CAR T-cells JNJ-68284528": "", + "Autologous Bispecific BCMA/CD19-targeted CAR-T Cells GC012F": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express two separate chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) BCMA and CD19 and fused to as of yet not fully elucidated co-stimulatory domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous bispecific BCMA/CD19-targeted CAR-T cells GC012F specifically and simultaneously target and bind to tumor cells expressing BCMA and/or CD19. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells that express BCMA and/or CD19. BCMA, a tumor-specific antigen and a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF) and plays a key role in the survival of B-lymphocytes and plasma cells. BCMA is found on the surfaces of B-cells and is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells. CD19 is a B-cell-specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage malignancies. The processing platform used, FasT CAR-T, shortens the manufacturing time to produce the CAR-T cells within 24 hours.", + "Autologous Bispecific CD19/CD22-targeted CAR-T Cells GC022": "A preparation of autologous human T-lymphocytes engineered to express chimeric T-cell receptors (chimeric antigen receptors or CARs) targeting the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) CD19 and CD22 and fused to as of yet not fully elucidated co-stimulatory domains, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous bispecific CD19/CD22-targeted CAR-T cells GC022 bind to CD19 and CD22 on the surface of, and induce selective toxicity against, tumor cells expressing CD19 and CD22. CD19 and CD22, both transmembrane phosphoglycoproteins expressed on the surface of cells in the B lineage, are overexpressed on malignant B-cells.", + "Autologous Bone Marrow-derived CD34/CXCR4-positive Stem Cells AMR-001": "", + "Autologous CAR-mbIL15-Safety Switch T-cells PRGN-3005": "", + "Autologous CAR-mbIL15-Safety Switch T-cells PRGN-3006": "", + "Autologous CD19 CAR-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-cells MB-CART19.1": "A preparation of CD4+ and CD8+ autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with the lentiviral vector pLTG1563 expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, the autologous CD19 CAR-expressing CD4+/CD8+ T-cells MB-CART19.1 are directed to and induce selective toxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies.", + "Autologous CD19-targeted CAR T Cells CC-97540": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous CD19-targeted CAR T cells CC-97540 specifically target and bind to CD19-expressing tumor cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing tumor cells and tumor cell lysis. CD19, cluster of differentiation 19, is a B-cell-specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage tumors.", + "Autologous CD19-targeted CAR T Cells JWCAR029": "", + "Autologous CD19-targeted CAR-T Cells GC007F": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) consisting of a single chain variable fragment (scFv) of anti-CD19 coupled to as of yet not fully elucidated co-stimulatory molecules, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon transfusion, autologous CD19-targeted CAR-T cells GC007F target and bind to CD19-expressing neoplastic B-cells. This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing tumor cells, the release of cytotoxic molecules and the induction of tumor cell lysis. CD19, cluster of differentiation 19, is a B-cell-specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage tumors. The processing platform used, FasT (F) CAR-T, shortens the manufacturing time to produce the CAR-T cells within 24 hours.", + "Autologous CD19/PD-1 Bispecific CAR-T Cells": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19) and a programmed cell death protein 1 (PD1)/CD28 chimera, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the autologous CD19/PD-1 bispecific CAR-T cells target and bind to CD19 and the PD-1 ligands, programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1) and 2 (PD-L2), expressed on tumor cells. The binding to CD19 leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD19-expressing tumor cells and cell lysis of these cells. The binding of the PD1/CD28 chimera to PD-L1 prevents the normal PD1/PD-L1-mediated T-cell suppression and, instead, promotes signaling through the CD28 domain, which results in the stimulation of T-lymphocytes. This enhances T-lymphocyte proliferation and anti-tumor activity. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage malignancies. PD-1 protein, found on activated T-cells, negatively regulates T-cell activity. It plays a key role in immune evasion and prevents tumor cell lysis. The construct of the PD1/CD28 chimera converts PD-L1 into a co-stimulation ligand of primary human CD8+ cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). CD28 is a costimulatory molecule expressed by T-cells that enhances T-lymphocyte proliferation and activity.", + "Autologous CD20-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR20": "", + "Autologous CD22-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR22": "", + "Autologous CD38-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR38": "", + "Autologous CD123-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR123": "", + "Autologous Clonal Neoantigen T Cells ATL001": "A preparation of personalized tumor-derived T-lymphocytes composed of tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) that are reactive to clonal cancer neoantigens, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The TILs are removed from the suppressive tumor microenvironment (TME) and re-activated. Upon reintroduction into the patient, the clonal neoantigen T (cNeT) cells recognize and bind to tumor cells expressing the targeted neoantigen, resulting in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against the patient's tumor cells.", + "Autologous CRISPR-edited Anti-CD19 CAR T Cells XYF19": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD19, and electroporated with clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR) guide RNA to disrupt expression of endogenous hematopoietic progenitor kinase 1 (HPK1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction into the patient, the autologous CRISPR-edited anti-CD19 CAR T-cells XYF19 recognize and bind to CD19-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killing of CD19-positive tumor cells. Disrupting the expression of HPK1 may enhance immune response and autoimmunity. CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies. HPK1 is a Ste20-like serine/threonine kinase that suppresses immune responses and autoimmunity.", + "Autologous Deep IL-15 Primed T-cells TRQ15-01": "", + "Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine ACT2001": "", + "Autologous Dendritic Cell-based Immunotherapeutic AV0113": "", + "Autologous FRa-4SCAR-expressing T-cells 4SCAR-FRa": "", + "Autologous Genetically-modified MAGE-A4 C1032 CD8alpha T Cells": "", + "Autologous Genetically-modified MAGE-A4 C1032 T Cells": "", + "Autologous Heat-Shock Protein 70 Peptide Vaccine AG-858": "", + "Autologous HPV16 E7-specific HLA-A*02:01-restricted TCR Gene Engineered Lymphocytes KITE-439": "", + "Autologous LMP1/LMP2/EBNA1-specific HLA-A02:01/24:02/11:01-restricted TCR-expressing T-lymphocytes YT-E001": "", + "Autologous MAGE-A3/A6-specific TCR Gene-engineered Lymphocytes KITE-718": "", + "Autologous MCPyV-specific HLA-A02-restricted TCR-transduced CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells FH-MCVA2TCR": "", + "Autologous Mesenchymal Stem Cells Apceth_101": "", + "Autologous Mesothelin-specific Human mRNA CAR-transfected PBMCs MCY-M11": "", + "Autologous Monocyte-derived Lysate-pulsed Dendritic Cell Vaccine PV-001-DC": "A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous, monocyte-derived dendritic cells (mDCs) pulsed with tumor cell lysate containing tumor associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration,the autologous tumor cell lysate-pulsed mDCs vaccine PV-001-DC may stimulate an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the patient's tumor cell-specific TAAs, which may result in tumor cell lysis.", + "Autologous Multi-lineage Potential Cells": "A preparation of autologous multi-lineage potential cells (AMPC) which were induced to de-differentiate from somatic leukocytes from peripheral blood, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon introduction into the patient, the AMPC may help replace the abnormal cells in the body to create healthy bone marrow in the treatment of acute myeloid leukemia (AML).", + "Autologous Nectin-4/FAP-targeted CAR-T Cells": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) nectin-4 and cell surface protein fibroblast activation protein (FAP), and additionally an inducible expression cassette encoding transgenic interleukin (IL) 7 (IL-7) or 12 (IL-12), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, the autologous nectin-4/FAP-targeted CAR-T cells target and bind to nectin-4-expressing tumor cells and FAP-expressing cancer associated fibroblasts (CAFs). This results in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against nectin-4-expressing tumor cells and FAP-expressing CAFs, leading to cell lysis of these cells. Upon the binding to nectin-4 and FAP and the activation of the CAR-T cells, cytokine IL-7 or IL-12 is also released. This further augments the immune responses against the tumor cells, which may include the attack of nectin-4-negative tumor cells by tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFa). Nectin-4, a TAA belonging to the nectin family, is overexpressed in a variety of cancers, including breast, bladder, lung and pancreatic cancer. FAP, a cell surface glycoprotein, is overexpressed on CAFs but minimally expressed on normal, healthy cells.", + "Autologous NKG2D CAR T-cells CYAD-02": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified and transduced with a retroviral vector to co-express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) encoding human natural-killer group 2, member D receptor protein (NKG2D or KLRK1) with a short hairpin RNA (shRNA) targeting MHC class I chain-related protein A (MICA) and MICB, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion back into the patient, autologous NKG2D CAR T-cells CYAD-02 specifically recognize and bind to tumor cells expressing NKG2D ligands, resulting in the lysis of NKG2D ligand-expressing tumor cells. In addition, CYAD-02 targets, binds to and kills NKG2D ligand expressing tumor-associated endothelial cells in the neovasculature and immunosuppressive cells, such as regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME) that express NKG2D ligands. It also activates macrophages within the TME. Ligands for NKG2D, such as MICA, MICB, and members of the UL16-binding proteins (ULBP)/retinoic acid early transcript 1 (RAET1) family, are overexpressed on infected cells and most cancer cell types, but are not expressed on most normal, healthy cells. NKG2D, a dimeric, type II transmembrane protein expressed on human natural killer (NK) and certain T-cells, in association with the natural adaptive protein DAP10, promotes the elimination of NKG2D ligand-expressing cells. The shRNA downregulates the expression of MICA and MICB on the CAR-T cells, which increases in-vitro cell expansion. This may enhance their persistence and increase anti-tumor activity.", + "Autologous NKG2D CAR-CD3zeta-DAP10-expressing T-Lymphocytes CYAD-01": "", + "Autologous Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma Lysate and mRNA-loaded Dendritic Cell Vaccine": "A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with pancreatic adenocarcinoma lysate and mRNA containing and encoding tumor associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration by perinodal injection using ultrasound guidance, the autologous pancreatic adenocarcinoma lysate and mRNA-loaded DC vaccine may stimulate an anti-tumoral cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the patient's tumor cell-specific TAAs, which may result in tumor cell lysis.", + "Autologous Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes from Ibrutinib-treated Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia Patients IOV-2001": "A preparation of autologous peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBLs) harvested from chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) patients previously treated with the Brutons' tyrosine kinase (BTK) inhibitor ibrutinib with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, IOV-2001 generates an enhanced cytotoxic T-cell response against autologous leukemic B-cells in patients who have relapsed during treatment with ibrutinib. IOV-2001 is mostly comprised of T-cells of which the majority are of the effector memory phenotype which augments the specificity of the immune response.", + "Autologous Prostate Cancer Antigen-expressing Dendritic Cell Vaccine BPX-101": "", + "Autologous Prostate Stem Cell Antigen-specific CAR T Cells BPX-601": "", + "Autologous Rapamycin-resistant Th1/Tc1 Cells RAPA-201": "A preparation of autologous rapamycin-resistant Th1/Tc1 cells, with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, autologous rapamycin-resistant Th1/Tc1 cells RAPA-201 may recognize and kill tumor cells. Ex-vivo induction of rapamycin-resistance may increase the persistence of T-cells after adoptive transfer.", + "Autologous ROR2-targeted CAR T-cells CCT301-59": "", + "Autologous TAAs-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cells AV-GBM-1": "", + "Autologous TCR-engineered T-cells IMA201": "", + "Autologous TCR-engineered T-cells IMA202": "", + "Autologous TCR-engineered T-cells IMA203": "", + "Autologous TCRm-expressing T-cells ET140203": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector to express a T-cell receptor mimetic (TCRm) construct targeting as of yet undisclosed tumor associated antigen(s) (TAA), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the autologous TCRm-expressing T-cells ET140203 specifically recognize and selectively bind to the as of yet undisclosed TAA(s). This results in cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated killing of tumor cells expressing the TAA(s).", + "Autologous Tetravalent Dendritic Cell Vaccine MIDRIX4-LUNG": "A therapeutic cancer vaccine composed of autologous, dendritic cells (DCs) that have been loaded with a proprietary selection of four antigens that covers more than ninety percent of all non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) patients, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous tetravalent dendritic cell vaccine MIDRIX4-LUNG may induce and stimulate both T-helper and antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) responses, leading to tumor cell lysis in patients with NSCLC.", + "Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes LN-144": "", + "Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes LN-145": "", + "Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes LN-145-S1": "A proprietary preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The autologous TILs are isolated from an autologous tumor sample and expanded ex vivo in the presence of interleukin-2 (IL-2). Upon infusion of the autologous TILs LN-145-S1 back into the patient, the cells specifically recognize, target and kill the patient's tumor cells.", + "Autologous Tumor Infiltrating Lymphocytes MDA-TIL": "", + "Autologous Universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UniCAR02-T": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that has been genetically engineered to express a fully humanized, universal, second generation chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) with a CD28/CD3zeta co-stimulatory domain, and a binding domain that can recognize a peptide motive of an antigen-specific targeting module (TM), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, autologous universal CAR-expressing T-lymphocytes UniCAR02-T remain inactivated. Upon administration of an antigen-specific TM, the binding domain of UniCAR02-T binds to the nuclear antigen motif of the TM, and UniCAR02-T is activated when the antigen-binding moiety of the TM binds to the specific antigen expressed on tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in and causes lysis of tumor cells expressing the specific antigen.", + "Avadomide": "", + "Avadomide Hydrochloride": "", + "Avapritinib": "", + "Avdoralimab": "A human monoclonal antibody targeting the C5a receptor (C5aR), with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, avdoralimab specifically targets, binds to and blocks C5aR expressed on subsets of myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and neutrophils. This prevents the binding of its ligand C5a to C5aR and prevents the C5aR-mediated activation and accumulation of these cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and abrogates the secretion of inflammatory and angiogenic factors by these cells. This results in the activation of T- and natural killer (NK) cells, the induction of anti-tumor immune responses and inhibits tumor cell proliferation. C5a, a factor in the complement cascade, is often overexpressed in tumors, where it attracts and activates MDSCs and neutrophils in the TME.", + "Avelumab": "", + "Aviscumine": "A recombinant protein that inactivates the ribosome with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Aviscumine binds to the cell surface sialyltransferase CD75 and is internalized; intracellularly, aviscumine cleaves an adenine-specific N-glycosidic bond on the 28S ribosomal subunit, which may result in tumor cell apoptosis. This agent has also been shown to activate natural killer (NK) cells, induce cytokine receptor expression, and stimulate the release of cytokines. CD75 is expressed on mature B-cells and subsets of T-cells and erythrocytes.", + "Avitinib Maleate": "", + "Axalimogene Filolisbac": "A cancer vaccine containing a live-attenuated strain of the bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) encoding human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 E7 fused to a non-hemolytic listeriolysin O protein with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination with axalimogene filolisbac, Listeria expresses the HPV 16 E7 antigen and activates the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cancer cells expressing HPV 16 E7. This may result in tumor cell lysis. In addition, the Listeria vector itself may induce a potent immune response. HPV 16 E7, a cell surface glycoprotein and tumor associated antigen, is overexpressed in the majority of cervical cancer cells.", + "Axatilimab": "A humanized immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against colony-stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF-1R), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, axatilimab binds to the ligand binding domain of CSF-1R, preventing binding and consequent activation by its natural ligands, IL-34 and colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF-1). Inhibition of CSF-1R activation may disrupt the activity of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs), which promote initiation and metastasis of tumor cells, inhibit T-cell responses, and stimulate tumor angiogenesis and disease progression. CSF-1R, also known as macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor (M-CSFR) and cluster of differentiation 115 (CD115), is a tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an essential role in the regulation, proliferation, survival and differentiation of tissue macrophages as well as TAMs.", + "Axicabtagene Ciloleucel": "", + "Axitinib": "", + "AXL Inhibitor DS-1205c": "", + "AXL Inhibitor SLC-391": "An orally bioavailable and selective inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase AXL (UFO), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, SLC-391 targets, binds to and prevents the activation of AXL. This blocks AXL-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits both AXL-mediated tumor cell growth, proliferation and migration and AXL-mediated immunosuppression. AXL, a member of the Tyro3, AXL and Mer (TAM) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is overexpressed by many tumor cell types and also expressed in a variety of immune cells including macrophages, natural killer (NK) cells, and regulatory T-cells (Tregs). It plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion and metastasis, and is a mediator of immunosuppression. Its expression is associated with drug resistance and poor prognosis.", + "AXL Receptor Tyrosine Kinase/cMET Inhibitor BPI-9016M": "", + "AXL/ FLT3/VEGFR2 Inhibitor KC1036": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of three receptor tyrosine kinases: AXL (UFO), FMS-like tyrosine kinase-3 (Flt3; CD135; fetal liver kinase-2; Flk2), and the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2), with potential anti-angiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, KC1036 targets, binds to and prevents the activation of AXL, FLT3 and VEGFR2. This blocks AXL, FLT3 and VEGFR2-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits both AXL-, FLT3- and VEGFR2-mediated proliferation of tumor cells and the VEGFR2-mediated proliferation, survival and migration of endothelial cells. AXL, a member of the Tyro3, AXL and Mer (TAM) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is overexpressed by many tumor cell types and also expressed in a variety of immune cells including macrophages, natural killer (NK) cells, and regulatory T-cells (Tregs). It plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion and metastasis, and is a mediator of immunosuppression. Its expression is associated with drug resistance and poor prognosis. FLT3, a class III tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed or mutated in most B lineage and acute myeloid leukemias. VEGFR2 is frequently overexpressed by a variety of tumor types and tumor-associated endothelial cells.", + "Axl/Mer Inhibitor INCB081776": "", + "Axl/Mer Inhibitor PF-07265807": "An inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) Axl (UFO) and Mer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Axl/Mer inhibitor PF-07265807 specifically targets and binds to both Axl and Mer, and prevents their activity. This blocks Axl- and Mer-mediated signal transduction pathways, and inhibits proliferation and migration of Axl- and Mer-overexpressing tumor cells. Axl and Mer, both members of the TAM (Tyro3, Axl and Mer) family of RTKs, are overexpressed by many tumor cell types. They play key roles in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion, angiogenesis and metastasis, and their expression is associated with drug resistance and poor prognosis.", + "Azacitidine": "", + "Azapicyl": "", + "Azaribine": "", + "Azaserine": "", + "Azathioprine": "", + "Azimexon": "", + "Azintuxizumab Vedotin": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody targeting CS1 (SLAMF7/CD319) that is conjugated to the microtubule-disrupting cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), via a cathepsin-cleavable linker, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the antibody moiety of azintuxizumab vedotin binds to CS1-expressing tumor cells and is internalized, thereby delivering MMAE intracellularly. Upon cleavage, MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, resulting in G2/M checkpoint arrest and apoptosis in CS1-expressing tumor cells. CS1 is a cell surface glycoprotein belonging to the CD2 subset of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) and is expressed with high levels and prevalence on multiple myeloma (MM) cells.", + "Aziridinylbenzoquinone RH1": "", + "Azotomycin": "", + "Azurin:50-77 Cell Penetrating Peptide p28": "", + "B-Raf/VEGFR-2 Inhibitor RAF265": "", + "Babaodan Capsule": "", + "Bacillus Calmette-Guerin Substrain Connaught Live Antigen": "", + "Bactobolin": "", + "Bafetinib": "", + "Balixafortide": "", + "Balstilimab": "A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1, PCD-1; PDCD1) protein, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, balstilimab binds to PD-1, and thereby blocks its binding to the PD-1 ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1), and prevents the activation of its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of cytotoxic T-cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin superfamily expressed on activated T-cells, negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligand; it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Baltaleucel-T": "", + "Banoxantrone": "", + "Barasertib": "", + "Bardoxolone": "", + "Bardoxolone Methyl": "", + "Baricitinib": "", + "Batabulin": "", + "Batabulin Sodium": "", + "Batimastat": "", + "Bavituximab": "", + "Bazedoxifene": "", + "Bazlitoran": "An oligonucleotide targeted to the mRNA of MYD88 L265P, a mutant form of the linker protein MYD88, with potential antitumor activity. Bazlitoran binds to and inhibits the translation of mutated MYD88 L265P mRNA. This prevents overactivation of signaling pathways mediated by toll-like receptors (TLRs) 7, 8, and 9, nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) activity, Janus-associated kinases-signal transducer and activator of transcription (JAK-STAT) signaling and the production of various cytokines. Together, this leads to an induction of apoptosis and an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in MYD88 L265P-expressing tumor cells. MYD88, a key adaptor protein in the TLR signaling pathway, is mutated in a variety of B-cell lymphomas, including Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia (WM) and activated B-cell-like diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (ABC-DLBCL).", + "BC-819 Plasmid/Polyethylenimine Complex": "", + "BCG Solution": "", + "BCG Tokyo-172 Strain Solution": "", + "BCG Vaccine": "", + "Bcl-2 Inhibitor APG 2575": "", + "Bcl-2 Inhibitor BCL201": "", + "Bcl-2 Inhibitor BGB-11417": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Bcl-2 inhibitor BGB-11417 specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of the pro-survival protein Bcl-2. This restores apoptotic processes and inhibits cell proliferation in Bcl-2-overexpressing tumor cells. Bcl-2, a protein that belongs to the Bcl-2 family, is overexpressed in various tumor cell types and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis. Its tumor expression is associated with increased drug resistance and cancer cell survival.", + "Bcl-2 Inhibitor LP-108": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, Bcl-2 inhibitor LP-108 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of Bcl-2. This restores apoptotic processes in tumor cells. Bcl-2 is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis; its expression is associated with increased drug resistance and tumor cell survival.", + "Bcl-2 Inhibitor S65487": "", + "Bcl-Xs Adenovirus Vaccine": "", + "BCMA x CD3 T-cell Engaging Antibody CC-93269": "", + "BCMA-CD19 Compound CAR T Cells": "A preparation of T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a compound chimeric antigen receptor (cCAR) containing two distinct units of CARs, one specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) and one specific for the TAA CD19, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the BCMA-CD19 cCAR T cells specifically and simultaneously target and bind to tumor cells expressing BCMA and/or CD19. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells that express BCMA and/or CD19. BCMA, a tumor-specific antigen and a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF) and plays a key role in the survival of B-lymphocytes and plasma cells. BCMA is found on the surfaces of B-cells and is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells. CD19 is a B-cell-specific cell surface antigen overexpressed in B-cell lineage malignancies. Targeting two different antigens may improve coverage and protect against antigen escape and relapse as it is less likely for tumor cells to lose both antigens.", + "BCMA/CD3e Tri-specific T-cell Activating Construct HPN217": "A recombinant antibody derivative composed of tri-specific T-cell activating construct (TriTAC) directed against the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17), the epsilon domain of CD3 antigen (CD3e) found on T-lymphocytes, and albumin, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, BCMA/CD3e TriTAC HPN217 targets and binds to BCMA on tumor cells and CD3e on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs), thereby bringing BCMA-expressing tumor cells and CTLs together, which results in the CTL-mediated cell death of BCMA-expressing tumor cells. The albumin-binding domain targets and binds to serum albumin, thereby extending the serum half-life of HPN217. BCMA, a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF), is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells and plays a key role in plasma cell survival.", + "Bcr-Abl Kinase Inhibitor K0706": "", + "Bcr-Abl Kinase Inhibitor PF-114": "", + "BCR-ABL/KIT/AKT/ERK Inhibitor HQP1351": "", + "Beauvericin": "", + "Becatecarin": "", + "Belagenpumatucel-L": "", + "Belantamab Mafodotin": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of belantamab, an afucosylated, humanized monoclonal antibody, directed against the B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA), conjugated to mafodotin, an auristatin analogue and microtubule inhibitor monomethyl auristatin phenylalanine (MMAF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of belantamab mafodotin, the anti-BCMA antibody moiety selectively binds to BCMA on tumor cell surfaces. Upon internalization, the MMAF moiety binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which results in G2/M phase arrest and induces tumor cell apoptosis. In addition, belantamab mafodotin induces antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). Altogether, this results in the inhibition of cellular proliferation in tumor cells that overexpress BCMA. BCMA, a receptor for a proliferation-inducing ligand and B-cell activating factor, is a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily and plays a key role in plasma cell survival; it is found on the surfaces of plasma cells and overexpressed on malignant plasma cells. Afucosylation of the antibody moiety increases ADCC.", + "Belapectin": "A carbohydrate-based galectin inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Belapectin binds to the carbohydrate-binding domain of galectins, especially galectin-3, and may result in an induction of apoptosis mediated through activation of both mitochondria and caspases. This may reduce tumor growth in galectin-overexpressing tumor cells. Galectins, often overexpressed on tumor cells, play a key role in cancer cell proliferation, apoptosis, tumor angiogenesis and evasion of immune responses.", + "Belimumab": "", + "Belinostat": "", + "Belotecan Hydrochloride": "", + "Belvarafenib": "An orally available inhibitor of members of the Raf family of serine/threonine protein kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, belvarafenib binds to and inhibits the B-Raf mutant V600E and C-Raf. This inhibits B-Raf V600E- and C-Raf-mediated signal transduction pathways, thereby inhibiting tumor cell growth of susceptible tumor cells. In addition, belvarafenib may also inhibit mutated Ras proteins. Raf protein kinases play a key role in the Raf/mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK)/extracellular signal-related kinase (ERK) signaling pathway, which is often dysregulated in human cancers and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and survival. The Raf mutation B-Raf V600E, where the valine at residue 600 is substituted for glutamic acid, is frequently overexpressed in a variety of human tumors and results in the constitutive activation of the Raf/MEK/ERK signaling pathway.", + "Belzutifan": "An orally active, small molecule inhibitor of hypoxia inducible factor (HIF)-2alpha (HIF-2a), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, belzutifan binds to and blocks the function of HIF-2alpha, thereby preventing HIF-2alpha heterodimerization and its subsequent binding to DNA. This results in decreased transcription and expression of HIF-2alpha downstream target genes, many of which regulate hypoxic signaling. This inhibits cell growth and survival of HIF-2alpha-expressing tumor cells. HIF-2alpha, the alpha subunit for the heterodimeric transcription factor HIF-2, is overexpressed in many cancers and promotes tumorigenesis.", + "Bemarituzumab": "", + "Bemcentinib": "", + "Bempegaldesleukin": "", + "Benaxibine": "", + "Bendamustine": "", + "Bendamustine Hydrochloride": "", + "Bendamustine-containing Nanoparticle-based Formulation RXDX-107": "", + "Benzaldehyde Dimethane Sulfonate": "", + "Benzoylphenylurea": "", + "Berberine Chloride": "", + "Bermekimab": "", + "Bersanlimab": "A fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1 or CD54), with potential antineoplastic activity. Bersanlimab selectively binds to the adhesion protein ICAM-1, which may result in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), hyper-cross-linking-induced apoptosis, and a decrease in cellular proliferation of ICAM-1-expressing tumor cells. ICAM-1, normally expressed on leukocytes and endothelial cells, may be overexpressed in a variety of cancers.", + "Berubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Berzosertib": "An inhibitor of ataxia telangiectasia and rad3-related (ATR) kinase, a DNA damage response kinase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, berzosertib selectively binds to and inhibits ATR kinase activity and prevents ATR-mediated signaling in the ATR-checkpoint kinase 1 (Chk1) signaling pathway. This prevents DNA damage checkpoint activation, disrupts DNA damage repair, and induces tumor cell apoptosis. ATR, a serine/threonine protein kinase upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types, plays a key role in DNA repair, cell cycle progression, and survival; it is activated by DNA damage caused during DNA replication-associated stress.", + "BET Bromodomain Inhibitor ZEN-3694": "", + "BET Inhibitor ABBV-744": "", + "BET Inhibitor BAY1238097": "", + "BET inhibitor BI 894999": "", + "BET Inhibitor BMS-986158": "", + "BET Inhibitor CC-90010": "", + "BET Inhibitor CPI-0610": "", + "BET Inhibitor FT-1101": "", + "BET Inhibitor GS-5829": "", + "BET Inhibitor GSK2820151": "", + "BET Inhibitor INCB054329": "", + "BET Inhibitor INCB057643": "", + "BET Inhibitor RO6870810": "", + "BET-bromodomain Inhibitor ODM-207": "", + "Beta Alethine": "", + "Beta-Carotene": "", + "Beta-elemene": "", + "Beta-Glucan": "", + "Beta-Glucan MM-10-001": "", + "Beta-lapachone Prodrug ARQ 761": "", + "Beta-Thioguanine Deoxyriboside": "", + "Betaglucin Gel": "A soluble gel containing the beta-glucan betaglucin, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon topical administration of the betaglucin gel, betaglucin is able to increase the number of macrophages and natural killer (NK) cells. NK cells and macrophages may kill a variety of tumor cells, and virally infected cells. This may treat human papillomavirus (HPV)-related anogenital warts.", + "Betulinic Acid": "", + "Bevacizumab": "", + "Bexarotene": "", + "Bexmarilimab": "A monoclonal antibody directed against common lymphatic endothelial and vascular endothelial receptor-1 (CLEVER-1; stabilin-1; FEEL-1), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, bexmarilimab targets and binds to CLEVER-1 that is expressed on tumor endothelial cells. This prevents the recruitment, infiltration and attachment of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) at the tumor site. By preventing the binding of TAMs to tumor cells, the infiltration of activated T-regulatory cells (Tregs) to the tumor and the TAM-mediated immune suppression is abrogated, leading to the polarization of TAM from the immunosuppressive M2 macrophages to the anti-inflammatory and immunostimulatory M1 macrophages. This leads to the activation of the immune system, resulting in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response and inhibition of tumor cell growth and metastasis. CLEVER-1 is an endothelial cell surface molecule involved in immune suppression, cancer growth and metastasis.", + "BF-200 Gel Formulation": "", + "BH3 Mimetic ABT-737": "", + "Bi-functional Alkylating Agent VAL-083": "", + "Bicalutamide": "", + "Bimiralisib": "", + "Binetrakin": "", + "Binimetinib": "", + "Bintrafusp Alfa": "", + "Birabresib": "", + "Birinapant": "", + "Bis(choline)tetrathiomolybdate": "", + "Bisantrene": "", + "Bisantrene Hydrochloride": "", + "Bisnafide": "", + "Bisnafide Dimesylate": "", + "Bispecific Antibody 2B1": "", + "Bispecific Antibody AGEN1223": "A bispecific antibody that simultaneously binds to two different and as of yet undisclosed antigens co-expressed specifically on tumor-infiltrating regulatory T-cells (Tregs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, AGEN1223 targets and binds to the two antigens co-expressed specifically on tumor-infiltrating Tregs. This leads to the selective depletion of immunosuppressive Tregs in the tumor microenvironment (TME), while sparing peripheral Tregs and effector T-cells, enhancing the overall antitumor response. AGEN1223 may also co-stimulate antigen-specific effector T-cells, resulting in tumor cell death.", + "Bispecific Antibody AMG 509": "A bispecific antibody that simultaneously binds to two different and as of yet undisclosed antigens, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, AMG 509 targets and binds to the two antigens. This may modulate the tumor microenvironment (TME) and may enhance an immune-mediated antitumor response.", + "Bispecific Antibody GS-1423": "A bispecific antibody that simultaneously binds two different as of yet undisclosed antigens, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, GS-1423 targets and binds the two antigens. This may modulate the tumor microenvironment (TME) and may enhance an immune-mediated antitumor response.", + "Bispecific Antibody MDX447": "", + "Bispecific Antibody MDX-H210": "", + "Bisthianostat": "", + "BiTE Antibody AMG 910": "A half-life extended (HLE), bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody that simultaneously binds to two different and as of yet undisclosed antigens, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, AMG 910 targets and binds to the two antigens. This may modulate the tumor microenvironment (TME) and may enhance an immune-mediated antitumor response.", + "Bivalent BRD4 Inhibitor AZD5153": "", + "Bizalimogene Ralaplasmid": "A DNA vaccine consisting of plasmids encoding the E6 and E7 genes of human papilloma virus (HPV) subtypes 16 and 18, respectively, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Administered via intramuscular electroporation, bizalimogene ralaplasmid expresses E6 and E7 proteins, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against cervical cancer cells expressing E6 and E7 proteins, resulting in tumor cell lysis. HPV type 16 and HPV type 18 are the most common HPV types involved in cervical carcinogenesis.", + "Bizelesin": "", + "BL22 Immunotoxin": "", + "Black Cohosh": "", + "Black Raspberry Nectar": "", + "Bleomycin": "", + "Bleomycin A2": "", + "Bleomycin B2": "", + "Bleomycin Sulfate": "", + "Blinatumomab": "", + "Blueberry Powder Supplement": "", + "BMI1 Inhibitor PTC596": "", + "BMS-184476": "", + "BMS-188797": "", + "BMS-214662": "", + "BMS-275183": "", + "Boanmycin Hydrochloride": "", + "Bomedemstat": "An orally available, irreversible inhibitor of lysine-specific demethylase 1 (LSD1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, bomedemstat binds to and inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the di- and mono-methylated forms of lysine at position 4 of histone H3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor suppressor genes. In addition, LSD1 demethylates mono- or di-methylated H3K9 which increases gene expression of tumor promoting genes; thus, inhibition of LSD1 also promotes H3K9 methylation and decreases transcription of these genes. Altogether, this may lead to an inhibition of cell growth in LSD1-overexpressing tumor cells. LSD1, an enzyme belonging to the flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)-dependent amine oxidase family is overexpressed in certain tumor cells and plays a key role in the regulation of gene expression, tumor cell growth and survival.", + "Boronophenylalanine-Fructose Complex": "", + "Bortezomib": "", + "Bosutinib": "", + "Bosutinib Monohydrate": "", + "Botanical Agent BEL-X-HG": "", + "Botanical Agent LEAC-102": "", + "Bovine Cartilage": "", + "Bozitinib": "", + "BP-Cx1-Platinum Complex BP-C1": "", + "BR96-Doxorubicin Immunoconjugate": "", + "Brachyury-expressing Yeast Vaccine GI-6301": "", + "BRAF Inhibitor": "", + "BRAF Inhibitor ARQ 736": "", + "BRAF Inhibitor BGB-3245": "An orally available inhibitor of both monomer and dimer forms of activating mutations of the serine/threonine-protein kinase BRAF (B-raf) protein, including V600 BRAF mutations, non-V600 BRAF mutations, and RAF fusions, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, BRAF inhibitor BGB-3245 targets and binds to both monomeric and dimeric forms of activating BRAF mutations and fusions. This may result in the inhibition of BRAF-mediated signaling and inhibit proliferation in tumor cells expressing BRAF mutations and fusions. BRAF belongs to the RAF family of serine/threonine protein kinases and plays a role in regulating the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) signaling pathway, which is often dysregulated in human cancers and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and survival. BRAF mutations and fusions have been identified in a number of solid tumors and are drivers of cancer growth.", + "BRAF Inhibitor PLX8394": "", + "BRAF(V600E) Kinase Inhibitor ABM-1310": "An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of mutant (V600E) v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, BRAF(V600E) kinase inhibitor ABM-1310 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of BRAF(V600E) kinase, which may result in the inhibition of an over-activated MAPK signaling pathway downstream in BRAF(V600E) kinase-expressing tumor cells and a reduction in tumor cell proliferation. BRAF belongs to the raf/mil family of serine/threonine protein kinases and plays a role in regulating the MAP kinase/ERKs signaling pathway. The valine to glutamic acid substitution at residue 600 accounts for about 90% of BRAF gene mutations. The oncogenic product, BRAF(V600E) kinase, exhibits a markedly elevated activity that over-activates the MAPK signaling pathway. The BRAF(V600E) mutation has been found to occur in about 8% of all tumors.", + "BRAF(V600E) Kinase Inhibitor RO5212054": "", + "BRAF/EGFR Inhibitor BGB-283": "", + "BRAFV600/PI3K Inhibitor ASN003": "", + "BRD4 Inhibitor PLX2853": "", + "BRD4 Inhibitor PLX51107": "", + "Breflate": "", + "Brentuximab": "", + "Brentuximab Vedotin": "", + "Brequinar": "", + "Brequinar Sodium": "", + "Briciclib Sodium": "", + "Brigatinib": "", + "Brilanestrant": "", + "Brimonidine Tartrate Nanoemulsion OCU-300": "", + "Brivanib": "", + "Brivanib Alaninate": "", + "Brivudine": "", + "Brivudine Phosphoramidate": "", + "Broad-Spectrum Human Papillomavirus Vaccine V505": "", + "Broccoli Sprout/Broccoli Seed Extract Supplement": "", + "Bromacrylide": "", + "Bromebric Acid": "", + "Bromocriptine Mesylate": "", + "Brontictuzumab": "", + "Brostacillin Hydrochloride": "", + "Brostallicin": "", + "Broxuridine": "", + "Bruceanol A": "", + "Bruceanol B": "", + "Bruceanol C": "", + "Bruceanol D": "", + "Bruceanol E": "", + "Bruceanol F": "", + "Bruceanol G": "", + "Bruceanol H": "", + "Bruceantin": "", + "Bryostatin 1": "", + "BTK Inhibitor ARQ 531": "", + "BTK Inhibitor CT-1530": "", + "BTK Inhibitor DTRMWXHS-12": "", + "BTK Inhibitor HZ-A-018": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, BTK inhibitor HZ-A-018 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways. This leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the src-related BTK/Tec family of cytoplasmic tyrosine kinases, is overexpressed in B-cell malignancies; it plays an important role in B lymphocyte development, activation, signaling, proliferation and survival.", + "BTK Inhibitor ICP-022": "", + "BTK Inhibitor LOXO-305": "", + "BTK Inhibitor M7583": "", + "BTK inhibitor TG-1701": "", + "Budigalimab": "", + "Budotitane": "", + "Bufalin": "", + "Buparlisib": "", + "Burixafor": "", + "Burixafor Hydrobromide": "", + "Burosumab": "", + "Buserelin": "", + "Bushen Culuan Decoction": "", + "Bushen-Jianpi Decoction": "", + "Busulfan": "", + "Buthionine Sulfoximine": "", + "BXQ-350 Nanovesicle Formulation": "", + "c-Kit Inhibitor PLX9486": "", + "c-Met Inhibitor ABN401": "An orally bioavailable, highly selective inhibitor of the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ABN401 targets and binds to the c-Met protein, prevents c-Met phosphorylation and disrupts c-Met-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein or expressing constitutively activated c-Met protein. c-Met protein is overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types and plays key roles in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion, metastasis, and tumor angiogenesis.", + "c-Met Inhibitor AL2846": "", + "c-Met Inhibitor AMG 208": "", + "c-Met Inhibitor AMG 337": "", + "c-Met Inhibitor GST-HG161": "An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, c-Met inhibitor GST-HG161 targets and binds to c-Met protein, thereby disrupting c-Met-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met protein. c-Met protein is overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types and plays key roles in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion, metastasis, and tumor angiogenesis.", + "c-Met Inhibitor HS-10241": "", + "c-Met Inhibitor JNJ-38877605": "", + "c-Met Inhibitor MK2461": "", + "c-Met Inhibitor MK8033": "", + "c-Met Inhibitor MSC2156119J": "", + "C-myb Antisense Oligonucleotide G4460": "", + "c-raf Antisense Oligonucleotide ISIS 5132": "", + "C-VISA BikDD:Liposome": "", + "C/EBP Beta Antagonist ST101": "A peptide antagonist of the transcription factor CCAAT/enhancer-binding protein beta (C/EBP beta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, C/EBP beta antagonist ST101 targets and inhibits the activity of C/EBP beta. This prevents the expression of C/EBP beta target genes and proteins, including the anti-apoptotic protein B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), cyclins and inhibitor of differentiation (ID) family of proteins, which are involved in cell proliferation, differentiation, and cell cycle regulation. This may lead to apoptosis in tumor cells. C/EBP beta is overexpressed in many cancers and plays an important role in the regulation of cell differentiation; its expression is associated with tumor cell survival and proliferation.", + "CAB-ROR2-ADC BA3021": "", + "Cabazitaxel": "", + "Cabiralizumab": "", + "Cabozantinib": "", + "Cabozantinib S-malate": "", + "Cactinomycin": "", + "Caffeic Acid Phenethyl Ester": "", + "CAIX Inhibitor DTP348": "", + "CAIX Inhibitor SLC-0111": "", + "Calaspargase Pegol-mknl": "", + "Calcitriol": "", + "Calcium Release-activated Channel Inhibitor CM4620": "A calcium (Ca2+) release-activated channel (CRAC) inhibitor, with potential anti-inflammatory and protective activities. Upon administration, CM4620 targets, binds to and inhibits the calcium release-activated calcium channel protein 1 (Orai1), which forms the pore of CRAC, and is expressed on both parenchymal cells and immune cells. This prevents the transport of extracellular Ca2+ into the cell and inhibits the subsequent activation of Ca2+-mediated signaling and transcription of target genes. This may prevent Ca2+ entry-mediated cell death. It may also inhibit the proliferation of immune cells and prevents the release of various inflammatory cytokines in immune cells, such as interleukin-2 (IL-2) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a). This may lead to a reduction of inflammatory responses in inflammatory-mediated diseases. CRACs, specialized plasma membrane Ca2+ ion channels composed of the plasma membrane based Orai channels and the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stromal interaction molecules (STIMs), mediate store operated Ca2+ entry (SOCE) and play a key role in calcium homeostasis. CRACs are overactivated in a variety of cell types, especially certain immune cells during inflammation, including T-lymphocytes, neutrophils and macrophages.", + "Calcium Release-activated Channels Inhibitor RP4010": "", + "Calcium Saccharate": "", + "Calculus bovis/Moschus/Olibanum/Myrrha Capsule": "", + "Calicheamicin Gamma 1I": "", + "Camidanlumab Tesirine": "An immunoconjugate consisting of a human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the alpha subunit of the interleukin-2 receptor (IL-2R alpha or CD25) and conjugated, via a cleavable linker, to a synthetic, cross-linking agent pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer that targets DNA minor grooves, with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody portion of the anti-CD25 antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) ADCT-301 specifically binds to the cell surface antigen CD25. This causes the internalization of ADCT-301 and the subsequent release of the cytotoxic PBD moiety. The imine groups of the PBD moiety bind to the N2 positions of guanines on opposite strands of DNA. This induces interstrand cross-links in the minor groove of DNA and inhibits DNA replication, which inhibits the proliferation of CD25-overexpressing tumor cells. CD25, a transmembrane receptor and tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is expressed on certain cancer cells.", + "Camptothecin": "", + "Camptothecin Analogue TLC388": "", + "Camptothecin Glycoconjugate BAY 38-3441": "", + "Camptothecin Sodium": "", + "Camptothecin-20(S)-O-Propionate Hydrate": "", + "Camrelizumab": "", + "Camsirubicin": "", + "Canakinumab": "", + "Cancell": "", + "Cancer Peptide Vaccine S-588410": "", + "Canerpaturev": "", + "Canertinib Dihydrochloride": "", + "Canfosfamide": "", + "Canfosfamide Hydrochloride": "", + "Cannabidiol": "", + "Cantrixil": "", + "Cantuzumab Ravtansine": "", + "Capecitabine": "", + "Capecitabine Rapidly Disintegrating Tablet": "", + "Capivasertib": "", + "Capmatinib": "", + "Captopril": "", + "CAR T-Cells AMG 119": "", + "Caracemide": "", + "Carbendazim": "", + "Carbetimer": "", + "Carbogen": "", + "Carbon C 14-pamiparib": "An orally bioavailable radioconjugate composed of pamiparib, a nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibitor, radiolabeled with the radioisotope carbon C 14, with potential use for evaluating the pharmacokinetic profile of pamiparib. Pamiparib targets, binds to and inhibits PARP, which results in the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation and survival. Labeling of pamiparib with the radioactive tracer carbon C 14 allows for the evaluation of pamiparib's pharmacokinetic profile, including its absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion (ADME).", + "Carboplatin": "", + "Carboquone": "", + "Carboxyamidotriazole": "", + "Carboxyamidotriazole Orotate": "", + "Carboxyphenyl Retinamide": "", + "Carfilzomib": "", + "Caricotamide/Tretazicar": "", + "Carlumab": "", + "Carmofur": "", + "Carmustine": "", + "Carmustine Implant": "", + "Carmustine in Ethanol": "", + "Carmustine Sustained-Release Implant Wafer": "", + "Carotuximab": "", + "Carubicin": "", + "Carubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Carzelesin": "", + "Carzinophilin": "", + "Cathelicidin LL-37": "", + "Cationic Liposome-Encapsulated Paclitaxel": "", + "Cationic Peptide Cream Cypep-1": "A topical cream containing Cypep-1, a cationic lytic peptide of 27 amino acids, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon topical administration, Cypep-1 selectively targets tumor cells with negatively charged cell membranes and ruptures the cell membranes. This leads to tumor cell lysis and the release of neoantigens into the tumor microenvironment (TME) and circulation. This elicits a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these neoantigens. Warts are benign skin tumors caused by human papilloma virus (HPV).", + "Catumaxomab": "", + "CBP/beta-catenin Antagonist PRI-724": "", + "CBP/beta-catenin Modulator E7386": "", + "CCR2 Antagonist CCX872-B": "", + "CCR2 Antagonist PF-04136309": "", + "CCR2/CCR5 Antagonist BMS-813160": "", + "CCR4 Inhibitor FLX475": "", + "CD4-specific Telomerase Peptide Vaccine UCPVax": "", + "CD11b Agonist GB1275": "An orally bioavailable small molecule agonist of CD11b (integrin alpha-M; ITGAM; integrin alpha M chain), with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, CD11b agonist GB1275 targets and binds to CD11b, thereby activating CD11b. This leads to CD11b-mediated signaling and promotes pro-inflammatory macrophage polarization while suppressing immunosuppressive macrophage polarization. This reduces influx of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), promotes anti-tumor immune responses, induces cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and suppresses tumor growth. CD11b, a member of the integrin family of cell adhesion receptors highly expressed on immune system cells, is a negative regulator of immune suppression and activates anti-tumor innate immunity.", + "CD20-CD19 Compound CAR T Cells": "A preparation of T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a compound chimeric antigen receptor (cCAR) containing two distinct units of CARs, one specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) cluster of differentiation 20 (CD20) and one specific for the TAA CD19, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CD20-CD19 cCAR T cells specifically and simultaneously target and bind to tumor cells expressing CD20 and/or CD19. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells that express CD20 and/or CD19. Both CD19 and CD20 are B-cell-specific cell surface antigens overexpressed in B-cell lineage malignancies. Targeting two different antigens may improve coverage and protect against antigen escape and relapse as it is less likely for tumor cells to lose both antigens.", + "CD28/ICOS Antagonist ALPN-101": "An Fc fusion protein comprised of a human inducible T-cell costimulator ligand (ICOSL) variant immunoglobulin domain (vIgD) that binds to both inducible T-cell costimulator (ICOS; CD278) and cluster of differentiation 28 (CD28), with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, CD28/ICOS antagonist ALPN-101 targets and binds to both CD28 and ICOS expressed on certain T-cells. This prevents the activation of CD28 and ICOS by its ligands, thereby blocking the two T-cell costimulatory pathways and the resulting T-cell activation. CD28 is involved in initiation of the pathogenic process in graft versus host disease (GVHD). Following initial activation, CD28 is often downregulated while ICOS is upregulated, possibly sustaining GVHD. Dual blockade of CD28 and ICOS may be superior to individual blockade of CD28 or ICOS alone.", + "CD40 Agonist Monoclonal Antibody CP-870,893": "", + "CD40 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody APX005M": "", + "CD44 Targeted Agent SPL-108": "", + "CD44v6-specific CAR T-cells": "A preparation of genetically modified T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a fourth-generation specific chimeric antigen receptor (4SCAR) specific for CD44 variant domain 6 (CD44v6), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD44v6-specific CAR T-cells specifically recognize and kill CD44v6-expressing tumor cells. CD44, a transmembrane glycoprotein and hyaluronic acid receptor, is expressed in healthy tissue and overexpressed in numerous cancer cell types. CD44v6, the isoform containing the variant domain 6 of CD44 gene, plays a key role in tumor cell invasion, proliferation and metastasis.", + "CD47 Antagonist ALX148": "", + "CD73 Inhibitor AB680": "A small molecule, competitive inhibitor of the ectoenzyme CD73 (cluster of differentiation 73; 5'-ecto-nucleotidase; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD73 Inhibitor AB680 targets and binds to CD73, leading to clustering of and internalization of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and decreases the amount of free adenosine in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This prevents adenosine-mediated lymphocyte suppression and increases the activity of CD8-positive effector cells and natural killer (NK) cells. This also activates macrophages and reduces the activity of myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and regulatory T-lymphocytes (Tregs). By abrogating the inhibitory effect on the immune system and enhancing the cytotoxic T-cell-mediated immune response against cancer cells, tumor cell growth decreases. In addition, clustering and internalization of CD73 decreases the migration of cancer cells and prevents metastasis. CD73, a plasma membrane protein belonging to the 5'-nucleotidase (NTase) family, upregulated on a number of cancer cell types, catalyzes the conversion of extracellular nucleotides, such as AMP, to membrane-permeable nucleosides, such as adenosine; it plays a key role in adenosine-mediated immunosuppression within the TME.", + "CD73 Inhibitor LY3475070": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the ectoenzyme CD73 (cluster of differentiation 73; 5'-ecto-nucleotidase; 5'-NT; ecto-5'-nucleotidase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, CD73 inhibitor LY3475070 targets and binds to CD73, leading to clustering of and internalization of CD73. This prevents CD73-mediated conversion of adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine and decreases the amount of free adenosine in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This prevents adenosine-mediated lymphocyte suppression and increases the activity of CD8-positive effector cells and natural killer (NK) cells. This also activates macrophages and reduces the activity of myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and regulatory T-lymphocytes (Tregs). By abrogating the inhibitory effect on the immune system and enhancing the cytotoxic T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells, tumor cell growth decreases. In addition, clustering and internalization of CD73 decreases the migration of cancer cells and prevents metastasis. CD73, a plasma membrane protein belonging to the 5'-nucleotidase (NTase) family, catalyzes the conversion of extracellular nucleotides, such as AMP, to membrane-permeable nucleosides, such as adenosine. It is upregulated in a number of cancer cell types and plays a key role in adenosine-mediated immunosuppression within the TME.", + "CD80-Fc Fusion Protein ALPN-202": "A fusion protein composed of the N-terminal Ig variable-like (IgV) domain of CD80 fused to a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc fragment, with potential immunostimulatory, immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CD80-Fc fusion protein ALPN-202 targets and binds to programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274) expressed on tumor cells, which blocks its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279), and leads to PD-L1-dependent CD28 binding and co-stimulation in the local tumor microenvironment (TME). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling, leads to the co-stimulation of T-cell responses including the activation of naive and memory T-cells in the TME and enhances the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune response against PD-L1-expressing tumor cells. In addition, ALPN-202 targets and binds to CTL-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4) expressed on T-cells. This prevents the binding of CTLA-4 to endogenous CD80, thereby enabling CD80-CD28 engagement, CD28 signaling, and T-cell activation. This further promotes T-cell activity. PD-L1 is overexpressed by many human cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cells suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. CD80 is a co-stimulatory molecule expressed on activated antigen presenting cells (APCs) that plays a key role in T-cell activation upon binding to CD28 on T-cells. On the other hand, binding of CD80 to CTLA-4 prevents CD80-CD28 engagement, thereby inhibiting T-cell activity and immune activation. CTLA-4 is a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) and an inhibitory molecule upregulated by T-cells following T-cell activation. It plays a key role in the downregulation of the immune system.", + "CD80-Fc Fusion Protein FPT155": "A recombinant fusion protein composed of the extracellular domain (ECD) of human CD80 (B7.1) fused to a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) Fc fragment, with potential immunostimulatory, immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of CD80-Fc fusion protein FPT155, the CD80 moiety targets and binds to CD28, which in the presence of antigenic T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling, leads to the co-stimulation of T-cell responses including the activation of naive and memory T-cells. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells, thereby killing cancer cells. FPT155 also targets and binds to CTL-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), preventing the binding of CTLA-4 to endogenous CD80, thereby enabling CD80-CD28 engagement, CD28 signaling, and T-cell activation in the tumor microenvironment. CD80 is a co-stimulatory molecule expressed on activated antigen presenting cells that plays a key role in T-cell activation upon binding to CD28 on T-cells. On the other hand, binding of CD80 to CTLA-4 prevents CD80-CD28 engagement, thereby inhibiting T-cell activity and immune activation. CTLA-4 is a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) and an inhibitory molecule upregulated by T-cells following T-cell activation. It plays a key role in the downregulation of the immune system.", + "CD123-CD33 Compound CAR T Cells": "A preparation of T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a compound chimeric antigen receptor (cCAR) containing two distinct units of CARs, one specific for the CD123 (interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain or IL3RA) antigen and one specific for the CD33 antigen, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the CD123-CD33 cCAR T cells specifically and simultaneously target and bind to tumor cells expressing CD123 and/or CD33. This induces selective toxicity in tumor cells that express the CD123 antigen and/or the CD33 antigen. CD123 is normally expressed on committed blood progenitor cells in the bone marrow; its overexpression is associated with increased leukemic cell proliferation and aggressiveness. CD33 is expressed on normal non-pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells and is overexpressed on myeloid leukemia cells. Targeting two different antigens may improve coverage and protect against antigen escape and relapse as it is less likely for tumor cells to lose both antigens. Additionally, the CD123-CD33 cCAR T cells express CD52 on the cell surface. This allows the depletion of the CD123-CD33 cCAR T cells with the administration of the anti-CD52 monoclonal antibody alemtuzumab, in case of unacceptable side effects.", + "CD123-specific Targeting Module TM123": "A preparation of soluble adapter molecules consisting of an antigen-binding moiety targeting CD123 linked to a peptide motif recognizable by UniCAR02-T, that may be used to activate UniCAR02-T. Upon administration of CD123-specific targeting module (TM) TM123, and upon co-administration of UniCAR02-T, the antigen-binding moiety of TM123 targets and binds to cancer cells expressing CD123, and the binding domain of UniCAR02-T binds to the nuclear antigen motif of TM123. This activates UniCAR02-T, and induces selective toxicity in and causes lysis of CD123-expressing tumor cells. CD123 is normally expressed on committed blood progenitor cells in the bone marrow; its overexpression is associated with both increased leukemic cell proliferation and aggressiveness.", + "CDC7 Inhibitor TAK-931": "", + "CDC7 Kinase Inhibitor BMS-863233": "", + "CDC7 Kinase Inhibitor LY3143921 Hydrate": "", + "CDC7 Kinase Inhibitor NMS-1116354": "", + "CDK1 Inhibitor BEY1107": "", + "CDK1/2/4 Inhibitor AG-024322": "", + "CDK2 Inhibitor PF-07104091": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CDK2 inhibitor PF-07104091 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK2. This may lead to cell cycle arrest, the induction of apoptosis, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. CDKs are serine/threonine kinases that are important regulators of cell cycle progression and cellular proliferation and are frequently overexpressed in tumor cells. CDK2/cyclin E complex plays an important role in retinoblastoma (Rb) protein phosphorylation and the G1-S phase cell cycle transition. CDK2/cyclin A complex plays an important role in DNA synthesis in S phase and the activation of CDK1/cyclin B for the G2-M phase cell cycle transition.", + "CDK2/4/6/FLT3 Inhibitor FN-1501": "", + "CDK2/5/9 Inhibitor CYC065": "", + "CDK4 Inhibitor P1446A-05": "", + "CDK4/6 Inhibitor": "", + "CDK4/6 Inhibitor BPI-16350": "", + "CDK4/6 Inhibitor CS3002": "An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor CS3002 selectively targets and inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases that are upregulated in many tumor cell types and play a key role in the regulation of both cell cycle progression from the G1-phase into the S-phase and tumor cell proliferation.", + "CDK4/6 Inhibitor FCN-437": "", + "CDK4/6 Inhibitor G1T38": "", + "CDK4/6 Inhibitor HS-10342": "An orally bioavailable, small molecular, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor HS-10342 selectively inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases that are upregulated in many tumor cell types and play a key role in the regulation of both cell cycle progression from the G1-phase into the S-phase and tumor cell proliferation.", + "CDK4/6 Inhibitor SHR6390": "", + "CDK4/6 Inhibitor TQB3616": "An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK4/6 inhibitor TQB3616 selectively inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S-phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases that are upregulated in many tumor cell types and play a key role in the regulation of both cell cycle progression from the G1-phase into the S-phase and tumor cell proliferation.", + "CDK7 Inhibitor CT7001": "", + "CDK7 Inhibitor SY-1365": "", + "CDK7 Inhibitor SY-5609": "An orally bioavailable, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SY-5609 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK7, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signaling. Specifically, inhibition of CDK7 prevents phosphorylation of the carboxy-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA Polymerase II, thereby preventing transcription of important cancer-promoting genes. In addition, it prevents phosphorylation of the cell cycle kinases CDK1, 2, 4, and 6, thereby disrupting uncontrolled cell cycle progression. Altogether, this may induce apoptosis, cause cell cycle arrest, inhibit DNA damage repair and inhibit tumor cell proliferation in certain cancers that are dependent on CDK7-mediated transcriptional regulation and signaling. CDK7, a serine/threonine kinase, plays a role in controlling cell cycle progression, transcriptional regulation, and promotes the expression of key oncogenes such as c-Myc and beta-catenin, through the phosphorylation of RNA polymerase II.", + "CDK8/19 Inhibitor SEL 120": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinases 8 and 19 (CDK8/19), with potential antineoplastic and chemoprotective activities. Upon oral administration, CDK8/19 inhibitor SEL 120 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK8/19, which prevents activation of CDK8/19-mediated oncogenic signaling pathways, blocks selective transcription of various tumor-promoting genes, and inhibits proliferation of CDK8/19-overexpressing tumor cells. CDK8/19, serine/threonine kinases involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, are overexpressed in certain cancer cell types and play key roles in tumor cell proliferation.", + "CDK9 Inhibitor AZD4573": "", + "CDK Inhibitor AT7519": "", + "CDK Inhibitor R547": "", + "CDK Inhibitor SNS-032": "", + "CDK/JAK2/FLT3 Inhibitor TG02 Citrate": "", + "CEA-MUC-1-TRICOM Vaccine CV301": "", + "CEA-targeting Agent RG6123": "", + "CEBPA-targeting saRNA MTL-CEBPA Liposome": "", + "Cedazuridine": "", + "Cedazuridine/Azacitidine Combination Agent ASTX030": "An orally available fixed-dose combination agent containing cedazuridine, a cytidine deaminase (CDA) inhibitor, and the cytidine antimetabolite azacitidine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of the cedazuridine/azacitidine combination agent ASTX030, cedazuridine binds to and inhibits CDA, an enzyme primarily found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and liver that catalyzes the deamination of cytidine and cytidine analogs. This prevents the breakdown of azacitidine, increases its bioavailability and efficacy while decreasing GI toxicity due to the administration of lower doses of azacitidine. Azacitidine exerts its antineoplastic activity through the incorporation of its triphosphate form into DNA, which inhibits DNA methyltransferase (DNMT), thereby blocking DNA methylation and results in hypomethylation of DNA. This interferes with DNA replication and decreases tumor cell growth.", + "Cedazuridine/Decitabine Combination Agent ASTX727": "", + "Cedefingol": "", + "Cediranib": "", + "Cediranib Maleate": "", + "Celecoxib": "", + "Cell Cycle Checkpoint/DNA Repair Antagonist IC83": "", + "Cemadotin": "", + "Cemadotin Hydrochloride": "", + "Cemiplimab": "", + "Cenersen": "", + "Cenisertib": "", + "CENP-E Inhibitor GSK-923295": "", + "Ceralasertib": "", + "Ceramide Nanoliposome": "", + "Cerdulatinib": "", + "Cereblon E3 Ubiquitin Ligase Modulating Agent CC-92480": "", + "Cereblon E3 Ubiquitin Ligase Modulating Agent CC-99282": "A modulator of the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex containing cereblon (CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, cereblon E3 ubiquitin ligase modulating agent CC-99282 specifically binds to cereblon (CRBN), thereby affecting the ubiquitin E3 ligase activity, and targeting certain substrate proteins for ubiquitination. This induces proteasome-mediated degradation of certain transcription factors, some of which are transcriptional repressors in T-cells. This leads to modulation of the immune system, including activation of T-lymphocytes, and downregulation of the activity of other proteins, some of which play key roles in the proliferation of certain cancer cell types. CRBN, the substrate recognition component of the CRL4-CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase complex, plays a key role in the ubiquitination of certain proteins.", + "Cereblon Modulator CC-90009": "", + "Cergutuzumab Amunaleukin": "", + "Ceritinib": "", + "Cesalin": "", + "cEt KRAS Antisense Oligonucleotide AZD4785": "", + "Cetrelimab": "", + "Cetuximab": "", + "Cetuximab Sarotalocan": "A chemical conjugate composed of the dye IR700 linked to cetuximab, a monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon injection of cetuximab sarotalocan, the cetuximab moiety targets and binds to EGFR-expressing tumor cells, resulting in the internalization of the conjugate. Upon localized application of near-infrared (NIR) light, the IR700 dye becomes activated, disrupts the cell membrane and selectively kills the EGFR-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed in a variety of cancers.", + "Cetuximab-IR700 Conjugate RM-1929": "", + "Cetuximab-loaded Ethylcellulose Polymeric Nanoparticles Decorated with Octreotide (SY)": "", + "Cevipabulin": "", + "Cevipabulin Fumarate": "", + "Cevipabulin Succinate": "", + "Cevostamab": "A proprietary recombinant bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) antibody composed of two single-chain variable fragments (scFv), one directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) Fc receptor-like protein 5 (FCRH5; CD307; FCRL5; IRTA2; BXMAS1) and one that is directed against the CD3 antigen found on T-lymphocytes, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of cevostamab, the bispecific antibody binds to both the CD3 antigen on cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) and FCRH5 found on FCRH5-expressing tumor cells. This activates and crosslinks CTLs with FCRH5-expressing tumor cells, which results in the CTL-mediated cell death of FCRH5-expressing tumor cells. FCRH5, an immune receptor translocation-associated protein/Fc receptor homolog (IRTA/FCRH) family member and a B-cell lineage marker, is overexpressed on myeloma cells.", + "cFMS Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor ARRY-382": "", + "Chaparrin": "", + "Chaparrinone": "", + "Checkpoint Kinase Inhibitor AZD7762": "", + "Checkpoint Kinase Inhibitor XL844": "", + "Chemotherapy": "", + "Chiauranib": "", + "Chimeric Monoclonal Antibody 81C6": "", + "ChiNing Decoction": "", + "Chk1 Inhibitor CCT245737": "", + "Chk1 Inhibitor GDC-0425": "", + "Chk1 Inhibitor GDC-0575": "", + "CHK1 Inhibitor MK-8776": "", + "CHK1 Inhibitor PF-477736": "", + "Chlorambucil": "", + "Chlorodihydropyrimidine": "", + "Chloroquine": "", + "Chloroquinoxaline Sulfonamide": "", + "Chlorotoxin": "", + "Chlorotoxin (EQ)-CD28-CD3zeta-CD19t-expressing CAR T-lymphocytes": "A preparation of genetically modified T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) comprised of a CD28 co-stimulatory signaling domain fused to the zeta chain of the TCR/CD3 complex (CD3zeta), a truncated form of CD19 (CD19t), an immunoglobulin (Ig) G4-Fc (EQ) spacer, and a peptide derived from chlorotoxin (CLTX), with potential imaging and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, chlorotoxin (EQ)-CD28-CD3zeta-CD19t-expressing CAR T-lymphocytes are re-directed to specific tumor cells in the brain inducing selective toxicity in these tumor cells. CLTX, a 36-amino acid peptide found in the venom of the deathstalker scorpion (Leiurus quinquestriatus) and a chloride channel blocker, preferentially binds to glioma (and other neuroectodermal origin) cells via membrane bound forms of the endopeptidase matrix metalloproteinase-2 (MMP-2). This may direct the T-lymphocytes to and induce selective toxicity in MMP-2-expressing tumor cells. Additionally, binding to MMP-2 on glioma cells may both interfere with transmembrane chloride exchange and inhibit proteolytic extracellular matrix remodeling by MMP-2, which may further limit the spread of these tumor cells. MMP-2 is specifically upregulated in gliomas and related cancers, but is not normally expressed in brain. The CD28 co-stimulatory molecule signaling domain enhances activation and signaling; its inclusion may increase proliferation of T-cells and antitumor activity compared to the inclusion of the CD3 zeta chain alone. IgG4-Fc (EQ) contains two point mutations in its spacer region which prevents recognition of the CAR by Fc receptors (FcRs) without altering the ability of the CAR to mediate antigen-specific lysis. CD19t, which lacks the cytoplasmic signaling tail, provides a non-immunogenic surface marker that allows for accurate measurement, efficient cell tracking and/or imaging of the therapeutic T-cells in vivo following adoptive transfer. Additionally, co-expression of CD19t functions as a \"suicide\" switch via clinically available antibodies or immunotoxins which can be used to selectively eliminate the genetically modified cells.", + "Chlorozotocin": "", + "Choline Kinase Alpha Inhibitor TCD-717": "", + "CHP-NY-ESO-1 Peptide Vaccine IMF-001": "", + "Chromomycin A3": "", + "Chrysanthemum morifolium/Ganoderma lucidum/Glycyrrhiza glabra/Isatis indigotica/Panax pseudoginseng/Rabdosia rubescens/Scutellaria baicalensis/Serona repens Supplement": "", + "Cibisatamab": "", + "Ciclopirox Prodrug CPX-POM": "", + "Cidan Herbal Capsule": "", + "Ciforadenant": "", + "Cilengitide": "", + "Ciltacabtagene Autoleucel": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that are transduced, ex vivo, with LCAR-B38M, a lentiviral vector expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing two bispecific anti-B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA) variable fragments of llama heavy-chain murine antibodies fused to the signaling domain of 4-1BB (CD137), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. The antigen-binding region of the CAR is a non-scFv structure targeting two distinct regions of BCMA. Upon intravenous administration back into the patient, ciltacabtagene autoleucel are directed to cells expressing BCMA, bind to two different epitopes on BCMA and induce selective toxicity in BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) and a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF) and plays a key role in plasma cell survival. BCMA is overexpressed on malignant plasma cells.", + "Cimetidine": "", + "Cinacalcet Hydrochloride": "", + "Cinobufagin": "", + "Cinobufotalin": "", + "Cinrebafusp Alfa": "A bivalent, bispecific fusion protein comprised of an anti-human epidermal growth factor receptor (HER2) monoclonal antibody linked to a CD137-targeting anticalin with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of cinrebafusp alfa, CD137 clustering is promoted by bridging CD137-positive T-cells with HER2-positive tumor cells, leading to the recruitment of tumor antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This may result in potent CTL-mediated lysis of HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2 plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. CD137 is a costimulatory immunoreceptor and a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF). Anticalins are synthetic antigen-binding proteins derived from lipocalins. Structurally dissimilar to antibodies, anticalins are able to bind to smaller antigens and exhibit improved tissue penetration.", + "Cintirorgon": "An orally bioavailable agonist of retinoic acid-related orphan receptor gamma (RORg), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of cintirorgon, this agent selectively binds to the nuclear receptor transcription factor RORg, forming a receptor complex that translocates to the nucleus, and binds to ROR response elements (ROREs), enhancing the function, proliferation and survival of type 17 T-cells, including Th17 (helper T-cells) and Tc17 (cytotoxic T-cells). This may increase the expression of co-stimulatory molecules and decrease the expression of co-inhibitory molecules on T-cells leading to increased production of cytokines and chemokines by T-cells, decreased proliferation of regulatory T-cells (Tregs), and abrogation of tumor-induced immunosuppression. This ultimately induces a T-cell-mediated immune response against cancer cells and leads to a reduction in tumor cell growth. RORg, the nuclear receptor transcription factor that is involved in Th17/Tc17 differentiation, plays a key role in immune activation.", + "Cintredekin Besudotox": "", + "Cirmtuzumab": "", + "cis-Urocanic Acid": "", + "Cisplatin": "", + "Cisplatin Liposomal": "", + "Cisplatin-E Therapeutic Implant": "", + "Cisplatin/Vinblastine/Cell Penetration Enhancer Formulation INT230-6": "", + "Citarinostat": "", + "Citatuzumab Bogatox": "", + "Cixutumumab": "", + "CK1alpha/CDK7/CDK9 Inhibitor BTX-A51": "The ditosylated salt of A51, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of casein kinase 1alpha (CK1alpha) and cyclin-dependent kinases 7 and 9 (CDK7 and CDK9), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, BTX-A51 binds to and inhibits the activity of CK1alpha, CDK7, and CDK9. Blocking the phosphorylation and kinase activity of CK1alpha prevents the enhanced binding of murine double minute X (MDMX) to p53, the formation of CK1alpha and MDM2 complex, and the resulting inhibition of p53. This induces p53-mediated cell cycle arrest, slowing tumor cell proliferation. Blocking the phosphorylation and kinase activity of CDK7 and CDK9 prevents the positive transcription elongation factor b (PTEFb)-mediated activation of RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II) and leads to the inhibition of gene transcription of various anti-apoptotic proteins. This also induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, slowing tumor cell proliferation. CK1alpha, a serine/threonine kinase and a leukemic stem cell target, acts as a tumor suppressor in several cancers through the negative regulation of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling and p53. It negatively regulates p53 by phosphorylating MDMX, thus enhancing binding of MDMX to p53, as well as by forming a complex with MDM2. CDK7, a serine/threonine kinase, plays a role in controlling cell cycle progression, transcriptional regulation, and promotes the expression of key oncogenes such as c-Myc through the phosphorylation of RNA Pol II. CDK9, also a serine/threonine kinase, regulates elongation of transcription through phosphorylation of RNA Pol II at serine 2 (p-Ser2-RNAPII). It is upregulated in various tumor cell types and plays a key role in the regulation of RNA Pol II-mediated transcription of anti-apoptotic proteins. Tumor cells are dependent on anti-apoptotic proteins for their survival.", + "CK2-targeting Synthetic Peptide CIGB-300": "", + "CL 246738": "", + "Cladribine": "", + "Clanfenur": "", + "Clarithromycin": "", + "Class 1/4 Histone Deacetylase Inhibitor OKI-179": "", + "Clinical Trial": "", + "Clinical Trial Agent": "", + "Clioquinol": "", + "Clivatuzumab": "", + "Clodronate Disodium": "", + "Clodronic Acid": "", + "Clofarabine": "", + "Clomesone": "", + "Clomiphene": "", + "Clomiphene Citrate": "", + "Clostridium Novyi-NT Spores": "", + "Cobimetinib": "", + "Cobolimab": "A monoclonal antibody against the inhibitory T-cell receptor, T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; TIM3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, cobolimab binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain T-cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which results in a reduction in tumor growth. TIM-3, a transmembrane protein and immune checkpoint receptor, is associated with tumor-mediated immune suppression.", + "Cobomarsen": "", + "Codrituzumab": "", + "Coenzyme Q10": "", + "Cofetuzumab Pelidotin": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody against human inactive tyrosine-protein kinase 7 (PTK7) linked, via a cleavable valine-citrulline linker, to an analog of the auristatin microtubule inhibitor dolastatin 10, auristatin-0101, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, cofetuzumab pelidotin targets and binds to PTK7 expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding, internalization and cleavage, auristatin-0101 binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, resulting in G2/M phase arrest and apoptosis of PTK7-expressing tumor cells. PTK7, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is overexpressed on a variety of cancer cells.", + "Colchicine-Site Binding Agent ABT-751": "", + "Cold Contaminant-free Iobenguane I-131": "", + "Colloidal Gold-Bound Tumor Necrosis Factor": "", + "Colorectal Cancer Peptide Vaccine PolyPEPI1018": "", + "Colorectal Tumor-Associated Peptides Vaccine IMA910": "", + "Coltuximab Ravtansine": "An immunoconjugate consisting of an anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody conjugated to the maytansinoid DM4, a derivative of the cytotoxic agent maytansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Coltuximab ravtansine targets the cell surface antigen CD19, found on a number of B-cell-derived cancers. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, the immunoconjugate releases DM4, which binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, resulting in inhibition of cell division and cell growth of CD19-expressing tumor cells.", + "Combretastatin": "", + "Combretastatin A1 Diphosphate": "", + "Combretastatin A-1": "", + "Commensal Bacterial Strain Formulation VE800": "An orally bioavailable formulation composed of eleven alive, distinct nonpathogenic, nontoxigenic, human commensal bacterial strains, isolated from healthy human donor feces, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the commensal bacterial strain formulation VE800, the bacterial strains induce an interferon-gamma (IFN-g)-producing CD8-positive T-cell-mediated immune response in the intestines. This may activate an IFN-g-expressing CD8+ T-cell -mediated anti-cancer immune response and may eradicate tumor cells.", + "Compound Kushen Injection": "", + "Conatumumab": "", + "Conbercept": "", + "Concentrated Lingzhi Mushroom Extract": "", + "Conditionally Active Biologic Anti-AXL Antibody-drug Conjugate BA3011": "", + "Copanlisib": "", + "Copanlisib Hydrochloride": "", + "Copper Cu 64-ATSM": "", + "Copper Cu 67 Tyr3-octreotate": "A radioconjugate consisting of the tyrosine-containing somatostatin analog Tyr3-octreotate (TATE) conjugated with the bifunctional chelator 5-(8-methyl-3,6,10,13,16,19-hexaaza-bicyclo[6.6.6]icosan-1-ylamino)-5-oxopentanoic acid (MeCOSar) and radiolabeled with the beta-emitting radioisotope copper Cu 67, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, copper Cu 67 Tyr3-octreotate binds to somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), with high affinity to type 2 SSTR, present on the cell membranes of many types of neuroendocrine tumor (NET) cells. Upon binding and internalization, this radioconjugate specifically delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to SSTR-positive cells. TATE is an octreotide derivative in which phenylalanine at position 3 is substituted by tyrosine and position 8 threoninol is replaced with threonine. SSTRs have been shown to be present in large numbers on NET and their metastases, while most other normal tissues express low levels of SSTRs.", + "Copper Gluconate": "", + "Cord Blood Derived CAR T-Cells": "A preparation of umbilical cord blood (CB)-derived T-lymphocytes that are genetically engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) that targets an as of yet unidentified tumor-associated antigen (TAA), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the cord blood derived CAR T-cells, the T-cells target, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in tumor cells expressing the TAA.", + "Cord Blood-derived Expanded Natural Killer Cells PNK-007": "", + "Cordycepin": "", + "Cordycepin Triphosphate": "", + "Coriolus Versicolor Extract": "", + "Corticorelin Acetate": "", + "Cortisone Acetate": "", + "Cosibelimab": "An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1), human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, cosibelimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling and enhances the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune response against PD-L1-expressing tumor cells. PD-L1 is overexpressed by many human cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cells suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. PD-1, a transmembrane protein belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily expressed on activated T-cells, is a negative regulator of the immune system that limits the expansion and survival of CD8-positive T-cells.", + "Cositecan": "", + "Coxsackievirus A21": "", + "Coxsackievirus V937": "A preparation of naturally occurring, oncolytic enterovirus, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, coxsackievirus V937 targets and binds to intracellular adhesion molecule 1 (ICAM-1) and decay acceleration factor (DAF), both cell surface molecules that are overexpressed on certain malignant cells. After entering the cells, coxsackievirus V937 replicates in these cancer cells, thereby causing cancer cell lysis. This results in a reduction of tumor cell growth.", + "CpG Oligodeoxynucleotide GNKG168": "", + "Crenolanib": "", + "Crenolanib Besylate": "", + "Crizotinib": "", + "Crolibulin": "", + "Cryptophycin": "", + "Cryptophycin 52": "", + "Crystalline Genistein Formulation AXP107-11": "", + "CSF1R Inhibitor ABSK021": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; CD115; M-CSFR), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, CSF1R inhibitor ABSK021 targets and binds to CSF1R, thereby blocking CSF1R activation and CSF1R-mediated signaling. This inhibits the activities of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs), and prevents immune suppression in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This enhances antitumor T-cell immune responses and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells. CSF1R, also known as macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor (M-CSFR) and CD115 (cluster of differentiation 115), is a cell-surface receptor that plays major roles in tumor cell proliferation and metastasis.", + "CSF1R Inhibitor DCC-3014": "", + "CSF1R Inhibitor PLX73086": "", + "CSF-1R Inhibitor BLZ945": "", + "CT2584 HMS": "", + "CTLA-4-directed Probody BMS-986249": "", + "Curcumin": "", + "Curcumin/Doxorubicin-encapsulating Nanoparticle IMX-110": "", + "Cusatuzumab": "", + "Custirsen Sodium": "", + "CXC Chemokine Receptor 2 Antagonist AZD5069": "", + "CXCR1/2 Inhibitor SX-682": "", + "CXCR2 Antagonist QBM076": "", + "CXCR4 Antagonist BL-8040": "", + "CXCR4 Antagonist USL311": "", + "CXCR4 Inhibitor Q-122": "", + "CXCR4 Peptide Antagonist LY2510924": "", + "CXCR4/E-selectin Antagonist GMI-1359": "An antagonist of both the C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CXCR4) and E-selectin (CD62E), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, CXCR4/E-selectin antagonist GMI-1359 binds to both CXCR4 and E-selectin expressed on endothelial cells. The binding to CXCR4 prevents the binding of stromal-cell derived factor-1 (SDF-1; CXCL12) to CXCR4 and inhibits CXCR4 activation, which may result in decreased proliferation and migration of CXCR4-expressing tumor cells. The binding to E-selectin expressed on endothelial cells prevents their interaction with E-selectin ligand-expressing cancer cells. This may prevent tumor cell activation, migration and metastasis. CXCR4, a chemokine receptor belonging to the G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) family, plays an important role in chemotaxis and angiogenesis, and is upregulated in several tumor cell types. E-selectin is a cell adhesion molecule involved in cell rolling, signaling and chemotaxis. Its overexpression has been associated with tumor angiogenesis and metastasis in several cancers.", + "Cyclin-dependent Kinase 8/19 Inhibitor BCD 115": "", + "Cyclin-dependent Kinase Inhibitor PF-06873600": "", + "Cyclodextrin-Based Polymer-Camptothecin CRLX101": "", + "Cyclodisone": "", + "Cycloleucine": "", + "Cyclopentenyl Cytosine": "", + "Cyclophosphamide": "", + "Cyclophosphamide Anhydrous": "", + "Cyclosporine": "", + "CYL-02 Plasmid DNA": "", + "CYP11A1 inhibitor ODM-208": "", + "CYP11A1 Inhibitor ODM-209": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the enzyme cytochrome 450 side-chain cleavage (scc)(CYP11A1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CYP11A1 inhibitor ODM-209 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of CYP11A1. This prevents the synthesis of all steroid hormones and their precursors. This may inhibit the proliferation of hormone-positive tumor cells. CYP11A1, a mitochondrial enzyme, catalyzes the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone (Preg), which is the first rate-limiting step in steroid hormone biosynthesis.", + "CYP17 Inhibitor CFG920": "", + "CYP17 Lyase Inhibitor ASN001": "", + "CYP17/Androgen Receptor Inhibitor ODM 204": "", + "CYP17/CYP11B2 Inhibitor LAE001": "An orally bioavailable, non-steroidal, potent, reversible, dual inhibitor of cytochrome P450 17 (CYP17 or CYP17A1) and CYP11B2, with potential antiandrogen and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, LAE001 inhibits the enzymatic activity of CYP17A1 in both the testes and adrenal glands, thereby inhibiting androgen production. This may decrease androgen-dependent growth signaling and may inhibit cell proliferation of androgen-dependent tumor cells. LAE001 also inhibits the enzymatic activity of CYP11B2, thereby inhibiting aldosterone production. This may reduce the elevated aldosterone levels resulting from CYP17 inhibition and androgen deprivation, leading to a reduction in mineralocorticoid side effects including cardiovascular complications. The cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP17A1, localized to the endoplasmic reticulum, exhibits both 17alpha-hydroxylase and 17,20-lyase activities, and plays a key role in the steroidogenic pathway that produces steroidal hormones. The cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP11B2, aldosterone synthase, is an enzyme that plays a key role in aldosterone biosynthesis.", + "Cyproterone": "", + "Cyproterone Acetate": "", + "Cytarabine": "", + "Cytarabine Monophosphate Prodrug MB07133": "", + "Cytarabine-asparagine Prodrug BST-236": "", + "Cytidine Analog RX-3117": "", + "Cytochlor": "", + "Cytokine-based Biologic Agent IRX-2": "", + "D-methionine Formulation MRX-1024": "", + "DAB389 Epidermal Growth Factor": "", + "Dabrafenib": "", + "Dabrafenib Mesylate": "", + "Dacarbazine": "", + "Dacetuzumab": "", + "DACH Polymer Platinate AP5346": "", + "DACH-Platin Micelle NC-4016": "", + "Daclizumab": "", + "Dacomitinib": "", + "Dacplatinum": "", + "Dactinomycin": "", + "Dactolisib": "", + "Dactolisib Tosylate": "", + "Dalantercept": "", + "Dalotuzumab": "", + "Daniquidone": "", + "Danusertib": "", + "Danvatirsen": "", + "Daporinad": "", + "Daratumumab": "", + "Daratumumab and Hyaluronidase-fihj": "A co-formulation composed of daratumumab, a human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 kappa monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein cluster of differentiation 38 (CD-38; CD38), and a recombinant form of human hyaluronidase (rHuPH20), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration of daratumumab and hyaluronidase-fihj, daratumumab targets and binds to CD38 on certain CD38-expressing tumors, such as multiple myeloma (MM) and plasma cell leukemia. This binding induces direct apoptosis through Fc-mediated cross-linking and triggers immune-mediated tumor cell lysis through antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC), and antibody-dependent cellular phagocytosis (ADCP) immune responses. CD38, a transmembrane glycoprotein, is expressed in both hematopoietic and non-hematopoietic lineage cells. Hyaluronidase-fihj hydrolyzes and degrades the glycosaminoglycan hyaluronic acid (HA), thereby decreasing interstitial viscosity and enhancing penetration of daratumumab through the interstitial space. This facilitates the delivery of daratumumab to CD38-expressing tumor cells.", + "Daratumumab/rHuPH20": "", + "Darinaparsin": "", + "Darleukin": "", + "Darolutamide": "", + "Daromun": "", + "Dasatinib": "", + "Daunorubicin": "", + "Daunorubicin Citrate": "", + "Daunorubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "DEC-205/NY-ESO-1 Fusion Protein CDX-1401": "", + "Decitabine": "", + "Decitabine and Cedazuridine": "An orally available fixed-dose combination agent containing cedazuridine, a cytidine deaminase (CDA) inhibitor, and the cytidine antimetabolite decitabine, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of tdecitabine and cedazuridine, cedazuridine binds to and inhibits CDA, an enzyme primarily found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and liver that catalyzes the deamination of cytidine and cytidine analogs. This prevents the breakdown of decitabine, increases its bioavailability and efficacy while decreasing GI toxicity due to the administration of lower doses of decitabine. Decitabine exerts its antineoplastic activity through the incorporation of its triphosphate form into DNA, which inhibits DNA methyltransferase and results in hypomethylation of DNA. This interferes with DNA replication and decreases tumor cell growth.", + "Defactinib": "", + "Defactinib Hydrochloride": "", + "Deferoxamine": "", + "Deferoxamine Mesylate": "", + "Degarelix": "", + "Degarelix Acetate": "", + "Delanzomib": "", + "Delolimogene Mupadenorepvec": "A double-armed oncolytic adenovirus composed of a recombinant genetically modified E1/E3-deleted, adenoviral serotype 5 (Ad5) vector, with the L5 segment of the Ad5 fiber replaced by the shaft and knob from the Ad35 serotype (Ad5/35), which expresses a trimerized (TMZ) form of the membrane-bound immunostimulator CD40 ligand (CD40L; TNFSF5) and the ligand for the signaling domain 4-1BB (4-1BBL; CD137L; TNFSF9), under the control of a CMV promoter, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration of delolimogene mupadenorepvec, the virus infects and selectively replicates in tumor cells. This causes direct oncolysis and the release of a plethora of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) from the tumor cells. The released TAAs stimulate the immune system and activate anti-tumor cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs), thereby further killing tumor cells. In addition, infected tumor cells and tumor stroma cells, including stellate cells and infiltrating immune cells, express the immunostimulants CD40L and 4-1BBL. The expressed CD40L and 4-1BBL proteins activate the CD40L- and 4-1BBL-mediated signaling pathways, respectively. This activates antigen-presenting cells (APCs), such as dendritic cells (DCs) and M1 macrophages. The DCs produce various cytokines, including interleukin-12 (IL12), IL21, tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNFa), and interferon-gamma (IFNg), which leads to the activation and expansion of both T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells. Altogether, this modulates immune suppression in the tumor microenvironment (TME), disrupts tumor stroma, and causes additional immune stimulation against tumor cells, thereby inducing further tumor cell lysis. In addition, CD40L reduces myeloid suppressor cells in the TME. Inclusion of the chimeric Ad5/35 fiber targets CD46 and increases viral uptake in cells. Transgene expression is driven by a separate promoter to allow for efficient expression in both tumor cells and tumor stroma. Replication is restricted to tumor cells by the presence of the delta24 mutation in the E1A gene, which deletes the retinoplastoma protein (pRb)-binding domain and forces viral replication to be conditional on hyperphosphorylated pRb and a dysfunctional Rb pathway.", + "Demcizumab": "", + "Demecolcine": "", + "Demplatin Pegraglumer": "", + "Dendrimer-conjugated Bcl-2/Bcl-XL Inhibitor AZD0466": "A drug-dendrimer conjugate composed of a B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2)/Bcl-XL inhibitor AZD4320 that is chemically conjugated to a proprietary 5-generation pegylated poly-lysine dendrimer via a hydrolytically labile linker, with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of AZD0466, AZD4320 is released through hydrolytic cleavage of the linker. AZD4320 is a Bcl2-homology domain 3 (BH3) mimetic that specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of the anti-apoptotic proteins Bcl-2 and Bcl-XL. This restores apoptotic processes and inhibits cell proliferation in Bcl-2/Bcl-XL-dependent tumor cells. Bcl-2 and Bcl-XL, proteins belonging to the Bcl-2 family that are overexpressed in many cancers, play an important role in the negative regulation of apoptosis. Their expression in tumors is associated with increased drug resistance and cancer cell survival. The conjugation of AZD 4320 to the dendrimer construct may allow extended release of the agent, which may improve efficacy and lower toxicity.", + "Dendritic Cell Vaccine": "", + "Dendritic Cell-Autologous Lung Tumor Vaccine": "", + "Dendritic Cell-targeting Lentiviral Vector ID-LV305": "", + "Denenicokin": "", + "Dengue Virus Adjuvant PV-001-DV": "45AZ5, with potential immunostimulating activity. Upon administration of dengue virus adjuvant PV-001-DV, the virus may activate both the innate and adaptive immune system.", + "Denibulin": "", + "Denibulin Hydrochloride": "", + "Denileukin Diftitox": "", + "Denintuzumab Mafodotin": "", + "Denosumab": "", + "Deoxycytidine Analogue TAS-109": "", + "Deoxycytidine Analogue TAS-109 Hydrochloride": "", + "Depatuxizumab": "", + "Depatuxizumab Mafodotin": "", + "Derazantinib": "", + "Deslorelin": "", + "Deslorelin Acetate": "", + "Detirelix": "", + "Detorubicin": "", + "Deuteporfin": "", + "Deuterated Enzalutamide": "", + "Devimistat": "", + "Dexamethason": "", + "Dexamethasone": "", + "Dexamethasone Phosphate": "", + "Dexamethasone Sodium Phosphate": "", + "Dexanabinol": "", + "Dexrazoxane": "", + "Dexrazoxane Hydrochloride": "", + "Dezaguanine": "", + "Dezaguanine Mesylate": "", + "Dezapelisib": "", + "DHA-Paclitaxel": "", + "DHEA Mustard": "", + "DI-Leu16-IL2 Immunocytokine": "", + "Dianhydrogalactitol": "", + "Diarylsulfonylurea Compound ILX-295501": "", + "Diazepinomicin": "", + "Diaziquone": "", + "Diazooxonorleucine": "", + "Dibrospidium Chloride": "", + "Dichloroallyl Lawsone": "", + "Dicycloplatin": "", + "Didox": "", + "Dienogest": "", + "Diethylnorspermine": "", + "Digitoxin": "", + "Digoxin": "", + "Dihydro-5-Azacytidine": "", + "Dihydrolenperone": "", + "Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase Inhibitor AG-636": "", + "Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase Inhibitor BAY2402234": "", + "Diindolylmethane": "", + "Dilpacimab": "A dual-specific, tetravalent immunoglobulin (Ig) G-like molecule targeting two as of yet not publicly known targets, with potential antineoplastic activity. The target-binding variable domains of two monoclonal antibodies, which are not publicly known, are combined, via linkers, to create the tetravalent, dual-targeting single agent ABT-165. Upon administration of dual variable domain immunoglobulin (DVD-Ig) ABT-165, the target-binding variable domains specifically recognize and simultaneously bind to their two antigens expressed on tumor cells. This may both prevent antigen-mediated signaling and lead to an inhibition of cellular proliferation in susceptible tumor cells. The antigen targets are overexpressed on certain tumor cell types. The DVD-Ig may have enhanced physicochemical and pharmacokinetic properties as compared to their antibody counterparts.", + "Dimethylmyleran": "", + "Dinaciclib": "", + "Dinutuximab": "", + "Dioscorea nipponica Makino Extract DNE3": "", + "Diphencyprone": "", + "Diphtheria Toxin Fragment-Interleukin-2 Fusion Protein E7777": "", + "Ditiocarb": "", + "DKK1-Neutralizing Monoclonal Antibody DKN-01": "", + "DM4-Conjugated Anti-Cripto Monoclonal Antibody BIIB015": "", + "DM-CHOC-PEN": "", + "DNA Interference Oligonucleotide PNT2258": "", + "DNA Minor Groove Binding Agent SG2000": "", + "DNA Plasmid Encoding Interleukin-12 INO-9012": "", + "DNA Plasmid-encoding Interleukin-12 INO-9012/PSA/PSMA DNA Plasmids INO-5150 Formulation INO-5151": "", + "DNA Plasmid-encoding Interleukin-12/HPV DNA Plasmids Therapeutic Vaccine MEDI0457": "", + "DNA Vaccine VB10.16": "", + "DNA-dependent Protein Kinase Inhibitor VX-984": "", + "DNA-PK inhibitor AZD7648": "An orally bioavailable ATP-competitive inhibitor of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK), with potential chemo/radiosensitizing and antineoplastic activites. Upon oral administration, DNA-PK inhibitor AZD7648 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of DNA-PK, thereby interfering with the non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) process and preventing repair of DNA double strand breaks (DSBs) caused by ionizing radiation or chemotherapeutic treatment. This increases chemo- and radiotherapy cytotoxicity leading to enhanced tumor cell death. AZD7648 may also increase the effect of poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibitors and may work as a monotherapy in tumors with high endogenous levels of DNA damage resulting from defects in other DNA repair pathways. The enhanced ability of tumor cells to repair DSBs plays a major role in the resistance of tumor cells to chemo- and radiotherapy. DNA-PK plays a key role in the NHEJ pathway and DSB repair.", + "DNA-PK/PI3K-delta Inhibitor BR101801": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of phosphoinositide 3-kinase delta (PI3-kinase subunit delta; PI3K-delta; PI3Kdelta) and DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, the DNA-PK/PI3K-delta inhibitor BR101801 inhibits the activity of both PI3K-delta and DNA-PK. This prevents PI3K-mediated signaling pathways and may lead to the inhibition of cancer cell growth in PI3K-overexpressing tumor cells. Specifically, since PI3K regulates c-myc expression, inhibition of PI3K signaling may lead to a decrease in proliferation of c-myc-expressing tumor cells. Also, by inhibiting the activity of DNA-PK, this agent interferes with the non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) process and prevents the repair of DNA double strand breaks (DSBs) caused by ionizing radiation or chemotherapeutic treatment. This increases chemo- and radiotherapy cytotoxicity by inhibiting the ability of tumor cells to repair damaged DNA. The PI3K pathway is upregulated in a variety of tumors and plays an important role in regulating cancer cell proliferation, growth, and survival. DNA-PK is activated upon DNA damage and plays a key role in repairing double-stranded DNA breaks. The enhanced ability of tumor cells to repair DSBs plays a major role in the resistance of tumor cells to chemo- and radiotherapy. In addition, BR101801 is able to decrease Tregs and increase CD8 lymphocytes.", + "DNA-PK/TOR Kinase Inhibitor CC-115": "", + "DNMT1 Inhibitor NTX-301": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of human DNA methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, DNMT1 inhibitor NTX-301 targets ad binds to DNMT1, thereby inhibiting the activity of DNMT1. This may prevent DNA methylation, induce DNA hypomethylation, and activate tumor suppressor genes silenced by hypermethylation. This may inhibit tumor cell proliferation. DNMT1, a member of the DNA methyltransferase (DNMT) family, plays an important role in maintaining the DNA methylation pattern. Dysregulation of DNMT1 has been associated with a number of cancers.", + "DNMT1 Mixed-Backbone Antisense Oligonucleotide MG 98": "", + "Docetaxel": "", + "Docetaxel Anhydrous": "", + "Docetaxel Emulsion ANX-514": "", + "Docetaxel Formulation CKD-810": "", + "Docetaxel Lipid Microspheres": "", + "Docetaxel Nanoparticle CPC634": "", + "Docetaxel Polymeric Micelles": "", + "Docetaxel-loaded Nanopharmaceutical CRLX301": "", + "Docetaxel-PNP": "", + "Docetaxel/Ritonavir": "", + "Dociparstat sodium": "A heparin derivative in which the 2-O and 3-O sulfate groups of heparin are removed and that lacks anticoagulant activity, with potential anti-inflammatory, immodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dociparstat sodium binds to both chemokine stromal cell-derived factor 1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12) and CXC chemokine receptor 4 (CXCR4). This prevents the interaction of CXCL12 with CXCR4, blocks CXCR4 activation, and may result in decreased proliferation and migration in CXCR4-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, inhibition of CXCL12/CXCR4 interaction may induce mobilization of hematopoietic cells from the bone marrow into the blood. In addition, dociparstat sodium prevents the interaction of the receptor for advanced glycation end-products (RAGE) with its ligands, including advanced glycation end-products (AGEs), Mac-1(CD11b/CD18), the nuclear pro-inflammatory protein high mobility group box protein-1 (HMGB-1), carboxymethyl lysine-bovine serum albumin (CML-BSA) and members of the S100 calgranulin family. In addition, this agent inhibits the enzymes heparanase, cathepsin G, and human leukocyte elastase, which are involved in inflammation and metastasis. Altogether, this may inhibit tumor cell invasiveness and metastasis. Dociparstat sodium also binds to platelet factor 4 (PF4 or CXCL4) and may prevent PF4's inhibitory effect on platelet production. This may increase platelet production. Unlike heparin, this agent does not induce heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). RAGE, a receptor belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily, plays a key role in inflammation and is overexpressed in a variety of cancers. CXCR4 is a chemokine receptor belonging to the G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) family that plays an important role in chemotaxis, chemoresistance and angiogenesis, and is upregulated in several tumor cell types. The interaction between CXCL12/CXCR4 induces retention of hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow.", + "Dolastatin 10": "", + "Dolastatin 15": "", + "Domatinostat": "", + "Donafenib": "", + "Dopamine-Somatostatin Chimeric Molecule BIM-23A760": "", + "Dostarlimab": "A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; programmed death-1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, dostarlimab binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the Ig superfamily expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune checkpoint protein that negatively regulates T-cell activation and T-cell-mediated immune responses when activated by its ligands programmed cell death receptor ligand 1 (PD-L1) or 2 (PD-L2); it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Double-armed TMZ-CD40L/4-1BBL Oncolytic Ad5/35 Adenovirus LOAd703": "", + "Dovitinib": "", + "Dovitinib Lactate": "", + "Doxazosin": "", + "Doxercalciferol": "", + "Doxifluridine": "", + "Doxorubicin": "", + "Doxorubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Doxorubicin Prodrug L-377,202": "", + "Doxorubicin Prodrug/Prodrug-activating Biomaterial SQ3370": "A formulation consisting of SQL70, a prodrug-activating biomaterial, and SQP33, a prodrug of the anthracycline antineoplastic antibiotic doxorubicin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of SQ3370, which consists of the injection of SQL70 at the tumor site followed by the intravenous administration of SQ3370, the prodrug SQP33 binds to, through an as of yet not identifiable mechanism, to SQL70 at the tumor site. After binding, doxorubicin is released over a period of days, intercalates into DNA and interacts with topoisomerase II. This leads to an inhibition of DNA replication and repair, and prevents RNA and protein synthesis. Compared to the systemic administration of doxorubicin alone, SQ3370 may allow for higher and sustained delivery of active doxorubicin directly to the tumor, which may increase its efficacy and limit its off-site, systemic toxicity.", + "Doxorubicin-Eluting Beads": "", + "Doxorubicin-HPMA Conjugate": "", + "Doxorubicin-loaded EGFR-targeting Nanocells": "", + "Doxorubicin-Magnetic Targeted Carrier Complex": "", + "DPT/BCG/Measles/Serratia/Pneumococcus Vaccine": "", + "DPT/Typhoid/Staphylococcus aureus/Paratyphoid A/Paratyphoid B Vaccine": "", + "DPX-E7 HPV Vaccine": "", + "DR5 HexaBody Agonist GEN1029": "", + "DR5-targeting Tetrameric Nanobody Agonist TAS266": "", + "Dromostanolone Propionate": "", + "Drozitumab": "", + "DTRMWXHS-12/Everolimus/Pomalidomide Combination Agent DTRM-555": "An orally bioavailable combination of DTRMWXHS-12, a Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) inhibitor, everolimus, a mammalian Target of Rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitor, and pomalidomide, an immunomodulatory drug (IMiD), that may be used for the treatment of B-cell malignancies. Upon oral administration of DTRM-555, the DTRMWXHS-12 component inhibits the activity of BTK and prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway. This prevents both B-cell activation and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways, and leads to an inhibition of the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. BTK plays an important role in the development, activation, signaling, proliferation and survival of B-lymphocytes. The everolimus component binds to the immunophilin FK Binding Protein-12 (FKBP-12) to generate a complex that binds to and inhibits the activation of mTOR, a key regulatory kinase. Upregulated in some tumors, mTOR is a serine/threonine kinase involved in regulating cellular proliferation, motility, and survival that is located downstream of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway. The pomalidomide component may inhibit TNF-alpha production, enhance the activity of T cells and natural killer (NK) cells and enhance antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). In addition, pomalidomide may inhibit tumor angiogenesis, promote cell cycle arrest in susceptible tumor cell populations, and stimulate erythropoiesis. The combination of a BTK inhibitor, an mTOR inhibitor and an IMiD may work synergistically to kill malignant B-cells and prevent drug resistance.", + "Dual IGF-1R/InsR Inhibitor BMS-754807": "", + "Dual Variable Domain Immunoglobulin ABT-165": "", + "Dual-affinity B7-H3/CD3-targeted Protein MGD009": "", + "Dubermatinib": "", + "Duborimycin": "", + "Dulanermin": "", + "Duligotuzumab": "", + "Dupilumab": "", + "Durvalumab": "", + "Dusigitumab": "", + "dUTPase/DPD Inhibitor TAS-114": "", + "Duvelisib": "", + "Duvortuxizumab": "", + "Dynemicin": "", + "Dynemicin A": "", + "E2F1 Pathway Activator ARQ 171": "", + "EBNA-1 inhibitor VK-2019": "", + "Echinomycin": "", + "Ecromeximab": "", + "Edatrexate": "", + "Edelfosine": "", + "Edicotinib": "A small molecule and orally available inhibitor of colony-stimulating factor-1 receptor (CSF1R; FMS) with potential antineoplastic activity. Edicotinib blocks the receptor-ligand interaction between FMS and its ligand CSF1, thereby preventing autophosphorylation of FMS. As a result, unphosphorylated FMS can not activate FMS-mediated signaling pathways, thus potentially inhibiting cell proliferation in FMS-overexpressed tumor cells. FMS, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed in certain tumor cell types and plays an essential role in macrophage differentiation, recruitment, and activation as well as the regulation of cell proliferation.", + "Edodekin alfa": "A recombinant form of the endogenous heterodimeric cytokine interleukin-12 with potential antineoplastic activity. Edodekin alfa binds to and activates its cell-surface receptor, stimulating the production of interferon-gamma (IFN) which, in turn, induces IFN-gamma-inducible protein-10 (IP-10) and so inhibits tumor angiogenesis. (NCI04)", + "Edotecarin": "", + "Edrecolomab": "", + "EED Inhibitor MAK683": "", + "Efatutazone": "", + "Efatutazone Dihydrochloride": "", + "Efizonerimod": "", + "Eflornithine": "", + "Eflornithine Hydrochloride": "", + "Eftilagimod Alpha": "", + "Eftozanermin Alfa": "A fusion protein composed of a tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL) receptor agonist consisting of six receptor binding domains (RBDs) of TRAIL fused to the Fc-domain of a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody, with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of eftozanermin alfa, this fusion protein binds to TRAIL-receptors, pro-apoptotic death receptors (DRs) TRAIL-R1 (death receptor 4; DR4) and TRAIL-R2 (death receptor 5; DR5), expressed on tumor cells, thereby inducing tumor cell apoptosis. ABBV-621 is designed to maximize receptor clustering for optimal efficacy. TRAIL, a member of the TNF superfamily of cytokines, plays a key role in the induction of apoptosis through TRAIL-mediated death receptor pathways.", + "Eg5 Kinesin-Related Motor Protein Inhibitor 4SC-205": "", + "Eg5 Kinesin-Related Motor Protein Inhibitor ARQ 621": "", + "EGb761": "", + "EGFR Antagonist Hemay022": "", + "EGFR Antisense DNA BB-401": "", + "EGFR Inhibitor AZD3759": "", + "EGFR Inhibitor BIBX 1382": "", + "EGFR Inhibitor DBPR112": "", + "EGFR Inhibitor PD-168393": "", + "EGFR Inhibitor TY-9591": "An orally available inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), including activating mutations, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the EGFR inhibitor TY-9591 binds to and inhibits EGFR activating mutations, including the resistance mutation T790M, which prevents EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR mutant-expressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization.", + "EGFR Mutant-selective Inhibitor TQB3804": "A fourth-generation, orally bioavailable, mutant-selective, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR mutant-selective inhibitor TQB3804 binds to and inhibits the activity of mutant forms of EGFR, including the C797S EGFR mutant, thereby preventing EGFR-mediated signaling. This may both induce cell death and inhibit tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. TQB3804 inhibits mutated forms of EGFR including C797S, which prevents covalent bond formation with third-generation EGFR inhibitor osimertinib leading to drug resistance. TQB3804 may have enhanced anti-tumor effects in tumors with C797S-mediated resistance when compared to other EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors.", + "EGFR Mutant-specific Inhibitor BPI-7711": "", + "EGFR Mutant-specific Inhibitor CK-101": "", + "EGFR Mutant-specific Inhibitor D-0316": "", + "EGFR Mutant-specific Inhibitor ZN-e4": "", + "EGFR T790M Antagonist BPI-15086": "", + "EGFR T790M Inhibitor HS-10296": "", + "EGFR/EGFRvIII Inhibitor WSD0922-FU": "A blood-brain-barrier (BBB) penetrable selective inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and various EGFR mutations, including but not limited to the EGFR variant III (EGFRvIII) mutant form, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of EGFR/EGFRvIII inhibitor WSD0922-FU, this agent is able to penetrate the BBB and specifically targets, binds to and inhibits EGFR and specific EGFR mutations, which prevents EGFR/EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR/EGFR mutant-expressing tumor cells. Compared to other EGFR inhibitors that are not able to penetrate the BBB, WSD0922-FU may have therapeutic benefits in brain tumors, such as glioblastoma (GBM) and metastatic CNS tumors. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) that is mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and survival.", + "EGFR/FLT3/Abl Inhibitor SKLB1028": "", + "EGFR/HER1/HER2 Inhibitor PKI166": "", + "EGFR/HER2 Inhibitor AP32788": "", + "EGFR/HER2 Inhibitor AV-412": "", + "EGFR/HER2 Inhibitor DZD9008": "An orally available, irreversible, dual kinase inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) that shows similar activity against certain activating mutations, including exon 20 insertions (exon20ins), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EGFR/HER2 inhibitor DZD9008 binds to and inhibits EGFR and HER2, which may result in the inhibition of tumor growth and angiogenesis, and tumor regression in EGFR/HER2-expressing tumors. EGFR and HER2 are receptor tyrosine kinases that play major roles in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. In contrast to other agents active against exon20ins mutations, DZD9008 appears to be more selective against mutated EGFR than wild-type (wt) EGFR. This may lessen wtEGFR-related dose-limiting toxicity and may allow for the administration of the desired therapeutic dose of DZD9008.", + "EGFR/HER2 Kinase Inhibitor TAK-285": "", + "EGFR/TGFb Fusion Monoclonal Antibody BCA101": "A bifunctional monoclonal antibody targeting both the receptor tyrosine kinase epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and the pro-inflammatory cytokine human transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta; TGFb), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of EGFR/TGFb fusion monoclonal antibody BCA101, the anti-EGFR moiety targets, binds to and prevents activation of EGFR-mediated signaling. This leads to an inhibition of EGFR-dependent downstream pathways and EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation and metastasis. The anti-TGFb moiety targets and binds to TGFb, thereby preventing the activation of TGFb-mediated signaling pathways. This may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells in which TGFb is overactivated. EGFR and TGFb, mutated and/or overexpressed on the surfaces of various tumor cell types, play key roles in tumor cell proliferation and progression.", + "EGFR/VEGFR/RET Inhibitor HA121-28": "An orally available inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (RET) and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of HA121-28, this agent targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR, RET and VEGFR. This prevents EGFR-, RET- and VEGFR-mediated signaling, and may lead to the induction of apoptosis and inhibition of tumor growth in EGFR-, RET- and VEGFR-overexpressing cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. Dysregulation of RET activity plays a key role in the development and progression of a variety of cancers. Expression of VEGFR is upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types; it plays a key role in the migration, proliferation and survival of endothelial cells, microvessel formation, the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation, and tumor cell death.", + "Eicosapentaenoic Acid": "", + "eIF4E Antisense Oligonucleotide ISIS 183750": "", + "Elacestrant": "", + "Elacytarabine": "", + "Elagolix": "", + "Elbasvir/Grazoprevir": "", + "Elesclomol": "", + "Elesclomol Sodium": "", + "Elgemtumab": "", + "Elinafide": "", + "Elisidepsin": "", + "Elliptinium": "", + "Elliptinium Acetate": "", + "Elmustine": "", + "Elotuzumab": "", + "Elpamotide": "", + "Elsamitrucin": "", + "Eltanexor": "", + "Emactuzumab": "", + "Emapalumab": "", + "Emepepimut-S": "", + "Emibetuzumab": "A humanized IgG4 monoclonal antibody directed against human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or c-MET) with potential antineoplastic activity. Emibetuzumab binds to c-MET, thereby preventing the binding of HGF to its receptor c-Met and subsequent activation of the HGF/c-Met signaling pathway. This may result in cell death in c-Met-expressing tumor cells. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cancer cell growth, survival, angiogenesis, invasion, and metastasis.", + "Emitefur": "", + "Emofolin Sodium": "", + "Empesertib": "", + "Enadenotucirev": "", + "Enadenotucirev-expressing Anti-CD40 Agonistic Monoclonal Antibody NG-350A": "", + "Enadenotucirev-expressing FAP/CD3 Bispecific FAP-TAc NG-641": "An oncolytic adenoviral vector, a transgene-modified variant of enadenotucirev (EnAd), that expresses a bi-specific T-cell activator molecule FAP-TAc together with immune enhancer molecules C-X-C motif chemokine 9 (CXCL9), C-X-C motif chemokine 10 (CXCL10) and interferon alpha (IFNalpha), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of NG-641, EnAd specifically infects and replicates in tumor cells and not in normal, noncancerous tissue, and selectively expresses FAP-TAc. The locally expressed FAP-TAc targets and binds to both fibroblast activating protein (FAP) on cancer associated fibroblasts (CAFs) and CD3 on T-cells. This leads to T-cell activation and T-cell mediated killing of CAFs in tumor stroma. NG-641 also encodes the transgenes CXCL9, CXCL10 and IFNalpha. The production of CXCL9, CXCL10 and IFNalpha leads to the recruitment and further activation of T-cells, enhancing the overall immune response and cancer cell killing. FAP, a cell surface glycoprotein, is overexpressed on tumor-associated fibroblasts but minimally expressed on normal, healthy cells.", + "Enasidenib": "", + "Enasidenib Mesylate": "", + "Enavatuzumab": "", + "Encapsulated Rapamycin": "An orally bioavailable nanoparticle-based formulation composed of sub-micron particles of the macrolide antibiotic rapamycin incorporated into a pH-sensitive poly(methyl methacrylate) polymer, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of the encapsulated rapamycin, the nanoparticle specifically delivers rapamycin at the tumor site. Rapamycin binds to the immunophilin FK Binding Protein-12 (FKBP-12) to generate a complex that binds to and inhibits the activation of the serine/threonine kinase mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), a key regulatory kinase. This may suppress mTORC1 activity. In addition, inhibition of mTOR may modulate central memory CD8 T cells, CD3+/CD56+ natural killer (NK) cells and CD8 T-cell responses. This may kill tumor cells. Compared to the administration of rapamycin alone, this formulation improves oral bioavailability of rapamycin with more consistent rapamycin levels, thereby allowing for administration of lower rapamycin dosage, which improves and minimizes rapamycin's toxicity. Upregulated in some tumors, mTOR is a serine/threonine kinase involved in regulating cellular proliferation, motility, and survival that is located downstream of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway.", + "Encelimab": "A humanized, immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG3; LAG-3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration,encelimab binds to LAG3 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks its binding with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules expressed on tumor cells. This activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which leads to a reduction in tumor growth. LAG3, a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), is expressed on various immune cells, and negatively regulates both proliferation and activation of T-cells. Its expression on TILs is associated with tumor-mediated immune suppression.", + "Enclomiphene": "", + "Enclomiphene Citrate": "", + "Encorafenib": "", + "Endothelin B Receptor Blocker ENB 003": "An antagonist of the immune checkpoint endothelin B receptor (ETBR; EDNRB), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the ETBR blocker ENB 003 selectively targets and binds to ETBR expressed on tumor cells. This prevents ETBR-mediated signaling and may abrogate the immunosuppressive tumor microenvironment (TME), may enhance a T-cell mediated anti-tumor immune response and may inhibit proliferation of ETBR-expressing tumor cells. ETBR, a G-protein coupled receptor, is overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation, invasion, epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) and angiogenesis. It also plays a role in tumor immunosuppression and blocks T-cell trafficking.", + "Endothelin Receptor Type A Antagonist YM598": "", + "Enfortumab Vedotin": "", + "Engineered Human Umbilical Vein Endothelial Cells AB-205": "", + "Engineered Red Blood Cells Co-expressing 4-1BBL and IL-15TP RTX-240": "A preparation of allogeneic, off-the-shelf (OTS) red blood cells (RBCs) engineered to express both the co-stimulatory molecule tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily (TNFSF) member 9 (TNFSF9; 4-1BBL) and a fusion protein composed of the trans-presented cytokine interleukin (IL)-15/IL-15-receptor alpha (IL-15Ra) (IL-15TP) with potential modulating and antineoplastic activities. CD34+ hematopoietic precursor cells (HPC) are collected by apheresis from a healthy O negative donor, purified, and engineered with a lentiviral vector to express 4-1BBL and IL-15TP. The cells are then further expanded and differentiated until the nucleus is ejected, resulting in a mature reticulocyte. Upon administration of the engineered red blood cells co-expressing 4-1BBL and IL-15TP RTX-240, the RBCs express both 4-1BBL and IL-15TP on their cell surfaces. 4-1BBL and IL-15TP bind to and subsequently induce the proliferation and activation of natural killer (NK) cells and T-cells. This enhances the secretion of cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g) and results in the induction of an anti-tumor immune response.", + "Engineered Toxin Body Targeting CD38 TAK-169": "An engineered toxin body (ETB) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) from an antibody targeting the cell surface glycoprotein ADP-ribosyl cyclase 1 (CD38) that is fused to a cytotoxic payload composed of the enzymatically active, de-immunized, ribosome-inactivating cytotoxic payload Shiga-like toxin-A subunit (SLTA), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the anti-CD38 scFv moiety of TAK-169 specifically targets and binds to CD38-expressing tumor cells. Upon internalization, the SLTA moiety is released and acts as an N-glycosidase, which binds to and removes an adenine nucleobase from the 28S RNA component of the 60S ribosomal subunit.of ribosomes This prevents ribosome activity, This inhibits protein synthesis and leads to apoptosis in CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells and hematologic malignancies; its expression has been correlated with poor prognosis.", + "Engineered Toxin Body Targeting HER2 MT-5111": "", + "Eniluracil/5-FU Combination Tablet": "", + "Enloplatin": "", + "Enoblituzumab": "", + "Enobosarm": "", + "Enoticumab": "", + "Enpromate": "", + "Ensartinib": "", + "Ensituximab": "", + "Enteric-Coated TRPM8 Agonist D-3263 Hydrochloride": "", + "Enterococcus gallinarum Strain MRx0518": "", + "Entinostat": "", + "Entolimod": "", + "Entospletinib": "", + "Entrectinib": "", + "Envafolimab": "", + "Enzalutamide": "", + "Enzastaurin": "", + "Enzastaurin Hydrochloride": "", + "EP2/EP4 Antagonist TPST-1495": "An orally bioavailable, dual antagonist of the human prostaglandin E2 receptor subtypes 2 (EP2) and 4 (EP4), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, the EP2/EP4 antagonist TPST-1495 selectively targets and binds to EP2 and EP4, inhibiting the binding of the immunosuppressive prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) to EP2 and EP4. This prevents the activation of EP2 and EP4, and inhibits PGE2-EP2/EP4-mediated signaling. This inhibits PGE2-driven immune suppression by preventing the PGE2-mediated inhibition of anti-tumor immune effector cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME), such as natural killer (NK) cells, T-lymphocytes, dendritic cells (DCs) and M1 macrophages, and blocking the PGE2-mediated increase in suppressive immune cells, such as myeloid derived suppressor cells (MDSCs), M2 macrophages, and regulatory T cells (Tregs). This inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells in which the PGE2-EP2/4 signaling pathway is over-activated. EP2 and EP4, G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) that are overexpressed in certain types of cancers, promote tumor cell proliferation, invasion, survival, and metastasis.", + "EP4 Antagonist INV-1120": "A small molecule and antagonist of the prostaglandin E2 receptor subtype 4 (PTGER4; EP4), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the EP4 antagonist INV-1120 selectively targets and binds to EP4, inhibiting the binding of the immunosuppressive prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) to EP4. This prevents the activation of EP4 and inhibits PGE2-EP4-mediated signaling, thereby inhibiting proliferation of tumor cells in which the PGE2-EP4 signaling pathway is over-activated. In addition, EP4 inhibition prevents the activity of tumor-associated myeloid cells (TAMCs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME) by inhibiting interleukin-23 (IL-23) production and the IL-23-mediated expansion of Th17 cells. EP4, a prostanoid receptor, is a G protein-coupled receptor that is expressed in certain types of cancers; it promotes tumor cell proliferation and invasion.", + "EP4 Antagonist ONO-4578": "", + "Epacadostat": "", + "Epcoritamab": "A bispecific monoclonal antibody, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Epcoritamab contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and one for human CD20, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) that is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development and is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. Upon administration, epcoritamab binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing B-lineage tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the CD20-expressing tumor B-cells.", + "EphA2-targeting Bicycle Toxin Conjugate BT5528": "A bicyclic peptide targeting Ephrin receptor A2 (EphA2) and conjugated, through an inert sarcosine spacer chain and a valine-citrulline cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent inhibitor of microtubule polymerization, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the EphA2-targeting bicycle toxin conjugate BT5528, this agent targets and binds to EphA2-expressing tumor cells. After internalization and enzymatic cleavage of the immunoconjugate within the tumor cell cytosol, free MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, which may result in G2/M phase arrest and tumor cell apoptosis. The cell-surface receptor EphA2, a member of the ephrin family of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) involved in mammalian development, is overexpressed by a variety of different cancer cell types. EphA2 expression is associated with poor prognosis.", + "Epipodophyllotoxin Analog GL331": "", + "Epipropidine": "", + "Epirubicin": "", + "Epirubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Epitinib Succinate": "", + "Epitiostanol": "", + "Epothilone Analog UTD1": "", + "Epothilone KOS-1584": "", + "Epratuzumab": "", + "Epratuzumab-cys-tesirine": "", + "ER alpha Proteolysis-targeting Chimera Protein Degrader ARV-471": "", + "ERa36 Modulator Icaritin": "", + "Erastin Analogue PRLX 93936": "", + "Erbulozole": "", + "Erdafitinib": "", + "Eribulin": "", + "Eribulin Mesylate": "", + "ERK1/2 Inhibitor ASN007": "", + "ERK1/2 Inhibitor HH2710": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ERK1/2 inhibitor HH2710 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the serine/threonine-protein kinases ERK1 and ERK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 substrates and the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dependent proliferation and survival of tumor cells. The MAPK/ERK pathway, also known as the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathway, is hyperactivated in a variety of tumor cell types due to mutations in upstream targets. It plays a key role in the proliferation, differentiation and survival of tumor cells.", + "ERK1/2 Inhibitor JSI-1187": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 (ERK1) and 2 (ERK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, ERK1/2 inhibitor JSI-1187 specifically targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of the serine/threonine-protein kinases ERK1 and ERK2, thereby preventing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2 substrates and the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK)/ERK-mediated signal transduction pathways. This results in the inhibition of ERK-dependent proliferation and survival of tumor cells. The MAPK/ERK pathway, also known as the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathway, is hyperactivated in a variety of tumor cell types due to mutations in upstream targets. It plays a key role in the proliferation, differentiation and survival of tumor cells.", + "ERK1/2 Inhibitor KO-947": "", + "ERK1/2 Inhibitor LY3214996": "", + "ERK 1/2 Inhibitor ASTX029": "", + "ERK Inhibitor CC-90003": "", + "ERK Inhibitor GDC-0994": "", + "ERK Inhibitor LTT462": "", + "ERK Inhibitor MK-8353": "", + "Erlotinib": "", + "Erlotinib Hydrochloride": "", + "Ertumaxomab": "", + "Erythrocyte-encapsulated L-asparaginase Suspension": "", + "Esorubicin": "", + "Esorubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Esperamicin A1": "", + "Essiac": "", + "Esterified Estrogens": "", + "Estradiol Valerate": "", + "Estramustine": "", + "Estramustine Phosphate Sodium": "", + "Estrogen Receptor Agonist GTx-758": "", + "Estrogens, Conjugated": "", + "Etalocib": "", + "Etanercept": "", + "Etanidazole": "", + "Etaracizumab": "", + "Etarotene": "", + "Ethaselen": "", + "Ethinyl Estradiol": "", + "Ethyleneimine": "", + "Ethylnitrosourea": "", + "Etidronate-Cytarabine Conjugate MBC-11": "", + "Etigilimab": "A monoclonal antibody targeting the human co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoreceptor with immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory activity. Upon administration, etigilimab binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, including T-cells, and prevents the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands CD112 (nectin-2; poliovirus receptor related-2; PVRL2) and CD155 (poliovirus receptor; PVR; nectin-like protein 5; NECL-5). This enhances the interaction of CD112 and CD155 with the costimulatory receptor CD226 (DNAX Accessory molecule-1; DNAM-1), which is expressed on immune cells, such as natural killer (NK) cells and CD8-positive T-cells, and leads to CD226 dimerization and CD226-mediated signaling. This activates the immune system to exert a T-cell-mediated immune response against cancer cells. TIGIT, a member of the Ig super family and an immune inhibitory receptor, plays a key role in the suppression of T-cell proliferation and activation; it is involved in tumor cell immune evasion and the inhibition of antiviral immune responses.", + "Etirinotecan Pegol": "", + "Etoglucid": "", + "Etoposide": "", + "Etoposide Phosphate": "", + "Etoposide Toniribate": "", + "Etoprine": "", + "Etoricoxib": "", + "Ets-family Transcription Factor Inhibitor TK216": "", + "Everolimus": "", + "Everolimus Tablets for Oral Suspension": "", + "Evofosfamide": "", + "Ex Vivo-expanded Autologous T Cells IMA101": "", + "Exatecan Mesylate": "", + "Exatecan Mesylate Anhydrous": "", + "Exemestane": "", + "Exicorilant": "An orally available, selective glucocorticoid receptor (GR) antagonist, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, exicorilant competitively and selectively binds to GRs, inhibiting the activation of GR-mediated proliferative and anti-apoptotic gene expression pathways. The GR, a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily of ligand-dependent transcription factors, is overexpressed in certain tumor types and may be associated with tumor cell proliferation and treatment resistance. Inhibition of GR activity may potentially slow tumor cell growth and disease progression in certain cancers.", + "Exisulind": "", + "Extended Release Flucytosine": "", + "Extended Release Metformin Hydrochloride": "An extended-release (ER) tablet composed of the hydrochloride salt form of the biguanide metformin, with antihyperglycemic and potential prostate-cancer protective and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, metformin targets and inhibits complex I (NADPH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase) of the mitochondrial respiratory chain and increases the cellular adenosine monophosphate (AMP) to adenosine triphosphate (ATP) ratio leading to activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK). This modulates AMPK-mediated transcription of target genes, which prevents hepatic gluconeogenesis, decreases intestinal absorption of glucose, enhances insulin sensitivity and fatty acid oxidation, and increases glucose uptake and utilization in target tissues. This lowers blood glucose levels. Metformin may exert antineoplastic effects through AMPK-mediated or AMPK-independent inhibition of mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), which is up-regulated in many cancer tissues. It also reduces cyclin D1. This inhibits cancer cell proliferation. Furthermore, this agent also inhibits tumor cell migration and invasion by inhibiting matrix metalloproteinase-9 (MMP-9) expression which is mediated through the suppression of transcription activator protein-1 (AP-1) activation. Also, metformin reduces hyperinsulinemia which may contribute to an anti-tumor effect. Metformin may increase the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) doubling time and may lower serum PSA levels.", + "Extended-release Onapristone": "", + "Ezabenlimab": "A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ezabenlimab selectively binds to and blocks the activation of PD-1, an immunoglobulin (Ig) superfamily transmembrane protein, by its ligands programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1), which is overexpressed on certain cancer cells, and programmed cell death ligand 2 (PD-L2), which is primarily expressed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This results in the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. Activated PD-1 negatively regulates T-cell activation and plays a key role in in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "EZH1/2 Inhibitor DS-3201": "", + "EZH1/2 Inhibitor HH2853": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the histone lysine methyltransferases enhancer of zeste homolog 1 (EZH1) and 2 (EZH2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EZH1/2 inhibitor HH2853 inhibits the activity of both wild-type and mutated forms of EZH1 and EZH2. Inhibition of EZH1/2 specifically prevents the methylation of lysine 27 on histone H3 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways, enhances transcription of certain target genes, and results in decreased proliferation of EZH1/2-expressing cancer cells. EZH1/2, histone lysine methyltransferase (HMT) class enzymes and catalytic subunits of the polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2), are overexpressed or mutated in a variety of cancer cells and play key roles in tumor cell proliferation, progression, stem cell self-renewal and migration.", + "EZH2 inhibitor CPI-0209": "An orally available selective inhibitor of the histone lysine methyltransferase (HMT) enhancer of zeste homolog 2 (EZH2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, EZH2 inhibitor CPI-0209 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of EZH2. Inhibition of EZH2 specifically prevents the methylation of histone H3 on lysine 27 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways and results in decreased proliferation of EZH2-expressing cancer cells. EZH2, an HMT class enzyme and the catalytic subunit of the polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2), is overexpressed or mutated in a variety of cancer cells and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation; its expression is correlated with tumor initiation, progression, stem cell self-renewal, migration and angiogenesis.", + "EZH2 Inhibitor CPI-1205": "", + "EZH2 Inhibitor PF-06821497": "", + "EZH2 Inhibitor SHR2554": "", + "F16-IL2 Fusion Protein": "", + "FACT Complex-targeting Curaxin CBL0137": "", + "Factor VII-targeting Immunoconjugate Protein ICON-1": "", + "Factor VIIa Inhibitor PCI-27483": "", + "Fadraciclib": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin dependent kinases 2, 5 and 9 (CDK2/5/9), with potential antineoplastic and chemoprotective activities. Upon oral administration, fadraciclib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of CDK2, 5 and 9, which leads to inhibition of CDK2, 5 and 9-dependent cellular pathways, downregulation of genes involved in the pro-survival pathway, prevention of the activation of DNA double-strand break repair pathways, and induction of both cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. This inhibits the proliferation of CDK2/5/9-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, CYC065 protects hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPCs), prevents myelosuppression, and preserves the function of the bone marrow. CDKs are serine/threonine kinases involved in the regulation of the cell cycle and may be overexpressed in certain cancer cell types; they play key roles in tumor cell proliferation, the regulation of transcription, and DNA damage repair.", + "Fadrozole Hydrochloride": "", + "FAK Inhibitor GSK2256098": "", + "FAK Inhibitor PF-00562271": "", + "FAK Inhibitor VS-4718": "", + "FAK/ALK/ROS1 Inhibitor APG-2449": "An orally available kinase inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK), focal adhesion kinase (FAK) and the receptor tyrosine kinase C-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, ALK/FAK/ROS1 inhibitor APG-2449 selectively binds to and inhibits ALK, FAK and ROS1 kinases. The inhibition leads to disruption of ALK-, FAK- and ROS1-mediated signal transduction pathways and eventually inhibits tumor cell growth in ALK-, FAK- and ROS1-overexpressing tumor cells. ALK belongs to the insulin receptor superfamily and plays an important role in nervous system development; its dysregulation and gene rearrangements are associated with a variety of tumors. The cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase FAK, a signal transducer for integrins, is upregulated and constitutively activated in various tumor types; it plays a key role in tumor cell migration, proliferation, survival, and tumor angiogenesis. ROS1, overexpressed in certain cancer cells, plays a key role in cell growth and survival of cancer cells.", + "Falimarev": "", + "Famitinib": "", + "FAP/4-1BB-targeting DARPin MP0310": "A designed ankyrin repeat proteins (DARPin)-based agent targeting the tumor-associated protein fibroblast activation protein (FAP) and the T-cell co-stimulatory immune receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the FAP/4-1BB-targeting DARPin MP0310 targets and binds to both FAP, localized on tumor stromal cells, and 4-1BB, expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. The simultaneous binding of FAP and 4-1BB results in local clustering of FAP-expressing tumor stromal cells and 4-1BB-expressing T-cells, and local immune cell activation through the promotion of T-cell activation, cytokine release and T-cell-mediated anti-tumor immune responses. 4-1BB, a surface glycoprotein of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, is an inducible costimulatory receptor that plays a key role in T-cell proliferation, survival and cytolytic activity. FAP is abundantly expressed by cancer associated fibroblasts in the majority of solid tumors. Compared to antibodies, DARPins are small in size, have favorable pharmacokinetics and allow for both high affinity binding and efficacy.", + "FAP/4-1BB-targeting Fusion Protein RO7122290": "A bispecific antibody-like fusion protein consisting of a trimeric ligand for the T-cell co-stimulatory immune receptor 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) and an antigen-binding fragment (Fab) moiety targeting the tumor-associated protein fibroblast activation protein (FAP), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the FAP/4-1BB-targeting fusion protein RO7122290 targets and binds to both FAP, localized on tumor stromal cells, and 4-1BB, expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells. The simultaneous binding of FAP and 4-1BB results in local clustering of FAP-expressing tumor stromal cells and 4-1BB-expressing T-cells, and local immune cell activation through the promotion of T-cell activation, cytokine release and T-cell-mediated anti-tumor immune responses. 4-1BB, a surface glycoprotein of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, is an inducible costimulatory receptor that plays a key role in T-cell proliferation, survival and cytolytic activity. FAP is abundantly expressed by cancer-associated fibroblasts in the majority of solid tumors.", + "Farletuzumab": "", + "Farnesyltransferase/Geranylgeranyltransferase Inhibitor L-778,123": "", + "Fas Ligand-treated Allogeneic Mobilized Peripheral Blood Cells": "A donor graft derived from allogeneic filgrastim (granulocyte-colony stimulating factor; G-CSF)-mobilized peripheral blood cells (MPBC) that have been incubated with the recombinant human Fas ligand (FasL) APO010 ex vivo, and that can potentially be used for immune reconstitution purposes. The incubation of the hematopoietic stem cell graft with the apoptotic mediator Fas ligand (FasL) selectively induces apoptosis of mature T-cells which express high levels of Fas receptor, such as T stem cell memory (TSCM), T central memory (TCM), and T effector memory (TEM) cells and the pro-inflammatory T-helper cells (Th) Th1 and Th17 subsets while sparing CD34-positive stem and progenitor cells. Upon washing and further ex vivo preparations, and upon allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) with the FasL-treated allogeneic MPBCs, these cells provide hematopoietic cell recovery, preserve the graft-versus-leukemia (GvL) effects, and may prevent graft-versus-host disease (GvHD).", + "Fas Receptor Agonist APO010": "", + "Fascin Inhibitor NP-G2-044": "", + "FASN Inhibitor TVB-2640": "", + "Favezelimab": "A humanized, immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) monoclonal antibody (MAb) directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene-3 protein (LAG3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, favezelimab binds to LAG3 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks its binding with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules expressed on tumor cells. This activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which leads to a reduction in tumor growth. LAG3, a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), is expressed on various immune cells, and negatively regulates both proliferation and activation of T-cells. Its expression on TILs is associated with tumor-mediated immune suppression.", + "Fazarabine": "", + "Fc-engineered Anti-CD40 Agonist Antibody 2141-V11": "A Fc-engineered agonistic antibody targeting the human B-cell surface antigen CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, 2141-V11 targets and binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways, triggers the proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and activates T-cells. This results in an enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. CD40, a cell surface receptor and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF), is expressed on various immune cells, such as dendritic cells (DCs), macrophages and B-cells, and plays a key role in the activation of the immune system.", + "Febuxostat": "", + "Fedratinib": "", + "Fedratinib Hydrochloride": "", + "Feladilimab": "An agonistic antibody for the inducible T-cell co-stimulator (ICOS; CD278), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, feladilimab targets and binds to ICOS expressed on tumor infiltrating CD4-positive T-cells. This stimulates ICOS-positive T-cell proliferation, enhances cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) survival and increases CTL-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. ICOS, a T-cell specific, CD28-superfamily costimulatory molecule and immune checkpoint protein, is normally expressed on certain activated T-cells and plays a key role in the proliferation and activation of T-cells.", + "Felzartamab": "A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein CD-38 with potential antineoplastic activity. Felzartamab specifically binds to CD38 on CD38-positive tumor cells. This may trigger antitumoral antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and may eventually lead to cell lysis in CD38-expressing tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells and hematologic malignancies, and its expression has been correlated with poor prognosis.", + "Fenebrutinib": "", + "Fenretinide": "", + "Fenretinide Lipid Matrix": "", + "Fenretinide Phospholipid Suspension ST-001": "An intravenous formulation composed of a phospholipid suspension of nanoparticles containing the synthetic retinoid derivative fenretinide, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, fenretinide binds to and activates retinoic acid receptors (RARs), thereby inducing cell differentiation and apoptosis in susceptible tumor cell types. Fenretinide also binds to and inhibits the activity of mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), which may result in both the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. Independent of RAR activation and mTOR inhibition, this agent may also modulate gene expression that leads to ceramide-induced, caspase-independent programmed cell death (PCD) via effectors such as ganglioside GD3 and reactive oxygen species (ROS).", + "FGF Receptor Antagonist HGS1036": "", + "FGF/FGFR Pathway Inhibitor E7090": "", + "FGFR1/2/3 Inhibitor HMPL-453": "", + "FGFR2 Inhibitor RLY-4008": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR2 inhibitor RLY-4008 binds to and inhibits FGFR2, which results in the inhibition of FGFR2-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits the proliferation of FGFR2-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR2, a receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular proliferation, migration and survival.", + "FGFR4 Antagonist INCB062079": "", + "FGFR4 Inhibitor BLU 9931": "", + "FGFR4 Inhibitor FGF401": "", + "FGFR4 Inhibitor H3B-6527": "", + "FGFR4 Inhibitor ICP-105": "", + "FGFR Inhibitor ASP5878": "", + "FGFR Inhibitor AZD4547": "", + "FGFR Inhibitor CPL304110": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, FGFR inhibitor CPL304110 binds to and inhibits FGFR, which results in the inhibition of FGFR-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular proliferation and survival.", + "FGFR Inhibitor Debio 1347": "", + "FGFR Inhibitor TAS-120": "", + "FGFR/CSF-1R Inhibitor 3D185": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) types 1, 2, and 3 (FGFR1/2/3) and colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; CD115; M-CSFR), with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, FGFR/CSF-1R inhibitor 3D185 binds to and inhibits FGFR1/2/3, which may result in the inhibition of FGFR1/2/3-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR1/2/3-overexpressing tumor cells. 3D185 also targets and binds to CSF1R, thereby blocking CSF1R activation and CSF1R-mediated signaling. This inhibits the activities of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs), and prevents immune suppression in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This enhances antitumor T-cell immune responses and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) upregulated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cellular proliferation, migration and survival. CSF1R, also known as macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor (M-CSFR) and CD115 (cluster of differentiation 115), is a cell-surface receptor that plays major roles in tumor cell proliferation and metastasis.", + "FGFR/VEGFR/PDGFR/FLT3/SRC Inhibitor XL999": "", + "Fianlimab": "A monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene-3 protein (LAG-3; LAG3; CD223), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, fianlimab binds to LAG-3 expressed by tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks LAG-3 binding to tumor cells expressing major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules. This may activate antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhance cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated tumor cell lysis, which leads to a reduction in tumor growth. LAG-3, a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), is expressed on various immune cells; its expression on TILs is associated with tumor-mediated immune suppression and the negative regulation of both cellular proliferation and T-cell activation.", + "Fibromun": "", + "Ficlatuzumab": "", + "Figitumumab": "", + "Filanesib": "", + "Filgotinib": "", + "Filgrastim": "", + "Fimaporfin A": "The A isomer of fimaporfin, a synthetic light-activated compound, with potential photosensitizing activity. Upon administration, fimaporfin A incorporates into the cell's endosome and lysosome membranes. Subsequently, cytotoxic agents are administered and accumulate in endosomal and lysosomal compartments; upon local activation by light, fimaporfin A produces reactive oxygen species (ROS), such as singlet oxygen, damaging endo/lysosomal membranes and accumulated cytotoxic agents are released into the tumor cell cytosol. This photochemical internalization (PCI) method can enhance the efficacy and selectivity of cytotoxic agents.", + "Fimepinostat": "", + "Firtecan Pegol": "", + "Fisogatinib": "", + "Flanvotumab": "", + "Flotetuzumab": "", + "Floxuridine": "", + "FLT3 Inhibitor FF-10101 Succinate": "", + "FLT3 Inhibitor HM43239": "", + "FLT3 Inhibitor SKI-G-801": "", + "Flt3 Ligand/Anti-CTLA-4 Antibody/IL-12 Engineered Oncolytic Vaccinia Virus RIVAL-01": "An oncolytic vaccinia virus (VV; VACV) genetically engineered to express an Fms-like tyrosine kinase 3 (Flt3) ligand, an antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) and the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the Flt3 ligand/anti-CTLA-4 antibody/IL-12 engineered oncolytic VV RIVAL-01, the virus preferentially targets, infects and replicates in tumor cells, causing oncolysis. In turn, the lysed tumor cells release various tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), which induce an immune response against the tumor cells. In addition, the Flt3 ligand, the anti-ctla-4 antibody and IL-12 are expressed by the VV in the cancer cells and may activate the immune system within the tumor microenvironment (TME), thereby stimulating both innate and adaptive immune responses. The anti-CTLA-4 antibody targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation, which promotes T-cell activation. Flt3 ligand binds to the Flt3 tyrosine kinase receptor and promotes Flt3 signaling which plays an important role in expanding the population of antigen-presenting dendritic cells (DCs). IL-12 activates natural killer cells (NKs), induces the secretion of interferon-gamma and promotes CD8 cytotoxic T-cell responses against tumor cells, which may result in immune-mediated tumor cell death and inhibition of tumor cell proliferation.", + "FLT3 Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor TTT-3002": "", + "FLT3/ABL/Aurora Kinase Inhibitor KW-2449": "", + "FLT3/CDK4/6 Inhibitor FLX925": "", + "FLT3/FGFR Dual Kinase Inhibitor MAX-40279": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) and FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration of FLT3/FGFR dual kinase inhibitor MAX-40279, this agent binds to and inhibits both FGFR and FLT3, including FLT3 mutant forms, which results in the inhibition of FGFR/FLT3-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation in FGFR/FLT3-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is upregulated in many tumor cell types. FLT3, a class III receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), is overexpressed or mutated in most B-lineage neoplasms and in acute myeloid leukemias. They both play key roles in cellular proliferation and survival.", + "FLT3/KIT Kinase Inhibitor AKN-028": "", + "FLT3/KIT/CSF1R Inhibitor NMS-03592088": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3; CD135; STK1; FLK2), the mast/stem cell factor receptor c-Kit (SCFR; KIT) and colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R; C-FMS; CD115; M-CSFR), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities Upon administration, FLT3/KIT/CSF1R inhibitor NMS-03592088 binds to and inhibits the activity of FLT3, KIT and CSF1R. This prevents FLT3, KIT and CSF1R-mediated signaling and results in the inhibition of proliferation in tumor cells overexpressing FLT3, KIT and CSF1R. In addition, NMS-03592088 binds to CSF1R expressed on monocytes, macrophages, and osteoclasts and inhibits the binding of the CSF1R ligands colony-stimulating factor-1 (CSF-1) and interleukin-34 (IL-34), to CSF1R. This prevents CSF1R activation and CSF1R-mediated signaling in these cells. This blocks the production of inflammatory mediators by macrophages and monocytes and reduces inflammation. By blocking the recruitment to the tumor microenvironment and activity of CSF1R-dependent tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs), NMS-03592088 inhibits the immunomodulating activity by macrophages and enhances T-cell infiltration and antitumor T-cell immune responses, which inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells. FLT3, a class III receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK), is overexpressed or mutated in most B lineage neoplasms and in acute myeloid leukemia (AML), and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation. c-Kit, a transmembrane protein and receptor tyrosine kinase, is overexpressed in solid tumors and hematological malignancies; it plays a key role in the regulation of cell differentiation and proliferation. CSF1R, also known as macrophage colony-stimulating factor receptor (M-CSFR) and CD115 (cluster of differentiation 115), is a cell-surface receptor for its ligand colony stimulating factor 1 (CSF1) and plays major roles in tumor cell proliferation and metastasis.", + "Flt3/MerTK Inhibitor MRX-2843": "", + "Fludarabine": "", + "Fludarabine Phosphate": "", + "Flumatinib": "", + "Flumatinib Mesylate": "", + "Fluorine F 18 Ara-G": "A radioconjugate composed of the guanosine analog arabinosyl guanine (Ara-G), a high-affinity substrate for both cytoplasmic deoxycytidine kinase (DCK) and mitochondrial deoxyguanosine kinase (dGK), labeled with fluorine F 18, that can potentially be used as a tracer for imaging of activated T-lymphocytes during positron emission tomography (PET). Upon administration, fluorine F 18 ara-G is taken up by and accumulates in activated T-lymphocytes with high levels of DCK and dGK. After phosphorylation by DCK and dGK, the 18F moiety can be visualized by PET imaging. Fluorine F 18 ara-G can potentially be used as an imaging agent to detect anti-tumor immune responses and to predict the therapeutic efficacy of immunotherapies. DCK and dGK, both nucleoside salvage pathway enzymes, are overexpressed in activated T-cells.", + "Fluorodopan": "", + "Fluorouracil": "", + "Fluorouracil Implant": "", + "Fluorouracil-E Therapeutic Implant": "", + "Fluoxymesterone": "", + "Flutamide": "", + "Fluvastatin": "", + "Fluvastatin Sodium": "", + "Fluzoparib": "", + "FMS Inhibitor JNJ-40346527": "", + "Fms/Trk Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor PLX7486 Tosylate": "", + "Folate Receptor Targeted Epothilone BMS753493": "", + "Folate Receptor-Targeted Tubulysin Conjugate EC1456": "", + "Folate Receptor-Targeted Vinca Alkaloid EC0489": "", + "Folate Receptor-Targeted Vinca Alkaloid/Mitomycin C EC0225": "", + "Folate-FITC": "", + "Folic Acid": "", + "Folitixorin": "", + "Foretinib": "", + "Foritinib Succinate": "The succinate salt form of foritinib, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) and C-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, foritinib targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of ALK and ROS1, which leads to the disruption of ALK- and ROS1-mediated signaling and the inhibition of cell growth in ALK- and ROS1-expressing tumor cells. In addition, foritinib is able to cross the blood brain barrier. ALK and ROS1, overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, play key roles in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion and metastasis.", + "Formestane": "", + "Forodesine Hydrochloride": "", + "Fosaprepitant": "", + "Fosbretabulin": "", + "Fosbretabulin Disodium": "", + "Fosbretabulin Tromethamine": "", + "Fosgemcitabine Palabenamide": "A pyrimidine analogue and a proprietary prodrug based on an aryloxy phosphoramidate derivative of gemcitabine with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration and cellular uptake, fosgemcitabine palabenamide is converted into the active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine di- and triphosphate (dFdCDP, dFdCTP). dFdCDP inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, thereby decreasing the deoxynucleotide pool available for DNA replication; dFdCTP is incorporated into DNA, resulting in premature termination of DNA replication and eventually induction of apoptosis. With the phosphoramidate moiety on the gemcitabine monophosphate group, NUC-1031 has improved properties over its parent molecule: 1) is more lipophilic and accumulates in cancer cells by passive diffusion and does not require a nucleoside transporter, 2) as the agent is delivered in the monophosphate form, the first phosphorylation step by deoxycytidine kinase is not required, 3) this agent is not susceptible to deactivation by cytidine deaminase cleavage of the monophosphorylated form. Altogether, this may help overcome resistance to gemcitabine.", + "Fosifloxuridine Nafalbenamide": "A phosphoramidate-based prodrug of the monophosphate (MP) form of 5-fluoro-2'-deoxyuridine (FUdR; FUDR), the active metabolite of fluorouracil (5-FU), an antimetabolite fluoropyrimidine analog of the pyrimidine nucleoside, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the nucleotide analog prodrug fosifloxuridine nafalbenamide, fosifloxuridine nafalbenamide is readily taken up by tumor cells. In the tumor cell, the phosphoramidate moiety is removed and fosifloxuridine nafalbenamide is converted to its active form FUDR-MP. In turn, FUDR-MP binds to and inhibits thymidylate synthase (TS), resulting in the depletion of thymidine triphosphate (TTP) and thus DNA synthesis. With the phosphoramidate moiety attached to FUDR-MP, fosifloxuridine nafalbenamide, compared to 5-FU, is more lipophilic and accumulates in cancer cells by passive diffusion and does not require a nucleoside transporter, thereby generating higher intracellular concentrations. In addition, compared to 5-FU, once inside the cell FUDR-MP does not need to be phosphorylated and is already in its active form. Unlike 5-FU, fosifloxuridine nafalbenamide does not get deactivated or converted into toxic metabolites by dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) and thymidine phosphorylase (TP), which leads to both a longer half-life and less toxicity.", + "Foslinanib": "", + "Foslinanib Disodium": "", + "Fosquidone": "", + "Fostriecin": "", + "Fotemustine": "", + "Fotretamine": "", + "FPV Vaccine CV301": "", + "FPV-Brachyury-TRICOM Vaccine": "", + "Fresolimumab": "", + "Fruquintinib": "", + "Fulvestrant": "", + "Fumagillin-Derived Polymer Conjugate XMT-1107": "", + "Fursultiamine": "", + "Futibatinib": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Futibatinib selectively and irreversibly binds to and inhibits FGFR, which may result in the inhibition of both the FGFR-mediated signal transduction pathway and tumor cell proliferation, and increased cell death in FGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. FGFR is a receptor tyrosine kinase essential to tumor cell proliferation, differentiation and survival and its expression is upregulated in many tumor cell types.", + "Futuximab": "", + "Futuximab/Modotuximab Mixture": "", + "G Protein-coupled Estrogen Receptor Agonist LNS8801": "An orally bioavailable selective agonist of the G protein-coupled estrogen receptor (G protein-coupled estrogen receptor 1; GPER; GPER1; GPR30), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, LNS8801 targets, binds to and activates GPER. This activates GPER-mediated signaling and suppresses the expression of various tumor-associated genes, such as c-Myc and programmed cell death-ligand 1 (PD-L1). This leads to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. GPER activation may also induce immune memory. GPER is a membrane protein and a member of the G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) that are widely distributed in various tissues. GPER is a tumor suppressor in a wide range of cell cancer types.", + "G-Quadruplex Stabilizer BMVC": "", + "Galamustine": "", + "Galarubicin": "", + "Galectin Inhibitor GR-MD-02": "", + "Galectin-1 Inhibitor OTX008": "", + "Galeterone": "", + "Galiximab": "", + "Gallium-based Bone Resorption Inhibitor AP-002": "An orally bioavailable gallium (Ga)-based small molecule agent with potential anti-bone resorption and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, AP-002 selectively inhibits osteoclast differentiation and bone resorption, and may promote the growth of osteoblasts thereby improving the skeletal sequelae of bony metastases which include pain, spinal cord compression, fractures and hypercalcemia of malignancy. Additionally, AP-002 may, through an as of yet undescribed mechanism of action, directly target and kill bone tumor cells.", + "Galocitabine": "", + "Galunisertib": "", + "Gamboge Resin Extract TSB-9-W1": "", + "Gamma-delta Tocotrienol": "", + "Gamma-Secretase Inhibitor LY3039478": "", + "Gamma-Secretase Inhibitor RO4929097": "", + "Gandotinib": "", + "Ganetespib": "", + "Ganglioside GD2": "", + "Ganglioside GM2": "", + "Ganitumab": "", + "Ganoderma lucidum Spores Powder Capsule": "", + "Garlic": "", + "Gastrin Immunotoxin": "", + "Gastrin/cholecystokinin Type B Receptor Inhibitor Z-360": "", + "Gataparsen Sodium": "", + "Gatipotuzumab": "", + "GBM Antigens and Alloantigens Immunotherapeutic Vaccine": "An orally bioavailable, immunotherapeutic vaccine composed of hydrolyzed and formulated glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) antigens and alloantigens derived from a pool of patients' cancer cells in the blood and samples of tumor tissues, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration of the GBM antigens and alloantigens immunotherapeutic vaccine, the GBM antigens and alloantigens may stimulate the host immune system via antigen-presenting cells (APCs) lining the gut to mount an immune response against tumor cells expressing these antigens. This may lead to tumor cell death.", + "Gedatolisib": "", + "Gefitinib": "", + "Geldanamycin": "", + "Gelonin": "", + "Gemcitabine": "", + "Gemcitabine Elaidate": "", + "Gemcitabine Hydrochloride": "", + "Gemcitabine Hydrochloride Emulsion": "", + "Gemcitabine Prodrug LY2334737": "", + "Gemcitabine-Phosphoramidate Hydrochloride NUC-1031": "", + "Gemcitabine-Releasing Intravesical System": "", + "Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin": "", + "Genetically Modified Interleukin-12 Transgene-encoding Bifidobacterium longum": "A live, genetically modified probiotic bacteria Bifidobacterium longum (B. longum) engineered to deliver genetic material encoding the human pro-inflammatory transgene interleukin-12 (IL-12), with potential immunoactivating activity. Upon administration of genetically modified IL-12 transgene-encoding B. longum, the bacteria selectively colonize hypoxic tumor tissues and deliver plasmid DNA encoding the IL-12 transgene within the tumor microenvironment (TME). IL-12 is translated in cells and activates the immune system by promoting the activation of natural killer cells (NK cells), inducing secretion of interferon-gamma and promoting cytotoxic T-cell responses against tumor cells. This may result in both immune-mediated tumor cell death and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation.", + "Genistein": "", + "Gentuximab": "", + "Geranylgeranyltransferase I Inhibitor": "", + "GI-4000 Vaccine": "", + "Giloralimab": "An agonistic monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell surface antigen CD40, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, giloralimab binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This induces CD40-dependent signaling pathways, triggers the proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), and activates T-cells. This results in an enhanced cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells. CD40, a cell surface receptor and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF), is expressed on various immune cells and plays a key role in the activation of the immune system.", + "Gilteritinib": "", + "Gilteritinib Fumarate": "", + "Gimatecan": "", + "Gimeracil": "", + "Ginsenoside Rg3 Capsule": "", + "Giredestrant": "An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, giredestrant specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that promotes ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells.", + "Girentuximab": "", + "Girodazole": "", + "GITR Agonist MEDI1873": "", + "Givinostat": "", + "Glasdegib": "", + "Glasdegib Maleate": "", + "Glaucarubolone": "", + "Glecaprevir/Pibrentasvir": "", + "Glembatumumab Vedotin": "", + "Glesatinib": "", + "Glioblastoma Cancer Vaccine ERC1671": "", + "Glioblastoma Multiforme Multipeptide Vaccine IMA950": "", + "Glioma Lysate Vaccine GBM6-AD": "", + "Glioma-associated Peptide-loaded Dendritic Cell Vaccine SL-701": "", + "Globo H-DT Vaccine OBI-833": "", + "Glofitamab": "A bispecific monoclonal antibody, with potential antineoplastic activity. Glofitamab contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T cell surface antigen, and one for human CD20, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) that is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development and is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. Upon administration, glofitamab binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing B-lineage tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the CD20-expressing tumor B-cells.", + "Glucarpidase": "", + "Glucocorticoid Receptor Antagonist ORIC-101": "", + "Glufosfamide": "", + "Glumetinib": "", + "Glutaminase Inhibitor CB-839": "", + "Glutaminase Inhibitor CB-839 Hydrochloride": "", + "Glutaminase Inhibitor IPN60090": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of glutaminase, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon oral administration, IPN60090 selectively targets, binds to and inhibits human glutaminase, an enzyme that is essential for the conversion of the amino acid glutamine into glutamate. Blocking glutamine metabolism inhibits proliferation in rapidly growing tumor cells and leads to an induction of cell death. Unlike normal healthy cells, glutamine-dependent tumors heavily rely on the intracellular conversion of exogenous glutamine into glutamate and glutamate metabolites to provide energy and generate building blocks for the production of macromolecules, which are needed for cellular growth and survival.", + "Glutamine Antagonist DRP-104": "A broad acting glutamine antagonist, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, DON (6-Diazo-5-oxo-L-norleucine), the active moiety of DRP-104, irreversibly inhibits multiple enzymes involved in glutamine metabolism. Blocking glutamine metabolism inhibits proliferation in rapidly growing tumor cells and leads to an induction of cell death. Unlike normal healthy cells, glutamine-dependent tumors rely heavily on the intracellular conversion of exogenous glutamine into glutamate and glutamate metabolites to both provide energy and generate building blocks for the production of macromolecules, which are needed for cellular growth and survival. In addition, blocking glutamine metabolism leads to the accumulation of glutamine in tumor cells and increases glutamine concentration in the tumor microenvironment (TME) upon tumor cell death. As glutamine is essential for T-cell generation, DON may also enhance T-cell proliferation and activation in the TME, which may lead to further killing of tumor cells. The conversion of DRP-104 to the active moiety DON occurs primarily in tumor cells, allowing glutamine metabolism in healthy cells which may lessen adverse effects.", + "Glutathione Pegylated Liposomal Doxorubicin Hydrochloride Formulation 2B3-101": "", + "Glyco-engineered Anti-CD20 Monoclonal Antibody CHO H01": "", + "Glycooptimized Trastuzumab-GEX": "", + "GM-CSF-encoding Oncolytic Adenovirus CGTG-102": "", + "Gold Sodium Thiomalate": "", + "Golnerminogene Pradenovec": "", + "Golotimod": "", + "Golvatinib": "", + "Gonadotropin-releasing Hormone Analog": "", + "Goserelin": "", + "Goserelin Acetate": "", + "Goserelin Acetate Extended-release Microspheres LY01005": "", + "Gossypol": "", + "Gossypol Acetic Acid": "", + "Grapiprant": "", + "Green Tea Extract-based Antioxidant Supplement": "", + "GS/pan-Notch Inhibitor AL101": "", + "GS/pan-Notch Inhibitor BMS-986115": "", + "GSK-3 Inhibitor 9-ING-41": "", + "GSK-3 Inhibitor LY2090314": "", + "Guadecitabine": "", + "Guanabenz Acetate": "", + "Guselkumab": "", + "Gusperimus Trihydrochloride": "", + "Gutolactone": "", + "H1299 Tumor Cell Lysate Vaccine": "", + "H-ras Antisense Oligodeoxynucleotide ISIS 2503": "", + "HAAH Lambda phage Vaccine SNS-301": "", + "Hafnium Oxide-containing Nanoparticles NBTXR3": "", + "Halichondrin Analogue E7130": "", + "Halichondrin B": "", + "Halofuginone": "", + "Halofuginone Hydrobromide": "", + "HCV DNA Vaccine INO-8000": "", + "HDAC6 Inhibitor KA2507": "", + "HDAC8 Inhibitor NBM-BMX": "", + "HDAC Class I/IIb Inhibitor HG146": "", + "HDAC Inhibitor AR-42": "", + "HDAC inhibitor CG200745": "", + "HDAC Inhibitor CHR-2845": "", + "HDAC Inhibitor CKD-581": "", + "HDAC Inhibitor CXD101": "", + "HDAC Inhibitor MPT0E028": "", + "HDAC Inhibitor OBP-801": "", + "HDAC/EGFR/HER2 Inhibitor CUDC-101": "", + "HDM2 Inhibitor HDM201": "", + "HDM2 Inhibitor MK-8242": "", + "Hedgehog Inhibitor IPI-609": "", + "Hematoporphyrin Derivative": "", + "Hemiasterlin Analog E7974": "", + "Henatinib Maleate": "", + "Heparan Sulfate Glycosaminoglycan Mimetic M402": "", + "Heparin Derivative SST0001": "", + "HER2 ECD+TM Virus-like Replicon Particles Vaccine AVX901": "", + "HER2 Inhibitor CP-724,714": "", + "HER2 Inhibitor DZD1516": "An orally bioavailable, blood brain barrier (BBB) penetrable inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinase human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, HER2 inhibitor DZD1516 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of HER2. This prevents HER2-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed on a variety of tumor cell types, plays an important role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization.", + "HER2 Inhibitor TAS0728": "", + "HER2 Tri-specific Natural Killer Cell Engager DF1001": "An engineered molecule based on tri-specific natural killer (NK) cell engager therapies (TriNKET) that is directed against human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, HER2 tri-specific NK cell engager DF1001 targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cells and simultaneously binds to NK cells, thereby bringing HER2-expressing tumor cells and NK cells together, which stimulates the NK cells and results in the selective NK cell-mediated tumor cell lysis of HER2-expressing tumor cells. The binding of HER2-expressing tumor cells and NK cells may also lead to the activation of T-cells and B-cells, potentiating the immune response against HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2, a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) mutated or overexpressed in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization.", + "HER2-directed TLR8 Agonist SBT6050": "An immunotherapeutic composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (EGFR2; HER2; ErbB2) conjugated to a Toll-like receptor 8 (TLR8; CD288) agonist, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration of the HER2-directed TLR8 agonist SBT6050, the anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells, thereby localizing the TLR8 agonist directly to the tumor site. In turn, the TLR8 agonist moiety binds to TLR8 expressed on myeloid cells within the tumor microenvironment (TME). This activates myeloid cells, including tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs), myeloid cell-derived suppressive cells (MDSCs), and conventional dendritic cells (cDCs). This may lead to the activation of nuclear factor NF-kappa-B, the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines, macrophage-induced tumor cell killing, inflammasome activation, activation of cytolytic natural killer (NK) cells and neutrophils, and the induction of a Th1-weighted anti-tumor immune response. It also reverses the suppression of senescent naive and tumor-specific T-cells, and enhances the anti-tumor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response. TLR8, like other TLRs, recognizes pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and plays a key role in innate and adaptive immunity. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types.", + "HER2-targeted DARPin MP0274": "", + "HER2-targeted Liposomal Doxorubicin Hydrochloride MM-302": "", + "HER2-targeting Antibody Fc Fragment FS102": "", + "HER-2-positive B-cell Peptide Antigen P467-DT-CRM197/Montanide Vaccine IMU-131": "", + "Herba Scutellaria Barbata": "", + "Herbimycin": "", + "Heterodimeric Interleukin-15": "", + "Hexamethylene Bisacetamide": "", + "Hexaminolevulinate": "", + "Hexylresorcinol": "", + "HIF2a RNAi ARO-HIF2": "An RNA interference (RNAi) targeting hypoxia-inducible factor 2alpha (HIF-2a), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of HIF2a RNAi ARO-HIF2, the agent binds to and neutralizes mRNA HIF2a, thereby preventing the production of HIF2a. This may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. HIF2a, overexpressed in certain cell types, plays a key role in proliferation, progression and metastasis of tumors.", + "HIF-1alpha Inhibitor PX-478": "", + "HIF-2alpha Inhibitor PT2385": "", + "HIF-2alpha Inhibitor PT2977": "", + "Histone-Lysine N-Methyltransferase EZH2 Inhibitor GSK2816126": "", + "Histrelin Acetate": "", + "HLA-A2-restricted Melanoma-specific Peptides Vaccine GRN-1201": "", + "HLA-A*0201 Restricted TERT(572Y)/TERT(572) Peptides Vaccine Vx-001": "", + "HLA-A*2402-Restricted Multipeptide Vaccine S-488410": "", + "HM2/MMAE Antibody-Drug Conjugate ALT-P7": "", + "Hodgkin's Antigens-GM-CSF-Expressing Cell Vaccine": "", + "Holmium Ho 166 Poly(L-Lactic Acid) Microspheres": "", + "Hormone Therapy": "", + "HPPH": "", + "HPV6/11-targeted DNA Plasmid Vaccine INO-3107": "A DNA vaccine consisting of plasmids encoding E6 and E7 genes of human papilloma virus subtype 6 (HPV-6) and 11 (HPV-11), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration via intramuscular electroporation, the HPV-6/11-targeted DNA plasmid vaccine INO-3107 expresses the HPV-6/11 E6 and E7 proteins, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells that are expressing HPV6 and/or HPV11 E6 and E7 proteins, resulting in tumor cell lysis. HPV-6/11 infections are associated with aerodigestive malignancies.", + "HPV16 E7-specific HLA-A*02:01-restricted IgG1-Fc Fusion Protein CUE-101": "", + "HPV16 L2/E6/E7 Fusion Protein Vaccine TA-CIN": "", + "HPV 16 E6/E7-encoding Arenavirus Vaccine HB-202": "A cancer vaccine consisting of replication-attenuated arenavirus encoding the inactivated fusion protein of the viral oncoproteins E6 and E7 derived from the human papillomavirus (HPV) serotype 16, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, HPV 16 E6/E7-encoding arenavirus vaccine HB-202 induces expression of the E6/E7 proteins and stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing HPV16 E6 and E7, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Oncoproteins E6 and E7 play a key role in the development of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical carcinoma.", + "HPV 16 E7 Antigen-expressing Lactobacillis casei Vaccine BLS-ILB-E710c": "", + "HPV DNA Plasmids Therapeutic Vaccine VGX-3100": "", + "HPV E6/E7 DNA Vaccine GX-188E": "", + "HPV E6/E7-encoding Arenavirus Vaccine HB-201": "A cancer vaccine consisting of a replication-attenuated arenavirus lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) encoding the inactivated fusion protein of the viral oncoproteins E6 and E7 derived from the human papillomavirus (HPV) serotype 16, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, HPV E6/E7-encoding arenavirus vaccine HB-201 induces expression of the E6/E7 proteins and stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing HPV16 E6 and E7, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Oncoproteins E6 and E7 play a key role in the development of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical carcinoma.", + "HPV Types 16/18 E6/E7-Adenoviral Transduced Autologous Lymphocytes/alpha-Galactosylceramide Vaccine BVAC-C": "", + "HPV-6-targeting Immunotherapeutic Vaccine INO-3106": "", + "HPV-16 E6 Peptides Vaccine/Candida albicans Extract": "", + "Hsp90 Antagonist KW-2478": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor AB-010": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor BIIB021": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor BIIB028": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor Debio 0932": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor DS-2248": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor HSP990": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor MPC-3100": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor PU-H71": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor SNX-5422 Mesylate": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor SNX-5542 Mesylate": "", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor TQB3474": "An inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Hsp90 inhibitor TQB3474 specifically blocks Hsp90, which inhibits its chaperone function and promotes the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. This may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Hsp90, a chaperone complex protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types, regulates the folding and degradation of many oncogenic signaling proteins.", + "Hsp90 Inhibitor XL888": "", + "Hsp90-targeted Photosensitizer HS-201": "A conjugate consisting of a heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) inhibitor connected via a linker to verteporfin, a photosensitizing agent, with potential imaging, photodynamic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the Hsp90 inhibitor moiety of HS-201 selectively binds to the Hsp90 ATP binding domain in tumor cells and HS-201 accumulates in tumor cells. The verteporfin moiety of HS-201 allows for visualization and photodynamic therapy of the tumors. Hsp90, a chaperone protein upregulated in a variety of tumor cells, regulates the folding, stability and degradation of many oncogenic signaling proteins. Verteporfin is a synthetic photosensitizer with photodynamic activity.", + "HSP90-targeted SN-38 Conjugate PEN-866": "", + "HSP90alpha/beta Inhibitor TAS-116": "", + "hTERT Multipeptide/Montanide ISA-51 VG/Imiquimod Vaccine GX 301": "", + "hTERT Vaccine V934/V935": "", + "hTERT-encoding DNA Vaccine INVAC-1": "", + "Hu14.18-IL2 Fusion Protein EMD 273063": "", + "HuaChanSu": "", + "Huaier Extract Granule": "", + "Huang Lian": "", + "huBC1-huIL12 Fusion Protein AS1409": "", + "Human Combinatorial Antibody Library-based Monoclonal Antibody VAY736": "", + "Human MHC Non-Restricted Cytotoxic T-Cell Line TALL-104": "", + "Human MOAB LICO 28a32": "", + "Human Monoclonal Antibody 216": "", + "Human Monoclonal Antibody B11-hCG Beta Fusion Protein CDX-1307": "", + "Human Papillomavirus 16 E7 Peptide/Padre 965.10": "", + "Hyaluronidase-zzxf/Pertuzumab/Trastuzumab": "A ready-to-use fixed-dose combination of pertuzumab and trastuzumab, both recombinant humanized monoclonal antibodies directed against the tyrosine kinase receptor (TKR) human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; HER-2; receptor tyrosine-protein kinase erbB-2), and hyaluronidase-zzxf, a biosimilar of the recombinant form of the naturally occurring endoglycosidase hyaluronidase, with antineoplastic activity that can be used for the treatment of HER2-overexpressing breast cancers. Upon subcutaneous administration, hyaluronidase-zzxf temporarily breaks down the hyaluronan barrier, which decreases viscosity of, and allows both pertuzumab and trastuzumab to spread rapidly through the interstitial space. This improves access to lymphatic and capillary vessels and facilitates the absorption of both antibodies into the bloodstream. Pertuzumab targets and binds to the extracellular dimerization domain (subdomain II) of HER2 and blocks ligand-dependent heterodimerization of HER2 with other HER family members, including EGFR, HER3 and HER4. This inhibits ligand-initiated intracellular signaling and prevents the activation of the mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase and the phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) signaling pathways, leading to growth arrest and apoptosis in HER2-overexpressing tumor cells, respectively. Trastuzumab targets and binds to subdomain IV of HER2 and inhibits ligand-independent, HER2 mediated cell proliferation and inhibits the PI3K signaling pathway in HER2-overexpressing tumor cells. Both antibodies induce an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against HER2-expressing tumor cells. HER2 is overexpressed in many adenocarcinomas, particularly breast adenocarcinomas.", + "Hycanthone": "", + "Hydralazine Hydrochloride": "", + "Hydrocortisone Sodium Succinate": "", + "Hydroxychloroquine": "", + "Hydroxyprogesterone Caproate": "", + "Hydroxytyrosol": "", + "Hydroxyurea": "", + "Hypericin": "", + "Hypoxia-activated Prodrug TH-4000": "", + "I 131 Antiferritin Immunoglobulin": "", + "I 131 Monoclonal Antibody A33": "", + "I 131 Monoclonal Antibody CC49": "", + "I 131 Monoclonal Antibody F19": "", + "I 131 Monoclonal Antibody Lym-1": "", + "Iadademstat": "An orally available inhibitor of lysine specific histone demethylase 1 (KDM1A; LSD1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, iadademstat binds to and inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the di- and mono-methylated forms of lysine at position 4 of histone H3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4, respectively. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor suppressor genes. This may lead to an inhibition of cell growth in LSD1-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, LSD1 demethylates mono- or di-methylated H3K9, which increases gene expression of tumor promoting genes; inhibition of LSD1 promotes H3K9 methylation and decreases transcription of these genes. LSD1, an enzyme belonging to the flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)-dependent amine oxidase family, is overexpressed in certain tumor cells and plays a key role in in the regulation of gene expression, tumor cell growth and survival.", + "Ianalumab": "A fully human combinatorial antibody library (HuCAL)-derived monoclonal antibody targeting the B-cell-activating factor receptor (BAFF-R), with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ianalumab targets and binds to BAFF-R, which inhibits both BAFF/BAFF-R interaction and BAFF-R-mediated signaling. This may decrease cell growth in tumor cells expressing BAFF-R. BAFF-R, also known as tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 13C, is overexpressed in certain tumor cell types and autoimmune diseases. In cancer cells, BAFF-R plays a key role in B-cell proliferation and survival. VAY736 was developed using HuCAL technology.", + "IAP Inhibitor APG-1387": "", + "IAP Inhibitor AT-406": "", + "IAP Inhibitor HGS1029": "", + "Ibandronate Sodium": "", + "Iberdomide": "", + "Iboctadekin": "", + "Ibritumomab Tiuxetan": "", + "Ibrutinib": "", + "Icotinib Hydrochloride": "", + "Icrucumab": "", + "ICT-121 Dendritic Cell Vaccine": "", + "Idarubicin": "", + "Idarubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Idarubicin-Eluting Beads": "", + "Idasanutlin": "", + "Idecabtagene Vicleucel": "", + "Idelalisib": "", + "Idetrexed": "An alpha-folate receptor (aFR)-mediated inhibitor of thymidylate synthase (TS), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous infusion, idetrexed selectively targets and binds to aFR-expressing tumor cells. Upon uptake by aFR, this agent binds to and inhibits TS. This reduces thymine nucleotide synthesis, inhibits both DNA synthesis and cell division, and leads to tumor cell apoptosis. TS catalyzes the conversion of deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP) to deoxythymidine monophosphate (dTMP), an essential precursor for DNA synthesis, and plays a key role in cell growth and division. aFR, a cell-surface receptor glycoprotein, is overexpressed on various tumor cell types, but is minimally expressed by normal, healthy tissue.", + "IDH1 Mutant Inhibitor LY3410738": "An orally available inhibitor of mutant form of the isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1; IDH-1; IDH1 [NADP+] soluble), including the substitution mutation at arginine (R) in position 132, IDH1(R132), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, IDH1 mutant inhibitor LY3410738 specifically and covalently binds to and modifies a single cysteine (Cys269) in the allosteric binding pocket of mutant forms of IDH1, thereby inactivating IDH1. This inhibits the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This depletes 2-HG levels, prevents 2HG-mediated signaling and leads to both an induction of cellular differentiation and an inhibition of cellular proliferation in tumor cells expressing mutant forms of IDH1. In addition, LY3410738 has the ability to cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB). IDH1 mutations, including IDH1(R132) mutations, are highly expressed in certain malignancies, including gliomas; they initiate and drive cancer growth by both blocking cell differentiation and catalyzing the formation of 2HG.", + "IDH1(R132) Inhibitor IDH305": "", + "IDH1R132H-Specific Peptide Vaccine PEPIDH1M": "", + "Idiotype-Pulsed Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine APC8020": "", + "IDO1 Inhibitor KHK2455": "", + "IDO1 Inhibitor MK-7162": "", + "IDO1 Inhibitor PF-06840003": "", + "IDO1/TDO2 Inhibitor DN1406131": "", + "IDO1/TDO2 Inhibitor M4112": "An inhibitor of both the enzymes indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1; IDO-1) and tryptophan 2,3-dioxygenase 2 (TDO2; TDO-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IDO1/TDO2 inhibitor M4112 targets, binds to and inhibits both IDO1 and TDO2, which catalyze the first and rate-limiting step in the production of the immunosuppressive transcription factor aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AhR) ligand kynurenine (Kyn). This inhibits the IDO1/TDO2-Kyn-AhR pathway and abrogates AhR activation. This prevents the activation of immune-tolerant dendritic cells (DCs) and regulatory T-cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME), and may restore the immune response by stimulating a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against tumor cells in which IDO1 and/or TDO2 are overexpressed. The IDO1/TDO2-KYN-AhR pathway is overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types and plays a key role in immunosuppression. Its expression is correlated with poor prognosis.", + "IDO Peptide Vaccine IO102": "", + "IDO-1 Inhibitor LY3381916": "", + "IDO/TDO Inhibitor HTI-1090": "", + "IDO/TDO Inhibitor LY-01013": "An orally bioavailable, small-molecule inhibitor of indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO1; IDO-1) and the kynurenine-producing hepatic enzyme tryptophan 2,3-dioxygenase (TDO), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, IDO1/TDO inhibitor LY-01013 specifically targets and binds to both IDO1, a cytosolic enzyme responsible for the oxidation of the amino acid tryptophan into the immunosuppressive metabolite kynurenine, and TDO, a hepatic enzyme catalyzing the first step of tryptophan degradation. By inhibiting IDO1 and TDO, LY-01013 decreases kynurenine levels in tumor cells, restores tryptophan and promotes the proliferation and activation of various immune cells, including dendritic cells (DCs), natural killer (NK) cells and T-lymphocytes. This reduces the number of tumor-associated regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and activates the immune system to induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the IDO1/TDO-expressing tumor cells, thereby inhibiting the growth of the tumor cells. IDO1 and TDO, both overexpressed by multiple tumor cell types, play important roles in immunosuppression and the promotion of tumor cell survival and proliferation. Tryptophan depletion inhibits T-lymphocyte proliferation and activation, and subsequently suppresses the immune system.", + "Idronoxil": "", + "Idronoxil Suppository NOX66": "", + "Ieramilimab": "A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene-3 (LAG-3), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, Ieramilimab binds to LAG-3 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks its binding with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules expressed on tumor cells. This activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which leads to a reduction in tumor growth. LAG-3, a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) and expressed on various immune cells, negatively regulates cellular proliferation and activation of T-cells. Its expression on TILs is associated with tumor-mediated immune suppression.", + "Ifabotuzumab": "", + "Ifetroban": "", + "Ifosfamide": "", + "IGF-1R Inhibitor": "", + "IGF-1R Inhibitor PL225B": "", + "IGF-1R/IR Inhibitor KW-2450": "", + "IGF-methotrexate Conjugate": "", + "IL4-Pseudomonas Exotoxin Fusion Protein MDNA55": "", + "IL-2 Recombinant Fusion Protein ALT-801": "", + "IL-2/9/15 Gamma Chain Receptor Inhibitor BNZ-1": "", + "IL-10 Immunomodulator MK-1966": "", + "IL-12-expressing HSV-1 NSC 733972": "", + "IL-12-expressing Mesenchymal Stem Cell Vaccine GX-051": "", + "IL-12sc, IL-15sushi, IFNa and GM-CSF mRNA-based Immunotherapeutic Agent SAR441000": "An immunotherapeutic agent utilizing mRNA to encode the cytokines interleukin-12sc (IL-12sc), interleukin-15sushi (IL-15sushi), interferon alpha (IFNa) and granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration of IL-12sc, IL-15sushi, IFNa and GM-CSF mRNA-based immunotherapeutic agent SAR441000, mRNA is picked up by nearby cells, translated and released into the local tumor microenvironment (TME). Secretion of these cytokines activate the immune system by promoting the activation of natural killer cells (NKs) and inducing cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) responses, which may result in an immune-mediated destruction of tumor cells.", + "Ilginatinib": "An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2) and Src-family kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Ilginatinib competes with ATP for binding to JAK2 as well as the mutated form JAK2V617F, thereby inhibiting the activation of JAK2 and downstream molecules in the JAK2/STAT3 (signal transducer and activator of transcription 3) signaling pathway that plays an important role in normal development, particularly hematopoiesis. In addition, ilginatinib inhibits the Src family tyrosine kinases. This eventually leads to the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. JAK2 is the most common mutated gene in bcr-abl-negative myeloproliferative disorders (MPDs); JAK2V617F is a constitutively activated kinase that activates the JAK/STAT signaling pathway and dysregulates cell growth and function, and its expression transforms hematopoietic cells to cytokine-independent growth.", + "Ilixadencel": "", + "Iloprost": "", + "Ilorasertib": "", + "Imalumab": "", + "Imaradenant": "An orally bioavailable antagonist of the adenosine A2A receptor (A2AR; ADORA2A), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, imaradenant selectively binds to and inhibits A2AR expressed on T-lymphocytes. This blocks tumor-released adenosine from interacting with A2AR and prevents the adenosine/A2AR-mediated inhibition of T-lymphocytes. This results in the proliferation and activation of T-lymphocytes, and stimulates a T-cell-mediated immune response against tumor cells. A2AR, a G protein-coupled receptor, is highly expressed on the cell surfaces of T-cells and, upon activation by adenosine, inhibits T-cell proliferation and activation. Adenosine is often overproduced by cancer cells and plays a key role in immunosuppression.", + "Imatinib": "", + "Imatinib Mesylate": "", + "Imetelstat": "", + "Imetelstat Sodium": "", + "Imexon": "", + "Imgatuzumab": "A glycoengineered monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Imgatuzumab binds to the extracellular domain of EGFR, preventing the activation and subsequent dimerization of the receptor; the decrease in receptor activation and dimerization may result in an inhibition of downstream ERK and JNK signaling pathways and so inhibition of EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation and metastasis. EGFR, a member of the epidermal growth factor family of extracellular protein ligands, may be overexpressed on the cell surfaces of various solid tumor cell types.", + "Imidazole Mustard": "", + "Imidazole-Pyrazole": "", + "Imifoplatin": "A platinum (Pt)-based agent belonging to the phosphaplatin family comprised of Pt complexed to a pyrophosphate ligand, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanisms through which imifoplatin exerts its effect have yet to be fully elucidated, this agent, upon intravenous administration, binds to certain transmembrane proteins and activates several genes involved in tumor suppression and apoptosis. This leads to the activation of various signal transduction pathways, induces S/G2 phase cell cycle, and causes tumor cell apoptosis. In addition, imifoplatin may inhibit angiogenesis. Unlike conventional Pt-based chemotherapeutics, imifoplatin does not bind to DNA and is able to overcome drug resistance, which occurs with conventional Pt-based chemotherapeutics; it also has a more favorable side effect profile and is more stable in plasma.", + "Imipramine Blue": "", + "Imiquimod": "", + "Immediate-release Onapristone": "", + "Immediate-release Tablet Afuresertib": "", + "Immune Checkpoint Inhibitor ASP8374": "", + "Immunoconjugate RO5479599": "", + "Immunocytokine NHS-IL2-LT": "", + "Immunocytokine NHS-IL12": "", + "Immunomodulator LAM-003": "", + "Immunomodulator OHR/AVR118": "", + "Immunomodulatory Agent CC-11006": "", + "Immunomodulatory Oligonucleotide HYB2055": "", + "Immunotherapeutic Combination Product CMB305": "", + "Immunotherapeutic GSK1572932A": "", + "Immunotherapy Regimen MKC-1106-MT": "", + "Immunotoxin CMD-193": "", + "IMT-1012 Immunotherapeutic Vaccine": "", + "Inactivated Oncolytic Virus Particle GEN0101": "An inactivated, non-replicating particle of hemagglutinating virus of Japan (HVJ), an oncolytic virus of the paramyxovirus family, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intracutaneous administration, GEN0101 targets and binds to the cytosolic nucleic acid receptor retinoic acid-inducible gene I (RIG-I). This induces RIG-I-mediated signaling and a potent innate immune response against tumor cells, leading to the activation of natural killer (NK) cells and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL), and apoptosis in tumor cells. GEN0101 also activates dendritic cells (DCs) to produce cytokine interleukin-6 (IL-6), suppressing the function of regulatory T cells (Treg), a negative regulator of immune responses. The suppression of Treg activity helps maintain the induced immune responses.", + "Inalimarev": "", + "Incyclinide": "", + "Indatuximab Ravtansine": "An immunoconjugate consisting of a monoclonal antibody directed against a highly-expressed myeloma cell surface antigen covalently attached to the maytansinoid DM4, a derivative of the cytotoxic agent maytansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Indatuximab ravtansine binds to an unspecified cell surface antigen highly expressed on myeloma cells; upon internalization the DM4 moiety is released, binding to tubulin and disrupting microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, which may result in the inhibition of cell division and cell growth of myeloma tumor cells.", + "Indibulin": "", + "Indicine-N-Oxide": "", + "Indisulam": "", + "Individualized MVA-based Vaccine TG4050": "An off-the-shelf (OTS) individualized vaccine comprised of a modified Vaccinia virus Ankara (MVA) viral vector encoding tumor-specific neoantigens (TSNAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Following administration of the individualized MVA-based vaccine TG4050, the neoantigens are expressed and presented to the immune system, which induces the activation of a specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) immune response against tumor cells expressing the patient-specific neoantigens.", + "Indocyanine Green-labeled Polymeric Micelles ONM-100": "", + "Indole-3-Carbinol": "", + "Indomethacin": "", + "Indoximod": "", + "Indoximod Prodrug NLG802": "", + "Indusatumab Vedotin": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) containing a monoclonal antibody directed against guanylyl cyclase C (GCC or GUCY2C) conjugated to monomethylauristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. The monoclonal antibody moiety of indusatumab vedotin selectively binds to GCC, a transmembrane receptor normally found on intestinal cells and dopamine neurons in the brain, but is also overexpressed on the surface of gastrointestinal cancers. Upon internalization and proteolytic cleavage, MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, resulting in G2/M phase arrest and tumor cell apoptosis in GCC-expressing tumor cells.", + "Inebilizumab": "A humanized immunoglobulin IgG1 kappa monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD-19 with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Inebilizumab binds to CD19, which may result in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response and antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) to CD19-expressing B-cells. The Fc portion of inebilizumab does not contain a fucose sugar moiety, which may contribute to its enhanced ADCC activity. CD19 is a membrane antigen that is widely expressed during B-cell development, from pro-B-cell to early plasma cell stages.", + "Inecalcitol": "", + "Infigratinib": "", + "Infigratinib Mesylate": "", + "Infliximab": "", + "Ingenol Mebutate": "", + "Ingenol Mebutate Gel": "", + "Iniparib": "", + "iNKT Cell Agonist ABX196": "A synthetic glycolipid agonist for natural killer T-cells (NKTs) expressing an invariant (alpha, beta) T-cell receptor (iNKTs), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon infusion of the iNKT cell agonist ABX196, this agent targets and binds to iNKTs, thereby activating iNKTs. In turn, iNKTs recognize CD1d-restricted lipid ligands, which are expressed on certain tumor cells, and secrete large amounts of various cytokines. This may activate the immune system against tumor cells. Additionally, iNKTs directly target and lyse tumor cells.", + "Innate Immunostimulator rBBX-01": "", + "INO-1001": "", + "Inodiftagene Vixteplasmid": "", + "iNOS Dimerization Inhibitor ASP9853": "", + "Inosine 5'-monophosphate Dehydrogenase Inhibitor FF-10501-01": "", + "Inosine Monophosphate Dehydrogenase Inhibitor AVN944": "", + "Inositol": "", + "Inotuzumab Ozogamicin": "", + "Inproquone": "", + "Integrin alpha-2 Inhibitor E7820": "", + "Integrin Receptor Antagonist GLPG0187": "", + "Interferon": "", + "Interferon Alfa-2B": "", + "Interferon Alfa-N1": "", + "Interferon Alfa-N3": "", + "Interferon Alfacon-1": "", + "Interferon Beta-1A": "", + "Interferon Gamma-1b": "", + "Interferon-gamma-expressing Adenovirus Vaccine ASN-002": "", + "Interleukin Therapy": "", + "Interleukin-2 Liposome": "", + "Interleukin-12-Fc Fusion Protein DF6002": "A fusion protein composed of human interleukin-12 (IL-12) fused to a Fc fragment, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of IL-12-Fc fusion protein DF6002, the IL-12 moiety binds to the IL-12 receptor. This may activate the immune system by promoting the secretion of interferon-gamma, activating natural killer cells (NKs), and inducing cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) responses, which may result in both decreased tumor cell proliferation and enhanced immune-mediated destruction of tumor cells.", + "Interleukin-15 Agonist Fusion Protein SHR1501": "A human Fc fusion protein composed of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 cross-linked with the high-affinity binding sushi domain of IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, SHR-1501 activates and increases the levels of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-cells without stimulating regulatory T-cells (Tregs). The memory T-cells enhance the secretion of the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), which further potentiates the immune response against tumor cells. This may increase tumor cell killing and decrease tumor cell proliferation. IL-15 regulates CD8+ T and NK cell development, activation and proliferation. SHR1501 is more potent than unmodified IL-15 and does not require endogenous IL-15Ra for its action. The Fc moiety allows for an extended half-life of SHR-1501 while cross linking IL-15 with IL-15Ra sushi domain improves stability.", + "Interleukin-15 Fusion Protein BJ-001": "A human fusion protein composed of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 linked with an integrins-targeting moiety, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, the integrins-targeting moiety of BJ-001 targets tumor cells that overexpress integrins such as alpha v beta 3 (avb3), alpha v beta 5 (avb5) and alpha v beta 6 (avb6) and the IL-15 moiety binds to the IL-2/IL-15 receptor beta-common gamma chain (IL-2Rbetagamma) receptor on natural killer (NK) cells and CD8+ T-lymphocytes. This activates and increases the levels of NK cells and memory CD8+ T-cells. The memory T-cells enhance the secretion of the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), which further potentiates the immune response against tumor cells. This may increase tumor cell killing and decrease tumor cell proliferation. IL-15 regulates CD8+ T- and NK cell development, activation and proliferation. Integrins are involved in tumor growth, angiogenesis, and metastasis and they are overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types. The linkage of the two moieties may limit the effects of IL-15 to the local tumor microenvironment (TME), increasing efficacy while reducing systemic toxicities.", + "Interleukin-15/Interleukin-15 Receptor Alpha Complex-Fc Fusion Protein XmAb24306": "An interleukin (IL)-15/IL-15-receptor alpha (IL-15Ra) complex fused to a bispecific Fc domain, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, XmAb24306 stimulates the proliferation of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-cells. The memory T-cells enhance the secretion of the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), which further potentiates the immune response against tumor cells. This may increase tumor cell killing and decrease tumor cell proliferation. IL-15 regulates CD8+ T and NK cell development, activation and proliferation. XmAb24306 does not require endogenous IL-15Ra for its activation.", + "Interleukin-15/Interleukin-15 Receptor Alpha Sushi+ Domain Fusion Protein SO-C101": "A human fusion protein consisting of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 and the high-affinity binding sushi+ domain of IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra), with potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, SO-C101 activates and increases the levels of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-cells. The memory T-cells enhance the secretion of the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), which further potentiates the immune response against tumor cells. This may increase tumor cell killing and decrease tumor cell proliferation. IL-15 regulates CD8+ T and NK cell development, activation and proliferation. SO-C101 is more potent than unmodified IL-15 and does not require endogenous IL-15Ra for its action.", + "Intermediate-affinity Interleukin-2 Receptor Agonist ALKS 4230": "", + "Intetumumab": "", + "Intiquinatine": "", + "Intoplicine": "", + "Inulin": "", + "Iobenguane I-131": "", + "Iodine I 124 Monoclonal Antibody A33": "", + "Iodine I 124 Monoclonal Antibody M5A": "", + "Iodine I 125-Anti-EGFR-425 Monoclonal Antibody": "", + "Iodine I 131 Anti-Fibronectin Antibody Fragment L19-SIP": "", + "Iodine I 131 Apamistamab": "A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of BC8, a murine IgG1 anti-CD45 monoclonal antibody labeled with iodine 131 (I-131), with radioimmunotherapeutic properties. Using monoclonal antibody BC8 as a carrier for I-131 results in the targeted destruction of cells expressing CD45. CD45 is tyrosine phosphatase expressed on virtually all leukocytes, including myeloid and lymphoid precursors in bone marrow and mature lymphocytes in lymph nodes; it is also expressed on most myeloid and lymphoid leukemic cells, but not on mature erythrocytes or platelets. (NCI04)", + "Iodine I 131 Derlotuximab Biotin": "", + "Iodine I 131 Ethiodized Oil": "", + "Iodine I 131 IPA": "A radioconjugate consisting of the tumor-specific amino acid derivative 4-iodo-L-phenylalanine labeled with iodine I 131, a beta emitting radionuclide, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, iodine I 131 IPA actively crosses the blood-brain barrier and accumulates specifically in gliomas, via the amino acid transport system l-amino acid transporter 1 (LAT1) over-expressed in malignant glioma cells. where it delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation. Cells that are exposed to radiation may also release potent toxins into the intracellular environment, leading to radiation-induced biological bystander effects (RIBBE) and killing cells not directly exposed to the radiation. Iodine I 131 IPA may also act synergistically with external irradiation due to its radiosensitizing property.", + "Iodine I 131 MIP-1095": "", + "Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody 81C6": "", + "Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody BC8": "", + "Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody CC49-deltaCH2": "", + "Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody F16SIP": "", + "Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody G-250": "", + "Iodine I 131 Monoclonal Antibody muJ591": "", + "Iodine I 131 Omburtamab": "", + "Iodine I 131 Rituximab": "", + "Iodine I 131 Tenatumomab": "", + "Iodine I 131 TM-601": "", + "Iodine I 131 Tositumomab": "", + "Iodine I-131": "", + "Ioflubenzamide I-131": "", + "Ionomycin": "", + "Ipafricept": "", + "Ipatasertib": "", + "Ipilimumab": "", + "Ipomeanol": "", + "Iproplatin": "", + "iPSC-derived CD16-expressing Natural Killer Cells FT516": "", + "iPSC-derived CD16/IL-15RF-expressing Anti-CD19 CAR-NK Cells FT596": "An allogeneic, off-the-shelf, chimeric antigen receptor (CAR)-natural killer (NK) cell product derived from a clonal master induced pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) line, and engineered to express a NK cell-specific anti-CD19 CAR, a high-affinity, non-cleavable CD16 (hnCD16) Fc receptor, and a recombinant fusion of IL-15 and IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15RF), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, iPSC-derived CD16/IL-15RF-expressing Anti-CD19 CAR-NK Cells FT596 recognize, bind to and induce selective cytotoxicity in CD19-expressing tumor cells. IL-15RF enhances the cytotoxic effect of the NK cells and the activated anti-tumor T-cells. When used in combination with monoclonal antibodies, the hnCD16 Fc receptor of FT596 binds to the Fc portion of tumor cell-bound monoclonal antibodies, leading to NK cell activation, cytokine secretion and enhanced antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). CD19 antigen is a B-cell specific cell surface antigen expressed in all B-cell lineage malignancies. CD16, also known as Fc-gamma receptor III, is normally expressed on the surface of NK cells, neutrophils, monocytes and macrophages, and plays a key role in initiating ADCC. It is often downregulated in certain cancers, thereby inhibiting the anti-tumor immune response.", + "iPSC-derived Natural Killer Cells FT500": "", + "IRAK4 Inhibitor CA-4948": "", + "Iratumumab": "", + "Iridium Ir 192": "", + "Irinotecan": "", + "Irinotecan Hydrochloride": "", + "Irinotecan Sucrosofate": "A liposomal formulation of the semisynthetic camptothecin analogue irinotecan with potential antineoplastic activity. During the S phase of the cell cycle, irinotecan selectively stabilizes topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes, inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing lethal double-strand DNA breaks when complexes are encountered by the DNA replication machinery. Liposome encapsulation of this agent promotes efficient drug delivery into the cytosol from the endosome compartment of the cell.", + "Irinotecan-Eluting Beads": "", + "Irinotecan/P-glycoprotein Inhibitor HM30181AK Combination Tablet": "", + "Irofulven": "", + "Iroplact": "A recombinant form of the endogenous chemokine platelet factor 4 with potential antiangiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. As a heparin-binding tetramer, iroplact inhibits growth factor-stimulated endothelial cell proliferation, migration, and angiogenesis; it has been shown that this agent inhibits fibroblast growth factor 2 (FGF2) angiogenic activity downstream from the FGF2 receptor. Its activity is antagonized by heparin. Recombinant platelet factor 4 may also directly inhibit the proliferation of some tumor cell types.", + "Irosustat": "", + "Irradiated Allogeneic Human Lung Cancer Cells Expressing OX40L-Ig Vaccine HS-130": "An allogeneic irradiated human lung cancer cell vaccine expressing a fusion protein composed of the OX40 ligand (OX40L) linked to an immunoglobulin (Ig) (OX40L-Ig), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal administration of irradiated allogeneic human lung cancer cells expressing OX40L-Ig vaccine HS-130, the irradiated lung cancer cells continuously express OX40L-Ig. OX40L may then target, bind to and activate its cognate receptor, tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4 (TNFRSF4; OX40; CD134), which is expressed on activated T-cells. OX40L/OX40 binding promotes increased cytokine production, and induces the proliferation and activation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes against the human lung cancer cells. In turn, this promotes a CTL-mediated immune response against the endogenous lung cancer cells. OX40L, a cell surface glycoprotein and member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) ligand family, provides a co-stimulatory signal for the proliferation and survival of activated T-cells.", + "Isatuximab": "", + "Iso-fludelone": "", + "Isobrucein B": "", + "Isocoumarin NM-3": "", + "Isotretinoin": "", + "Ispinesib": "", + "Ispinesib Mesylate": "", + "ISS 1018 CpG Oligodeoxynucleotide": "", + "Istiratumab": "A bispecific monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor ErbB3 (Her3) and the human insulin-like growth factor-1 receptor (IGF-1R), with potential antineoplastic activity. The anti-IGF-1R targeting arm of Istiratumab binds to IGF-1R on tumor cells thereby preventing the binding of the natural ligands IGF-1, 2 and heregulin (HRG) to IGF-1R; the anti-ErbB3 therapeutic arm prevents the binding of neuregulin (NRG) to ErbB3. This prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signal transduction pathway and may result in both the induction of apoptosis and a decrease in cellular proliferation in IGF-1R and ErbB3-overexpressing tumor cells. IGF-1R, a receptor tyrosine kinase of the insulin receptor superfamily, and ErB3, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, are frequently overexpressed in solid tumors.", + "Itacitinib": "", + "Itacitinib Adipate": "", + "ITK Inhibitor CPI-818": "", + "Itraconazole": "", + "Itraconazole Dispersion In Polymer Matrix": "", + "Ivaltinostat": "A histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Ivaltinosta tinhibits the catalytic activity of HDAC, resulting in an accumulation of highly acetylated chromatin histones, followed by the induction of chromatin remodeling and an altered pattern of gene expression. In particular, this agent enhances the histone acetylation of the tumor suppressor gene p53. This results in an accumulation of p53, p53-dependent transactivation and apoptosis in tumor cells. HDAC, an enzyme upregulated in many tumor types, deacetylates chromatin histone proteins.", + "Ivosidenib": "", + "Ivuxolimab": "An agonistic antibody that recognizes the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory activity. Upon administration, ivuxolimab selectively binds to and activates OX40; which induces proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes. In the presence of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), this may promote a T-cell-mediated immune response against TAA-expressing tumor cells. OX40, a cell surface glycoprotein and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF), is expressed on T-lymphocytes and plays an essential role in T-cell activation.", + "Ixabepilone": "", + "Ixazomib": "", + "Ixazomib Citrate": "", + "JAK1 Inhibitor AZD4205": "", + "JAK1 Inhibitor INCB052793": "", + "JAK2 Inhibitor AZD1480": "", + "JAK2 Inhibitor BMS-911543": "", + "JAK2 Inhibitor XL019": "", + "JAK2/Src Inhibitor NS-018": "", + "JAK Inhibitor": "Any agent that targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of one or more of the Janus kinase family of enzymes.", + "JAK Inhibitor INCB047986": "", + "Jin Fu Kang": "", + "JNK Inhibitor CC-401": "", + "Kanglaite": "", + "Kanitinib": "A tyrosine kinase inhibitor targeting the oncoprotein c-Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR; MET) and vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, kanitinib targets and binds to c-Met and VEGFR2, thereby disrupting c-Met- and VEGFR2-dependent signal transduction pathways. This may induce cell death in tumor cells overexpressing c-Met and/or VEGFR2 protein. c-Met and VEGFR2 are both overexpressed in many tumor cell types and play key roles in tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion, metastasis, and tumor angiogenesis.", + "Ketoconazole": "", + "Ketotrexate": "", + "KRAS G12C Inhibitor GDC-6036": "An orally available inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, KRAS G12C inhibitor GDC-6036 selectively targets the KRAS G12C mutant and inhibits KRAS G12C mutant-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction leading to tumor cell growth, proliferation, invasion, and metastasis.", + "KRAS G12C Inhibitor LY3499446": "An orally available inhibitor of the oncogenic KRAS substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LY3499446 targets and covalently binds to cytosine 12 within the switch II pocket of GDP-bound KRAS G12C, thereby inhibiting mutant KRAS-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction leading to tumor cell growth, proliferation, invasion, and metastasis.", + "KRAS G12C Inhibitor MRTX849": "", + "KRAS Mutant-targeting AMG 510": "", + "KRAS-MAPK Signaling Pathway Inhibitor JAB-3312": "", + "KRASG12C Inhibitor JNJ-74699157": "An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the oncogenic Kirsten rat sarcoma virus homolog KRAS glycine-to-cysteine substitution mutation, G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration JNJ-74699157 targets and binds to cytosine 12 within the switch II pocket of GDP-bound KRAS G12C, thereby inhibiting mutant KRAS-dependent signaling. KRAS, a member of the RAS family of oncogenes, serves an important role in cell signaling, division and differentiation. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction leading to tumor cell growth, proliferation, invasion, and metastasis.", + "KRN5500": "", + "KSP Inhibitor AZD4877": "", + "KSP Inhibitor SB-743921": "", + "Kunecatechins Ointment": "", + "L-Gossypol": "", + "L-methylfolate": "", + "Labetuzumab Govitecan": "", + "Lactoferrin-derived Lytic Peptide LTX-315": "", + "Lacutamab": "", + "Ladiratuzumab Vedotin": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the anti-solute carrier family 39 zinc transporter member 6 (SLC39A6; LIV-1; ZIP6) protein that is conjugated, via a protease-cleavable linker, to the cytotoxic agent monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration and internalization by LIV-1-positive tumor cells, ladiratuzumab vedotin undergoes enzymatic cleavage to release MMAE into the cytosol. In turn, MMAE binds to and inhibits tubulin polymerization, which may result in G2/M phase cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in LIV-1-expressing tumor cells. LIV-1, a member of the zinc transporter family, is expressed in several types of solid tumors and plays a key role in tumor cell progression and metastasis. The linkage system in ladiratuzumab vedotin is highly stable in plasma, resulting in cytotoxic specificity against LIV-1-positive cells.", + "Ladirubicin": "", + "Laetrile": "", + "LAIR-2 Fusion Protein NC410": "A fusion protein of leukocyte-associated immunoglobulin (Ig)-like receptor (LAIR)-2, a high-affinity collagen receptor, with potential immunomodulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, LAIR-2 fusion protein NC410 binds to the ligand collagen of LAIR-1 (CD305), thereby blocking the binding of LAIR-1 to its ligand collagen and inhibiting LAIR-1-mediated immune suppression. This may result in enhanced T-cell and dendritic cell (DC) activities, and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) and anti-tumor immune responses. LAIR-1, a collagen-receptor and an inhibitory immune receptor belonging to the Ig superfamily, is expressed on many peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) including T-cells and DCs.", + "Landogrozumab": "A monoclonal antibody against myostatin (MSTN) with potential anti-cachexia activity. Upon administration, landogrozumab binds to and neutralizes the MSTN protein, thereby blocking the MSTN signalling pathway. This may help decrease muscle protein breakdown and muscle weakness and may attenuate cancer cachexia. MSTN, a member of the transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) superfamily, is a negative regulator of muscle growth and development.", + "Laniquidar": "", + "Lanreotide Acetate": "", + "Lapachone": "", + "Lapatinib": "", + "Lapatinib Ditosylate": "", + "Laprituximab Emtansine": "A targeted antibody payload (TAP)-based immunoconjugate consisting of a human monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) conjugated, via a nonreducible thioether linker (succinimidyl trans-4-(maleimidylmethyl)cyclohexane-1-carboxylate or SMCC), to the cytotoxic agent maytansinoid mertansine (DM1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of laprituximab emtansine binds to and inhibits EGFR on tumor cell surfaces. Inhibition of EGFR prevents EGFR-mediated signaling and may inhibit tumor cell proliferation. After internalization, the mertansine moiety binds to tubulin and interferes with microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics. This inhibits both cell division and the proliferation of cancer cells that express EGFR. EGFR, overexpressed by a variety of cancers, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and survival. Linkage of the antibody and drug, through a nonreducible linker, appears to contribute to the improved efficacy and reduced toxicity of this antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) compared to similar ADCs constructed with reducible linkers.", + "Lapuleucel-T": "", + "Laromustine": "", + "Larotaxel": "", + "Larotinib Mesylate": "The mesylate salt form of larotinib, a reversible pan-ErbB inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, larotinib binds to and inhibits ErbB tyrosine receptor kinases, which may result in the inhibition of cellular proliferation and angiogenesis in tumors expressing ErbB. The ErbB protein family, also called the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family, plays major roles in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization.", + "Larotrectinib": "", + "Larotrectinib Sulfate": "", + "Lavendustin A": "", + "Lazertinib": "", + "Lead Pb 212 TCMC-trastuzumab": "", + "Lefitolimod": "", + "Leflunomide": "", + "Lenalidomide": "", + "Lenalidomide Analog KPG-121": "", + "Lentinan": "", + "Lenvatinib": "", + "Lenvatinib Mesylate": "", + "Lenzilumab": "", + "Lerociclib": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) types 4 (CDK4) and 6 (CDK6), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lerociclib selectively inhibits CDK4 and CDK6, which inhibits the phosphorylation of retinoblastoma protein (Rb) early in the G1 phase, prevents CDK-mediated G1-S phase transition and leads to cell cycle arrest. This suppresses DNA replication and decreases tumor cell proliferation. CDK4 and 6 are serine/threonine kinases that are upregulated in many tumor cell types and play a key role in the regulation of both cell cycle progression from the G1-phase into the S-phase and tumor cell proliferation.", + "Lestaurtinib": "", + "Letetresgene Autoleucel": "Human autologous T-lymphocytes transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the cancer-testis antigens (CTAs) NY-ESO-1 and L antigen family member 1 (LAGE-1; Cancer/Testis Antigen 2; CTAG2; CT2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Following leukapheresis, isolation of lymphocytes, expansion ex vivo, transduction, and reintroduction into the patient, letetresgene autoleucel specifically target and bind to NY-ESO-1/LAGE-1-overexpressing tumor cells. This may result in a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated elimination of NY-ESO-1/LAGE-1-positive cancer cells. NY-ESO-1 and LAGE-1, members of the cancer-testis antigen (CTA) family, are overexpressed on the surface of various tumor cell types.", + "Letolizumab": "A dimeric fusion protein composed of the C-terminus of the domain antibody (dAb) BMS2h-572-633 targeting the CD40 ligand (CD40L or CD154) linked to a modified Fc fragment of immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1), with potential immunomodulatory activity. Upon intravenous administration, the peptide moiety of letolizumab specifically targets and binds to CD40L expressed on T-lymphocytes. This prevents the binding of CD40L to its cognate receptor CD40 expressed on B-lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells (DCs). This prevents T-cell mediated proliferation and differentiation of B-cells, and prevents the production of antibodies. By inhibiting both the production of anti-glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa antibodies by B-cells and GPIIb/IIIa-dependent T-cell proliferation, letolizumab may prevent platelet destruction and may increase platelet counts in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). The direct binding of letolizumab to CD40L on platelets further prevents CD40L/CD40-mediated destruction by macrophages and DCs in ITP. The modified Fc domain prevents the binding of letolizumab to the Fc receptor FcgammaRIIA on platelets, thereby preventing FcgammaRIIA-dependent platelet activation and anti-CD40L-induced thromboembolism. CD40L, a transmembrane protein of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) superfamily, is primarily expressed on activated T-cells, but is also expressed on eosinophils, basophils, natural killer (NK) cells, mast cells, platelets and activated endothelial cells.", + "Letrozole": "", + "Leucovorin": "", + "Leucovorin Calcium": "", + "Leuprolide": "", + "Leuprolide Acetate": "", + "Leuprolide Mesylate Injectable Suspension": "", + "Leurubicin": "", + "Levetiracetam": "", + "Levoleucovorin Calcium": "", + "Levothyroxine": "", + "Levothyroxine Sodium": "", + "Lexatumumab": "", + "Lexibulin": "", + "Liarozole": "", + "Liarozole Fumarate": "", + "Liarozole Hydrochloride": "", + "Licartin": "", + "Licorice": "", + "Lifastuzumab Vedotin": "", + "Lifileucel": "A preparation of autologous tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs), with potential antineoplastic activity. TILs are isolated from a patient's tumor tissue, cultured in vitro with high-dose interleukin-2 (lL-2), further selected based on antigen specificity and tumor reactivity, and the selected TILs are subsequently expanded. Upon re-introduction of lifileucel into the patient, the TILs re-infiltrate the tumor, specifically recognize the tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), and initiate tumor cell lysis. IL-2 induces the proliferation and expansion of TILs in vitro.", + "Lifirafenib": "An inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase B-raf (BRAF) and epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Lifirafenib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of BRAF and certain BRAF mutant forms, and EGFR. This prevents BRAF- and EGFR-mediated signaling and inhibits the proliferation of tumor cells that either contain a mutated BRAF gene or express over-activated EGFR. In addition, BGB-283 inhibits mutant forms of the Ras proteins K-RAS and N-RAS. BRAF and EGFR are mutated or upregulated in many tumor cell types.", + "Light-activated AU-011": "", + "Light-Emitting Oncolytic Vaccinia Virus GL-ONC1": "", + "Lilotomab": "A murine immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the CD37 antigen with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lilotomab both activates the immune system to induce an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against CD37-overexpressing tumor cells and induces apoptosis in these tumor cells. CD37 is a transmembrane glycoprotein expressed at high-levels on B-cells and to a lesser extent on T-cells and myeloid cells, and is frequently overexpressed in certain B-cell malignancies.", + "Limonene, (+)-": "", + "Limonene, (+/-)-": "", + "Linifanib": "", + "Linoleyl Carbonate-Paclitaxel": "", + "Linperlisib": "An orally available selective inhibitor of the delta form of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3-kinase subunit delta; PI3K-delta; PI3Kdelta), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration linperlisib selectively binds to and inhibits PI3K-delta and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This decreases proliferation of and induces cell death in PI3K-delta over-expressing tumor cells. PI3K-delta also plays a key role in the B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling pathway and the proliferation of certain hematologic cancer cells. The targeted inhibition of PI3K-delta is designed to preserve PI3K signaling in normal, non-neoplastic cells, thereby minimizing serious side effects.", + "Linrodostat": "", + "Linsitinib": "", + "Lintuzumab": "", + "Liothyronine I-131": "", + "Liothyronine Sodium": "", + "Lipid Encapsulated Anti-PLK1 siRNA TKM-PLK1": "", + "Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulated mRNAs Encoding Human IL-12A/IL-12B MEDI-1191": "", + "Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulated OX40L mRNA-2416": "", + "Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulating Glutathione S-transferase P siRNA NBF-006": "A biodegradable, lyophilized lipid nanoparticle (LNP) encapsulating small interfering ribonucleic acid (siRNA) directed against glutathione S-transferase P (GSTP), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of LNP encapsulating GSTP siRNA NBF-006, the LNP formulation delivers the siRNA particles to the tumor cells where the GSTP siRNA targets and binds to GSTP mRNA. This results in the inhibition of the translation and expression of GSTP and may inhibit proliferation of KRAS-overexpressing tumor cells. GSTP, an enzyme overexpressed in many tumor cell types, is involved in modulating MAP kinase-related cell-signaling pathways.", + "Lipid Nanoparticle Encapsulating mRNAs Encoding Human OX40L/IL-23/IL-36gamma mRNA-2752": "", + "Liposomal Bcl-2 Antisense Oligonucleotide BP1002": "A liposomal-based nanoparticle composed of an uncharged P-ethoxy antisense oligodeoxynucleotide (ODN) targeting Bcl-2 mRNA and incorporated in liposomes, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of liposomal Bcl-2 antisense oligonucleotide BP1002, this agent targets and hybridizes with Bcl-2 mRNA and inhibits the expression of Bcl-2 protein. This may induce tumor cell apoptosis of Bcl2-overexpressing tumor cells and may decrease tumor cell proliferation. Bcl2, a protein involved in regulating programmed cell death, is overexpressed in a wide variety of tumors. It promotes cellular survival and inhibits apoptosis.", + "Liposomal c-raf Antisense Oligonucleotide": "", + "Liposomal Curcumin": "", + "Liposomal Cytarabine": "", + "Liposomal Daunorubicin Citrate": "", + "Liposomal Docetaxel": "", + "Liposomal Eribulin Mesylate": "", + "Liposomal HPV-16 E6/E7 Multipeptide Vaccine PDS0101": "", + "Liposomal Irinotecan": "", + "Liposomal Mitoxantrone Hydrochloride": "", + "Liposomal MUC1/PET-lipid A Vaccine ONT-10": "", + "Liposomal NDDP": "", + "Liposomal Rhenium Re 186": "", + "Liposomal SN-38": "", + "Liposomal Topotecan FF-10850": "", + "Liposomal Vinorelbine": "", + "Liposomal Vinorelbine Tartrate": "", + "Liposome": "", + "Liposome-encapsulated Daunorubicin-Cytarabine": "", + "Liposome-Encapsulated Doxorubicin Citrate": "", + "Liposome-encapsulated miR-34 Mimic MRX34": "", + "Liposome-encapsulated OSI-7904": "", + "Liposome-encapsulated RB94 Plasmid DNA Gene Therapy Agent SGT-94": "", + "Liposome-encapsulated TAAs mRNA Vaccine W_ova1": "A vaccine consisting of messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding three tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) specific for ovarian cancer that are encapsulated in liposomes, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the liposome-encapsulated TAAs mRNA vaccine W_ova1, the liposomes bind to the plasma membrane of cells and release the mRNA into the cells. The mRNA is then translated by ribosomes to produce the TAAs. The TAAs are presented to the immune system which may activate both humoral and cellular immune responses against the ovarian cancer cells expressing these TAAs.", + "Lirilumab": "", + "Lisavanbulin": "", + "Lisocabtagene Maraleucel": "", + "Listeria monocytogenes-LLO-PSA Vaccine ADXS31-142": "", + "Litronesib": "", + "Live-attenuated Double-deleted Listeria monocytogenes Bacteria JNJ-64041809": "", + "Live-Attenuated Listeria Encoding Human Mesothelin Vaccine CRS-207": "", + "Live-attenuated Listeria monocytogenes-encoding EGFRvIII-NY-ESO-1 Vaccine ADU-623": "", + "Liver X Receptor beta Agonist RGX-104": "", + "Lm-tLLO-neoantigens Vaccine ADXS-NEO": "", + "LMB-1 Immunotoxin": "", + "LMB-2 Immunotoxin": "", + "LMB-7 Immunotoxin": "", + "LMB-9 Immunotoxin": "", + "LmddA-LLO-chHER2 Fusion Protein-secreting Live-attenuated Listeria Cancer Vaccine ADXS31-164": "", + "LMP2-specific T Cell Receptor-transduced Autologous T-lymphocytes": "A preparation of autologous T-lymphocytes that have been transduced with a lentiviral vector encoding a T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A02:01/24:02/11:01-restricted Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latent membrane proteins (LMP) 1 and 2, and EBV nuclear antigen 1 (EBNA1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the autologous LMP1/LMP2/EBNA1-specific, HLA-A02:01/24:02/11:01-restricted TCR-expressing T-lymphocytes YT-E001 recognize and bind to HLA-presented EBV peptides, which may promote cell death and inhibit the growth of tumor cells expressing LMP1, LMP2 or EBNA1. LMP1, LMP2, and EBNA1 are expressed in various, EBV-associated malignancies, including nasopharyngeal cancer and EBV-positive Hodgkin lymphoma.", + "LMP7 Inhibitor M3258": "An orally bioavailable, potent, selective, reversible inhibitor of the large multifunctional peptidase 7 (LMP7, Beta5i, PSMB8), a chymotrypsin-like, proteolytic subunit of the immunoproteasome, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LMP7 inhibitor M3258 targets and inhibits the proteolytic activity of the LMP7 subunit of immunoproteasome, thereby blocking its deubiquitylating activity. This blocks the ubiquitin proteasome degradation pathway, prevents the degradation of defective proteins, and leads to an accumulation of poly-ubiquitylated proteins. This induces the unfolded protein response (UPR) and results in both the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and the inhibition of tumor cell growth. Proteasomes are large multi-subunit protease complexes that degrade unneeded or damaged proteins that have been ubiquitinated, thereby restoring protein homeostasis. Unlike the constitutive proteasome, which is expressed in most tissues, immunoproteasome is specifically present in normal and malignant hematopoietic cells, including multiple myeloma. Immunoproteasome degrades ubiquitinated proteins, generates peptides for presentation on MHC class I, and plays a key role in the adaptive immune response and inflammatory diseases.", + "LMP-2:340-349 Peptide Vaccine": "", + "LMP-2:419-427 Peptide Vaccine": "", + "Lobaplatin": "", + "Lodapolimab": "A monoclonal antibody directed against programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) with immune checkpoint inhibitory and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, lodapolimab binds to PD-L1 and prevents the interaction of PD-L1 with its receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1). This inhibits the activation of PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways, which may enhance the T-cell-mediated immune response to neoplasms and reverse T-cell inactivation. PD-L1 is overexpressed by many human cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cells suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. PD-1, a transmembrane protein expressed on activated T-cells, is a negative regulator of the immune system that limits the expansion and survival of CD8+ T-cells.", + "Lometrexol": "", + "Lometrexol Sodium": "", + "Lomustine": "", + "Lonafarnib": "", + "Loncastuximab Tesirine": "", + "Long Peptide Vaccine 7": "", + "Long-acting Release Pasireotide": "", + "Lontucirev": "", + "Lorlatinib": "", + "Lorukafusp alfa": "", + "Lorvotuzumab Mertansine": "", + "Losatuxizumab Vedotin": "", + "Losoxantrone": "", + "Losoxantrone Hydrochloride": "", + "Lovastatin": "", + "LOXL2 Inhibitor PAT-1251": "", + "LRP5 Antagonist BI 905681": "An antagonist of the lipoprotein receptor-related protein (LRP) 5, with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, LRP5 antagonist BI 905681 targets and binds to LRP5, thereby blocking the binding of Wnt ligands to LRP5. This prevents the formation of the serpentine receptor Frizzled (FZD)-Wnt-LRP5 trimeric complex and prevents the inactivation of the beta-catenin degradation complex, which leads to beta-catenin degradation. This inhibits the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway, prevents the beta-catenin-mediated activation of Wnt target genes, and inhibits the proliferation and survival of Wnt/beta-catenin-driven tumor cells. In addition, inhibition of Wnt signaling by BI 905681 prevents Wnt-mediated immune escape, thereby re-activating the immune system, specifically inducing the activation of dendritic cells (DCs) and activation as well as infiltration of cytotoxic T-cells into the tumor tissue. The FZD-Wnt-LRP5 trimeric complex induces phosphorylation of LRP5 intracellular domain leading to inactivation of the beta-catenin degradation complex, allowing beta-catenin accumulation; stabilized beta-catenin enters the nucleus and acts as a transcriptional activator of Wnt target genes. Wnt/beta-catenin signaling plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and survival, and resistance to immunotherapy.", + "LRP5/6 Antagonist BI 905677": "", + "LSD1 Inhibitor CC-90011": "", + "LSD1 Inhibitor GSK2879552": "", + "LSD1 Inhibitor IMG-7289": "", + "LSD1 Inhibitor RO7051790": "", + "LSD1 Inhibitor SYHA1807": "An orally available inhibitor of lysine-specific demethylase 1 (LSD1; KDM1A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LSD1 inhibitor SYHA1807 targets, binds to and inhibits LSD1, a demethylase that suppresses the expression of target genes by converting the di- and mono-methylated forms of lysine at position 4 of histone 3 (H3K4) to mono- and unmethylated H3K4, respectively. LSD1 inhibition enhances H3K4 methylation and increases the expression of tumor suppressor genes. This may lead to an inhibition of cell growth in LSD1-overexpressing tumor cells. In addition, LSD1 demethylates mono- or di-methylated H3K9 which increases gene expression of tumor promoting genes; inhibition of LSD1 promotes H3K9 methylation and decreases transcription of these genes. LSD1 is overexpressed in a number of tumor cell types. LSD1 acts on histone H3 as a transcription co-repressor through demethylation of lysine 4 (H3K4) or as a transcription co-activator through demethylation of lysine 9 (H3K9).", + "Lucanthone": "", + "Lucatumumab": "", + "Lucitanib": "", + "Luminespib": "", + "Luminespib Mesylate": "", + "Lumretuzumab": "An immunoconjugate containing a glycoengineered, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor HER3 (ErbB3), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, lumretuzumab binds to the extracellular domain of HER3 and inhibits HER3 dimerization; thereby, preventing EGFR-dependent signaling. In addition, RO5479599 stimulates the immune system to exert antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). This may decrease proliferation of HER3-overexpressing tumor cells. HER3, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is frequently overexpressed in tumors; it has no active kinase domain but is activated through heterodimerization with other members of the EGFR receptor family, such as HER2.", + "Lung-targeted Immunomodulator QBKPN": "", + "Lupartumab Amadotin": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an antibody against a structural homolog of the urokinase-type plasminogen activator receptor (uPAR) and tumor-associated antigen, C4.4a, and conjugated with a cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, lupartumab amadotin targets and binds to C4.4a-expressing tumor cells. Upon binding and cell entry, the cytotoxic agent kills the tumor cell. C4.4a, a glycolipid-anchored membrane protein and a member of the Ly-6 family, is overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types whereas it is minimally expressed on healthy cells.", + "Lurbinectedin": "", + "Lurtotecan": "", + "Lurtotecan Liposome": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177 Anti-CA19-9 Monoclonal Antibody 5B1": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177 DOTA-biotin": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177 DOTA-N3-CTT1403": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177 DOTA-Tetulomab": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177 Dotatate": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177 Lilotomab-satetraxetan": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177 Monoclonal Antibody CC49": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177 Monoclonal Antibody J591": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177 PP-F11N": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177 Satoreotide Tetraxetan": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177-DOTA-EB-TATE": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177-DTPA-omburtamab": "A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of omburtamab, a murine immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) antibody directed against the surface immunomodulatory glycoprotein human B7-homolog 3 (B7-H3, CD276), conjugated, via the chelating agent diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (DTPA), to the radioisotope lutetium Lu 177, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intracerebroventricular administration of lutetium Lu 177-DTPA-omburtamab, the omburtamab moiety binds to B7-H3 expressed on certain tumor cells. Upon binding, lutetium Lu 177-DTPA-omburtamab delivers a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to B7-H3-expressing cells. B7-H3, a type I transmembrane protein and a member of the B7 co-stimulatory protein superfamily, is overexpressed on certain tumor cell types and on various immune cells but is minimally expressed by normal human tissues. B7-H3 is a negative regulator of T-cell activation; its overexpression plays a key role in immuno-evasion, tumor cell invasion and metastasis, and is correlated with poor prognosis.", + "Lutetium Lu 177-Edotreotide": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177-NeoB": "", + "Lutetium Lu 177-PSMA-617": "", + "Lutetium Lu-177 Capromab": "", + "Lutetium Lu-177 Girentuximab": "", + "Lutetium Lu-177 PSMA-R2": "", + "Lutetium Lu-177 Rituximab": "", + "LV.IL-2/B7.1-Transduced AML Blast Vaccine RFUSIN2-AML1": "", + "Lyophilized Black Raspberry Lozenge": "", + "Lyophilized Black Raspberry Saliva Substitute": "", + "Lysine-specific Demethylase 1 Inhibitor INCB059872": "", + "Lyso-Thermosensitive Liposome Doxorubicin": "", + "Maackia amurensis Seed Lectin": "A preparation of lectin extracted from the seeds of Maackia amurensis, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, Maackia amurensis seed lectin (MASL) may target and bind to podoplanin (PDPN), thereby blocking the activation of PDPN by endogenous ligands. This may inhibit tumor cell growth, migration and metastasis that result from PDPN activation. PDPN, a transmembrane receptor glycoprotein that is overexpressed in some cancer types, promotes tumor cell migration, invasion, and metastasis upon activation by various endogenous ligands.", + "Macimorelin": "", + "Macitentan": "", + "Macrocycle-bridged STING Agonist E7766": "An agonist of macrocycle-bridged stimulator of interferon genes (STING) protein, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, macrocycle-bridged STING agonist (MBSA) E7766 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway, which promotes IKK-related kinase TANK-binding kinase 1 (TBK1) signaling and activates nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) and interferon regulatory factor 3 (IRF3) in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs). Specifically, expression of IFN-beta (IFNb) enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by CD8alpha-positive and CD103-positive dendritic cells (DCs) to cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This results in a CTL-mediated immune response against tumor cells and causes tumor cell lysis. Compared to conventional STING agonists, MBSA E7766 allows for conformational rigidity of the unique macrocycle bridge which enhances its stability and STING affinity, thereby increasing its efficacy.", + "Maekmoondong-tang": "", + "Mafosfamide": "", + "MAGE-10.A2": "", + "MAGE-A1-specific T Cell Receptor-transduced Autologous T-cells": "A preparation of autologous CD4- and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes genetically modified to express a T-cell receptor (TCR) that specifically targets the human melanoma-associated antigen A1 (MAGE-A1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon isolation, transduction, expansion ex vivo, and reintroduction into the patient, the MAGE-A1-specific TCR-transduced autologous T-cells bind to tumor cells expressing MAGE-A1, which may halt the growth of and kill MAGE-A1-expressing cancer cells. MAGE-A1 is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types.", + "MAGE-A3 Multipeptide Vaccine GL-0817": "", + "MAGE-A3 Peptide Vaccine": "", + "MAGE-A3-specific Immunotherapeutic GSK 2132231A": "", + "MAGE-A4-specific TCR Gene-transduced Autologous T Lymphocytes TBI-1201": "", + "Magnesium Valproate": "", + "Magrolimab": "A humanized monoclonal antibody targeting the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, magrolimab selectively binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with its ligand signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa), a protein expressed on phagocytic cells. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling, allows the activation of macrophages, through the induction of pro-phagocytic signaling mediated by calreticulin, which is specifically expressed on the surface of tumor cells, and results in specific tumor cell phagocytosis. In addition, blocking CD47 signaling activates an anti-tumor T-lymphocyte immune response and T-mediated cell killing. CD47, a tumor associated antigen expressed on normal, healthy hematopoietic stem cells (HSC), is overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells. Expression of CD47, and interaction with SIRP-alpha, leads to inhibition of macrophages and protects cancer cells from phagocytosis thereby allowing cancer cells to proliferate.", + "MALT1 Inhibitor JNJ-67856633": "", + "Manelimab": "A monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, manelimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed death 1 (PD-1). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling and enhances the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune response against PD-L1-expressing tumor cells. PD-L1 is overexpressed by many human cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cells suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. PD-1, a transmembrane protein belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily expressed on activated T-cells, is a negative regulator of the immune system that limits the expansion and survival of CD8-positive T-cells.", + "Mannosulfan": "", + "Mannosylerythritol Lipid": "", + "Mapatumumab": "", + "Maraba Oncolytic Virus Expressing Mutant HPV E6/E7": "", + "Marcellomycin": "", + "MARCKS Protein Inhibitor BIO-11006": "", + "Margetuximab": "", + "Marimastat": "", + "Marizomib": "", + "Masitinib Mesylate": "", + "Masoprocol": "", + "MAT2A Inhibitor AG-270": "", + "Matrix Metalloproteinase Inhibitor MMI270": "", + "Matuzumab": "", + "Mavelertinib": "", + "Mavorixafor": "", + "Maytansine": "", + "MCL-1 Inhibitor ABBV-467": "An inhibitor of induced myeloid leukemia cell differentiation protein (myeloid cell leukemia-1; Mcl-1; Bcl2-L-3), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MCL-1 inhibitor ABBV-467 targets and binds to Mcl-1, thereby preventing the binding of Mcl-1 to and inactivation of certain pro-apoptotic proteins. This promotes apoptosis of cells overexpressing Mcl-1. Mcl-1, an anti-apoptotic protein belonging to the B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2) family of proteins, is upregulated in cancer cells and promotes tumor cell survival.", + "MCL-1 Inhibitor AMG 176": "", + "MCL-1 inhibitor AMG 397": "", + "Mcl-1 Inhibitor AZD5991": "", + "Mcl-1 Inhibitor MIK665": "", + "MDM2 Antagonist ASTX295": "", + "MDM2 Antagonist RO5045337": "", + "MDM2 Antagonist RO6839921": "", + "MDM2 Inhibitor AMG-232": "", + "MDM2 Inhibitor AMGMDS3": "An inhibitor of MDM2 (murine double minute 2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MDM2 inhibitor AMGMDS3 binds to the MDM2 protein and prevents its binding to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this MDM2-p53 interaction, the transcriptional activity of p53 is restored. This leads to p53-mediated induction of tumor cell apoptosis. MDM2, a zinc finger protein and a negative regulator of the p53 pathway, is overexpressed in cancer cells; it plays a key role in cancer cell proliferation and survival.", + "MDM2 Inhibitor BI 907828": "", + "MDM2 Inhibitor KRT-232": "", + "MDM2/MDMX Inhibitor ALRN-6924": "", + "MDR Modulator CBT-1": "", + "Mechlorethamine": "", + "Mechlorethamine Hydrochloride": "", + "Mechlorethamine Hydrochloride Gel": "", + "Medorubicin": "", + "Medroxyprogesterone": "", + "Medroxyprogesterone Acetate": "", + "Megestrol Acetate": "", + "MEK 1/2 Inhibitor AS703988/MSC2015103B": "", + "MEK 1/2 Inhibitor FCN-159": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K, MAPK/ERK kinase, or MEK) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MEK 1/2 Inhibitor FCN-159 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK1 and MEK2, preventing the activation of MEK1/2-dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK1/2 are dual-specificity threonine/tyrosine kinases that play key roles in the activation of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathway that regulates cell growth. This pathway is often dysregulated in a variety of tumor cell types through BRAF, KRAS and NRAS mutations.", + "MEK Inhibitor AZD8330": "", + "MEK Inhibitor CI-1040": "", + "MEK inhibitor CS3006": "", + "MEK Inhibitor GDC-0623": "", + "MEK Inhibitor HL-085": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAP2K, MAPK/ERK kinase, or MEK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MEK inhibitor HL-085 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of MEK, preventing the activation of MEK-dependent effector proteins and transcription factors, which may result in the inhibition of growth factor-mediated cell signaling and tumor cell proliferation. MEK, a threonine/tyrosine kinase, plays a key role in the activation of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathway that regulates cell growth. This pathway is often dysregulated in a variety of tumor cell types through BRAF, KRAS and NRAS mutations.", + "MEK Inhibitor PD0325901": "", + "MEK Inhibitor RO4987655": "", + "MEK Inhibitor SHR 7390": "", + "MEK Inhibitor TAK-733": "", + "MEK Inhibitor WX-554": "", + "MEK-1/MEKK-1 Inhibitor E6201": "", + "MEK/Aurora Kinase Inhibitor BI 847325": "", + "Melanoma Monoclonal Antibody hIgG2A": "", + "Melanoma TRP2 CTL Epitope Vaccine SCIB1": "", + "Melapuldencel-T": "", + "MELK Inhibitor OTS167": "", + "Melphalan": "", + "Melphalan Flufenamide": "", + "Melphalan Hydrochloride": "", + "Melphalan Hydrochloride/Sulfobutyl Ether Beta-Cyclodextrin Complex": "", + "Membrane-Disrupting Peptide EP-100": "", + "Menatetrenone": "", + "Menin-MLL Interaction Inhibitor SNDX-5613": "An orally bioavailable protein-protein interaction (PPI) inhibitor of the menin-mixed lineage leukemia (MLL; myeloid/lymphoid leukemia; KMT2A) proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, menin-MLL interaction inhibitor SNDX-5613 targets and binds to the nuclear protein menin, thereby preventing the interaction between the two proteins menin and MLL and the formation of the menin-MLL complex. This reduces the expression of downstream target genes and results in an inhibition of the proliferation of MLL-rearranged leukemic cells. The menin-MLL complex plays a key role in the survival, growth, transformation and proliferation of certain kinds of leukemia cells.", + "Menogaril": "", + "Merbarone": "", + "Mercaptopurine": "", + "Mercaptopurine Anhydrous": "", + "Mercaptopurine Oral Suspension": "", + "Merestinib": "", + "Mesna": "", + "Mesothelin/CD3e Tri-specific T-cell Activating Construct HPN536": "", + "MET Kinase Inhibitor OMO-1": "", + "MET Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor BMS-777607": "", + "MET Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor EMD 1204831": "", + "MET Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor PF-04217903": "", + "MET Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor SAR125844": "", + "MET Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor SGX523": "", + "MET x MET Bispecific Antibody REGN5093": "A bispecific monoclonal antibody that targets two different epitopes of the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) MET (c-MET; hepatocyte growth factor receptor; HGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, MET x MET bispecific antibody REGN5093 targets and binds to two different, non-overlapping epitopes on MET expressed on the tumor cell surface, thereby forming unique REGN5093-MET complexes. The binding of REGN5093 to the MET epitopes and the unique complex formation causes MET internalization and degradation. This prevents MET-mediated signaling and inhibits growth of MET-driven tumor cells. MET, a receptor tyrosine kinase, is overexpressed on the cell surfaces of various solid tumor cell types where it is involved in epithelial-mesenchymal transition; it plays a key role in cancer cell growth, survival, angiogenesis, invasion, and metastasis.", + "Metamelfalan": "", + "MetAP2 Inhibitor APL-1202": "", + "MetAP2 Inhibitor SDX-7320": "", + "Metarrestin": "An orally available small molecule inhibitor of perinucleolar compartment (PNC), with potential antineoplastic activities. Although the exact mechanisms(s) through which this agent exerts its effects have yet to be fully elucidated, upon oral administration, metarrestin disrupts the structure of PNC and inhibits RNA polymerase (Pol) I transcription. This leads to the reduction in the prevalence of PNC in cancer cells and decrease in tumor growth and spread. PNC is a subnuclear structure and a phenotypic marker of metastatic cancer cells. A high PNC prevalence has been associated with disease progression and poor patient outcomes.", + "Metatinib Tromethamine": "", + "Metformin": "", + "Metformin Hydrochloride": "", + "Methanol Extraction Residue of BCG": "", + "Methazolamide": "", + "Methionine Aminopeptidase 2 Inhibitor M8891": "", + "Methionine Aminopeptidase 2 Inhibitor PPI-2458": "", + "Methotrexate": "", + "Methotrexate Sodium": "", + "Methotrexate-E Therapeutic Implant": "", + "Methotrexate-Encapsulating Autologous Tumor-Derived Microparticles": "", + "Methoxsalen": "", + "Methoxyamine": "", + "Methoxyamine Hydrochloride": "", + "Methyl-5-Aminolevulinate Hydrochloride Cream": "", + "Methylcantharidimide": "An orally bioavailable derivative of the terpenoid cantharidin, which is a natural toxin extracted from blister beetles, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanism of action through which methylcantharidimide exerts its effect has yet to be fully elucidated, this agent, upon oral administration, may exert a direct tumor cell killing effect in susceptible tumor cells.", + "Methylmercaptopurine Riboside": "", + "Methylprednisolone": "", + "Methylprednisolone Acetate": "", + "Methylprednisolone Sodium Succinate": "", + "Methylselenocysteine": "", + "Methyltestosterone": "", + "Metoprine": "", + "Mevociclib": "A selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, SY-1365 binds to and inhibits CDK7, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signal transduction pathways. This inhibits cell growth of CDK7-overexpressing tumor cells. CDK7, a serine/threonine kinase, plays a key role in cell proliferation; CDK7 is overexpressed in a variety of tumor cell types.", + "Mezagitamab": "A human, non-agonistic immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein ADP-ribosyl cyclase 1 (CD38) with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Mezagitamab specifically binds to CD38 that is expressed on human plasmablasts, plasma cells, NK cells and activated T- and B-cells. This may trigger antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), cell lysis and depletion of CD38-expressing cells. Additionally, TAK-079 does not induce CD38-dependent signaling and does not promote cytokine activation in peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PMBCs). CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is overexpressed on cells associated with autoimmune diseases and hematologic malignancies.", + "Mibefradil": "", + "Mibefradil Dihydrochloride": "", + "Micellar Nanoparticle-encapsulated Epirubicin": "", + "Micro Needle Array-Doxorubicin": "", + "Microbiome GEN-001": "A microbiome therapeutic composed of a single-strain bacterium, isolated from the gut of healthy donors, with potential anti-tumor and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, the metabolites of GEN-001 may activate dendritic cells and macrophages in the gut and increase the expression of the cytokines interleukin-7 (IL-7) and interleukin-15 (IL-15), which stimulates the proliferation of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-cells. The memory T-cells enhance the secretion of the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), which further potentiates the immune response against tumor cells. This may increase tumor cell killing and decrease tumor cell proliferation. GEN-001 may improve therapeutic responses to other therapies, such as anti-PD-1 therapy.", + "Microbiome-derived Peptide Vaccine EO2401": "A donor-derived, off-the-shelf, microbiome therapeutic cancer peptide vaccine composed of three bacterial onco-mimics, immunogenic microbiome-derived peptides that are highly homologous to tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), that are obtained and selected from the human gut microbiome and are specific for brain tumors, including glioblastoma, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. The three microbiome-derived bacterial antigens in EO2401 mimic three TAAs that are highly expressed by brain tumors. Upon administration of microbiome-derived peptide vaccine EO2401, the peptides are taken up by and presented on dendritic cells (DCs) to T-cells. As the presented antigens display molecular mimicry with selected TAAs on brain cancer cells, a memory T-cell and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response may be mounted against the TAAs expressed on the brain cancer cells, thereby eradicating the brain cancer cells.", + "Microparticle-encapsulated CYP1B1-encoding DNA Vaccine ZYC300": "", + "Microtubule Inhibitor SCB01A": "", + "Midostaurin": "", + "Mifamurtide": "", + "Mifepristone": "", + "Milademetan Tosylate": "", + "Milataxel": "An orally bioavailable taxane with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, milataxel and its major active metabolite M-10 bind to and stabilize tubulin, resulting in the inhibition of microtubule depolymerization and cell division, cell cycle arrest in the G2/M phase, and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Unlike other taxane compounds, milataxel appears to be a poor substrate for the multidrug resistance (MDR) membrane-associated P-glycoprotein (P-gp) efflux pump and may be useful for treating multidrug-resistant tumors.", + "Milatuzumab": "", + "Milatuzumab-Doxorubicin Antibody-Drug Conjugate IMMU-110": "", + "Milciclib Maleate": "", + "Milk Thistle": "", + "Miltefosine": "", + "Minretumomab": "", + "Mipsagargin": "", + "Miptenalimab": "A monoclonal antibody directed against the inhibitory receptor lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein (LAG3; LAG-3), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration,miptenalimab binds to LAG3 expressed on tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) and blocks its binding with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules expressed on tumor cells. This activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which leads to a reduction in tumor growth. LAG3, a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), is expressed on various immune cells, and negatively regulates both proliferation and activation of T-cells. Its expression on TILs is associated with tumor-mediated immune suppression.", + "Mirabegron": "", + "Miransertib": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine protein kinase AKT (protein kinase B) with potential antineoplastic activity. Miransertib binds to and inhibits the activity of AKT in a non-ATP competitive manner, which may result in the inhibition of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This may lead to the reduction in tumor cell proliferation and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. The AKT signaling pathway is often deregulated in cancer and is associated with tumor cell proliferation, survival and migration.", + "Mirdametinib": "An orally bioavailable, synthetic organic molecule targeting mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAPK/ERK kinase or MEK) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, mirdametinib selectively binds to and inhibits MEK, which may result in the inhibition of the phosphorylation and activation of MAPK/ERK and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. The dual specific threonine/tyrosine kinase MEK is a key component of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway that is frequently activated in human tumors.", + "Mirvetuximab Soravtansine": "", + "Mirzotamab Clezutoclax": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of an as of yet undisclosed monoclonal antibody against a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of mirzotamab clezutoclax, the monoclonal antibody moiety of ABBV-155 targets and binds to the TAA expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the TAA-expressing cancer cells, through an as of yet unknown mechanism of action.", + "Misonidazole": "", + "Mistletoe Extract": "", + "Mitazalimab": "A human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface receptor CD40 with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, mitazalimab binds to CD40 on antigen-presenting dendritic cells, which leads to the activation and proliferation of effector and memory T-cells, and enhances the immune response against tumor cells. In addition, this agent binds to the CD40 antigen present on the surfaces of tumor cells, which induces antibody-dependent cytotoxicity (ADCC). This eventually inhibits the proliferation of CD40-expressing tumor cells. CD40, a stimulatory receptor and a member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily, is expressed on various immune cells, such as macrophages, dendritic cells and various tumor cell types; it plays a key role in the activation of the immune system.", + "Mitindomide": "", + "Mitobronitol": "", + "Mitochondrial Oxidative Phosphorylation Inhibitor ATR-101": "", + "Mitoclomine": "", + "Mitoflaxone": "", + "Mitoguazone": "", + "Mitoguazone Dihydrochloride": "", + "Mitolactol": "", + "Mitomycin": "", + "Mitomycin A": "", + "Mitomycin B": "", + "Mitomycin C Analog KW-2149": "", + "Mitosis Inhibitor T 1101 Tosylate": "", + "Mitotane": "", + "Mitotenamine": "", + "Mitoxantrone": "", + "Mitoxantrone Hydrochloride": "", + "Mitozolomide": "", + "Mivavotinib": "", + "Mivebresib": "", + "Mivobulin": "", + "Mivobulin Isethionate": "", + "Mixed Bacteria Vaccine": "", + "MK0731": "", + "MKC-1": "", + "MKNK1 Inhibitor BAY 1143269": "", + "MMP Inhibitor S-3304": "", + "MNK1/2 Inhibitor ETC-1907206": "", + "Mobocertinib": "An orally available inhibitor of specific mutant forms of both human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ERBB2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, mobocertinib specifically and irreversibly binds to and inhibits certain mutant forms of EGFR and HER2. This prevents EGFR- and HER2-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR mutant- and HER2 mutant-expressing tumor cells. EGFR and HER2, receptor tyrosine kinases mutated in many tumor cell types, play key roles in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization.", + "Mocetinostat": "", + "Modakafusp Alfa": "A proprietary preparation composed of an immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) directed against the cell surface glycoprotein CD-38 (CD38) that is fused to an attenuated form of human interferon alpha (IFN alpha; IFNa), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, modakafusp alfa specifically targets and binds to CD38 on CD38-positive tumor cells. In turn, the IFNa moiety binds to cell-surface IFN receptors, and activates IFN-mediated signal transduction pathways, which results in the transcription and translation of genes whose products may cause antiproliferative effects in CD38-positive tumor cells. CD38, a type II transmembrane glycoprotein, is present on various immune cells and hematologic malignancies, and its expression has been correlated with poor prognosis.", + "Modified Vaccinia Ankara-vectored HPV16/18 Vaccine JNJ-65195208": "A booster cancer vaccine comprised of a modified, replication-defective, vaccinia virus Ankara (MVA) Bavarian Nordic (MVA-BN) strain encoding the oncogenic human papillomavirus types 16 (HPV16) and 18 (HPV18), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intramuscular administration of MVA-vectored HPV16/18 vaccine JNJ-65195208, and after the administration of the prime vaccine(s) adenovirus serotype 26 (Ad26)-expressing HPV16 vaccine JNJ-63682918 and/or Ad26-expressing HPV18 vaccine JNJ-63682931, this vaccine further stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing HPV16/18 proteins, resulting in tumor cell lysis. HPV16/18 infection plays a key role in the development of a variety of cancers.", + "Modified Vitamin D Binding Protein Macrophage Activator EF-022": "", + "Modotuximab": "", + "MOF Compound RiMO-301": "", + "Mofarotene": "", + "Mogamulizumab": "", + "Molibresib": "", + "Molibresib Besylate": "", + "Momelotinib": "", + "Monalizumab": "", + "Monocarboxylate Transporter 1 Inhibitor AZD3965": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 1F5": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 3F8": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 3H1 Anti-Idiotype Vaccine": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 4B5 Anti-Idiotype Vaccine": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 7C11": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 11D10": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 11D10 Anti-Idiotype Vaccine": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 14G2A": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 81C6": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 105AD7 Anti-idiotype Vaccine": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody 3622W94": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody A1G4 Anti-Idiotype Vaccine": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody A27.15": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody A33": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody AbGn-7": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody AK002": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody ASP1948": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody CAL": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody CC49-delta CH2": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody CEP-37250/KHK2804": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody D6.12": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody E2.3": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody F19": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody GD2 Anti-Idiotype Vaccine": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody HeFi-1": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody Hu3S193": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody HuAFP31": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody HuHMFG1": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody huJ591": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody HuPAM4": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody IMMU-14": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody L6": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody Lym-1": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody m170": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody Me1-14 F(ab')2": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody muJ591": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody MX35 F(ab')2": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody NEO-201": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody R24": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody RAV12": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody SGN-14": "", + "Monoclonal Antibody TRK-950": "", + "Monoclonal Microbial EDP1503": "", + "Monoclonal T-cell Receptor Anti-CD3 scFv Fusion Protein IMCgp100": "", + "Monomethyl Auristatin E": "", + "Morinda Citrifolia Fruit Extract": "", + "Morpholinodoxorubicin": "", + "Mosedipimod": "", + "Mosunetuzumab": "", + "Motesanib": "", + "Motesanib Diphosphate": "", + "Motexafin Gadolinium": "", + "Motexafin Lutetium": "", + "Motixafortide": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of CXC Chemokine Receptor 4 (CXCR4) with potential antineoplastic activity. CXCR4 antagonist BL-8040 selectively binds to the chemokine receptor CXCR4, preventing the binding of stromal derived factor 1 (SDF-1 or CXCL12) to the CXCR4 receptor and subsequent receptor activation, which may result in decreased tumor cell proliferation and migration. In addition, inhibition of CXCR4 may induce mobilization of hematopoietic cells from the bone marrow into blood. The G protein-coupled receptor CXCR4 plays an important role in chemotaxis and angiogenesis and is upregulated in several tumor cell types; SDF-1/CXCR4 interaction induces retention of hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow.", + "Motolimod": "", + "MOv-gamma Chimeric Receptor Gene": "", + "Moxetumomab Pasudotox": "", + "Mps1 Inhibitor BAY 1217389": "", + "Mps1 Inhibitor BOS172722": "", + "mRNA-based Personalized Cancer Vaccine mRNA-4157": "", + "mRNA-based Personalized Cancer Vaccine NCI-4650": "", + "mRNA-based TriMix Melanoma Vaccine ECI-006": "", + "mRNA-based Tumor-specific Neoantigen Boosting Vaccine GRT-R902": "", + "mRNA-derived KRAS-targeted Vaccine V941": "", + "mRNA-derived Lung Cancer Vaccine BI 1361849": "", + "mRNA-Derived Prostate Cancer Vaccine CV9103": "", + "mRNA-derived Prostate Cancer Vaccine CV9104": "", + "MTF-1 Inhibitor APTO-253 HCl": "", + "mTOR1/2 Kinase Inhibitor ME-344": "", + "mTOR Inhibitor GDC-0349": "", + "mTOR Kinase Inhibitor AZD8055": "", + "mTOR Kinase Inhibitor CC-223": "", + "mTOR Kinase Inhibitor OSI-027": "", + "mTOR Kinase Inhibitor PP242": "", + "mTORC1/2 Kinase Inhibitor BI 860585": "", + "mTORC1/mTORC2/DHFR Inhibitor ABTL0812": "", + "mTORC 1/2 Inhibitor LXI-15029": "", + "MUC1-targeted Peptide GO-203-2C": "", + "MUC-1/WT1 Peptide-primed Autologous Dendritic Cells": "A cell-based cancer vaccine composed of autologous monocyte-derived dendritic cells (DCs) loaded with the human tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) mucin-1 (MUC1) and Wilms tumor protein 1 (WT1), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon vaccination, the MUC-1/WT1 peptide-primed autologous DCs expose the immune system to MUC1 and WT1 peptides and may stimulate the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against MUC1 and WT1-expressing cancer cells, which could result in cancer cell lysis. MUC1 and WT1, are overexpressed in a variety of tumor types and play an important role in tumor cell proliferation.", + "Mucoadhesive Paclitaxel Formulation": "", + "Multi-AGC Kinase Inhibitor AT13148": "", + "Multi-epitope Anti-folate Receptor Peptide Vaccine TPIV 200": "", + "Multi-epitope HER2 Peptide Vaccine H2NVAC": "", + "Multi-epitope HER2 Peptide Vaccine TPIV100": "A cancer peptide vaccine comprised of four peptides derived from the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) HER-2/neu (ErbB-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the multi-epitope HER2 peptide vaccine TPIV100, the four peptides may induce a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells expressing the HER-2/neu antigen, which may result in the inhibition of proliferation in Her-2/neu-expressing tumor cells. Her-2/neu, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of tyrosine kinases, is overexpressed in various tumor cell types. To enhance immunity, the peptides are admixed with the adjuvant granulocyte macrophage-colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF).", + "Multi-glioblastoma-peptide-targeting Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine ICT-107": "", + "Multi-kinase Inhibitor TPX-0022": "", + "Multi-kinase Inhibitor XL092": "", + "Multi-mode Kinase Inhibitor EOC317": "", + "Multi-neo-epitope Vaccine OSE 2101": "", + "Multifunctional/Multitargeted Anticancer Agent OMN54": "", + "Multikinase Inhibitor 4SC-203": "", + "Multikinase Inhibitor AEE788": "", + "Multikinase Inhibitor AT9283": "", + "Multikinase Inhibitor SAR103168": "", + "Multipeptide Vaccine S-588210": "", + "Multitargeted Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor JNJ-26483327": "", + "Muparfostat": "", + "Mureletecan": "", + "Murizatoclax": "An inhibitor of induced myeloid leukemia cell differentiation protein (myeloid cell leukemia-1; Mcl-1; Bcl2-L-3), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, MCL-1 inhibitor AMG 397 targets and binds to Mcl-1, thereby preventing the binding of Mcl-1 to and inactivation of certain pro-apoptotic proteins. This promotes apoptosis of cells overexpressing Mcl-1. Mcl-1, an anti-apoptotic protein belonging to the B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2) family of proteins, is upregulated in cancer cells and promotes tumor cell survival.", + "Muscadine Grape Extract": "An extract derived from the Muscadine grape (Vitis rotundifolia), with potential anti-inflammatory, antioxidant, anti-lipidemic and chemopreventive activities. The muscadine grape extract (MGE) contains numerous phytochemicals including hydrolyzable tannins and flavonoids, such as resveratrol, anthocyanin 3,5-diglucosides, quercetin, ellagic acid, myricetin, and kaempferol glycosides. Upon administration, the active components in the MGE scavenge free radicals, protect against oxidation of low-density lipoprotein (LDL), and inhibit cell damage due to reactive oxygen species (ROS). This inhibits oxidative stress and protects against DNA damage. MGE also inhibits enzymes involved in inflammation, cell replication and DNA synthesis, and induces the expression of anti-oxidant enzymes. The active ingredients may also inhibit certain signaling pathways upregulated in some tumor cell types, eventually leading to apoptosis and a reduction in tumor cell proliferation. MGE may also boost energy and prevent fatigue.", + "Mutant IDH1 Inhibitor DS-1001": "", + "Mutant p53 Activator COTI-2": "", + "Mutant-selective EGFR Inhibitor PF-06459988": "", + "MVA Tumor-specific Neoantigen Boosting Vaccine MVA-209-FSP": "", + "MVA-BN Smallpox Vaccine": "A vaccine consisting of modified vaccinia Ankara-Bavarian Nordic (MVA-BN), a live, attenuated, non-replicating, proprietary version of the MVA virus, used for the prevention of smallpox and monkeypox, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intratumoral administration, MVA-BN smallpox vaccine may induce both cellular and humoral immune responses, which may lead to tumor cell lysis.", + "MVA-FCU1 TG4023": "", + "MVX-1-loaded Macrocapsule/autologous Tumor Cell Vaccine MVX-ONCO-1": "", + "MYC-targeting siRNA DCR-MYC": "", + "Mycobacterium tuberculosis Arabinomannan Z-100": "", + "Mycobacterium w": "", + "Mycophenolic Acid": "", + "N,N-Dibenzyl Daunomycin": "", + "N-(5-tert-butyl-3-isoxazolyl)-N-(4-(4-pyridinyl)oxyphenyl) Urea": "", + "N-dihydrogalactochitosan": "A carbohyrate polymer in which galactose molecules are attached to the amino groups of the glucosamine polymer chitosan, with potential imunostimulating activity. After a tumor ablation and upon intratumoral injection directly into the location of the ablated tumor, N-dihydrogalactochitosan may trigger a tumor-specific systemic immune response when exposed to tumor-associated neoantigens that are liberated by tumor ablation. This may kill tumor cells.", + "N-Methylformamide": "", + "NA17-A Antigen": "", + "NA17.A2 Peptide Vaccine": "", + "Nab-paclitaxel": "", + "Nab-paclitaxel/Rituximab-coated Nanoparticle AR160": "", + "Nadofaragene Firadenovec": "", + "Nagrestipen": "A recombinant form of a human macrophage inflammatory protein-1 alpha (MIP1-alpha) with a substitution of aspartate to alanine at position 26, with potential immunomodulating and radiotherapy potentiating activity. Intravenous administration of nagrestipen after local tumor irradiation enhances the anti-tumor effect of ionizing radiation at the irradiated site as well as the antitumor effect at non-irradiated tumor sites (known as the abscopal effect). The abscopal effect appears to be attributed to this agent's ability to recruit and activate leukocytes, such as monocytes, dendritic cells, natural killer cells and T lymphocytes, thereby initiating an anti-tumor immune response against cancer cells. MIP1-alpha, also known as chemokine (C-C motif) ligand 3, is a ligand for the chemokine receptors CCR1, CCR4 and CCR5 that are involved in immune and inflammatory responses.", + "Namirotene": "", + "Namodenoson": "", + "NAMPT Inhibitor OT-82": "", + "Nanafrocin": "", + "Nanatinostat": "", + "Nanocell-encapsulated miR-16-based microRNA Mimic": "", + "Nanoparticle Albumin-Bound Docetaxel": "", + "Nanoparticle Albumin-Bound Rapamycin": "", + "Nanoparticle Albumin-bound Thiocolchicine Dimer nab-5404": "", + "Nanoparticle Paclitaxel Ointment SOR007": "", + "Nanoparticle-based Paclitaxel Suspension": "", + "Nanoparticle-encapsulated Doxorubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Nanoscale Coordination Polymer Nanoparticles CPI-100": "", + "Nanosomal Docetaxel Lipid Suspension": "", + "Napabucasin": "", + "Naphthalimide Analogue UNBS5162": "", + "Naptumomab Estafenatox": "", + "Naquotinib": "", + "Naratuximab Emtansine": "An immunoconjugate that consists of a humanized IgG1 antibody K7153A against the cell-surface antigen CD37 and covalently linked via the uncleavable, maleimide-derived thioether-based linker SMCC to the maytansinoid DM1, with potential pro-apoptotic and cytotoxic activities. Upon administration of naratuximab emtansine, the antibody moiety of IMGN529 binds to CD37 on tumor B-cells and induces an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC), thereby showing pro-apoptotic activity. In addition, after the internalization of this agent and lysosomal degradation, the DM1 moiety binds to tubulin and inhibits tubulin polymerization and microtubule assembly, resulting in a disruption of microtubule activity and cell division, and eventually causing cell death in CD37-positive B-cells. CD37, a transmembrane glycoprotein, is overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. Compared to reducible, cleavable linkers, the non-reducible SMCC linker shows increased stability in plasma.", + "Narnatumab": "", + "Natalizumab": "", + "Natural IFN-alpha OPC-18": "", + "Natural Killer Cells ZRx101": "", + "Navarixin": "", + "Navicixizumab": "A bispecific monoclonal antibody directed against both the Notch ligand delta-like 4 (DLL4) and the human tyrosine kinase vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. The anti-DLL4 moiety of navicixizumab specifically binds to DLL4, prevents its interaction with Notch receptors, and inhibits Notch-mediated signaling and gene transcription, which may both block tumor angiogenesis and inhibit tumor cell growth. The anti-VEGF moiety binds to VEGF and prevents the binding of VEGF to its receptor, which blocks VEGF-mediated signaling and further inhibits the growth and maintenance of tumor blood vessels. The expression of DLL4 is highly restricted to the vascular endothelium; DLL4/Notch signaling is required for the development of functional tumor blood vessels. The expression of the pro-angiogenic growth factor VEGF is associated with tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation and invasion.", + "Navitoclax": "", + "Navoximod": "", + "Navy Bean Powder": "", + "Naxitamab": "", + "Nazartinib": "", + "ncmtRNA Oligonucleotide Andes-1537": "", + "Necitumumab": "", + "Nedaplatin": "", + "NEDD8 Activating Enzyme E1 Inhibitor TAS4464": "", + "Nedisertib": "", + "Nelarabine": "", + "Nelipepimut-S": "", + "Nelipepimut-S Plus GM-CSF Vaccine": "", + "Nemorubicin": "", + "Nemorubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Neoantigen Vaccine GEN-009": "", + "Neoantigen-based Glioblastoma Vaccine": "", + "Neoantigen-based Melanoma-Poly-ICLC Vaccine": "", + "Neoantigen-based Renal Cell Carcinoma-Poly-ICLC Vaccine": "", + "Neoantigen-based Therapeutic Cancer Vaccine GRT-C903": "", + "Neoantigen-based Therapeutic Cancer Vaccine GRT-R904": "", + "Neoantigen-HSP70 Peptide Cancer Vaccine AGEN2017": "", + "Neratinib": "", + "Neratinib Maleate": "", + "Nesvacumab": "", + "NG-nitro-L-arginine": "", + "Niacinamide": "", + "Niclosamide": "", + "Nicotinamide Riboside": "", + "Nidanilimab": "", + "Nifurtimox": "", + "Nilotinib": "", + "Nilotinib Hydrochloride Anhydrous": "", + "Nilotinib Hydrochloride Monohydrate": "", + "Nilutamide": "", + "Nimesulide-Hyaluronic Acid Conjugate CA102N": "", + "Nimodipine": "", + "Nimotuzumab": "", + "Nimustine": "", + "Nimustine Hydrochloride": "", + "Ningetinib Tosylate": "", + "Nintedanib": "", + "Niraparib": "", + "Niraparib Tosylate Monohydrate": "", + "Nirogacestat": "", + "Nitric Oxide-Releasing Acetylsalicylic Acid Derivative": "", + "Nitrogen Mustard Prodrug PR-104": "", + "Nitroglycerin Transdermal Patch": "", + "Nivolumab": "", + "NLRP3 Agonist BMS-986299": "", + "Nocodazole": "", + "Nogalamycin": "", + "Nogapendekin Alfa": "A fusion protein complex composed of a mutated form of the cytokine interleukin (IL)-15 (IL-15N72D) and a soluble, dimeric IL-15 receptor alpha (IL-15Ra) Fc fusion protein (IL-15Ra-Fc) (IL-15N72D/IL-15Ra-Fc), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, superagonist interleukin-15:interleukin-15 receptor alphaSu/Fc fusion complex N-803 binds to the IL-2/IL-15 receptor beta-common gamma chain (IL-2Rbetagamma) receptor on natural killer (NK) and CD8+ T lymphocytes, which activates and increases the levels of NK cells and memory CD8+(CD44high) T-cells. The memory T-cells enhance the secretion of the cytokine interferon-gamma (IFN-g), which further potentiates the immune response against tumor cells. This may increase tumor cell killing and decrease tumor cell proliferation. IL-15 regulates CD8+ T and NK cell development, activation and proliferation. By coupling IL-15 to IL15Ra-Fc, this agent has a prolonged drug half-life and shows an increased ability to bind IL-2Rbetagamma, which enhances its immune stimulatory activity as compared to IL-15 alone.", + "Nolatrexed Dihydrochloride": "", + "Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer mRNA-Derived Vaccine CV9201": "", + "Norgestrel": "", + "North American Ginseng Extract AFX-2": "", + "Nortopixantrone": "", + "Noscapine": "", + "Noscapine Hydrochloride": "", + "Not Otherwise Specified": "", + "Notch Signaling Inhibitor PF-06650808": "", + "Notch Signaling Pathway Inhibitor MK0752": "", + "NTRK/ROS1 Inhibitor DS-6051b": "", + "Nucleolin Antagonist IPP-204106N": "", + "Nucleoside Analog DFP-10917": "", + "Nucleotide Analog Prodrug NUC-3373": "", + "Nucleotide Analogue GS 9219": "", + "Numidargistat": "An orally available inhibitor of arginase, a manganese-dependent enzyme that hydrolyzes the amino acid arginine to form ornithine and urea, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, numidargistat inhibits the breakdown of arginine by arginase, which is produced by myeloid cells, and restores arginine levels. This allows arginine to stimulate the synthesis of nitric oxide and the secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines, which induces the proliferation and activation of T-cells. Therefore, this agent may prevent the immunosuppressive effects of tumor-infiltrating myeloid cells and promote lymphocyte-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. Arginase is produced by neutrophils, macrophages and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSC) and plays a role in inflammation-associated immunosuppression.", + "Nurulimab": "A monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell-expressed receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4; CTLA-4), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nurulimab targets and binds to CTLA-4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA-4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA-4, an inhibitory receptor and member of the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF), plays a key role in the downregulation of the immune system.", + "Nutlin-3a": "", + "Nutraceutical TBL-12": "", + "NY-ESO-1 Plasmid DNA Cancer Vaccine pPJV7611": "", + "NY-ESO-1-specific TCR Gene-transduced T Lymphocytes TBI-1301": "", + "NY-ESO-1/GLA-SE Vaccine ID-G305": "", + "NY-ESO-B": "", + "O6-Benzylguanine": "", + "O-Chloroacetylcarbamoylfumagillol": "", + "Obatoclax Mesylate": "", + "Obinutuzumab": "", + "Oblimersen Sodium": "", + "Ocaratuzumab": "", + "Ocrelizumab": "", + "Octreotide": "", + "Octreotide Acetate": "", + "Octreotide Pamoate": "", + "Odronextamab": "A bispecific, human monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Anti-CD20/CD3 monoclonal antibody REGN1979 contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T cell surface antigen, and one for human CD20, a tumor-associated antigen that is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development and is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. Upon administration, odronextamab binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing tumor B-cells, which cross-links the T-cells to tumor cells, and may result in a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CD20-expressing tumor B-cells.", + "Ofatumumab": "", + "Ofranergene Obadenovec": "A non-replicating adenovirus 5 (Ad-5, El-deleted) encoding a human Fas-chimera (Fas-c) transgene under the control of a modified murine pre-proendothelin-1 (PPE-1) promoter, with potential anti-angiogenic activity. Upon the administration of ofranergene obadenovec, the modified murine PPE-1 promoter is specifically activated in PPE-1-expressing angiogenic endothelial cells residing in the tumor microvasculature. Subsequently, the Fas-c pro-apoptotic transgene, containing the human tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor 1 (TNFR-1/p55) and the signaling domain of Fas, is expressed in angiogenic endothelial cells. Fas-mediated apoptosis is activated via binding of the TNFR-1 receptor with TNF-alpha, which is more abundant in the tumor microenvironment (TME), enhancing specificity and limiting systemic toxicities.", + "Oglufanide Disodium": "", + "Olaparib": "", + "Olaptesed Pegol": "", + "Olaratumab": "", + "Oleandrin": "", + "Oleclumab": "", + "Oligo-fucoidan": "A sulfated polysaccharide low-molecular-weight fucoidan, with potential antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, antiproliferative, anti-angiogenic and pro-apoptotic activities. Upon administration of oligo-fucoidan, this agent seems to exert numerous effects through various mechanisms of action, some of which remain to be fully elucidated. Oligo-fucoidan induces cell cycle arrest, activates caspases, induces apoptosis, and inhibits tumor cell proliferation in susceptible tumor cells. It also increases the expression of tumor suppressors, such as p53, while decreasing levels of certain tumor promoters. Oligo-fucoidan also promotes the degradation of transforming growth factor-beta (TGFb) receptor and the inhibition of epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT). It prevents tumor progression, alters tumor microenvironment (TME) and decreases the tumor-promoting M2 macrophages in the TME. Oligo-fucoidan has anti-inflammatory effects that suppress the expression of nitric oxide synthase (iNOS), cyclooxygenase (COX)-2 and monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 (MCP-1/CCL2), and decrease the production of certain pro-inflammatory cytokines, such as interleukin-1beta (IL-1b) and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha (TNFa). This agent may also suppress angiogenic activity by inhibiting vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) receptor expression and VEGF-induced endothelial cell proliferation. As an antioxidant, this agent protects cells against oxidative stress by scavenging superoxide radicals and induces the expression of the anti-oxidant nuclear factor erythroid-2-related factor 2 and that of its target gene, superoxide dismutase; and prevents reactive oxidative species (ROS) generation in cancer cells and ROS release into the TME. Fucoidan also has immune-modulatory effects and enhances the proliferation of natural killer (NKs) cells and cytotoxic T-cells (CTLs).", + "Oligonucleotide SPC2996": "", + "Olinvacimab": "A fully human monoclonal antibody targeting the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), with potential antiangiogenic activity. Upon administration, olinvacimab specifically binds to VEGFR2, thereby preventing the binding of its ligand VEGF. This may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and a decrease in tumor nutrient supply. VEGFR2 is a pro-angiogenic growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase expressed by endothelial cells, while VEGF is overexpressed in many tumors and is correlated to tumor progression.", + "Olivomycin": "", + "Olmutinib": "", + "Oltipraz": "", + "Olutasidenib": "", + "Olvimulogene Nanivacirepvec": "An attenuated oncolytic vaccinia virus encoding the light-emitting fusion protein Renilla luciferase-Aequorea green fluorescent protein (RUC-GFP) with potential bioluminescent and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, light-emitting oncolytic vaccinia virus GL-ONC1 specifically enters tumor cells due to the permeable nature of the tumor vasculature. Once inside the cell, the virus replicates, resulting in tumor cell lysis and the release of mature viral particles into the tumor microenvironment. Released viral particles may then infect and destroy neighboring tumor cells. In addition, the release of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by lysed tumor cells into the bloodstream may activate the immune system to mount a cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) response against the tumor. The expression of RUC-GFP by this agent allows for both detection and monitoring of virally infected tumor cells in vivo and vitro with luciferase-mediated bioluminescence imaging and fluorescence imaging techniques.", + "Omacetaxine Mepesuccinate": "", + "Ombrabulin": "", + "Omipalisib": "", + "Onalespib": "", + "Onalespib Lactate": "", + "Onartuzumab": "", + "Onatasertib": "An orally available inhibitor of the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Onatasertib inhibits the activity of mTOR, which may result in the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and a decrease in tumor cell proliferation. mTOR, a serine/threonine kinase that is upregulated in a variety of tumors, plays an important role downstream in the PI3K/AKT/mTOR signaling pathway, which is frequently dysregulated in human cancers.", + "Oncolytic Adenovirus Ad5-DNX-2401": "", + "Oncolytic Adenovirus ORCA-010": "A replication competent, oncolytic adenovirus serotype 5 (Ad5) that has been modified with a delta24 (d24) deletion, an incorporation of an RGD-4C motif in the Ad fiber protein, and an insertion of the T1 mutation in E3/19K gene, with potential oncolytic activity. Upon administration, oncolytic adenovirus ORCA-010 binds to specific Ad3 receptors that are highly expressed on certain tumor cells. This results in the replication of oncolytic adenovirus Ad5/3-delta24 in tumor cells and induces tumor cell lysis which may potentially result in the activation of a systemic immune response against tumor-associated antigens (TAAs). The Ad5/3-delta24 has a 24 base pair deletion in constant region 2 of the E1A gene which allows for selective replication in cells that are defective in the retinoblastoma gene (Rb) or cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor-2A (CDKN2A or p16INK4a). As most tumor cells are defective in the Rb/p16 pathway, this virus selectively replicates in these cells. The RGD-4C motif is a 9-amino acid peptide that binds to various and enhances viral-cell receptor binding by allowing for a Coxsackie-adenovirus receptor (CAR)-independent infection of tumor cells, which is the natural route of viral binding, as CAR expression is often deficient on cancer cells. As integrins are often overexpressed on tumor cell surfaces, integrin receptor binding enhances tumor cells binding and infection by the Ad. The T1 mutation enhances the Ad5 release from tumor cells and promotes spreading throughout the tumor, thereby enhancing anti-tumor activity. The T1 mutation, a single Adenine insertion at position 445 of the nucleotide sequence of the E3/19K gene of Adenovirus, creates a truncated E3/19K protein that is relocated to the plasma membrane due to the disruption of its ER retention signal. This increases plasma membrane permeability and enhances the release of Ad5.", + "Oncolytic Herpes Simplex Virus-1 ONCR-177": "A recombinant, genetically modified, microRNA (miRNA)-attenuated oncolytic viral strain of the herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) virus, with potential oncolytic, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. In ONCR-177, a dual bidirectional promoter enables the expression of five different transgenes: the natural killer (NK) cell and T-cell activating cytokine interleuin-12 (IL-12), the chemokines C-C motif chemokine 4 (CCL4) and the extracellular domain of the Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 ligand (FLT3LG), to allow for expansion and recruitment of classical dendritic cells (DCs), and antagonists to the immune checkpoints programmed cell death protein-1 (PD-1) and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) to counter T cell exhaustion. Upon intra-tumoral administration, the oncolytic HSV-1 ONCR-177 specifically targets, infects and selectively replicates in tumor cells only while not infecting normal, healthy cells. This induces tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles then infect and replicate in neighboring tumor cells, thereby further killing tumor cells. The released tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) from the tumor cells activate the immune system to exert an anti-tumor immune response against the tumor cells, thereby further killing the tumor cells. In addition, the expressed transgenes that are released upon tumor cell lysis induce a systemic tumor-specific immune response and activate NKs, DCs and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) while inhibiting regulatory T-cells (Tregs). This further kills nearby non-infected tumor cells. In ONCR-177, the neurovirulence gene ICP34.5 allows for potent oncolysis, even in the presence of host cell antiviral responses. To ensure selective replication and oncolysis in cancer cells while attenuating replication in healthy tissue, tissue specific miRNA-binding cassettes (miR-T) are inserted into early genes essential for viral replication. In addition, UL37 mutation suppresses latent infection.", + "Oncolytic HSV1716": "", + "Oncolytic HSV-1 C134": "", + "Oncolytic HSV-1 Expressing IL-12 and Anti-PD-1 Antibody T3011": "A genetically engineered oncolytic herpes simplex virus type 1 (oHSV-1) expressing the human immunostimulating cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) and an antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, oHSV-1 expressing IL-12 and anti-PD-1 antibody T3011 infects and replicates in tumor cells causing viral-mediated tumor cell lysis. The released virus particles, in turn, infect and replicate in neighboring tumor cells. Tumor antigens released from the lysed tumor cells also activate the immune system to induce a tumor-specific systemic immune and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response, thereby killing nearby non-infected tumor cells. In addition, oHSV-1 expressing IL-12 and anti-PD-1 antibody T3011 promotes the secretion of IL-12 and anti-PD-1 antibody by the tumor cells. IL-12 promotes the activation of natural killer cells, which induces both the secretion of interferon-gamma and a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the tumor cells. This results in both immune-mediated tumor cell death and further inhibition of tumor cell proliferation. Anti-PD-1 antibody targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) or 2 (PD-L2); it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Oncolytic HSV-1 G207": "", + "Oncolytic HSV-1 NV1020": "", + "Oncolytic HSV-1 rQNestin34.5v.2": "", + "Oncolytic HSV-1 rRp450": "", + "Oncolytic Measles Virus Encoding Helicobacter pylori Neutrophil-activating Protein": "An attenuated oncolytic Edmonston (Ed) strain of measles virus (MV) encoding the N-terminus of the human lambda immunoglobulin light chain containing the Helicobacter pylori neutrophil-activating protein (NAP), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the oncolytic measles virus encoding H. pylori NAP selectively infects and replicates in tumor cells, leading to syncytia formation and tumor cell lysis. The expressed NAP, a toll-like receptor-2 (TLR2) agonist, may stimulate the secretion of proinflammatory cytokines such as tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a), interleukin (IL)-1 and IL-6, leading to local inflammatory reaction in the tumor microenvironment (TME). H. pylori NAP, a bacterial antigen and potent immunomodulator, may enhance the antitumor effect of oncolytic MV.", + "Oncolytic Newcastle Disease Virus MEDI5395": "", + "Oncolytic Newcastle Disease Virus MTH-68H": "", + "Oncolytic Newcastle Disease Virus Strain PV701": "", + "Oncolytic Virus ASP9801": "", + "Oncolytic Virus RP1": "", + "Ondansetron Hydrochloride": "", + "Ontorpacept": "A soluble recombinant antibody-like fusion protein composed of the N-terminal CD47 binding domain of human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPa) linked to the Fc domain of human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ontorpacept selectively targets and binds to CD47 expressed on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with endogenous SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macrophage activation and phagocytosis of cancer cells. This induces pro-phagocytic signaling mediated by the binding of calreticulin (CRT), which is specifically expressed on the surface of tumor cells, to low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor-related protein-1 (LRP-1), expressed on macrophages, and results in macrophage activation and the specific phagocytosis of tumor cells. CD47, also called integrin-associated protein (IAP), is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed on normal, healthy hematopoietic stem cells (HSC) and overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells. Expression of CD47, and its interaction with SIRPa, leads to the inhibition of macrophage activation and protects cancer cells from phagocytosis, thereby allowing cancer cells to proliferate.", + "Ontuxizumab": "", + "Onvansertib": "", + "Onvatilimab": "A human monoclonal antibody against the protein V-domain immunoglobulin (Ig) suppressor of T-cell activation (VISTA; programmed death 1 homolog; PD1H; PD-1H), with potential negative checkpoint regulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, onvatilimab targets and binds to VISTA. This inhibits VISTA signaling, abrogates the VISTA-induced suppression of T-lymphocyte-mediated immune responses, enhances cytotoxic T-cell responses against tumor cells and inhibits tumor cell growth. VISTA, mainly expressed on hematopoietic cells, plays a key role in immunosuppression.", + "Opaganib": "", + "OPCs/Green Tea/Spirullina/Curcumin/Antrodia Camphorate/Fermented Soymilk Extract Capsule": "", + "Opioid Growth Factor": "", + "Opolimogene Capmilisbac": "A proprietary, live-attenuated, double-deleted (LADD) strain of the Gram-positive bacterium Listeria monocytogenes (Lm) encoding multiple, as of yet undisclosed, tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, opolimogene capmilisbac is taken up by antigen-presenting cells (APCs), including dendritic cells (DCs). The TAAs are subsequently expressed by the APCs and then processed and presented to the immune system by both major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I and II molecules. This activates the immune system and leads to the recruitment and activation of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) against the TAA-expressing tumor cells, eventually resulting in tumor cell lysis. Two genes contributing to the virulence of Lm have been removed to minimize the risk of infection.", + "Oportuzumab Monatox": "", + "Oprozomib": "", + "Opucolimab": "A recombinant human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, opucolimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; cluster of differentiation 279; CD279). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling and enhances the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune response against PD-L1-expressing tumor cells. PD-L1 is overexpressed by many human cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cells suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. PD-1, a transmembrane protein belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on activated T-cells, is a negative regulator of the immune system that limits the expansion and survival of CD8-positive T-cells.", + "Oral Aminolevulinic Acid Hydrochloride": "", + "Oral Azacitidine": "", + "Oral Cancer Vaccine V3-OVA": "", + "Oral Docetaxel": "", + "Oral Fludarabine Phosphate": "", + "Oral Hsp90 Inhibitor IPI-493": "", + "Oral Ixabepilone": "", + "Oral Microencapsulated Diindolylmethane": "", + "Oral Milataxel": "", + "Oral Myoma Vaccine V3-myoma": "", + "Oral Pancreatic Cancer Vaccine V3-P": "", + "Oral Picoplatin": "", + "Oral Sodium Phenylbutyrate": "", + "Oral Topotecan Hydrochloride": "", + "Orantinib": "", + "Oraxol": "", + "Oregovomab": "", + "Orelabrutinib": "A small molecule inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK; Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, orelabrutinib binds to and inhibits the activity of BTK. This prevents both the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway and BTK-mediated activation of downstream survival pathways, inhibiting the growth of malignant B-cells that overexpress BTK. BTK, a member of the Src-related BTK/Tec family of cytoplasmic tyrosine kinases, is overexpressed or mutated in B-cell malignancies; it plays an important role in the development, activation, signaling, proliferation and survival of B-lymphocytes.", + "Ormaplatin": "", + "Ortataxel": "", + "Orteronel": "", + "Orvacabtagene Autoleucel": "A preparation of autologous CD4- and CD8-positive T-lymphocytes that have been ex vivo transduced with a genetically-engineered lentiviral vector (LV) expressing a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) containing a single chain variable fragment (scFv) specific for the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 17; TNFRSF17) fused to the co-stimulatory domain of 4-1BB (CD137) and the CD3-zeta (CD3z) T-cell signaling domain, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, orvacabtagene autoleucel specifically recognize and induce selective toxicity in BCMA-expressing tumor cells. BCMA, a tumor-specific antigen and a receptor for both a proliferation-inducing ligand (APRIL) and B-cell activating factor (BAFF), is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF) and plays a key role in plasma cell survival. BCMA is found on the surfaces of plasma cells and overexpressed on malignant plasma cells.", + "Osilodrostat": "", + "Osimertinib": "", + "Otlertuzumab": "", + "Ovapuldencel-T": "", + "Ovarian Cancer Stem Cell/hTERT/Survivin mRNAs-loaded Autologous Dendritic Cell Vaccine DC-006": "", + "Ovine Submaxillary Mucin": "", + "OX40L-expressing Oncolytic Adenovirus DNX-2440": "", + "Oxaliplatin": "", + "Oxaliplatin Eluting Beads": "A formulation of drug-eluting beads (DEB) consisting of polymeric microbeads impregnated with the organoplatinum complex and alkylating agent oxaliplatin, with potential antineoplastic activity. The beads consist of polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) microspheres modified with sulfonic acid groups and loaded with oxaliplatin. During transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) in the hepatic artery, the oxaliplatin eluting beads occlude tumor blood vessels that feed the tumor and induce ischemic necrosis of tumor tissue due to mechanical blockage of the tumor vasculature. The beads release cytotoxic oxaliplatin locally, which may result in oxaliplatin-mediated inhibition of tumor cell proliferation through formation of both inter- and intra-strand platinum-DNA crosslinks, and the inhibition of DNA replication.", + "Oxaliplatin-Encapsulated Transferrin-Conjugated N-glutaryl Phosphatidylethanolamine Liposome": "", + "Oxcarbazepine": "", + "Oxeclosporin": "", + "Oxidative Phosphorylation Inhibitor IACS-010759": "", + "Oxidative Phosphorylation Inhibitor IM156": "", + "Oxidopamine": "", + "OxPhos Inhibitor VLX600": "", + "Ozarelix": "", + "p38 MAPK Inhibitor LY3007113": "", + "p53 Peptide Vaccine MPS-128": "", + "p53-HDM2 Interaction Inhibitor MI-773": "", + "p53-HDM2 Protein-protein Interaction Inhibitor APG-115": "", + "p53/HDM2 Interaction Inhibitor CGM097": "", + "p70S6K Inhibitor LY2584702": "", + "p70S6K/Akt Inhibitor MSC2363318A": "", + "p97 Inhibitor CB-5083": "", + "p97 Inhibitor CB-5339": "An orally bioavailable, selective, second-generation inhibitor of valosin-containing protein (VCP)/p97, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, p97 inhibitor CB-5339 binds to and inhibits the activity of p97. This prevents ubiquitin-dependent protein degradation and causes cellular accumulation of poly-ubiquitinated proteins. The inhibition of endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-associated protein degradation activates the ER-dependent stress response pathway, and leads to both an induction of apoptosis and the inhibition of cell proliferation in susceptible tumor cells. VCP/p97, a type II AAA+ ATPase, plays a key role in cellular protein homeostasis processes including ER-associated degradation (ERAD), chromatin associated degradation (CAD) and the DNA damage response (DDR). Its overexpression in many tumor cell types is associated with increased tumor cell proliferation and survival.", + "p97 Inhibitor CB-5339 Tosylate": "The tosylate salt of CB-5339, an orally bioavailable, selective, second-generation inhibitor of valosin-containing protein (VCP)/p97, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, p97 inhibitor CB-5339 binds to and inhibits the activity of p97. This prevents ubiquitin-dependent protein degradation and causes cellular accumulation of poly-ubiquitinated proteins. The inhibition of endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-associated protein degradation activates the ER-dependent stress response pathway, and leads to both an induction of apoptosis and the inhibition of cell proliferation in susceptible tumor cells. VCP/p97, a type II AAA+ ATPase, plays a key role in cellular protein homeostasis processes including endoplasmic reticulum associated degradation (ERAD), chromatin associated degradation (CAD) and the DNA damage response (DDR). Its overexpression in many tumor cell types is associated with increased tumor cell proliferation and survival.", + "p300/CBP Bromodomain Inhibitor CCS1477": "", + "P-cadherin Antagonist PF-03732010": "", + "P-cadherin Inhibitor PCA062": "", + "P-cadherin-targeting Agent PF-06671008": "", + "P-p68 Inhibitor RX-5902": "", + "P-TEFb Inhibitor BAY1143572": "", + "Paclitaxel": "", + "Paclitaxel Ceribate": "", + "Paclitaxel Injection Concentrate for Nanodispersion": "", + "Paclitaxel Liposome": "", + "Paclitaxel Poliglumex": "", + "Paclitaxel Polymeric Micelle Formulation NANT-008": "", + "Paclitaxel PPE Microspheres": "", + "Paclitaxel Trevatide": "", + "Paclitaxel Vitamin E-Based Emulsion": "", + "Paclitaxel-Loaded Polymeric Micelle": "", + "Pacmilimab": "A recombinant antibody prodrug composed of a monoclonal antibody directed against the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) programmed cell death 1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; B7-H1; CD274) that is linked to a proprietary masking peptide through a protease-cleavable linker on the amino terminus of the light chain domain of the antibody, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of pacmilimab, the linkage system is stable in the circulation and, upon extravasation into the tumor microenvironment, the peptide mask is cleaved by tumor-associated proteases. These proteases are present in high concentrations and aberrantly activated in the tumor microenvironment, while expressed as inactive forms, at much lower concentrations, in normal, healthy tissue. Protease cleavage of the linker enables binding of the unmasked, fully active monoclonal antibody moiety of CX-072 to PD-L1, which is over expressed on certain cancer cells. This blocks the binding to and activation of its receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) on T-lymphocytes, thereby enhancing the T-cell-mediated anti-tumor immune response and reversing PD-L1/PD-1-mediated T-cell suppression. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cells suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. Compared to the unmodified PD-L1 antibody, peptide masking of CX-072 minimizes binding to PD-L1 in normal tissues, thereby decreasing autoimmune-based side effects while retaining anti-tumor activity.", + "Pacritinib": "", + "Padeliporfin": "", + "Padoporfin": "", + "PAK4 Inhibitor PF-03758309": "", + "PAK4/NAMPT Inhibitor KPT-9274": "", + "Palbociclib": "", + "Palbociclib Isethionate": "", + "Palifosfamide": "", + "Palifosfamide Tromethamine": "", + "Palladium Pd-103": "", + "Palonosetron Hydrochloride": "", + "Pamidronate Disodium": "", + "Pamidronic Acid": "", + "Pamiparib": "", + "Pamrevlumab": "A human monoclonal antibody targeting connective tissue growth factor (CTGF) with potential anti-fibrotic and antineoplastic activities. Pamrevlumab binds to CTGF thereby preventing the binding of the ligand to the receptor and subsequent receptor activation. As CTGF enhances the production of collagen and fibronectin, FG-319 may prevent and reverse fibrosis. In addition, FG-3019 may prevent tumor cell proliferation in CTGF-expressing tumor cells. CTGF, a member of the CCN family (CTGF, CYR61/CEF and NOV), is expressed in a variety of tumor cell types and is involved in processes such as cell proliferation, cell migration, cell adhesion, differentiation and angiogenesis.", + "pan FGFR Inhibitor PRN1371": "", + "Pan HER/VEGFR2 Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor BMS-690514": "", + "Pan-AKT Inhibitor ARQ751": "", + "Pan-AKT Kinase Inhibitor GSK690693": "", + "Pan-FGFR Inhibitor LY2874455": "", + "Pan-FLT3/Pan-BTK Multi-kinase Inhibitor CG-806": "", + "pan-HER Kinase Inhibitor AC480": "", + "Pan-IDH Mutant Inhibitor AG-881": "", + "Pan-KRAS Inhibitor BI 1701963": "An orally available protein-protein interaction (PPI) inhibitor that targets the guanine nucleotide exchange factor Son of sevenless homolog 1 (SOS1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-KRAS inhibitor BI 1701963 selectively targets and binds to SOS1, thereby preventing the interaction of SOS1 with Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) in the guanosine diphosphate (GDP)-bound 'off' state, which is the inactivated state of KRAS. This abrogates the exchange of RAS-bound GDP for guanosine triphosphate (GTP) and prevents the formation of GTP-loaded KRAS, which is the activated 'on' state of KRAS. This prevents activation of downstream RAF/mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK)/extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) signaling pathway by GTP-loaded KRAS. This inhibits mutant KRAS-dependent signaling and may inhibit growth and survival of KRAS-expressing tumor cells. KRAS is a member of the RAS family of oncogenes that is mutated in many cancer cell types. Mutations of KRAS may induce constitutive signal transduction leading to tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion, and metastasis. SOS1 regulates the KRAS GDP-GTP cycle and promotes nucleotide exchange and formation of 'active' KRAS-GTP.", + "Pan-Mutant-IDH1 Inhibitor Bay-1436032": "", + "Pan-mutation-selective EGFR Inhibitor CLN-081": "An orally available selective inhibitor of a broad spectrum of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutations, including EGFR exon 20 insertion mutations (EGFR Ex20ins; Ex20ins mutations), with potential antineoplastic activity. CLN-081 is also active against other EGFR mutations including exon 19 deletions (exon19del), L858R, and T790M, as well as the less common G719X, L861Q and S768I mutations. Upon administration, the pan-mutation-selective EGFR inhibitor CLN-081 specifically and covalently binds to and inhibits a variety of EGFR mutations, with particularly high selectivity against EGFR Ex20ins, which prevents EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR mutant-expressing tumor cells. Compared to some other EGFR inhibitors, CLN-081 may have therapeutic benefits in tumors with EGFR Ex20ins, as most EGFR mutant-selective inhibitors are not active against EGFR Ex20ins. This agent shows minimal activity against wild-type EGFR (wt EGFR), and does not cause dose-limiting toxicities that occur during the use of non-selective EGFR inhibitors, which also inhibit wt EGFR. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization.", + "pan-PI3K Inhibitor CLR457": "", + "pan-PI3K/mTOR Inhibitor SF1126": "", + "Pan-PIM Inhibitor INCB053914": "", + "pan-PIM Kinase Inhibitor AZD1208": "", + "pan-PIM Kinase Inhibitor NVP-LGB-321": "", + "pan-RAF Inhibitor LXH254": "", + "Pan-RAF Inhibitor LY3009120": "", + "pan-RAF Kinase Inhibitor CCT3833": "", + "pan-RAF Kinase Inhibitor TAK-580": "", + "Pan-RAR Agonist/AP-1 Inhibitor LGD 1550": "", + "Pan-TRK Inhibitor NOV1601": "An orally bioavailable, selective pan-tropomyosin-related-kinase (tyrosine receptor kinase; TRK) inhibitor, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, pan-TRK inhibitor NOV1601 specifically targets and binds to TRK, TRK mutations and fusion proteins containing sequences from neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1 (NTRK1; TrkA), 2 (NTRK2; TrkB), and 3 (NTRK3; TrkC). This inhibits neurotrophin-TRK interaction and TRK activation, thereby preventing the activation of downstream signaling pathways and resulting in both the induction of cellular apoptosis and the inhibition of cell growth in tumors that overexpress TRK and/or express NTRK fusion proteins. TRK, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) activated by neurotrophins, is encoded by NTRK family genes. The expression of either mutated forms of, or fusion proteins involving, NTRK family members results in uncontrolled TRK signaling, which plays an important role in tumor cell growth, survival, invasion and treatment resistance.", + "Pan-TRK Inhibitor ONO-7579": "", + "Pan-VEGFR/TIE2 Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor CEP-11981": "", + "Pancratistatin": "", + "Panitumumab": "", + "Panobinostat": "", + "Panobinostat Nanoparticle Formulation MTX110": "", + "Panulisib": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K), mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), activin receptor-like kinase 1 (ALK-1) and DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK), with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, panulisib inhibits the activity of all four kinases. This prevents PI3K/mTOR and ALK-1-mediated signaling pathways and may lead to the inhibition of cancer cell growth in PI3K/mTOR-overexpressing tumor cells and angiogenesis in ALK-1-overexpressing endothelial cells. Also, by inhibiting DNA-PK, this agent inhibits the ability of tumor cells to repair damaged DNA. The PI3K/mTOR pathway is upregulated in a variety of tumors and plays an important role in regulating cancer cell proliferation, growth, and survival. ALK-1, a member of the transforming growth factor beta (TGF-b) type I receptor family, is overexpressed on endothelial cells in a variety of tumor types and increases endothelial cell proliferation and migration. DNA-PK is activated upon DNA damage and plays a key role in repairing double-stranded DNA breaks.", + "Paricalcitol": "", + "PARP7 Inhibitor RBN-2397": "An orally available small molecule inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 7, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PARP7 inhibitor RBN-2397 selectively binds to PARP7 and restores interferon (type 1) signaling. This may lead to the induction of both innate and adaptive immune responses, and the inhibition of tumor growth and proliferation. PARP catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear proteins that signal and recruit other proteins to repair damaged DNA.", + "PARP 1/2 Inhibitor IMP4297": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PARP 1/2 inhibitor IMP4297 selectively binds to PARP 1 and 2 and prevents PARP-mediated DNA repair of single-strand DNA breaks via the base-excision repair pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability and eventually leads to apoptosis. PARP catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear proteins that signal and recruit other proteins to repair damaged DNA and is activated by single-strand DNA breaks.", + "PARP 1/2 Inhibitor NOV1401": "", + "PARP Inhibitor AZD2461": "", + "PARP Inhibitor CEP-9722": "", + "PARP Inhibitor E7016": "", + "PARP Inhibitor NMS-03305293": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the nuclear enzyme poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PARP inhibitor NMS-03305293 selectively binds to PARP and prevents PARP-mediated DNA repair of single-strand DNA breaks via the base-excision repair pathway. This enhances the accumulation of DNA strand breaks and promotes genomic instability and eventually leads to apoptosis. PARP catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear proteins that signal and recruit other proteins to repair damaged DNA and is activated by single-strand DNA breaks.", + "PARP-1/2 Inhibitor ABT-767": "", + "PARP/Tankyrase Inhibitor 2X-121": "An orally available small molecule inhibitor of the nuclear enzymes poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) 1 and 2, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, E7449 selectively binds to PARP 1 and 2, thereby preventing the repair of damaged DNA via the base excision repair (BER) pathway. This agent enhances the accumulation of single and double strand DNA breaks and promotes genomic instability eventually leading to apoptosis. PARP 1/2 inhibitor E7449 may enhance the cytotoxicity of DNA-damaging agents and of radiotherapy. PARP catalyzes post-translational ADP-ribosylation of nuclear proteins that signal and recruit other proteins to repair damaged DNA.", + "Parsaclisib": "An inhibitor of the delta isoform of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K) with potential antineoplastic activity. Parsaclisib inhibits the delta isoform of PI3K and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This both decreases proliferation and induces cell death in PI3K-delta-overexpressing tumor cells. Unlike other isoforms of PI3K, PI3K-delta is expressed primarily in hematopoietic disease and cell lineages. The targeted inhibition of PI3K-delta is designed to preserve PI3K signaling in normal, non-neoplastic cells. PI3K, an enzyme often overexpressed in cancer cells, plays a crucial role in tumor cell regulation and survival.", + "Parsaclisib Hydrochloride": "The hydrochloride salt form of parsaclisib, an inhibitor of the delta isoform of phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI3K) with potential antineoplastic activity. Parsaclisib inhibits the delta isoform of PI3K and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This both decreases proliferation and induces cell death in PI3K-delta-overexpressing tumor cells. Unlike other isoforms of PI3K, PI3K-delta is expressed primarily in hematopoietic disease and cell lineages. The targeted inhibition of PI3K-delta is designed to preserve PI3K signaling in normal, non-neoplastic cells. PI3K, an enzyme often overexpressed in cancer cells, plays a crucial role in tumor cell regulation and survival.", + "Parsatuzumab": "", + "Partially Engineered T-regulatory Cell Donor Graft TRGFT-201": "A T-regulatory (Treg) cell donor graft that has been partially engineered by depleting all the T-cells and then enriching the graft with infusions of conventional T-cells and Tregs with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration of the partially engineered T-regulatory cell donor graft TRGFT-201 following myeloablation, the allograft may induce tolerance in patients undergoing allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (AHSCT) as treatment for hematologic malignancies.", + "Parvovirus H-1": "", + "Pasireotide": "", + "Pasotuxizumab": "", + "Patidegib": "", + "Patidegib Topical Gel": "", + "Patritumab": "", + "Patritumab Deruxtecan": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of patritumab, a monoclonal antibody directed against the human epidermal growth factor receptor HER3 (ErbB3),linked to the topoisomerase I inhibitor DX 8951, a semisynthetic, water-soluble derivative of camptothecin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of patritumab deruxtecan, the patritumab moiety targets and binds to HER3. After internalization, DX 8951 inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the complex between topoisomerase I and DNA and inhibiting religation of DNA breaks, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and triggering apoptotic cell death. HER3, a member of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of receptor tyrosine kinases, is frequently overexpressed in tumors.", + "Patupilone": "", + "Paxalisib": "A phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. paxalisib specifically inhibits PI3K in the PI3K/AKT kinase (or protein kinase B) signaling pathway, thereby inhibiting the activation of the PI3K signaling pathway. This may result in the inhibition of both cell growth and survival in susceptible tumor cell populations. Activation of the PI3K signaling pathway is frequently associated with tumorigenesis. Dysregulated PI3K signaling may contribute to tumor resistance to a variety of antineoplastic agents.", + "Pazopanib": "", + "Pazopanib Hydrochloride": "", + "pbi-shRNA STMN1 Lipoplex": "", + "PBN Derivative OKN-007": "", + "PCNU": "", + "PD-1 Directed Probody CX-188": "", + "PD-1 Inhibitor": "", + "PD-L1 Inhibitor GS-4224": "An orally available, small molecule inhibitor of the immunosuppressive ligand programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, anti-viral and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, PD-L1 inhibitor GS-4224 specifically targets PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells preventing the binding and subsequent activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-L1/PD-1 signaling, increases T-cell expansion and enhances the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune response against PD-L1-expressing tumor cells. It may also enhance hepatitis B virus (HBV)-specific CD8+ T-cell function, thereby killing HBV-infected cells. PD-L1, a transmembrane protein expressed on activated T-cells, is overexpressed in some cancer types and plays a significant role in immune evasion by tumor cells. It is also upregulated in HBV-positive patients and contributes to immune dysfunction against HBV infection.", + "PD-L1 Inhibitor INCB086550": "", + "PD-L1/4-1BB/HSA Trispecific Fusion Protein NM21-1480": "A recombinant, trispecific monovalent antibody-based molecule targeting the human programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1), 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) and human serum albumin (HSA), with potential checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. PD-L1/4-1BB/HSA trispecific fusion protein NM21-1480 consists of three monovalent antibody Fvs specific for PD-L1, HSA and 4-1BB fused in a single chain. Upon administration, PD-L1/4-1BB/HSA trispecific fusion protein NM21-1480 simultaneously targets and binds to a membrane-distal epitope of 4-1BB, which is expressed on a variety of leukocyte subsets including activated T-lymphocytes, and PD-L1 expressed on tumor cells. The simultaneous binding to PD-L1 enables clustering of 4-1BB and thereby allows for conditional stimulation of 4-1BB signaling in the tumor microenvironment (TME) only upon binding to PD-L1 on tumor cells. 4-1BB activation results in T-cell stimulation and enhances T-lymphocyte-mediated anti-tumor activity. At the same time, NM21-1480 prevents PD-L1 from binding to and activating its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279; programmed death-1). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis, which may lead to a reduction in tumor growth. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on activated T-cells inhibits the expansion and survival of CD8-positive T-cells, suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. 4-1BB, a surface glycoprotein of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, is an inducible costimulatory receptor that plays a key role in T-cell proliferation, survival and cytolytic activity. HSA fusion prolongs the half-life of NM21-1480. The conditional activation of 4-1BB signaling prevents systemic T-cell activation and lowers toxicity.", + "PD-L1/PD-L2/VISTA Antagonist CA-170": "", + "PDK1 Inhibitor AR-12": "", + "pDNA-encoding Emm55 Autologous Cancer Cell Vaccine IFx-Hu2.0": "", + "PE/HPV16 E7/KDEL Fusion Protein/GPI-0100 TVGV-1": "", + "PEG-interleukin-2": "", + "PEG-PEI-cholesterol Lipopolymer-encased IL-12 DNA Plasmid Vector GEN-1": "", + "PEG-Proline-Interferon Alfa-2b": "", + "Pegargiminase": "", + "Pegaspargase": "", + "Pegdinetanib": "", + "Pegfilgrastim": "", + "Pegilodecakin": "", + "Peginterferon Alfa-2a": "", + "Peginterferon Alfa-2b": "", + "Pegvisomant": "", + "Pegvorhyaluronidase Alfa": "A pegylated formulation of a recombinant form of human hyaluronidase with potential antitumor activity. Upon intravenous administration, pegvorhyaluronidase alfa degrades hyaluronic acid (HA) coating tumor cells, which may result in the inhibition of tumor cell growth. In addition, the degradation of HA may result in a lowering of the interstitial fluid pressure (IFP), allowing better penetration of chemotherapeutic agents into the tumor bed. HA is a glycosaminoglycan found in the extracellular matrix (ECM) that is frequently overproduced by various tumor cell types. The presence of HA in tumors correlates with increased tumor cell growth, metastatic potential, tumor progression, increased resistance to chemotherapeutic agents, and an elevation in tumor IFP.", + "Pegylated Deoxycytidine Analogue DFP-14927": "", + "Pegylated Interferon Alfa": "", + "Pegylated Liposomal Belotecan": "", + "Pegylated Liposomal Doxorubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Pegylated Liposomal Irinotecan": "", + "Pegylated Liposomal Mitomycin C Lipid-based Prodrug": "", + "Pegylated Liposomal Mitoxantrone Hydrochloride": "", + "Pegylated Liposomal Nanoparticle-based Docetaxel Prodrug MNK-010": "", + "Pegylated Paclitaxel": "", + "Pegylated Recombinant Human Arginase I BCT-100": "", + "Pegylated Recombinant Human Hyaluronidase PH20": "", + "Pegylated Recombinant Interleukin-2 THOR-707": "", + "Pegylated Recombinant L-asparaginase Erwinia chrysanthemi": "", + "Pegylated SN-38 Conjugate PLX038": "A pegylated conjugate of SN-38 (7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-camptothecin), a biologically active metabolite of the prodrug irinotecan, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the proprietary linker slowly releases SN-38 from the pegylated SN-38 conjugate PLX038. SN-38 binds to and inhibits topoisomerase I by stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA, resulting in DNA breaks, inhibition of DNA replication, and apoptosis. Compared with irinotecan, this formulation allows higher accumulation in solid tumors due to its nanoparticle size and long half-life.", + "Pegzilarginase": "", + "Pelabresib": "A small molecule inhibitor of the Bromodomain and Extra-Terminal (BET) family of proteins, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pelabresib binds to the acetylated lysine recognition motifs on the bromodomain of BET proteins, thereby preventing the interaction between the BET proteins and acetylated histone peptides. This disrupts chromatin remodeling and gene expression. Prevention of the expression of certain growth-promoting genes may lead to an inhibition of tumor cell growth. Characterized by a tandem repeat of two bromodomains at the N-terminus, the BET proteins (BRD2, BRD3, BRD4 and BRDT) are transcriptional regulators that play an important role during development and cellular growth.", + "Pelareorep": "", + "Peldesine": "", + "Pelitinib": "", + "Pelitrexol": "", + "Pembrolizumab": "", + "Pemetrexed": "", + "Pemetrexed Disodium": "", + "Pemigatinib": "", + "Pemlimogene Merolisbac": "", + "Penberol": "", + "Penclomedine": "", + "Penicillamine": "", + "Pentamethylmelamine": "", + "Pentamustine": "", + "Pentostatin": "", + "Pentoxifylline": "", + "PEOX-based Polymer Encapsulated Paclitaxel FID-007": "", + "PEP-3-KLH Conjugate Vaccine": "", + "Pepinemab": "", + "Peplomycin": "", + "Peplomycin Sulfate": "", + "Peposertib": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK) with potential antineoplastic activity, and potential sensitizing and enhancing activities for both chemo- and radiotherapies. Upon administration, peposertib binds to and inhibits the activity of DNA-PK, thereby interfering with the non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) process and preventing repair of DNA double strand breaks (DSBs) caused by ionizing radiation or chemotherapeutic treatment. This increases chemo- and radiotherapy cytotoxicity and leads to enhanced tumor cell death. The enhanced ability of tumor cells to repair DSBs plays a major role in the resistance of tumor cells to chemo- and radiotherapy; DNA-PK plays a key role in the NHEJ pathway and DSB repair.", + "Peptichemio": "", + "Peptide 946 Melanoma Vaccine": "", + "Peptide 946-Tetanus Peptide Conjugate Melanoma Vaccine": "", + "Peretinoin": "", + "Perflenapent Emulsion": "", + "Perfosfamide": "", + "Perifosine": "", + "Perillyl Alcohol": "", + "Personalized ALL-specific Multi-HLA-binding Peptide Vaccine": "", + "Personalized and Adjusted Neoantigen Peptide Vaccine PANDA-VAC": "A peptide-based, personalized cancer therapeutic vaccine consisting of up to 8 patient-specific tumor peptides, which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor and identified through DNA and RNA sequencing of a patient's tumor cells, combined with the immunostimulant polyinosinic-polycytidylic acid stabilized with polylysine and carboxymethylcellulose (poly-ICLC), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, personalized and adjusted neoantigen peptide vaccine PANDA-VAC stimulates the host immune system to mount a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing the neoantigens, leading to tumor cell lysis. The adjuvant poly-ICLC is a ligand for toll-like receptor-3 (TLR3) and induces the release of cytokines which may help to boost the immune response against the selected neoantigens. The vaccine may be adjusted after initial therapy according to sequencing data.", + "Personalized Cancer Vaccine RO7198457": "", + "Personalized Neoantigen DNA Vaccine GNOS-PV01": "A personalized cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific neoantigen-coding DNA plasmids, which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of GNOS-PV01, the patient-specific neoantigens are translated in cells and elicit a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these neoantigens, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Each patient specific formulation may contain multiple DNA plasmids, and each plasmid may contain multiple neoantigen DNA sequences, allowing the delivery of multiple neoantigen DNA sequences simultaneously.", + "Personalized Neoantigen DNA Vaccine GNOS-PVO2": "A personalized cancer vaccine consisting of patient-specific neoantigen-coding DNA plasmids, which are immunogenic and unique to the patient's tumor, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intradermal delivery by electroporation of GNOS-PVO2, the patient-specific neoantigens are translated in cells and elicit a specific and potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells expressing these neoantigens, resulting in tumor cell lysis. Each patient specific formulation may contain multiple DNA plasmids, and each plasmid may contain multiple neoantigen DNA sequences, allowing the delivery of multiple neoantigen DNA sequences simultaneously.", + "Personalized Neoantigen Peptide Vaccine iNeo-Vac-P01": "", + "Personalized Neoepitope Yeast Vaccine YE-NEO-001": "", + "Personalized Peptide Cancer Vaccine NEO-PV-01": "", + "Pertuzumab": "", + "Pevonedistat": "", + "Pexastimogene Devacirepvec": "", + "Pexidartinib": "", + "Pexmetinib": "", + "PGG Beta-Glucan": "", + "PGLA/PEG Copolymer-Based Paclitaxel": "", + "PH20 Hyaluronidase-expressing Adenovirus VCN-01": "", + "Phaleria macrocarpa Extract DLBS-1425": "", + "Pharmacological Ascorbate": "", + "Phellodendron amurense Bark Extract": "", + "Phenesterin": "", + "Phenethyl Isothiocyanate": "", + "Phenethyl Isothiocyanate-containing Watercress Juice": "", + "Phenyl Acetate": "", + "Phenytoin Sodium": "", + "Phosphaplatin PT-112": "", + "Phosphatidylcholine-Bound Silybin": "", + "Phospholipid Ether-drug Conjugate CLR 131": "", + "Phosphoramide Mustard": "", + "Phosphorodiamidate Morpholino Oligomer AVI-4126": "", + "Phosphorus P-32": "", + "Photodynamic Compound TLD-1433": "A non-toxic ruthenium-based coordination-complex and photosensitizer, with potential antineoplastic activity upon photodynamic therapy (PDT). Upon intravesical administration, light-activated photodynamic compound (PDC) TLD-1433 targets and binds to transferrin (Tf) and is subsequently taken up by Tf receptors which are located on tumor cells. Upon exposure to green light (525nm), TLD-1433 becomes activated locally and induces the generation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) and singlet oxygen. The release of free radicals may induce apoptosis and destroy the tumor cells. Cancer cells have many more Tf receptors than normal cells", + "Photosensitizer LUZ 11": "", + "Phytochlorin Sodium-Polyvinylpyrrolidone Complex": "", + "PI3K Alpha/Beta Inhibitor BAY1082439": "", + "PI3K Alpha/mTOR Inhibitor PWT33597 Mesylate": "", + "PI3K Inhibitor ACP-319": "", + "PI3K Inhibitor BGT226": "", + "PI3K Inhibitor GDC0077": "", + "PI3K Inhibitor GDC-0084": "", + "PI3K Inhibitor GSK1059615": "", + "PI3K Inhibitor WX-037": "", + "PI3K Inhibitor ZSTK474": "", + "PI3K p110beta/delta Inhibitor KA2237": "", + "PI3K-alpha Inhibitor MEN1611": "", + "PI3K-beta Inhibitor GSK2636771": "", + "PI3K-beta Inhibitor SAR260301": "", + "PI3K-delta Inhibitor AMG 319": "", + "PI3K-delta Inhibitor HMPL 689": "", + "PI3K-delta Inhibitor INCB050465": "", + "PI3K-delta Inhibitor PWT143": "", + "PI3K-delta Inhibitor SHC014748M": "", + "PI3K-delta Inhibitor YY-20394": "", + "PI3K-gamma Inhibitor IPI-549": "", + "PI3K/BET Inhibitor LY294002": "", + "PI3K/mTOR Kinase Inhibitor DS-7423": "", + "PI3K/mTOR Kinase Inhibitor PF-04691502": "", + "PI3K/mTOR Kinase Inhibitor VS-5584": "", + "PI3K/mTOR Kinase Inhibitor WXFL10030390": "", + "PI3K/mTOR/ALK-1/DNA-PK Inhibitor P7170": "", + "PI3K/mTORC1/mTORC2 Inhibitor DCBCI0901": "", + "PI3Ka/mTOR Inhibitor PKI-179": "", + "PI3Kalpha Inhibitor AZD8835": "", + "PI3Kbeta Inhibitor AZD8186": "", + "PI3Kdelta Inhibitor GS-9901": "", + "Pibenzimol": "", + "Pibrozelesin": "", + "Pibrozelesin Hydrobromide": "", + "Picibanil": "", + "Picoplatin": "", + "Picrasinoside H": "", + "Picropodophyllin": "", + "Pictilisib": "", + "Pictilisib Bismesylate": "", + "Pidilizumab": "", + "Pilaralisib": "", + "PIM Kinase Inhibitor LGH447": "", + "PIM Kinase Inhibitor SGI-1776": "", + "PIM Kinase Inhibitor TP-3654": "", + "PIM/FLT3 Kinase Inhibitor SEL24": "", + "Pimasertib": "", + "Pimitespib": "A specific inhibitor of heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) subtypes alpha and beta, with potential antineoplastic and chemo/radiosensitizing activities. Upon oral administration, pimitespib specifically binds to and inhibits the activity of Hsp90 alpha and beta; this results in the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic client proteins, which inhibits client protein dependent-signaling, induces apoptosis, and inhibits the proliferation of cells overexpressing HSP90alpha/beta. Hsp90, a family of molecular chaperone proteins that are upregulated in a variety of tumor cells, plays a key role in the conformational maturation, stability, and function of \"client\" proteins within the cell,; many of which are involved in signal transduction, cell cycle regulation and apoptosis, including kinases, cell-cycle regulators, transcription factors and hormone receptors. As TAS-116 selectively inhibits cytosolic HSP90alpha and beta only and does not inhibit HSP90 paralogs, such as endoplasmic reticulum GRP94 or mitochondrial TRAP1, this agent may have less off-target toxicity as compared to non-selective HSP90 inhibitors.", + "Pimurutamab": "A glycoengineered humanized version of the monoclonal antibody of cetuximab, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, pimurutamab selectively targets and binds to the extracellular domain of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), thereby preventing the activation and subsequent dimerization of the receptor. This may prevent EGFR-mediated signaling and inhibit EGFR-dependent tumor cell proliferation. In addition, the glyco-optimization promotes antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). EGFR, a member of the epidermal growth factor family of extracellular protein ligands, may be overexpressed on the cell surfaces of certain tumor types.", + "Pinatuzumab Vedotin": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of MCDT2219A, a humanized IgG1 anti-CD22 monoclonal antibody covalently linked, via a protease-cleavable peptide linker, to monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE), an auristatin derivative and a potent microtubule disrupting agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of pinatuzumab vedotin binds to B cell-specific CD22 receptors and is rapidly internalized, thereby delivering MMAE intracellularly. Upon proteolytic cleavage, MMAE binds to tubulin and inhibits its polymerization, resulting in G2/M phase arrest and tumor cell apoptosis. CD22, a cell surface glycoprotein, is expressed on mature B-cells and on most malignant B-cells.", + "Pingyangmycin": "", + "Pinometostat": "", + "Pioglitazone": "", + "Pioglitazone Hydrochloride": "", + "Pipendoxifene": "", + "Piperazinedione": "", + "Piperine Extract (Standardized)": "", + "Pipobroman": "", + "Piposulfan": "", + "Pirarubicin": "", + "Pirarubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Pirfenidone": "", + "Piritrexim": "", + "Piritrexim Isethionate": "", + "Pirotinib": "", + "Piroxantrone": "", + "Piroxantrone Hydrochloride": "", + "Pixantrone": "", + "Pixantrone Dimaleate": "", + "Pixatimod": "A synthetic heparan sulfate mimetic with potential anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activity. Pixatimod inhibits the cleavage of heparan sulfate from cell surface proteoglycan by heparanase and thus inhibits the neovascularization induced by interaction between heparan sulfate and other extracellular matrix proteins. In this manner, this agent may have the potential to slow the progression of growth of solid tumors.", + "PKA Regulatory Subunit RIalpha Mixed-Backbone Antisense Oligonucleotide GEM 231": "", + "PKC-alpha Antisense Oligodeoxynucleotide ISIS 3521": "", + "PKC-beta Inhibitor MS-553": "", + "Placebo": "", + "Pladienolide Derivative E7107": "", + "Plamotamab": "A bispecific, Fc domain-containing, monoclonal antibody with potential antineoplastic activity. Plamotamab contains two antigen-recognition sites: one for human CD3, a T cell surface antigen, and one for human CD20, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) that is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development and is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies. Upon administration, plamotamab binds to both T-cells and CD20-expressing B-lineage tumor cells. The resulting cross-linkage may trigger a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against the CD20-expressing tumor B-cells. Inclusion of an Fc domain on the antibody prolongs the half-life of the bispecific antibody and enhances T-cell-mediated tumor cell killing because the agent is able to bind to Fc receptors.", + "Plasmid DNA Vaccine pING-hHER3FL": "A plasmid DNA cancer vaccine encoding the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human epidermal growth factor receptor type-3 (HER-3; HER3), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon intramuscular administration of the plasmid DNA vaccine pING-hHER3FL and after cellular uptake by muscle cells, the plasmid DNA expresses HER-3 which, may elicit both antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) and humoral immune responses against tumor cells expressing HER-3. HER-3 plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and its overexpression is associated with poor prognosis. HER-3 is associated with tumor cell resistance to anti-HER-2 therapeutics.", + "Platinum": "", + "Platinum Acetylacetonate-Titanium Dioxide Nanoparticles": "", + "Platinum Compound": "", + "Plevitrexed": "", + "Plicamycin": "", + "Plinabulin": "", + "Plitidepsin": "", + "Plk1 Inhibitor BI 2536": "", + "PLK1 Inhibitor CYC140": "", + "PLK1 Inhibitor TAK-960": "", + "Plocabulin": "", + "Plozalizumab": "", + "pNGVL4a-CRT-E6E7L2 DNA Vaccine": "A therapeutic DNA vaccine encoding human calreticulin (CRT) linked to human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 E6, E7, and L2 proteins, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration via intramuscular injection with electroporation, the pNGVL4a-CRT-E6E7L2 DNA vaccine expresses HPV16 E6, E7 and L2 proteins, which may elicit a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response and humoral immune responses against tumor cells expressing these proteins, resulting in tumor cell lysis and tumor cell death. In addition, HPV16 L2-specific neutralizing antibody may prevent a broad spectrum of HPV infections and HPV-associated cancers. The heat shock protein CRT may potentiate MHC class I presentation to antigen-specific CD8-positive T-cells, enhancing the induction of cellular immunity and the potency of the vaccine.", + "pNGVL4a-Sig/E7(detox)/HSP70 DNA and HPV16 L2/E6/E7 Fusion Protein TA-CIN Vaccine PVX-2": "A cancer vaccine consisting of a combination of two vaccines, a prime pNGVL4a-Sig/E7(detox)/HSP70 DNA vaccine and a boost HPV16 L2/E6/E7 fusion protein TA-CIN vaccine, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. pNGVL4a-Sig/E7(detox)/HSP70 DNA vaccine is an antigen-specific DNA cancer vaccine consisting of the coding sequences of a signal peptide (pNGVL4a-Sig), a detox form of the human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV-16) antigen E7, and the heat shock protein 70 (HSP70). Upon administration, this prime vaccine may generate potent cytotoxic CD8(+) T-cell responses against E7-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell death. HPV16 L2/E6/E7 fusion protein TA-CIN vaccine is a recombinant human papillomavirus (HPV), genetically engineered fusion protein vaccine in which the three HPV16 viral proteins L2, E6 and E7 are fused together in a single tandem fusion protein (TA-CIN; HPV16 L2\\E6\\E7). Upon administration, this boost vaccine may stimulate the immune system to generate HPV16 E6\\E7-specific CD4+ and CD8+ T-cell responses as well as the induction of L2-specific antibodies. In addition, this vaccine may prevent infection and the development of other HPV16-associated diseases. L2, a minor viral capsid protein, is able to induce a strong antibody response against certain HPV types.", + "Pol I Inhibitor CX5461": "", + "Polatuzumab Vedotin": "", + "Polidocanol": "", + "Poliglusam": "", + "Polo-like Kinase 1 Inhibitor GSK461364": "", + "Polo-like Kinase 1 Inhibitor MK1496": "", + "Polo-like Kinase 1 Inhibitor NMS-1286937": "", + "Polo-like Kinase 4 Inhibitor CFI-400945 Fumarate": "", + "Poly-alendronate Dextran-Guanidine Conjugate": "", + "Poly-gamma Glutamic Acid": "", + "Polyamine Analog SL11093": "", + "Polyamine Analogue PG11047": "", + "Polyamine Analogue SBP-101": "", + "Polyamine Transport Inhibitor AMXT-1501 Dicaprate": "", + "Polyandrol": "", + "Polyethylene Glycol Recombinant Endostatin": "", + "Polyethyleneglycol-7-ethyl-10-hydroxycamptothecin DFP-13318": "", + "Polymer-conjugated IL-15 Receptor Agonist NKTR-255": "A long-acting formulation composed of the human cytokine interleukin-15 (IL-15) that is conjugated by polymers, with potential immunomodulating and anti-tumor activities. Upon administration of polymer-conjugated IL-15 receptor agonist NKTR-255, the IL-15 moiety targets and binds to the alpha subunit of the IL-15 receptor on natural killer (NK) and T-cells, thereby activating the IL-15-mediated pathway. This leads to the expansion and activation of natural killer (NK) cells and memory CD8+ T-cells, thereby enhancing the anti-tumor activity of NKs and long-term memory T-lymphocyte immune responses. This may increase tumor cell killing and decrease tumor cell proliferation. In addition, NKTR-255 may, when combined with a tumor-directed antibody, enhance the antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) mechanism. IL-15 is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that plays a key role in the regulation of T- and NK cell activation, proliferation and promotion of their anti-tumor effects. Compared to IL-15 alone, the polymer formulation allows for increased retention at the tumor site and reduced clearance, thereby increasing the effect of IL-15.", + "Polymer-encapsulated Luteolin Nanoparticle": "", + "Polymeric Camptothecin Prodrug XMT-1001": "", + "Polypodium leucotomos Extract": "", + "Polysaccharide-K": "", + "Polysialic Acid": "", + "Polyunsaturated Fatty Acid": "", + "Polyvalent Melanoma Vaccine": "", + "Pomalidomide": "", + "Pomegranate Juice": "", + "Pomegranate Liquid Extract": "", + "Ponatinib": "", + "Ponatinib Hydrochloride": "", + "Porcupine Inhibitor CGX1321": "", + "Porcupine Inhibitor ETC-1922159": "", + "Porcupine Inhibitor RXC004": "", + "Porcupine Inhibitor WNT974": "", + "Porcupine Inhibitor XNW7201": "An orally available inhibitor of porcupine (PORCN), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, PORCN inhibitor XNW7201 targets, binds to and inhibits PORCN in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), which blocks post-translational acylation of Wnt ligands and inhibits their secretion. This prevents the activation of Wnt ligands, interferes with Wnt-mediated signaling, and inhibits cell growth in Wnt-driven tumors. PORCN, a membrane-bound O-acyltransferase (MBOAT), is required for the palmitoylation of Wnt ligands, and plays a key role in Wnt ligand secretion and activity. Wnt signaling is dysregulated in a variety of cancers and plays a key role in cancer cell survival.", + "Porfimer Sodium": "", + "Porfiromycin": "", + "Poziotinib": "", + "PPAR Alpha Antagonist TPST-1120": "An orally bioavailable, small molecule, selective and competitive antagonist of peroxisome proliferator activated receptor alpha (PPARa), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, TPST-1120 targets, binds to and blocks the activity of PPARa, thereby blocking transcription of PPARa target genes leading to an intracellular metabolism shift from fatty acid oxidation (FAO) to glycolysis in FAO-dependent tumors and reducing the production of fatty acids in the tumor microenvironment (TME). As fatty acids are essential for tumor cell growth in FAO-dependent tumor cells and are needed for the metabolism of suppressive immune cells in the TME, including regulatory T-cells (Tregs), reducing the amount of fatty acids leads to a direct killing of FAO-dependent tumor cells. It also skews macrophages from the immune suppressive M2 phenotype to an effector M1 phenotype and facilitates the cytotoxicity of immune effector cells, thereby stimulating an anti-tumor immune response and further killing tumor cells. TPST-1120 also restores the natural inhibitor of angiogenesis thrombospondin-1 (TSP-1) and stimulator of interferon genes (STING) in the TME. PPARa, a ligand-activated nuclear transcription factor and metabolic checkpoint, regulates the expression of FAO genes and lipid metabolism. It plays a key role in immunosuppression in the TME. FAO is a metabolic pathway essential to tumor growth, survival and immunosuppression.", + "PR1 Leukemia Peptide Vaccine": "", + "Pracinostat": "", + "Pralatrexate": "", + "Pralsetinib": "An orally bioavailable selective inhibitor of mutant forms of and fusion products involving the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase RET, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, pralsetinib binds to and targets various RET mutants and RET-containing fusion product. RET gene mutations and translocations result in the upregulation and/or activation of RET tyrosine kinase activity in various cancer cell types; dysregulation of RET activity plays a key role in the development and regression of these cancers.", + "Praluzatamab Ravtansine": "A probody drug conjugate (PDC) composed of a recombinant antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) CD166, which is masked by a cleavable masking peptide, and conjugated to the cytotoxic agent maytansinoid DM4, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of praluzatamab ravtansine and migration to the tumor microenvironment (TME), the cleavable masking peptide, which prevent anti-CD166 antibody binding to the CD166 expressed on both normal cells and tumor cells, is proteolytically cleaved by tumor-associated proteases that are specifically present in the TME. This enables the anti-CD166 antibody moiety of CX-2009 to selectively bind to, be internalized by, and deliver DM4 into CD166-expressing tumor cells. Following internalization, DM4 is released, binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubule assembly/disassembly dynamics, resulting in inhibition of cell division and cell growth of CD166-expressing tumor cells. The masking peptide prevents binding of the anti-CD166 antibody to CD166 in normal tissues, thereby minimizing toxicities.", + "PRAME-targeting T-cell Receptor/Inducible Caspase 9 BPX-701": "", + "Pravastatin Sodium": "", + "Prednimustine": "", + "Prednisolone": "", + "Prednisolone Acetate": "", + "Prednisolone Sodium Phosphate": "", + "Prednisone": "", + "Prexasertib": "", + "Prexigebersen": "", + "PRIMA-1 Analog APR-246": "", + "Prime Cancer Vaccine MVA-BN-CV301": "", + "Prinomastat": "", + "PRMT1 Inhibitor GSK3368715": "", + "PRMT5 Inhibitor JNJ-64619178": "", + "PRMT5 Inhibitor PRT811": "An orally available small molecule inhibitor of protein arginine methyltransferase 5 (PRMT5), with potential antiproliferative and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PRMT5 inhibitor PRT811 selectively binds to PRMT5 and inhibits its function. By inhibiting its methyltransferase activity, levels of both monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues in histones H2A, H3 and H4 are decreased. This modulates the expression of genes involved in several cellular processes, including cellular proliferation. This may increase the expression of antiproliferative genes and/or decrease the expression of genes that promote cell proliferation, which may lead to decreased growth of rapidly proliferating cells, including cancer cells. PRMT5, a type II methyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of both omega-N monomethylarginine (MMA) and symmetric dimethylarginine (sDMA) on histones and a variety of other protein substrates involved in signal transduction and cellular transcription, is overexpressed in several neoplasms. Elevated levels are associated with decreased patient survival.", + "Proapoptotic Sulindac Analog CP-461": "", + "Procarbazine": "", + "Procarbazine Hydrochloride": "", + "Procaspase Activating Compound-1 VO-100": "", + "Progestational IUD": "", + "Prohibitin-Targeting Peptide 1": "", + "Prolgolimab": "A monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, prolgolimab binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) or 2 (PD-L2); it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Prostaglandin E2 EP4 Receptor Inhibitor AN0025": "An orally bioavailable antagonist of the prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) receptor type 4 (EP4; EP-4), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, AN0025 selectively targets, binds to and blocks the activity of immunosuppressive tumor-associated myeloid cells (TAMCs) in the microenvironment. This abolishes TAMC-dependent immunosuppression and reduces tumor cell proliferation. The presence of immunosuppressive myeloid cells in certain tumors is associated with a poor prognosis.", + "Prostaglandin E2 EP4 Receptor Inhibitor E7046": "", + "Prostate Cancer Vaccine ONY-P1": "", + "Prostate Health Cocktail Dietary Supplement": "", + "Prostatic Acid Phosphatase-Sargramostim Fusion Protein PA2024": "", + "Protease-activated Anti-PD-L1 Antibody Prodrug CX-072": "", + "Protein Arginine Methyltransferase 5 Inhibitor GSK3326595": "", + "Protein Arginine Methyltransferase 5 Inhibitor PF-06939999": "", + "Protein Arginine Methyltransferase 5 Inhibitor PRT543": "", + "Protein Kinase C Inhibitor IDE196": "", + "Protein Phosphatase 2A Inhibitor LB-100": "", + "Protein Stabilized Liposomal Docetaxel Nanoparticles": "", + "Protein Tyrosine Kinase 2 Inhibitor IN10018": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the non-receptor, cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase protein tyrosine kinase 2 (focal adhesion kinase 1; FAK1; FAK: PTK2) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, IN10018 targets and inhibits, in an adenosine triphosphate (ATP)-competitive manner, PTK2. This prevents PTK2-mediated downstream signaling and inhibits migration, proliferation, invasion, and survival in PTK2-overexpressing tumor cells. The cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase PTK2, a signal transducer for integrins overexpressed in various tumor cell types, is involved in tumor cell invasion, migration and proliferation.", + "Proxalutamide": "", + "PSA/IL-2/GM-CSF Vaccine": "", + "PSA/PSMA DNA Plasmid INO-5150": "", + "Pseudoisocytidine": "", + "PSMA-targeted Docetaxel Nanoparticles BIND-014": "", + "PSMA-targeted Tubulysin B-containing Conjugate EC1169": "", + "PSMA/CD3 Tri-specific T-cell Activating Construct HPN424": "", + "PTEF-b/CDK9 Inhibitor BAY1251152": "", + "Pterostilbene": "", + "Pumitepa": "", + "Puquitinib": "", + "Puquitinib Mesylate": "", + "Puromycin": "", + "Puromycin Hydrochloride": "", + "PV-10": "", + "PVA Microporous Hydrospheres/Doxorubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Pyrazinamide": "", + "Pyrazoloacridine": "", + "Pyridyl Cyanoguanidine CHS 828": "", + "Pyrotinib": "", + "Pyrotinib Dimaleate": "", + "Pyroxamide": "", + "Pyruvate Kinase Inhibitor TLN-232": "", + "Pyruvate Kinase M2 Isoform Activator TP-1454": "An orally bioavailable activator of pyruvate kinase M2 isoform (PKM2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, PKM2 activator TP-1454 locks PKM2 into the active tetrameric form. This may prevent the production of glycolytic intermediates by the less active dimer form of PKM2, depleting the supply of glycolytic intermediates which are needed for tumor cell growth. This may also inhibit immune suppression mediated by the dimer form of PKM2. Altogether, this may slow tumor cell growth and enhance anti-tumor immune responses, thereby inhibiting tumor cell proliferation. PKM2, the predominant PK isoform found in tumor cells, is responsible for catalyzing the last step of glycolysis. PKM2 plays a critical role in the metabolic changes observed in cancer and immune cells and establishes a metabolic advantage for tumor cells over the tumor immune microenvironment.", + "Qilisheng Immunoregulatory Oral Solution": "", + "Quadrivalent Human Papillomavirus (types 6, 11, 16, 18) Recombinant Vaccine": "", + "Quarfloxin": "", + "Quinacrine Hydrochloride": "", + "Quinine": "", + "Quisinostat": "", + "Quizartinib": "", + "R-(-)-Gossypol Acetic Acid": "", + "Rabusertib": "", + "Racemetyrosine/Methoxsalen/Phenytoin/Sirolimus SM-88": "A combination agent containing racemetyrosine, methoxsalen, phenytoin and sirolimus, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of racemetyrosine/methoxsalen/phenytoin/sirolimus SM-88, racemetyrosine, being a dysfunctional and modified form of the non-essential amino acid tyrosine, is specifically taken up by cancer cells through the transporter L-amino acid transferase-1 (LAT1; CD98). As a tyrosine derivative and faulty amino acid protein building block, racemetyrosine prevents protein synthesis in cancer cells. Specifically, this prevents mucin-1 (MUC1) protein synthesis. MUC1 is highly overexpressed by most cancer cells and regulates the increased reactive oxygen species (ROS) in cancer cells created from the altered metabolism that cancer cells utilize, by upregulating key antioxidant defenses and preventing ROS-mediated apoptosis. In the absence of MUC1, ROS levels are increased, leading to an increase in oxidative stress, and induction of apoptosis. Also, being a protective transmembrane protein, MUC1 is part of the protective layer on the outside of cancer cells and plays a key role in shielding the cancer cell from the immune system. The loss of MUC1 compromises the cell membrane, thereby making the cancer cell more vulnerable to be recognized and attacked by the immune system. Rapamycin, a mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitor, increases the cancer cells' need for tyrosine uptake and increases the uptake of racemetyrosine by LAT1. Phenytoin stimulates the release of reactive lipid species by the liver which accumulate in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and are taken up by cancer cells, thereby further increasing ROS within the cancer cell and increasing oxidative-related apoptosis. Mehoxsalen promotes toxic electron transfer and increases melanin, increases oxidative reactions and production of ROS. This further stimulates oxidative stress-mediated apoptosis. Normal cells do not regularly take up certain non-essential amino acids, such as tyrosine, but readily convert phenylalanine to tyrosine, so normal healthy cells are not expected to consume racemetyrosine.", + "Racotumomab": "", + "RAD51 Inhibitor CYT-0851": "", + "Radgocitabine": "An analogue of the nucleoside deoxycytidine with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, radgocitabine is incorporated into DNA and directly inhibits the activity of DNA polymerase, which may result in inhibition of DNA replication and cell cycle arrest in the S and G2/M phases, DNA fragmentation, and tumor cell apoptosis.", + "Radgocitabine Hydrochloride": "The hydrochloride salt form of radgocitabine, an analogue of the nucleoside deoxycytidine with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, radgocitabine is incorporated into DNA and directly inhibits the activity of DNA polymerase, which may result in inhibition of DNA replication and cell cycle arrest in the S and G2/M phases, DNA fragmentation, and tumor cell apoptosis.", + "Radioactive Iodine": "", + "Radiolabeled CC49": "", + "Radium Ra 223 Dichloride": "", + "Radium Ra 224-labeled Calcium Carbonate Microparticles": "", + "Radix Angelicae Sinensis/Radix Astragali Herbal Supplement": "", + "Radotinib Hydrochloride": "", + "Raf Kinase Inhibitor HM95573": "", + "RAF Kinase Inhibitor L-779450": "", + "RAF Kinase Inhibitor XL281": "", + "Ragifilimab": "An anti-human glucocorticoid-induced tumor necrosis factor receptor (tumor necrosis factor superfamily, member 18; TNFRSF18; GITR; CD357) agonistic humanized monoclonal antibody, with potential immune checkpoint modulating activity. Ragifilimab binds to and activates GITRs found on multiple types of T-cells. This stimulates the immune system, induces both the activation and proliferation of tumor-antigen-specific T effector cells (Teff), and suppresses the function of activated T regulatory cells (Tregs). This leads to tumor cell eradication. GITR, a member of the TNF receptor superfamily and T-cell receptor co-stimulator, is expressed on the surface of multiple immune cell types, including Tregs, Teffs, B-cells, and natural killer (NK) cells. Inappropriately activated Tregs suppress Teffs and suppress T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling.", + "Ralaniten Acetate": "", + "Ralimetinib Mesylate": "", + "Raloxifene": "", + "Raloxifene Hydrochloride": "", + "Raltitrexed": "", + "Ramucirumab": "", + "Ranibizumab": "", + "Ranimustine": "", + "Ranolazine": "", + "Ranpirnase": "", + "RARalpha Agonist IRX5183": "", + "Ras Inhibitor": "", + "Ras Peptide ASP": "", + "Ras Peptide CYS": "", + "Ras Peptide VAL": "", + "Razoxane": "", + "Realgar-Indigo naturalis Formulation": "", + "Rebastinib Tosylate": "", + "Rebeccamycin": "", + "Rebimastat": "", + "Receptor Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor R1530": "", + "Recombinant Adenovirus-p53 SCH-58500": "", + "Recombinant Anti-WT1 Immunotherapeutic GSK2302024A": "", + "Recombinant Bacterial Minicells VAX014": "A population of recombinant bacterial minicells (rBMCs) engineered to express the alpha3beta1 (a3b1) and alpha5beta1 (a5b1) integrin-targeting invasion and that contain a bacterial protein toxin, perfringolysin O (PFO), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravesical administration, VAX014 selectively targets and binds to tumor cells expressing un-ligated a3b1 and/or a5b1 integrins and delivers PFO, leading to destabilization of tumor cell membranes and tumor cell lysis. By targeting un-ligated a3b1 and/or a5b1 integrins, VAX014 selectively targets tumor cells over normal cells, with potentially less adverse effects in comparison with first generation integrin-targeted therapies.", + "Recombinant Bispecific Single-Chain Antibody rM28": "", + "Recombinant CD40-Ligand": "", + "Recombinant Erwinia asparaginase JZP-458": "A recombinant form of asparaginase (Erwinia asparaginase; crisantaspase) derived from the bacterium Erwinia chrysanthemi, genetically engineered to be produced in Pseudomonas fluorescens, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of recombinant Erwinia asparaginase JZP-458, the recombinant asparaginase hydrolyzes L-asparagine to L-aspartic acid and ammonia. This depletes cancer cells of asparagine, which blocks protein synthesis and tumor cell proliferation. Asparagine is critical to protein synthesis in cancer cells, which cannot synthesize this amino acid due to the absence of the enzyme asparagine synthase. JZP-458 can be used as an alternative in patients who are hypersensitive to Escherichia (E.) coli-derived asparaginase products.", + "Recombinant Erythropoietin": "", + "Recombinant Fas Ligand": "", + "Recombinant Fractalkine": "", + "Recombinant Granulocyte-Macrophage Colony-Stimulating Factor": "", + "Recombinant Human 6Ckine": "", + "Recombinant Human Adenovirus Type 5 H101": "", + "Recombinant Human Angiotensin Converting Enzyme 2 APN01": "", + "Recombinant Human Apolipoprotein(a) Kringle V MG1102": "", + "Recombinant Human EGF-rP64K/Montanide ISA 51 Vaccine": "", + "Recombinant Human Endostatin": "", + "Recombinant Human Hsp110-gp100 Chaperone Complex Vaccine": "", + "Recombinant Human Papillomavirus 11-valent Vaccine": "A recombinant, 11-valent, human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine, produced in Hansenula polymorpha, with potential immunoprotective and antineoplastic properties. Upon administration, recombinant HPV 11-valent vaccine may generate humoral and cellular immunity against the 11 undisclosed types of HPV antigens, thereby preventing cervical infection upon exposure to these 11 types of HPV. In addition, this agent may stimulate an antitumoral cellular immune response against cervical cancer associated with HPV infection.", + "Recombinant Human Papillomavirus Bivalent Vaccine": "", + "Recombinant Human Papillomavirus Nonavalent Vaccine": "", + "Recombinant Human Plasminogen Kringle 5 Domain ABT 828": "", + "Recombinant Human TRAIL-Trimer Fusion Protein SCB-313": "A recombinant fusion protein composed of the human C-propeptide of alpha1(I) collagen (Trimer-Tag) to the C-terminus of the mature human tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL; Apo2L), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. The binding of TRAIL to the Trimer-Tag allows TRAIL to form a stable covalently-linked homotrimer. Upon administration of recombinant human TRAIL-trimer fusion protein SCB-313, this fusion protein targets, binds to and trimerizes the TRAIL-receptors, pro-apoptotic death receptors (DRs) TRAIL-R1 (death receptor 4; DR4) and TRAIL-R2 (death receptor 5; DR5), expressed on tumor cells, thereby activating caspases and inducing apoptosis in TRAIL-R1/R2-expressing tumor cells. TRAIL, a homotrimeric type II transmembrane protein and member of the TNF superfamily of cytokines, plays a key role in the induction of apoptosis through TRAIL-mediated death receptor pathways. The pro-apoptotic cell surface receptors TRAIL-R1 and -R2, members of the TNF receptor family, are overexpressed by a variety of cancer cell types; The induction of receptor trimerization is needed for the initiation of the apoptotic signaling pathway. The TRAIL-Trimer retains similar bioactivity and receptor binding kinetics as native TRAIL but has more favorable pharmacokinetics and antitumor activity than native TRAIL.", + "Recombinant Humanized Anti-HER-2 Bispecific Monoclonal Antibody MBS301": "A glyco-engineered heterodimeric bispecific monoclonal antibody, derived from trastuzumab and pertuzumab, directed against two distinct epitopes of the extracellular dimerization (ECD) domain of the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2; HER-2), with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, recombinant humanized anti-HER-2 bispecific monoclonal antibody MBS301 simultaneously targets and binds to two separate, non-overlapping epitopes of HER-2. This prevents the activation of HER-2 signaling pathways. Also, by binding to HER-2, MBS301 induces an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor cells that overexpress HER-2. This results in tumor cell apoptosis and inhibits tumor cell proliferation of HER-2-overexpressing tumor cells. HER-2, overexpressed on a variety of tumor cell types, plays an important role in tumor cell proliferation, differentiation and survival.", + "Recombinant Interferon": "", + "Recombinant Interferon Alfa": "", + "Recombinant Interferon Alfa-1b": "", + "Recombinant Interferon Alfa-2a": "", + "Recombinant Interferon Alfa-2b": "", + "Recombinant Interferon Alpha 2b-like Protein": "", + "Recombinant Interferon Beta": "", + "Recombinant Interferon Gamma": "", + "Recombinant Interleukin-2": "", + "Recombinant Interleukin-6": "", + "Recombinant Interleukin-12": "", + "Recombinant Interleukin-13": "", + "Recombinant Interleukin-18": "", + "Recombinant KSA Glycoprotein CO17-1A": "", + "Recombinant Leukocyte Interleukin": "", + "Recombinant Leukoregulin": "", + "Recombinant Luteinizing Hormone": "", + "Recombinant Macrophage Colony-Stimulating Factor": "", + "Recombinant MAGE-3.1 Antigen": "", + "Recombinant MIP1-alpha Variant ECI301": "", + "Recombinant Modified Vaccinia Ankara-5T4 Vaccine": "", + "Recombinant Oncolytic Poliovirus PVS-RIPO": "", + "Recombinant Platelet Factor 4": "", + "Recombinant PRAME Protein Plus AS15 Adjuvant GSK2302025A": "", + "Recombinant Saccharomyces Cerevisia-CEA(610D)-Expressing Vaccine GI-6207": "", + "Recombinant Super-compound Interferon": "", + "Recombinant Thyroglobulin": "", + "Recombinant Thyrotropin Alfa": "", + "Recombinant Transforming Growth Factor-Beta": "", + "Recombinant Transforming Growth Factor-Beta-2": "", + "Recombinant Tumor Necrosis Factor-Alpha": "", + "Recombinant Tyrosinase-Related Protein-2": "", + "Recombinant Vesicular Stomatitis Virus-expressing Human Interferon Beta and Sodium-Iodide Symporter": "", + "Redaporfin": "A bacteriochlorin-based photosensitizer, with antineoplastic activity upon photodynamic therapy (PDT). Following intravenous administration, redaporfin preferentially accumulates in hyperproliferative tissues, such as tumors. Local application of laser light at the tumor site results in the absorption of light by this agent and a photodynamic reaction between LUZ 11 and oxygen. This results in the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS), which includes singlet oxygen molecules, the superoxide ion, and other cytotoxic free radicals. The formation of ROS induces free radical-mediated DNA damage and cell death.", + "Refametinib": "", + "Regorafenib": "", + "Relacorilant": "", + "Relatlimab": "", + "Relugolix": "", + "Remetinostat": "", + "Renal Cell Carcinoma Peptides Vaccine IMA901": "", + "Reparixin": "", + "Repotrectinib": "", + "Resiquimod": "", + "Resiquimod Topical Gel": "", + "Resistant Starch": "", + "Resminostat": "", + "Resveratrol": "", + "Resveratrol Formulation SRT501": "", + "RET Inhibitor DS-5010": "", + "RET Mutation/Fusion Inhibitor BLU-667": "", + "RET/SRC Inhibitor TPX-0046": "An orally bioavailable selective dual inhibitor of fusions and mutations involving the proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase rearranged during transfection (ret) and the src family tyrosine kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, the RET/SRC inhibitor TPX-0046 specifically targets and binds to ret mutants and ret-containing fusion products. This results in an inhibition of cell growth of tumor cells that exhibit increased ret activity. By inhibiting src kinase-mediated signaling and reducing the src-initiated recruitment of multiple receptor tyrosine kinases involved in bypass resistance, TPX-0046 may be able to overcome tumor resistance which may increase its therapeutic effect. Ret overexpression, activating mutations, and fusions result in the upregulation and/or overactivation of ret tyrosine kinase activity in various cancer cell types; dysregulation of ret activity plays a key role in the development and progression of these cancers. Src tyrosine kinases are upregulated in many tumor cells and play important roles in tumor cell proliferation, survival, migration, invasion and angiogenesis. Src upregulation is seen in tumors with acquired resistance to RET inhibitors.", + "Retaspimycin": "", + "Retaspimycin Hydrochloride": "", + "Retelliptine": "", + "Retifanlimab": "A proprietary humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, retifanlimab binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1) or 2 (PD-L2); it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Retinoic Acid Agent Ro 16-9100": "", + "Retinoid 9cUAB30": "", + "Retinol": "", + "Retinyl Acetate": "", + "Retinyl Palmitate": "", + "Retrovector Encoding Mutant Anti-Cyclin G1": "", + "Revdofilimab": "An agonistic humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody that recognizes the co-stimulatory receptor OX40 (CD134; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 4; TNFRSF4), with potential immunostimulatory activity. Upon administration, revdofilimab selectively binds to and activates OX40. This may induce the proliferation of memory and effector T-lymphocytes and inhibit the function of T-regulatory cells (Tregs) in the tumor microenvironment (TME). OX40, a cell surface glycoprotein and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF), is expressed on T-lymphocytes and plays an essential role in T-cell activation and differentiation.", + "Rexinoid NRX 194204": "", + "Rezivertinib": "An orally available third-generation and selective inhibitor of certain epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) activating mutations, including the resistance mutations T790M and L858R, as well as exon 19 deletion, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, rezivertinib specifically and covalently binds to and inhibits selective EGFR mutations, with particularly high selectivity against the T790M mutation, which prevents EGFR mutant-mediated signaling and leads to cell death in EGFR mutant-expressing tumor cells. Compared to some other EGFR inhibitors, BPI-7711 may have therapeutic benefits in tumors with T790M-mediated drug resistance. This agent shows minimal activity against wild-type EGFR (wt EGFR), and does not cause dose-limiting toxicities that occur during the use of non-selective EGFR inhibitors, which also inhibit wt EGFR. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization.", + "RFT5-dgA Immunotoxin IMTOX25": "", + "Rhenium Re 188 BMEDA-labeled Liposomes": "", + "Rhenium Re-186 Hydroxyethylidene Diphosphonate": "", + "Rhenium Re-188 Ethiodized Oil": "", + "Rhenium Re-188 Etidronate": "", + "Rhizoxin": "", + "RhoC Peptide Vaccine RV001V": "", + "Ribociclib": "", + "Ribociclib/Letrozole": "", + "Ribonuclease QBI-139": "", + "Ribosome-Inactivating Protein CY503": "", + "Ribozyme RPI.4610": "", + "Rice Bran": "", + "Ricolinostat": "", + "Ridaforolimus": "", + "Rigosertib": "", + "Rigosertib Sodium": "", + "Rilimogene Galvacirepvec": "", + "Rilimogene Galvacirepvec/Rilimogene Glafolivec": "", + "Rilimogene Glafolivec": "", + "Rilotumumab": "", + "Rindopepimut": "", + "Ripertamab": "A chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against human CD20, with potential antineoplastic activity. Ripertamab binds to the B-cell-specific cell surface antigen CD20, which triggers an immune response against CD20-positive B-cells, leading to apoptosis. CD20, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein, is exclusively expressed on B-cells during most stages of B-cell development and is often overexpressed in B-cell malignancies.", + "RIPK1 Inhibitor GSK3145095": "", + "Ripretinib": "", + "Risperidone Formulation in Rumenic Acid": "", + "Ritrosulfan": "", + "Rituximab": "", + "Rituximab and Hyaluronidase Human": "", + "Rituximab Conjugate CON-4619": "", + "Rivaroxaban": "", + "Riviciclib": "", + "Rivoceranib": "", + "Rivoceranib Mesylate": "", + "RNR Inhibitor COH29": "", + "Robatumumab": "", + "Roblitinib": "An inhibitor of human fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, roblitinib binds to and inhibits the activity of FGFR4, which leads to an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in FGFR4-overexpressing cells. FGFR4 is a receptor tyrosine kinase upregulated in certain tumor cells and involved in tumor cell proliferation, differentiation, angiogenesis, and survival.", + "ROBO1-targeted BiCAR-NKT Cells": "A preparation of natural killer T (NKT) cells engineered to express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for roundabout homolog 1 (ROBO1, Robo1), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the ROBO1-targeted BiCAR-NK/T cells target and bind to ROBO1 expressed on the surface of tumor cells. This induces selective toxicity in ROBO1-expressing tumor cells. ROBO1, a member of the axon guidance receptor family, is often overexpressed in a variety of tumor types. It is involved in axon guidance, cell proliferation, cell motility and angiogenesis.", + "Rocakinogene Sifuplasmid": "A plasmid DNA vaccine encoding the human pro-inflammatory cytokine interleukin-12 (IL-12) with potential immunoactivating activity. Upon intramuscular delivery by electroporation of rocakinogene sifuplasmid, IL-12 is translated in cells and activates the immune system by promoting the activation of natural killer cells (NK cells), inducing secretion of interferon-gamma and promoting cytotoxic T-cell responses against tumor cells. This may result in both immune-mediated tumor cell death and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation.", + "Rocapuldencel-T": "", + "Rociletinib": "", + "Rodorubicin": "", + "Roducitabine": "An orally available small molecule and nucleoside antimetabolite with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tRoducitabine is taken up by cells through a carrier-mediated transporter, phosphorylated by uridine cytidine kinase (UCK) and then further phosphorylated to its diphosphate (RX-DP) and triphosphate forms (RX-TP). The triphosphate form is incorporated into RNA and inhibits RNA synthesis. The diphosphate RX-DP is reduced by ribonucleotide reductase (RR) to dRX-DP; its triphosphate form (dRX-TP) is incorporated into DNA. In addition, RX-3117 also inhibits DNA methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1). This eventually leads to cell cycle arrest and the induction of apoptosis. UCK is the rate-limiting enzyme in the pyrimidine-nucleotide salvage pathway.", + "Rofecoxib": "", + "Roflumilast": "", + "Rogaratinib": "", + "Rogletimide": "", + "Rolinsatamab Talirine": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a proprietary monoclonal antibody against the prolactin receptor (PRLR) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of rolinsatamab talirine, rolinsatamab targets and binds to PRLR expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, talirine is released and kills the PRLR-expressing tumor cells, through an as of yet unknown mechanism of action. PRLR, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is overexpressed by a variety of tumor cell types.", + "Romidepsin": "", + "Roneparstat": "An N-acetylated, glycol-split form of heparin that is devoid of anticoagulant activity and is an inhibitor of heparanase with antineoplastic and antiangiogenic activities. Upon subcutaneous administration, roneparstat inhibits the activity of heparanase. This prevents the heparanase-mediated cleavage of heparan sulfate (HS) proteoglycans on cell surfaces and within the extracellular matrix. In addition, this agent prevents the heparanase-induced production of a number of angiogenic growth factors, including matrix metalloproteinase-9, hepatocyte growth factor and vascular endothelial growth factor. Altogether, this leads to an inhibition of both tumor cell growth and angiogenesis. Heparanase, an enzyme that is responsible for the proteolytic cleavage of proteoglycans, is upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types and promotes tumor cell growth; it plays a key role in tumor cell invasion, metastasis and angiogenesis.", + "Roniciclib": "", + "Ropeginterferon Alfa-2B": "A long-acting formulation of recombinant interferon alpha subtype 2b (IFN-a2b), in which IFN-a2b is coupled, via proline, to polyethylene glycol (PEG), with antiviral, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of ropeginterferon alfa-2b, IFN-a2b targets and binds to specific IFN cell-surface receptors. This activates IFN-mediated signal transduction pathways and induces the transcription and translation of genes with IFN-specific response elements (ISREs). Their protein products mediate antiviral, antiproliferative, anticancer, and immune-modulating effects. The PEG moiety inhibits proteolytic breakdown and clearance of IFN-a2b, which prolongs its half-life, extends the duration of its therapeutic effects and allows less frequent dosing. The proline linker facilitates the synthesis of a single positional isomer which further increases its stability and half-life.", + "Ropidoxuridine": "", + "Ropocamptide": "A synthetic form of a human antimicrobial peptide (37 amino acids), belonging to the cathelicidin family, with antimicrobial, anti-inflammatory, immunostimulating and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral injection of the ropocamptide, this peptide increases p53 expression, and induces phosphatidylserine externalization, DNA fragmentation, cell cycle arrest and caspase-independent apoptosis-inducing factor (AIF)/ endonuclease G (EndoG)-mediated apoptotic cell death in susceptible cancer cells. This suppresses tumor cell proliferation. LL-37, a protein secreted by bone marrow cells, circulating leukocytes, and various epithelial tissues, plays a crucial role in the innate host immune defense via the regulation of leukocyte chemotaxis and cytokine production; it also promotes wound healing.", + "Roquinimex": "", + "RORgamma Agonist LYC-55716": "", + "Rosabulin": "", + "Rose Bengal Solution PV-10": "", + "Rosiglitazone Maleate": "", + "Rosmantuzumab": "", + "Rosopatamab": "A humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) against the external domain of the Prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA), overexpressed in the malignant prostate and its metastases. Although PSMA is not a biomarker of disease progression, over-expression indicates an aggressive phenotype of the prostate cancer. Rosopatamab was generated by replacing murine Ig sequences with human ones, thereby MoAb huJ591can be administered to patients on multiple occasions over long time periods without inducing an immune response. Radiolabelled MoAb huJ591 may be used in immunotherapy of prostate cancer.", + "Rosuvastatin": "", + "Rovalpituzumab Tesirine": "", + "RSK1-4 Inhibitor PMD-026": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinase p90 ribosomal S6 kinase (p90RSK; RSK) subtypes 1-4, with high selectivity for RSK subtype 2 (RSK2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of the RSK1-4 inhibitor PMD-026, this agent targets and inhibits the RSK subtypes, thereby inhibiting RSK-mediated signaling. This prevents the phosphorylation and activation of the transcription factor Y-box binding protein-1 (YB-1) and leads to cell cycle arrest, an induction of apoptosis, and an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in RSK-expressing tumor cells. RSK is overexpressed in a variety of cancers, especially in triple negative breast cancer (TNBC). It plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation, differentiation, survival, and metastasis.", + "Rubitecan": "", + "Rucaparib": "", + "Rucaparib Camsylate": "", + "Rucaparib Phosphate": "", + "Ruthenium Ru-106": "", + "Ruthenium-based Small Molecule Therapeutic BOLD-100": "A ruthenium-based, small molecule that selectively inhibits stress-induced upregulation of GRP78, with potential antineoplastic activity. Although the exact mechanisms(s) through which this agent exerts its effects have yet to be fully elucidated, upon administration, BOLD-100 may selectively inhibit stress-induced upregulation of GRP78, thereby preventing the activation of multiple GRP78-mediated pathways and blocking GRP78-induced suppression of apoptotic pathways. This may lead to the induction of tumor cell apoptosis and slow tumor cell proliferation. GRP78, the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) chaperone and unfolded protein response (UPR) regulator, is overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cell types. Its expression is associated with increased tumor cell survival and proliferation, as well as angiogenesis and resistance to chemotherapy.", + "Ruthenium-based Transferrin Targeting Agent NKP-1339": "", + "Ruxolitinib": "", + "Ruxolitinib Phosphate": "", + "Ruxotemitide": "A peptide derived from human lactoferrin, with potential lytic and immunostimulating activities. Upon transdermal injection directly into the tumor, ruxotemitide may bind to the tumor cell membranes and subsequently lyse tumor cells, thereby inducing tumor cell necrosis. In turn, presentation of the tumor antigens to the immune system may induce systemic innate and adaptive immune responses mediated by anti-tumor natural killer (NK) cells, cytotoxic T lymphocytes, and natural killer T (NKT) cells. This may trigger an immune response against tumor associated antigens on tumors distant from the primary tumor. Human lactoferrin, a 692 amino acid glycoprotein, belongs to the transferrin family of metal-binding proteins.", + "S1P Receptor Agonist KRP203": "", + "S-Adenosylmethionine": "", + "S-equol": "", + "Sabarubicin": "", + "Sabatolimab": "An inhibitor of the inhibitory T-cell receptor T-cell immunoglobulin and mucin domain-containing protein 3 (TIM-3; hepatitis A virus cellular receptor 2; HAVCR2), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, sabatolimab binds to TIM-3 expressed on certain immune cells, including tumor infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs). This abrogates T-cell inhibition, activates antigen-specific T-lymphocytes and enhances cytotoxic T-cell-mediated tumor cell lysis resulting in a reduction in tumor growth. TIM-3, a transmembrane protein expressed on certain T-cells, is associated with tumor-mediated immune suppression.", + "Sacituzumab Govitecan": "", + "Sacubitril/Valsartan": "", + "Safingol": "", + "Sagopilone": "", + "Salirasib": "", + "Salmonella VNP20009": "", + "Sam68 Modulator CWP232291": "", + "Samalizumab": "", + "Samarium Sm 153-DOTMP": "", + "Samotolisib": "", + "Samrotamab Vedotin": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a proprietary monoclonal antibody against a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of ABBV-085 targets and binds to the TAA expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the TAA-expressing cancer cells, through an as of yet unknown mechanism of action.", + "Samuraciclib": "An orally available, selective inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinase 7 (CDK7) with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, samuraciclib selectively and competitively binds to the CDK7 ATP binding site, thereby inhibiting CDK7-mediated signaling. CDK7, a serine/threonine kinase, plays a role in controlling cell cycle progression, transcriptional regulation, and promotes the expression of key oncogenes such as c-Myc through the phosphorylation of RNA polymerase II. Inhibition of CDK7 may inhibit tumor cell proliferation in certain cancers that are dependent on CDK7-mediated transcriptional regulation and signaling.", + "Sapacitabine": "", + "Sapanisertib": "", + "Sapitinib": "", + "Saracatinib": "", + "Saracatinib Difumarate": "", + "SarCNU": "", + "Sardomozide": "", + "Sargramostim": "", + "Sasanlimab": "An inhibitor of the human inhibitory receptor programmed cell death 1 (PD-1; PDCD1), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, sasanlimab targets and binds to PD-1 and blocks the interaction between PD-1 and its ligands, PD-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) and PD-1 ligand 2 (PD-L2). This prevents the activation of PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of natural killer (NK) cells and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) against tumor cells. PD-1, an inhibitory receptor belonging to the B7-receptor family, is expressed on activated T-lymphocytes, B-cells and NK cells; it functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands, and plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Satraplatin": "", + "Savolitinib": "", + "SBIL-2": "", + "Scopoletin": "", + "SDF-1 Receptor Antagonist PTX-9908": "A stromal cell-derived factor 1 (SDF-1; CXCL12) analog and inhibitor of C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4 (CXCR4), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, PTX-9908 selectively targets and binds to CXCR4, thereby preventing the binding of CXCR4 to its ligand SDF-1. This inhibits receptor activation and results in decreased proliferation and migration of CXCR4-overexpressing tumor cells. The G protein-coupled receptor CXCR4, which is overexpressed in several tumor cell types, promotes tumor angiogenesis, tumor cell proliferation, survival, invasion and metastasis. SDF-1, a major chemotactic factor, plays a key role in mediating cell trafficking via selective binding to CXCR4.", + "Seclidemstat": "", + "Sedoxantrone Trihydrochloride": "", + "Selatinib Ditosilate": "", + "Selective Androgen Receptor Modulator RAD140": "", + "Selective Cytokine Inhibitory Drug CC-1088": "", + "Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader AZD9496": "", + "Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader AZD9833": "", + "Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader LSZ102": "", + "Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader LX-039": "An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SERD LX-039 specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells.", + "Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader LY3484356": "An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, LY3484356 specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells.", + "Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader SRN-927": "", + "Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator CC-8490": "", + "Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator TAS-108": "", + "Selective Glucocorticoid Receptor Antagonist CORT125281": "", + "Selective Human Estrogen-receptor Alpha Partial Agonist TTC-352": "", + "Seliciclib": "", + "Selicrelumab": "", + "Selinexor": "", + "Selitrectinib": "", + "Selonsertib": "", + "Selpercatinib": "", + "Selumetinib": "", + "Selumetinib Sulfate": "", + "Semaxanib": "", + "Semuloparin": "", + "Semustine": "", + "Seneca Valley Virus-001": "", + "Seocalcitol": "", + "Sepantronium Bromide": "", + "Serabelisib": "", + "Serclutamab Talirine": "A antibody drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of serclutamab, an affinity-matured humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) conjugated to a talirine, a cytotoxic, DNA minor groove crosslinking agent and pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD) dimer, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of serclutamab talirine, the serclutamab moiety targets and binds to EGFR on tumor cell surfaces. Following receptor internalization and lysosome-mediated cleavage, talirine is released. In turn, the imine groups of the PBD moiety bind to the N2 positions of guanines on opposite strands of DNA. This induces DNA strand breaks, inhibits DNA replication, leads to G2/M cell cycle arrest, induces cell death, and inhibits the proliferation of EGFR-overexpressing tumor cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) that is overexpressed by a variety of cancers, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and survival.", + "SERD D-0502": "", + "SERD G1T48": "", + "SERD GDC-9545": "", + "SERD SAR439859": "", + "SERD SHR9549": "", + "SERD ZN-c5": "An orally available selective estrogen receptor degrader/downregulator (SERD), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SERD ZN-c5 specifically targets and binds to the estrogen receptor (ER) and induces a conformational change that results in ER degradation. This prevents ER-mediated signaling and inhibits both the growth and survival of ER-expressing cancer cells.", + "Serdemetan": "", + "Sergiolide": "", + "Seribantumab": "", + "Serine/Threonine Kinase Inhibitor CBP501": "", + "Serine/Threonine Kinase Inhibitor XL418": "", + "Serplulimab": "A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell receptor programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; PDCD1; CD279), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, serplulimab targets, binds to and inhibits PD-1 and its downstream signaling pathways. This may restore immune function through the activation of T-cells and T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. PD-1, a transmembrane protein in the immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) expressed on T-cells, functions as an immune checkpoint that negatively regulates T-cell activation and effector function when activated by its ligands programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1) and 2 (PD-L2); it plays an important role in tumor evasion from host immunity.", + "Sevacizumab": "", + "Seviteronel": "", + "Shared Anti-Idiotype-AB-S006": "", + "Shared Anti-Idiotype-AB-S024A": "", + "Shark Cartilage": "", + "Shark Cartilage Extract AE-941": "", + "Shenqi Fuzheng Injection SQ001": "An injectable formulation composed of the two Chinese medicinal herbs Radix astragali, the root of astragalus membranaceus (huangqi) and Radix codonopsis, the root of Codonopsis pilosula (dangshen), with potential antineoplastic adjuvant and chemoprotective activities that may prevent cancer-related fatigue. Although the exact mechanisms by which shenqi fuzheng injection (SFI) have yet to be fully elucidated, the herbs may improve tumor response and/or reduce the toxicity of certain chemotherapeutics when administered together. It may also alleviate chemotherapy-associated immunosuppression.", + "Sho-Saiko-To": "", + "Short Chain Fatty Acid HQK-1004": "", + "SHP2 Inhibitor JAB-3068": "", + "SHP2 Inhibitor RLY-1971": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of protein tyrosine phosphatase (PTP) non-receptor type 11 (SHP2; Src homology region 2 domain phosphatase; PTPN11), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, SHP2 inhibitor RLY-1971 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SHP2. This prevents SHP2-mediated signaling, inhibits MAPK signaling and prevents growth of SHP2-expressing tumor cells. SHP2, an oncoprotein overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types, regulates cell survival, differentiation and proliferation through activation of the Ras-Raf-MEK-ERK signaling pathway. The Ras-MAPK pathway is often hyperactivated in cancer cells due to specific mutations and rearrangements and are dependent on SHP2 for their oncogenic signaling. SHP2 also regulates programmed cell death 1 (PD-1)-mediated signal transduction and is involved in immune checkpoint modulation.", + "SHP2 Inhibitor RMC-4630": "", + "SHP2 Inhibitor TNO155": "", + "SHP-1 Agonist SC-43": "", + "Shu Yu Wan Formula": "", + "Sialyl Tn Antigen": "", + "Sialyl Tn-KLH Vaccine": "", + "Sibrotuzumab": "", + "siG12D LODER": "", + "Silatecan AR-67": "", + "Silibinin": "", + "Silicon Phthalocyanine 4": "", + "Silmitasertib Sodium": "", + "Siltuximab": "", + "Simalikalactone D": "", + "Simeprevir": "", + "Simlukafusp Alfa": "A recombinant fusion protein comprised of a human monoclonal antibody directed against fibroblast activation protein-alpha (FAP) linked to an engineered, variant form of interleukin-2 (IL-2v), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of simlukafusp alfa, the monoclonal antibody moiety recognizes and binds to FAP, thereby concentrating IL-2 in FAP-expressing tumor tissue. Subsequently, the IL-2 moiety of this fusion protein may stimulate a local immune response and activate natural killer (NK) cells and cytotoxic T-cells. FAP is a cell surface protein that is expressed on a wide variety of cancer cells. IL-2v cannot bind to IL-2 receptor-alpha (CD25, IL2Ra) and does not activate regulatory T-cells (Tregs).", + "Simmitinib": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of numerous tyrosine kinases (TKs) including fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor type 2 (VEGFR2; KDR), and colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; CSF-1R), with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, simmitinib binds to and inhibits the activities of these TKs, thereby preventing both the activation of downstream signaling pathways and the proliferation of tumor cells overexpressing these TKs. FGFR, VEGFR2, and CSF1R are upregulated in a variety of cancer cell types and play key roles in tumor cell proliferation, angiogenesis, and metastasis.", + "Simotaxel": "", + "Simtuzumab": "", + "Simurosertib": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of cell division cycle 7 (cell division cycle 7-related protein kinase; CDC7), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, simurosertib binds to and inhibits CDC7; this prevents the initiation of DNA replication during mitosis, which causes cell cycle arrest and induces apoptosis. This inhibits cell growth in CDC7-overexpressing tumor cells. CDC7, a serine/threonine kinase and cell division cycle protein, is overexpressed in a variety of cancers and plays a key role in the activation of DNA replication and the regulation of cell cycle progression.", + "Sintilimab": "", + "Siplizumab": "", + "Sipuleucel-T": "", + "Siremadlin": "An orally bioavailable human double minute 2 homolog (HDM2) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Siremadlin inhibits the binding of the HDM2 protein to the transcriptional activation domain of the tumor suppressor protein p53. By preventing this HDM2-p53 interaction, the proteasome-mediated enzymatic degradation of p53 is inhibited, which may result in the restoration of both p53 signaling and p53-mediated induction of tumor cell apoptosis. HDM2, a zinc finger protein and negative regulator of the p53 pathway, is often overexpressed in cancer cells and has been implicated in cancer cell proliferation and survival.", + "siRNA-transfected Peripheral Blood Mononuclear Cells APN401": "", + "Sirolimus": "", + "SIRPa-4-1BBL Fusion Protein DSP107": "A bi-functional, trimeric, fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domains (ECDs) of human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha; SIRPa; CD172a) fused to a 4-1BB ligand (4-1BBL), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory, immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the SIRPa-4-1BBL fusion protein DSP107 selectively targets and binds to both CD47 expressed on tumor cells and 4-1BB (CD137; tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 9; TNFRSF9) expressed on T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells. Binding to CD47 blocks the interaction of CD47 with endogenous SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macrophage activation and phagocytosis of cancer cells. This induces pro-phagocytic signaling mediated by the binding of calreticulin (CRT), which is specifically expressed on the surface of tumor cells, to low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor-related protein-1 (LRP-1), which is expressed on macrophages, and results in macrophage activation and the specific phagocytosis of tumor cells. The binding of 4-1BBL to 4-1BB activates 4-1BB-mediated signaling, induces cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) proliferation, cytokine production and promotes a CTL-mediated anti-tumor immune response as well as NK-mediated tumor cell killing. The crosslinking specifically enables the activation of 4-1BB-mediated signaling in T-cells and NK cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME), allowing targeted immune responses in the TME. CD47, also called integrin-associated protein (IAP), is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed on normal, healthy hematopoietic stem cells (HSC) and overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells. Expression of CD47, and its interaction with SIRPa, leads to the inhibition of macrophage activation and protects cancer cells from phagocytosis, thereby allowing cancer cells to proliferate. 4-1BB, a surface glycoprotein of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, is an inducible costimulatory receptor that plays a key role in T-cell proliferation, survival and cytolytic activity.", + "SIRPa-Fc Fusion Protein TTI-621": "", + "SIRPa-Fc-CD40L Fusion Protein SL-172154": "A bi-functional fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domains (ECDs) of human signal-regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha; SIRPa; CD172a) and CD40 ligand (CD40L; CD154; TRAP; TNFSF5) linked via a human Fc domain, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, the SIRPa-Fc-CD40L fusion protein SL-172154 selectively targets and binds to both CD47 expressed on tumor cells and CD40, a cell surface receptor that belongs to the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor family, expressed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs). Binding to CD47 blocks the interaction of CD47 with endogenous SIRPa, a cell surface protein expressed on macrophages. This prevents CD47/SIRPa-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of macrophage activation and phagocytosis of cancer cells. This induces pro-phagocytic signaling mediated by the binding of calreticulin (CRT), which is specifically expressed on the surface of tumor cells, to low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor-related protein-1 (LRP-1), which is expressed on macrophages, and results in macrophage activation and the specific phagocytosis of tumor cells. The binding of CD40L to CD40 activates CD40, increases CD40-mediated signaling and induces proliferation and activation of B-lymphocytes, shifts the induction of suppressive macrophages towards immunostimulatory macrophages, activates monocyte-derived dendritic cells (moDCs), and leads to the secretion of inflammatory cytokines. This activates the immune system to induce the proliferation and activation of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs) against tumor cells. The crosslinking specifically enhances antigen presentation to CD8+ and CD4+ T lymphocytes and tumor cell phagocytosis by the APC. CD47, also called integrin-associated protein (IAP), is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed on normal, healthy hematopoietic stem cells (HSC) and overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells. Expression of CD47, and its interaction with SIRPa, leads to the inhibition of macrophage activation and protects cancer cells from phagocytosis, thereby allowing cancer cells to proliferate.", + "SIRPa-IgG4-Fc Fusion Protein TTI-622": "", + "Sitimagene Ceradenovec": "", + "Sitravatinib": "", + "Sivifene": "", + "Sizofiran": "", + "SLC6A8 Inhibitor RGX-202": "", + "SLCT Inhibitor GNS561": "", + "SMAC Mimetic BI 891065": "", + "Smac Mimetic GDC-0152": "", + "Smac Mimetic GDC-0917": "", + "Smac Mimetic LCL161": "", + "SMO Protein Inhibitor ZSP1602": "", + "Smoothened Antagonist BMS-833923": "", + "Smoothened Antagonist LDE225 Topical": "", + "Smoothened Antagonist LEQ506": "", + "Smoothened Antagonist TAK-441": "", + "SN-38-Loaded Polymeric Micelles NK012": "", + "SNS01-T Nanoparticles": "", + "Sobuzoxane": "", + "Sodium Borocaptate": "", + "Sodium Butyrate": "", + "Sodium Dichloroacetate": "", + "Sodium Iodide I-131": "", + "Sodium Metaarsenite": "", + "Sodium Phenylbutyrate": "", + "Sodium Salicylate": "", + "Sodium Selenite": "", + "Sodium Stibogluconate": "", + "Sodium-Potassium Adenosine Triphosphatase Inhibitor RX108": "", + "Sofituzumab Vedotin": "", + "Solitomab": "", + "Sonepcizumab": "", + "Sonidegib": "", + "Sonolisib": "", + "Sorafenib": "", + "Sorafenib Tosylate": "", + "Sorghum bicolor Supplement": "", + "Sotigalimab": "A humanized monoclonal antibody agonist of the cell surface receptor CD40, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Similar to the endogenous CD40 ligand (CD40L or CD154), sotigalimab binds to CD40 on a variety of immune cell types. This triggers the cellular proliferation and activation of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), and activates B-cells, and effector and memory T-cells. This results in an enhanced immune response against tumor cells. Sotigalimab also binds to and activates CD40 present on the surfaces of some solid tumor cells, leading to apoptosis and decreased tumor growth. CD40, a cell surface receptor and member of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor superfamily, is expressed on various immune cells and certain cancer cells; it mediates both indirect tumor cell killing through the activation of the immune system and direct tumor cell apoptosis.", + "Sotorasib": "An orally available agent that targets the specific KRAS mutation, p.G12C, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, sotorasib selectively targets the KRAS p.G12C mutant, at either the DNA, RNA or protein level, and prevents, through an as of yet not elucidated manner, expression of and/or tumor cell signaling through the KRAS p.G12C mutant. This may inhibit growth in KRAS p.G12C-expressing tumor cells. The KRAS p.G12C mutation is seen in some tumor cell types and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation.", + "Sotrastaurin": "", + "Sotrastaurin Acetate": "", + "Soy Isoflavones": "", + "Soy Protein Isolate": "", + "Spanlecortemlocel": "A preparation of allogeneic umbilical cord blood (UCB)-derived hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPCs) expanded in culture with the stimulatory cytokines stem cell factor (SCF; Kit ligand; mast cell growth factor; MGF), FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 ligand (Flt3L), interleukin 6 (IL-6), and thrombopoietin, in the presence of an aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AHR) antagonist LHD221 (StemRegenin-1; SR-1), with potential to improve hematopoietic recovery following myeloablative conditioning. Upon administration of Spanlecortemlocel, these cells increase and restore the number of HSPCs, which may prevent or decrease the risk of infection and other complications of chemotherapy-induced neutropenia (CIN) or cord blood transplantation. LHD221, an AHR antagonist facilitates the expansion of CD34-positive hematopoietic progenitors and impedes HSPC differentiation during cytokine-driven expansion in culture.", + "Sparfosate Sodium": "", + "Sparfosic Acid": "", + "Spartalizumab": "", + "Spebrutinib": "", + "Spherical Nucleic Acid Nanoparticle NU-0129": "", + "Spirogermanium": "", + "Spiromustine": "", + "Spiroplatin": "", + "Splicing Inhibitor H3B-8800": "", + "Spongistatin": "", + "Squalamine Lactate": "", + "SR-BP1/HSI Inhibitor SR31747A": "", + "SR-T100 Gel": "", + "Src Kinase Inhibitor AP 23846": "", + "Src Kinase Inhibitor KX2-391": "", + "Src Kinase Inhibitor KX2-391 Ointment": "", + "Src Kinase Inhibitor M475271": "", + "Src/Abl Kinase Inhibitor AZD0424": "", + "Src/tubulin Inhibitor KX02": "", + "SRPK1/ABCG2 Inhibitor SCO-101": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/arginine-rich splicing factor protein kinase 1 (SRPK1) and the ATP-binding cassette sub-family G member 2 (ABCG2), with potential chemosensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, SRPK1/ABCG2 inhibitor SCO-101 targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of SRPK1 and ABCG2. Inhibition of the cellular efflux pump ABCG2 by SCO-101 prevents the efflux of co-administered chemotherapeutic agents from cancer cells. This may abrogate cancer cell drug resistance and may re-sensitize cancer cells to the chemotherapeutic agents. Inhibition of SRPK1 kinase by SCO-101 inhibits the SRPK1-mediated phosphorylation of splicing factors rich in serine/arginine domains, thereby inhibiting the activation of proteins that are involved in the regulation of alternative splicing. This may inhibit cancer cell proliferation. SRPK1 is upregulated in various cancer cell types. Its upregulation is correlated with higher tumor staging, grading, and shorter survival.", + "ssRNA-based Immunomodulator CV8102": "", + "SSTR2-targeting Protein/DM1 Conjugate PEN-221": "", + "St. John's Wort": "", + "Stallimycin": "", + "Staphylococcal Enterotoxin A": "", + "Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B": "", + "STAT3 Inhibitor DSP-0337": "", + "STAT3 Inhibitor OPB-31121": "", + "STAT3 Inhibitor OPB-51602": "", + "STAT3 Inhibitor TTI-101": "", + "STAT3 Inhibitor WP1066": "", + "STAT Inhibitor OPB-111077": "", + "Staurosporine": "", + "STING Agonist BMS-986301": "An agonist of stimulator of interferon genes (STING) protein, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, STING agonist BMS-986301 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway, which promotes IKK-related kinase TANK-binding kinase 1 (TBK1) signaling and activates nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) and interferon regulatory factor 3 (IRF3) in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs). Specifically, expression of IFN-beta (IFNb) enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by dendritic cells (DCs) to cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This results in a CTL-mediated immune response against tumor cells and causes tumor cell lysis. STING, a transmembrane protein that activates immune cells in the TME, plays a key role in the activation of the innate immune system.", + "STING Agonist GSK3745417": "An agonist of the stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, STING agonist GSK3745417 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by dendritic cells (DCs), and induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. STING, a transmembrane protein that activates immune cells in the TME, plays a key role in the activation of the innate immune system.", + "STING Agonist IMSA101": "A small molecule analogue of cyclic GMP-AMP (cGAMP) that acts as an agonist of the stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173) with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, STING agonist IMSA101 binds to STING and activates STING-mediated pathways. This activates the immune response through the activation of certain immune cells which induces the expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines, promotes tumor-associated antigen (TAA) processing and presentation by dendritic cells (DCs) and leads to an antigen-specific T-cell mediated immune response against cancer cells. STING, a transmembrane protein that activates immune cells in the tumor microenvironment, plays a key role in the activation of the innate immune system.", + "STING Agonist MK-1454": "", + "STING Agonist SB 11285": "An agonist of stimulator of interferon genes (STING) protein, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, STING agonist SB 11285 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway, which promotes IKK-related kinase TANK-binding kinase 1 (TBK1) signaling and activates nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) and interferon regulatory factor 3 (IRF3) in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs). Specifically, expression of IFN-beta (IFNb) enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by CD8alpha-positive and CD103-positive dendritic cells (DCs) to cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This results in a CTL-mediated immune response against tumor cells and causes tumor cell lysis.", + "STING Agonist TAK-676": "An agonist of the stimulator of interferon genes protein (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173), with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, STING agonist TAK-676 targets and binds to STING and activates the STING pathway in immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME). This leads to the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, including interferons (IFNs), enhances the cross-presentation of tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) by dendritic cells (DCs), and induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. STING, a transmembrane protein that activates immune cells in the TME, plays a key role in the activation of the innate immune system.", + "STING-activating Cyclic Dinucleotide Agonist MIW815": "", + "STING-expressing E. coli SYNB1891": "A non-pathogenic strain of Escherichia coli (E. coli) bacteria that has been engineered to express stimulator of interferon genes (STING; transmembrane protein 173; TMEM173) protein, with potential immunoactivating and antineoplastic activities. Upon intratumoral administration, STING-expressing E. coli SYNB1891 are engulfed by antigen presenting cells (APCs) within the tumor. STING-mediated pathways within the APCs are then activated resulting in a type I interferon (IFN) response which promotes initiation and propagation of tumor-specific T-cell responses. In addition, the bacterial component of SYNB1891 may further stimulate the innate immune system via Toll-like receptors (TLRs) which may enhance the magnitude of the overall immune response. STING, a transmembrane protein that activates immune cells in the tumor microenvironment (TME), plays a key role in the activation of the innate immune system.", + "Streptonigrin": "", + "Streptozocin": "", + "Strontium Chloride Sr-89": "", + "Submicron Particle Paclitaxel Sterile Suspension": "", + "Sugemalimab": "A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the immunosuppressive ligand, programmed cell death-1 ligand 1 (PD-L1; cluster of differentiation 274; CD274), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, sugemalimab specifically targets and binds to PD-L1, blocking its binding to and activation of its receptor, programmed cell death 1 (PD-1). This reverses T-cell inactivation caused by PD-1/PD-L1 signaling and enhances the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated anti-tumor immune response against PD-L1-expressing tumor cells. PD-L1 is overexpressed by many human cancer cell types. PD-L1 binding to PD-1 on T-cells suppresses the immune system and results in immune evasion. PD-1, a transmembrane protein belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily expressed on activated T-cells, is a negative regulator of the immune system that limits the expansion and survival of CD8-positive T-cells. Anti-PD-L1 monoclonal antibody CS1001 mirrors natural immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4), potentially reducing immunogenicity and other toxicities.", + "Sulfatinib": "", + "Sulforaphane": "", + "Sulindac": "", + "Sulofenur": "", + "Sumoylation Inhibitor TAK-981": "", + "Sunitinib": "", + "Sunitinib Malate": "", + "Super Enhancer Inhibitor GZ17-6.02": "", + "Superagonist Interleukin-15:Interleukin-15 Receptor alphaSu/Fc Fusion Complex ALT-803": "", + "Superoxide Dismutase Mimetic GC4711": "A mimetic of the enzyme superoxide dismutase (SOD) that may potentially be used to increase the anti-cancer efficacy of stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT). Upon administration, SOD mimetic GC4711 may mimic native SODs and catalyze the formation of molecular oxygen and hydrogen peroxide from the burst of superoxide anion present in the irradiated tissues upon radiation. As hydrogen peroxide is less toxic than superoxide to normal tissues, but more toxic to cancer cells, this may increase the anti-cancer efficacy of SBRT and decrease its damage to normal tissues.", + "Suramin": "", + "Suramin Sodium": "", + "Survivin Antigen": "", + "Survivin Antigen Vaccine DPX-Survivac": "", + "Survivin mRNA Antagonist EZN-3042": "", + "Survivin-expressing CVD908ssb-TXSVN Vaccine": "", + "Sustained-release Lipid Inhaled Cisplatin": "", + "Sustained-release Mitomycin C Hydrogel Formulation UGN-101": "", + "Sustained-release Mitomycin C Hydrogel Formulation UGN-102": "", + "Syk Inhibitor HMPL-523": "", + "Synchrotope TA2M Plasmid DNA Vaccine": "", + "Synchrovax SEM Plasmid DNA Vaccine": "", + "Synthetic Alkaloid PM00104": "", + "Synthetic Glioblastoma Mutated Tumor-specific Peptides Vaccine Therapy APVAC2": "", + "Synthetic Glioblastoma Tumor-associated Peptides Vaccine Therapy APVAC1": "", + "Synthetic hTERT DNA Vaccine INO-1400": "", + "Synthetic hTERT DNA Vaccine INO-1401": "", + "Synthetic Hypericin": "", + "Synthetic Long E6 Peptide-Toll-like Receptor Ligand Conjugate Vaccine ISA201": "", + "Synthetic Long E6/E7 Peptides Vaccine HPV-01": "", + "Synthetic Long HPV16 E6/E7 Peptides Vaccine ISA101b": "", + "Synthetic Plumbagin PCUR-101": "A synthetic form of the plant-derived medicinal agent, plumbagin, with potential antineoplastic activity. Plumbagin may act by inhibiting the expression of protein kinase C epsilon (PKCe), signal transducers and activators of transcription 3 phosphorylation (Stat3), protein kinase B (AKT), and certain epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT) markers, including vimentin and slug. This results in possible inhibition of proliferation in susceptible tumor cells. PKCe, Stat3, AKT, and the EMT markers vimentin and slug have been linked to the induction and progression of prostate cancer.", + "T900607": "", + "Tabalumab": "", + "Tabelecleucel": "", + "Tacedinaline": "", + "Tafasitamab": "An Fc engineered, humanized anti-CD19 monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell-specific membrane protein CD19 with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities.Tafasitamab targets and binds to CD19, thereby depleting and eliminating CD19-expressing B-cells. The modified Fc region of XmAb5574 increases binding affinity to Fc-gamma receptors of effector cells and thereby enhances antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated phagocytosis (ADCP). CD19 is widely expressed during B-cell development, from pro-B-cell to early plasma cell stages.", + "Tagraxofusp-erzs": "", + "Talabostat": "", + "Talabostat Mesylate": "", + "Talacotuzumab": "", + "Talactoferrin Alfa": "", + "Taladegib": "", + "Talampanel": "", + "Talaporfin Sodium": "", + "Talazoparib": "", + "Taletrectinib": "An orally available inhibitor of the receptor tyrosine kinases C-ros oncogene 1 (ROS1) and the neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK) types 1, 2 and 3, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, taletrectinib binds to and inhibits ROS1 and the NTRK family members. This inhibition leads to a disruption of ROS1- and NTRK-mediated signaling and eventually inhibits the growth of tumor cells that are overexpressing ROS1 and/or NTRKs. ROS1, overexpressed in certain cancer cells, plays a key role in cell growth and survival of cancer cells. NTRK mutations or rearrangements play a key role in cancer progression.", + "Talimogene Laherparepvec": "", + "Tallimustine": "", + "Talmapimod": "", + "Talotrexin": "", + "Talotrexin Ammonium": "", + "Taltobulin": "", + "TAM/c-Met Inhibitor RXDX-106": "", + "Tamibarotene": "", + "Taminadenant": "", + "Tamoxifen": "", + "Tamoxifen Citrate": "", + "Tamrintamab Pamozirine": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of a proprietary monoclonal antibody against a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) linked to an as of yet undisclosed cytotoxic agent, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon intravenous administration of tamrintamab pamozirine, the monoclonal antibody moiety of SC-003 targets and binds to the TAA expressed on tumor cells. Upon binding and internalization, the cytotoxic agent is released and kills the TAA-expressing cancer cells, through an as of yet unknown mechanism of action.", + "Tandutinib": "", + "Tanespimycin": "", + "Tanibirumab": "", + "Tankyrase Inhibitor STP1002": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) enzyme tankyrase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tankyrase inhibitor STP1002 selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of tankyrase. This may block the tankyrase-mediated poly(ADP-ribosyl)ation of multiple target proteins including various tumor suppressors. This may include the blockage of the poly(ADP-ribosyl)ation and destabilization of AXIN, a negative regulator of beta-catenin, and prevents Wnt/beta-catenin signaling. This may inhibit the activation of transcription of a wide range of target genes of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling, thereby preventing gene expression of many Wnt-related, pro-survival proteins and suppressing tumor cell growth. Tankyrase, a member of the PARP family, plays an important role in the regulation of the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway, tumor suppressors, as well as telomere maintenance and mitosis regulation.", + "Tanomastat": "", + "Tapotoclax": "An inhibitor of induced myeloid leukemia cell differentiation protein MCL-1 (myeloid cell leukemia-1), with potential pro-apoptotic and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, tapotoclax binds to and inhibits the activity of MCL-1. This disrupts the formation of MCL-1/Bcl-2-like protein 11 (BCL2L11; BIM) complexes and induces apoptosis in tumor cells. MCL-1, an anti-apoptotic protein belonging to the Bcl-2 family of proteins, is upregulated in cancer cells and promotes tumor cell survival.", + "Tarenflurbil": "", + "Tarextumab": "", + "Tariquidar": "", + "Tasadenoturev": "An adenovirus serotype 5 strain, selectively replication competent in cells defective in the Rb/p16 tumor suppressor pathway, with potential oncolytic activity. Tasadenoturev contains an integrin binding RGD-4C motif, allowing Coxsackie adenovirus receptor-independent infection of tumor cells, which are often deficient for Coxsackie and adenovirus receptors (CARs). Selectively replication competent in cells that are defective in retinoblastoma gene (Rb) or cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor-2A (p16), active replication of oncolytic adenovirus Ad5-Delta 24RGD in tumor cells may induce oncolysis or cell lysis. As integral components of the late G1 restriction point, the Rb gene product and p16 are negative regulators of the cell cycle; ovarian cancer cells and non-small cell lung cancer cells may be defective in the Rb/p16 pathway.", + "Taselisib": "", + "Tasidotin": "", + "Tasisulam": "", + "Tasisulam Sodium": "", + "Tasquinimod": "", + "Taurolidine": "", + "Tauromustine": "", + "Taurultam": "", + "Taurultam Analogue GP-2250": "", + "Tavokinogene Telseplasmid": "", + "Tavolimab": "", + "Taxane Analogue TPI 287": "", + "Taxane Compound": "", + "Taxol Analogue SID 530": "", + "Tazarotene": "", + "Tazemetostat": "", + "Tebentafusp": "A fusion protein containing a modified form of human T-cell receptor (TCR) specific for the gp100 antigen and fused to an anti-CD3 single-chain antibody fragment, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon direct intratumoral administration of tebentafusp into the melanoma lesion, the TCR moiety of this agent targets and binds to the tumor associated antigen (TAA) gp100 presented on the melanoma tumor cell; the anti-CD3 fragment moiety binds to CD3- expressing T lymphocytes, thereby selectively cross-linking tumor cells and T-lymphocytes. This may lead to the recruitment of cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) to the T lymphocyte/tumor cell aggregates and result in CTL-mediated death of gp100-expressing melanoma cancer cells.", + "Teclistamab": "A bispecific humanized monoclonal antibody against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and human B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA; TNFRSF17), a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed on plasma cells, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, teclistamab binds to both CD3 on T-cells and BCMA expressed on malignant plasma cells. This results in the cross-linking of T-cells and tumor cells, and induces a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against BCMA-expressing plasma cells. BCMA, a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily that is specifically overexpressed on malignant plasma cells, plays a key role in promoting plasma cell survival.", + "Tecogalan Sodium": "", + "Tefinostat": "A hydroxamic acid-derived histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Tefinostat inhibits HDAC leading to an accumulation of highly acetylated histones, which may result in chromatin remodeling, inhibition of tumor oncogene transcription, inhibition of tumor cell division, and the induction of tumor cell apoptosis. HDAC, an enzyme upregulated in many tumor types, deacetylates chromatin histone proteins; this agent may specifically target HDACs in cells of the monocyte-macrophage lineage.", + "Tegafur": "", + "Tegafur-gimeracil-oteracil Potassium": "", + "Tegafur-Gimeracil-Oteracil Potassium-Leucovorin Calcium Oral Formulation": "", + "Tegafur-Uracil": "", + "Tegavivint": "", + "Teglarinad": "", + "Teglarinad Chloride": "", + "Telaglenastat": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of glutaminase, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CB-839 selectively and irreversibly inhibits glutaminase, a mitochondrial enzyme that is essential for the conversion of the amino acid glutamine into glutamate. By blocking glutamine utilization, proliferation in rapidly growing cells is impaired. Glutamine-dependent tumors rely on the conversion of exogenous glutamine into glutamate and glutamate metabolites to both provide energy and generate building blocks for the production of macromolecules, which are needed for cellular growth and survival.", + "Telaglenastat Hydrochloride": "The hydrochloride salt form of CB-839, an orally bioavailable inhibitor of glutaminase, with potential antineoplastic and immunostimulating activities. Upon oral administration, CB-839 selectively and reversibly binds to and inhibits human glutaminase, an enzyme that is essential for the conversion of the amino acid glutamine into glutamate. Blocking glutamine metabolism inhibits proliferation in rapidly growing tumor cells and leads to an induction of cell death. Unlike normal healthy cells, glutamine-dependent tumors heavily rely on the intracellular conversion of exogenous glutamine into glutamate and glutamate metabolites to both provide energy and generate building blocks for the production of macromolecules, which are needed for cellular growth and survival. In addition, CB-839 causes accumulation of glutamine in tumor cells and increases glutamine concentration in the tumor microenvironment (TME) upon cell death. As glutamine is essential for T-cell generation, CB-839 may also enhance T-cell proliferation and activation in the TME, which may lead to further killing of tumor cells.", + "Telapristone": "", + "Telapristone Acetate": "", + "Telatinib Mesylate": "", + "Telisotuzumab": "A monoclonal antibody directed against human hepatocyte growth factor receptor (HGFR or c-Met), with potential antineoplastic activity. Telisotuzumab binds to c-Met, thereby preventing both c-Met binding to its ligand, HGF and the subsequent activation of the HGF/c-Met signaling pathway. This may cause cell death in c-Met-expressing tumor cells. c-Met, a receptor tyrosine kinase overexpressed or mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in cancer cell growth, survival, angiogenesis, invasion, and metastasis.", + "Telisotuzumab Vedotin": "", + "Telomerase Inhibitor FJ5002": "", + "Telomerase-specific Type 5 Adenovirus OBP-301": "", + "Teloxantrone": "", + "Teloxantrone Hydrochloride": "", + "Telratolimod": "", + "Temarotene": "", + "Temoporfin": "", + "Temozolomide": "", + "Temsirolimus": "", + "Tenalisib": "", + "Tenifatecan": "", + "Teniposide": "", + "Tepoditamab": "An immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bispecific human monoclonal antibody against human CD3, a T-cell surface antigen, and human C-type lectin domain family 12 member A (CLEC12A), a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on certain tumor cells, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tepoditamab binds to both CD3 on T-cells and CLEC12A expressed on malignant cells, such as myeloid blasts, atypical progenitor cells and leukemic stem cells (LSCs). This results in the cross-linking of T-cells with tumor cells, and induces a potent cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against CLEC12A-expressing tumor cells. CLEC12A, a myeloid differentiation antigen and member of the C-type lectin/C-type lectin-like domain (CTL/CTLD) superfamily, is overexpressed on myeloid leukemia cells, but not on normal early hematopoietic progenitors, including hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs).", + "Tepotinib": "", + "Teprotumumab": "", + "Terameprocol": "", + "Terfluranol": "", + "Tergenpumatucel-L": "", + "Teroxirone": "", + "Tertomotide": "", + "Tesetaxel": "", + "Tesevatinib": "", + "Tesidolumab": "", + "Testolactone": "", + "Testosterone Enanthate": "", + "Tetanus Toxoid Vaccine": "", + "Tetradecanoylphorbol Acetate": "", + "Tetrahydrouridine": "", + "Tetraphenyl Chlorin Disulfonate": "", + "Tetrathiomolybdate": "", + "Tezacitabine": "", + "Tezacitabine Anhydrous": "", + "TGF-beta Receptor 1 Inhibitor PF-06952229": "", + "TGF-beta Receptor 1 Kinase Inhibitor SH3051": "An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinase transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) receptor 1 (TGFbR1; activin receptor-like kinase 5; ALK5), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, TGFbR1 inhibitor SH3051 specifically targets and binds to TGFbR1, which prevents TGFbR1-mediated signal transduction. This abrogates TGFbR1-mediated immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and promotes a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells leading to tumor cell death. This may lead to a reduction in TGFbR1-dependent proliferation of tumor cells. The TGF-beta signaling pathway is often deregulated in tumors and plays a key role in the regulation of cell growth, differentiation, apoptosis, motility, invasion, and angiogenesis. It plays a key role in immunosuppression in the TME and cancer cell progression.", + "TGF-beta Receptor 1 Kinase Inhibitor YL-13027": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the serine/threonine kinase transforming growth factor-beta receptor 1 (TGFbR1; activin receptor-like kinase 5; ALK5), with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Upon administration, TGF-betaR1 inhibitor YL-13027 specifically targets and binds to TGFbR1, which prevents TGFbR1-mediated signal transduction. This abrogates TGFbR1-mediated immunosuppression, enhances anti-tumor immunity in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and promotes a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against tumor cells leading to tumor cell death. This may lead to a reduction in TGFbR1-dependent proliferation of cancer cells. The TGFb signaling pathway is often deregulated in tumors and plays a key role in the regulation of cell growth, differentiation, apoptosis, motility, invasion, and angiogenesis. It plays a key role in immunosuppression in the TME and cancer cell progression.", + "TGFa-PE38 Immunotoxin": "A recombinant, chimeric toxin composed of human transforming growth factor alpha (TGF-alpha) fused to a fragment of Pseudomonas exotoxin (PE38) without its cell-binding domain. The TGF-alpha moiety of the agent attaches to tumor cells expressing the epithelial growth factor receptor (EGFR); the exotoxin induces caspase-mediated apoptosis of tumor cells via a mechanism involving mitochondrial damage; it also catalyzes the transfer of ADP ribose from nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) to elongation factor-2 in eukaryotic cells, thereby inactivating elongation factor 2 and inhibiting protein synthesis. (NCI04)", + "TGFbeta Inhibitor LY3200882": "", + "TGFbeta Receptor Ectodomain-IgG Fc Fusion Protein AVID200": "", + "Thalicarpine": "", + "Thalidomide": "", + "Theliatinib": "", + "Theramide": "", + "Therapeutic Angiotensin-(1-7)": "", + "Therapeutic Breast/Ovarian/Prostate Peptide Cancer Vaccine DPX-0907": "", + "Therapeutic Cancer Vaccine ATP128": "A self-adjuvanted chimeric recombinant protein vaccine, based on the self-adjuvanting KISIMA immunization platform, composed of three components: the 42 residue fragment Z12, a cell penetrating peptide (CPP) derived from the ZEBRA protein transduction domain, a toll-like receptor (TLR) peptide agonist as an adjuvant and a chimeric cargo, a multiple antigenic domain (MAD; MultiE), that contains an as of yet not disclosed amount of major histocompatibility class (MHC)-restricted peptides derived from as of yet undisclosed tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) that are specific for colorectal cancer (CRC) patients, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of ATP128, the Z12 moiety targets, binds to and penetrates antigen-presenting cells (APCs), specifically dendritic cells (DCs) and promotes the loading of the epitopes into the DCs and transports antigenic cargoes into both endosomal and cytosolic compartments. Upon processing and antigen presentation by MHC II and I, the immune system is stimulated and activates specific CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells, respectively, against the multi-epitopes specific for the CRC cells, thereby killing the CRC cells.", + "Therapeutic Estradiol": "", + "Therapeutic Hydrocortisone": "", + "Therapeutic Liver Cancer Peptide Vaccine IMA970A": "", + "Thiarabine": "", + "Thiodiglycol": "", + "Thioguanine": "", + "Thioguanine Anhydrous": "", + "Thioinosine": "", + "Thioredoxin-1 Inhibitor PX-12": "", + "Thiotepa": "", + "Thioureidobutyronitrile": "", + "THL-P": "", + "Thorium Th 227 Anetumab": "", + "Thorium Th 227 Anetumab Corixetan": "A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of anetumab, a human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein mesothelin, conjugated to the chelating agent corixetan, and labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope thorium Th 227, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of thorium Th 227 anetumab corixetan, the anetumab moiety binds to the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) mesothelin, delivering a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to cells expressing mesothelin.", + "Thorium Th 227 Anti-HER2 Monoclonal Antibody BAY2701439": "A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of a monoclonal antibody targeting the tyrosine kinase receptor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ErbB2) and labeled with the alpha-emitting radioisotope thorium Th 227, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of BAY2701439 targets and specifically binds to HER2 on tumor cells, delivering a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to cells expressing HER2. HER2 is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types and is associated with increased tumor cell proliferation.", + "Thorium Th 227 Anti-PSMA Monoclonal Antibody BAY 2315497": "A radioimmunoconjugate consisting of a monoclonal antibody targeting the tumor-associated antigen (TAA) human prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) and labeled, via a 3-hydroxypyridin-2-one (3,2-HOPO) chelator, with the alpha-emitting radioisotope thorium Th 227, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, the monoclonal antibody moiety of BAY 2315497 targets and specifically binds to PSMA on tumor cells, delivering a cytotoxic dose of alpha radiation to cells expressing PSMA. PSMA is overexpressed on the surface of metastatic and hormone-refractory prostate cancer cells.", + "Threonine Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor CFI-402257": "", + "Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor CX1106": "A thymidylate synthase (TS) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, TS inhibitor CX1106 binds to and inhibits TS. This reduces thymine nucleotide synthesis, inhibits DNA synthesis and cell division, causes DNA damage and leads to tumor cell apoptosis. TS catalyzes the conversion of deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP) to deoxythymidine monophosphate (dTMP), an essential precursor for DNA synthesis, and plays a key role in cell growth and division.", + "Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor DFP-11207": "", + "Thymopentin": "", + "Thyroid Extract": "", + "Tiazofurin": "", + "Tidutamab": "", + "Tigapotide": "", + "Tigatuzumab": "", + "TIGIT Inhibitor M6223": "An inhibitor of T-cell immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT), a co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor, with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, TIGIT inhibitor M6223 targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs), thereby preventing the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands CD112 (nectin-2; poliovirus receptor related-2; PRR2; PVRL2) and CD155 (poliovirus receptor; PVR; nectin-like protein 5; NECL-5). This enhances the interaction of CD112 and CD155 with the costimulatory receptor CD226 (DNAX Accessory molecule-1; DNAM-1), which is expressed on immune cells, such as natural killer (NK) cells and CD8+ T-cells. This leads to CD226 dimerization and CD226-mediated signaling and activates the immune system to exert a T-cell-mediated immune response against cancer cells. TIGIT, a member of the Ig super family (IgSF) and an immune inhibitory receptor, plays a key role in the suppression of T-cell proliferation and activation; it is involved in tumor cell immune evasion, and the inhibition of antiviral immune responses.", + "TIGIT-targeting Agent MK-7684": "", + "Tilarginine": "", + "Tilogotamab": "An agonistic hexamer formation-enhanced mixture of two antibodies (HexaBody) that target two separate epitopes on death receptor type 5 (DR5; TNFRSF10B; tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand receptor 2; TRAILR2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tilogotamab specifically binds to and activates DR5. This results in the activation of caspase cascades and the induction of apoptosis in DR5-expressing tumor cells. DR5, a cell surface receptor and member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF), is involved in the promotion of caspase-dependent apoptosis. Compared to other DR5 antibody-based agonists, the antibodies in GEN1029 (DR5-01 and DR5-05) elicit increased receptor activation because they exhibit enhanced formation of antibody hexamers and receptor clusters at the cell surface due to E430G mutations in the Fc domains of both antibodies.", + "Tilsotolimod Sodium": "", + "Timonacic": "", + "Tin Ethyl Etiopurpurin": "", + "Tinostamustine": "", + "Tinzaparin Sodium": "", + "Tiomolibdate Choline": "An orally active second generation tetrathiomolybdate analog with anti-angiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Tiomolibdate choline selectively chelates the copper ion in superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1) in endothelial cells, thereby depleting SOD1 of copper and inhibiting its activity. Inhibition of SOD1 interferes with the activation of several signal transduction pathways required for cellular proliferation and angiogenesis, including those mediated by ERK1/2 and FAK and Src kinases. This results in an inhibition of cell proliferation and angiogenesis as well as induction of apoptosis.", + "Tiomolibdate Diammonium": "", + "Tipapkinogene Sovacivec": "", + "Tipifarnib": "", + "Tipiracil": "", + "Tipiracil Hydrochloride": "", + "Tirabrutinib": "", + "Tiragolumab": "", + "Tirapazamine": "", + "Tirbanibulin": "An orally bioavailable small molecule Src kinase inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Unlike other Src kinase inhibitors which bind to the ATP-binding site, tirbanibulin specifically binds to the peptide substrate binding site of Src kinase; inhibition of kinase activity may result in the inhibition of primary tumor growth and the suppression of metastasis. Src tyrosine kinases are upregulated in many tumor cells and play important roles in tumor cell proliferation and metastasis.", + "Tisagenlecleucel": "", + "Tislelizumab": "", + "Tisotumab Vedotin": "", + "Tivantinib": "", + "Tivozanib": "", + "TLC ELL-12": "", + "TLR7 Agonist 852A": "", + "TLR7 agonist BNT411": "A Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7 agonist with potential immunostimulating and antitumor activities. Upon administration, TLR7 agonist BNT411 binds to and activates TLR7. This may trigger, in addition to other possible responses, the activation of cluster of differentiation (CD) 8+ T cells, B cells, and innate immune cells including natural killer (NK) cells and macrophages. TLR7 is a member of the TLR family, which plays a fundamental role in pathogen recognition and activation of innate immunity.", + "TLR7 Agonist LHC165": "A benzonapthyridine Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7 agonist that is adsorbed to aluminum hydroxide with immunostimulating and potential antitumor activities. Upon intratumoral administration of TLR7 agonist LHC165, the agent is slowly released and targets, binds to and activates TLR7. This may trigger, in addition to other possible responses, the activation of cluster of differentiation (CD) 8+ T cells and natural killer (NK) cells, the blockage of the suppressive function of regulatory T cells (Tregs), and the production of interferon alpha (IFNa). TLR7 is a member of the TLR family, which plays a fundamental role in pathogen recognition and activation of innate immunity.", + "TLR7/8/9 Antagonist IMO-8400": "", + "TLR8 Agonist DN1508052": "", + "TLR9 Agonist AST-008": "", + "TLR9 Agonist SD-101": "", + "TLR Agonist BDB001": "", + "TLR Agonist BSG-001": "", + "TLR Agonist CADI-05": "", + "TLR-Directed Cationic Lipid-DNA Complex JVRS-100": "", + "TM4SF1-CAR/EpCAM-CAR-expressing Autologous T Cells": "A mixed preparation of allogeneic T-lymphocytes that have been genetically modified to express either a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) specific for the antigen transmembrane 4 L six family member 1 (TM4SF1) (CART-TM4SF1) or a CAR specific for epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EpCAM) (CART-EpCAM), with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the TM4SF1-CAR/EpCAM-CAR-expressing autologous T cells, the TM4SF1-CAR-expressing autologous T-cells specifically recognize and bind to TM4SF1-expressing tumor cells and the EpCAM-CAR-expressing autologous T-cells specifically recognize and bind to EpCAM-expressing tumor cells, resulting in tumor cell lysis. TM4SF1 and EpCAM are expressed by a variety of tumor cells.", + "Tocilizumab": "", + "Tocladesine": "", + "Tocotrienol": "", + "Tocotrienol-rich Fraction": "", + "Tolebrutinib": "An orally bioavailable, brain-penetrant, selective, small molecule inhibitor of Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon oral administration, tolebrutinib is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and inhibits the activity of BTK both peripherally and in the central nervous system (CNS). This prevents the activation of the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling pathway, and the resulting immune activation and inflammation. The inhibition of BTK activity also prevents microglial inflammatory signaling in the CNS, and the resulting immune activation, neuroinflammation and neurodegeneration. BTK, a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase and member of the Tec family of kinases, plays an important role in B lymphocyte development, activation, signaling, proliferation and survival. In addition to B cells, BTK is also expressed in innate immune cells, including macrophages and microglia, and plays an important role in the regulation of microglial inflammatory signaling.", + "Toll-like Receptor 7 Agonist DSP-0509": "", + "Tolnidamine": "", + "Tomaralimab": "", + "Tomato-Soy Juice": "", + "Tomivosertib": "", + "Topical Betulinic Acid": "", + "Topical Celecoxib": "", + "Topical Fluorouracil": "", + "Topical Gemcitabine Hydrochloride": "", + "Topical Potassium Dobesilate": "", + "Topical Trichloroacetic Acid": "", + "Topixantrone": "", + "Topoisomerase I Inhibitor Genz-644282": "", + "Topoisomerase I Inhibitor LMP400": "", + "Topoisomerase I Inhibitor LMP776": "", + "Topoisomerase I/II Inhibitor NEV-801": "", + "Topoisomerase-1 Inhibitor LMP744": "", + "Topoisomerase-II Inhibitor Racemic XK469": "", + "Topoisomerase-II-beta Inhibitor Racemic XK469": "", + "Topotecan": "", + "Topotecan Hydrochloride": "", + "Topotecan Hydrochloride Liposomes": "", + "Topotecan Sustained-release Episcleral Plaque": "An episcleral plaque containing sustained-release (SR) topotecan, a semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin and a cytotoxic, quinoline-based alkaloid extracted from the Asian tree Camptotheca acuminate, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon local application of the topotecan SR episcleral plaque to the eye, topotecan is released in a sustained manner and inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the topoisomerase I-DNA covalent complexes during S phase of cell cycle, thereby inhibiting religation of topoisomerase I-mediated single-strand DNA breaks and producing potentially lethal double-strand DNA breaks when encountered by the DNA replication machinery. The episcleral plaque allows for local delivery of topotecan for the potential treatment of retinoblastoma.", + "Topsalysin": "", + "TORC1/2 Kinase Inhibitor DS-3078a": "", + "Toremifene": "", + "Toremifene Citrate": "", + "Toripalimab": "", + "Tosedostat": "", + "Tositumomab": "", + "Total Androgen Blockade": "", + "Tovetumab": "", + "Tozasertib Lactate": "", + "TP40 Immunotoxin": "", + "Trabectedin": "", + "Trabedersen": "", + "TRAIL Receptor Agonist ABBV-621": "", + "Trametinib": "", + "Trametinib Dimethyl Sulfoxide": "", + "Trans Sodium Crocetinate": "", + "Transdermal 4-Hydroxytestosterone": "", + "Transdermal 17beta-Estradiol Gel BHR-200": "", + "Transferrin Receptor-Targeted Anti-RRM2 siRNA CALAA-01": "", + "Transferrin Receptor-Targeted Liposomal p53 cDNA": "", + "Transferrin-CRM107": "A synthetic targeted protein toxin which consists of human transferrin (Tf) conjugated to a diphtheria toxin that contains a point mutation (CRM107). After binding to the transferrin receptor expressed on the tumor cell surface, transferrin-CRM107 is internalized, where the diphtheria toxin moiety exerts its cytotoxic effect intracellularly by inhibiting protein synthesis through ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor. (NCI04)", + "Tranylcypromine Sulfate": "", + "Trapoxin": "", + "Trastuzumab": "", + "Trastuzumab Conjugate BI-CON-02": "", + "Trastuzumab Deruxtecan": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) composed of trastuzumab, a monoclonal antibody targeting human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (ERBB2; EGFR2; HER2) conjugated to deruxtecan, a derivative of the camptothecin analog exatecan (DXd; DX-8951 derivative), a DNA topoisomerase 1 (topoisomerase I; Top1) inhibitor, with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of trastuzumab deruxtecan, trastuzumab targets and binds to HER2 on tumor cells. Upon antibody/antigen binding and internalization, deruxtecan binds to and inhibits Top1-DNA complexes, which results in an inhibition of DNA replication, cell cycle arrest and tumor cell apoptosis. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types. In addition, trastuzumab deruxtecan induces antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) and causes a bystander killing effect.", + "Trastuzumab Duocarmazine": "", + "Trastuzumab Emtansine": "", + "Trastuzumab Monomethyl Auristatin F": "An antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) consisting of the recombinant anti-epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) monoclonal antibody trastuzumab conjugated to the auristatin analog and potent microtubule inhibitor monomethyl auristatin F (MMAF), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of trastuzumab monomethyl auristatin F, the trastuzumab moiety binds to HER2 on tumor cell surfaces; upon internalization, the MMAF moiety binds to and inhibits tubulin polymerization, which results in G2/M phase arrest and tumor cell apoptosis. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types.", + "Trastuzumab-TLR 7/8 Agonist BDC-1001": "An immune stimulating antibody conjugate (ISAC) consisting of trastuzumab, an anti-human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) monoclonal antibody, conjugated to a Toll-like receptor (TLR) 7/8 dual agonist, with potential immunostimulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of trastuzumab-TLR 7/8 agonist BDC-1001, the trastuzumab moiety targets and binds to HER2 expressed on tumor cells and, simultaneously, the TLR 7/8 dual agonist moiety targets, binds to and activates TLR7/8 expressed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs), specifically dendritic cells (DCs), in the tumor microenvironment (TME). The trastuzumab binding to the tumor cells causes the engulfment of the BDC-1001-bound tumor cells by tumor-associated myeloid (TAM) cells and the TAMs travel to the lymph nodes. The DCs activated by the TLR7/8 agonist causes the activation of TLR7/8-mediated pathways, and stimulates the maturation and activation of DCs, thereby re-activating the immune system against the tumor cells. Activation of DCs results in the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, and the activation of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)- and B-lymphocyte-mediated immune responses against tumor-associated antigens (TAAs), which lead to tumor cell lysis. TLR7 and 8, members of the TLR family, play fundamental roles in the activation of the innate immune system, myeloid cell responses and tumor antigen presentation. HER2 is overexpressed by a variety of tumor cell types.", + "Trastuzumab/Hyaluronidase-oysk": "", + "Trastuzumab/Tesirine Antibody-drug Conjugate ADCT-502": "", + "Trebananib": "", + "Tremelimumab": "", + "Treosulfan": "", + "Tretazicar": "", + "Tretinoin": "", + "Tretinoin Liposome": "", + "Triamcinolone Acetonide": "", + "Triamcinolone Hexacetonide": "", + "Triapine": "", + "Triazene Derivative CB10-277": "", + "Triazene Derivative TriN2755": "", + "Triazinate": "", + "Triaziquone": "", + "Tributyrin": "", + "Triciribine Phosphate": "", + "Trientine Hydrochloride": "", + "Triethylenemelamine": "", + "Trifluridine": "", + "Trifluridine and Tipiracil Hydrochloride": "", + "Trigriluzole": "", + "Trilaciclib": "", + "Trimelamol": "", + "Trimeric GITRL-Fc OMP-336B11": "", + "Trimethylcolchicinic Acid": "", + "Trimetrexate": "", + "Trimetrexate Glucuronate": "", + "Trioxifene": "", + "Triplatin Tetranitrate": "", + "Triptolide Analog": "", + "Triptorelin": "", + "Triptorelin Pamoate": "", + "Tris-acryl Gelatin Microspheres": "An embolic particle composed of water-soluble, compressible, nonabsorbable microspheres composed of tris-acryl gelatin, with potential use for embolization. Upon administration, the tris-acryl gelatin microspheres (TAGM) serve as an embolic agent before surgery for highly vascularized areas, such as those seen in certain tumors, by penetrating into the blood vessel system and blocking blood flow. These microspheres may be used to encapsulate various therapeutic agents; drug-loaded microspheres can then be used as drug delivery vehicles during embolization of tumor vasculature.", + "Tritylcysteine": "", + "TRK Inhibitor AZD6918": "", + "TRK Inhibitor TQB3558": "An orally available inhibitor of tropomyosin receptor kinase (Trk), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, Trk inhibitor TQB3558 targets and binds to Trk, thereby preventing neurotrophin-Trk interaction and Trk activation. This may lead to apoptosis of Trk-expressing tumor cells and the inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in Trk-expressing tumors. Trk, a receptor tyrosine kinase activated by neurotrophins, is mutated in a variety of cancer cell types and plays an important role in tumor cell growth and survival.", + "TrkA Inhibitor VMD-928": "", + "Trodusquemine": "", + "Trofosfamide": "", + "Troglitazone": "", + "Tropomyosin Receptor Kinase Inhibitor AZD7451": "", + "Troriluzole": "A formulation comprised of a prodrug form of the benzothiazole derivative riluzole, with potential anti-depressant, anxiolytic and antineoplastic activities. Following oral administration, troriluzole is converted into the active form riluzole. While the mechanism of action of riluzole is unknown, its pharmacological activities, some of which may be related to its effect, include the following: 1) an inhibitory effect on glutamate release, 2) inactivation of voltage-dependent sodium channels, and 3) interference with intracellular events that follow transmitter binding at excitatory amino acid receptors. These activities may result in myorelaxation and sedation due to the blockade of glutamatergic neurotransmission. Additionally, these activities may result in the inhibition of enzymes that are necessary for cell growth, which may decrease tumor cell growth and metastasis.", + "Troxacitabine": "", + "Troxacitabine Nucleotide Prodrug MIV-818": "", + "TRPM8 Agonist D-3263": "", + "TRPV6 Calcium Channel Inhibitor SOR-C13": "", + "TSP-1 Mimetic ABT-510": "", + "TSP-1 Mimetic Fusion Protein CVX-045": "", + "Tubercidin": "", + "Tubulin Binding Agent TTI-237": "", + "Tubulin Inhibitor ALB 109564 Dihydrochloride": "", + "Tubulin Inhibitor ALB-109564": "", + "Tubulin Polymerization Inhibitor AEZS 112": "", + "Tubulin Polymerization Inhibitor CKD-516": "", + "Tubulin Polymerization Inhibitor VERU-111": "", + "Tubulin-Binding Agent SSR97225": "", + "Tucatinib": "", + "Tucidinostat": "", + "Tucotuzumab Celmoleukin": "", + "Tyroserleutide": "", + "Tyrosinase Peptide": "", + "Tyrosinase-KLH": "", + "Tyrosinase:146-156 Peptide": "", + "Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor": "", + "Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor OSI-930": "", + "Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor SU5402": "", + "Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor TL-895": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of tyrosine kinase, with potential anti-inflammatory and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration, tyrosine kinase inhibitor TL-895 targets, binds to, and inhibits tyrosine kinase. This may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and cell proliferation, and the inhibition of immune-mediated inflammatory processes. Tyrosine kinases are upregulated in many tumor cells and play important roles in tumor cell proliferation and metastasis. In addition, they play important roles in the activation of leukocytes and in many immune-mediated inflammatory and autoimmune conditions.", + "Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor XL228": "", + "UAE Inhibitor TAK-243": "", + "Ubenimex": "", + "Ubidecarenone Nanodispersion BPM31510n": "", + "Ublituximab": "", + "Ulinastatin": "", + "Ulixertinib": "", + "Ulocuplumab": "", + "Umbralisib": "", + "Uncaria tomentosa Extract": "", + "Upamostat": "", + "Upifitamab": "A proprietary humanized monoclonal antibody against human sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 2B (SLC34A2; NaPi2b), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of upifitamab, the antibody targets and binds to NaPi2b expressed on tumor cells. Although the tumor cell killing effects of XMT-1535 are not established, this binding may induce an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)-mediated immune response against NaPi2b-expressing tumor cells, and/or may inhibit NaPi2b-mediated sodium and phosphate ion cotransport activity and ion-dependent tumor cell signaling. NaPi2b, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA), is overexpressed on a variety of tumor cells. It plays a key role in the transport of inorganic phosphate (Pi) and the maintenance of phosphate homeostasis.", + "Uproleselan": "", + "Uprosertib": "", + "Urabrelimab": "A human monoclonal antibody targeting the human cell surface antigen CD47, with potential phagocytosis-inducing and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, urabrelimab selectively binds to CD47 on tumor cells and blocks the interaction of CD47 with signal regulatory protein alpha (SIRPalpha), an inhibitory protein expressed on macrophages. This prevents CD47/SIRPalpha-mediated signaling and abrogates the CD47/SIRPa-mediated inhibition of phagocytosis. This induces pro-phagocytic signaling mediated by the binding of calreticulin (CRT), which is specifically expressed on the surface of tumor cells, to low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor-related protein (LRP), expressed on macrophages. This results in macrophage activation and the specific phagocytosis of tumor cells. In addition, blocking CD47 signaling activates both an anti-tumor T-lymphocyte immune response and T cell-mediated killing of CD47-expressing tumor cells. CD47, also called integrin-associated protein (IAP), is a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) expressed on normal, healthy hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) and overexpressed on the surface of a variety of cancer cells. Expression of CD47, and its interaction with SIRPalpha, leads to the inhibition of macrophage activation and protects cancer cells from phagocytosis, which allows cancer cells to proliferate.", + "Uracil Ointment": "", + "Urelumab": "", + "Uroacitides": "", + "Urokinase-Derived Peptide A6": "", + "Ursolic Acid": "A pentacyclic triterpenoid found in various fruits, vegetables and medicinal herbs, with a variety of potential pharmacologic activities including anti-inflammatory, antioxidative, antiviral, serum lipid-lowering, and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, ursolic acid may promote apoptosis and inhibit cancer cell proliferation through multiple mechanisms. This may include the regulation of mitochondrial function through various pathways including the ROCK/PTEN and p53 pathways, the suppression of the nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB) pathways, and the increase in caspase-3, caspase-8 and caspase-9 activities.", + "USP14/UCHL5 Inhibitor VLX1570": "", + "Utomilumab": "", + "Uzansertib": "An orally available, small molecule and selective ATP-competitive pan-inhibitor of proviral integration sites for Moloney murine leukemia virus (PIM) kinases, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, uzansertib binds to and inhibits the activities of the three PIM isoforms, PIM1, PIM2 and PIM3. This prevents phosphorylation of their downstream targets and inhibits proliferation in cells that overexpress PIMs. PIMs, constitutively active proto-oncogenic serine/threonine kinases upregulated in various types of cancers, play key roles in tumor cell proliferation and survival.", + "V930 Vaccine": "", + "Vaccine-Sensitized Draining Lymph Node Cells": "", + "Vaccinium myrtillus/Macleaya cordata/Echinacea angustifolia Extract Granules": "", + "Vactosertib": "", + "Vadacabtagene Leraleucel": "", + "Vadastuximab Talirine": "", + "Vadimezan": "", + "Valecobulin": "A benzophenone derivative and water soluble valine prodrug of the tubulin binding agent S516, with potential tubulin-inhibiting, vascular-disrupting and antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, valecobulin is converted into its active metabolite S-516 that binds to tubulin and prevents its polymerization in tumor blood vessel endothelial cells and tumor cells. This blocks the formation of the mitotic spindle and leads to cell cycle arrest at the G2/M phase. As a result, this agent disrupts the tumor vasculature and tumor blood flow, deprives tumor cells of nutrients and induces tumor cell apoptosis. In addition, this agent has a direct cytotoxic effect on tumor cells by inhibiting tubulin polymerization.", + "Valemetostat": "An orally available selective inhibitor of the histone lysine methyltransferases enhancer of zeste homolog 1 (EZH1) and 2 (EZH2), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, valemetostat selectively inhibits the activity of both wild-type and mutated forms of EZH1 and EZH2. Inhibition of EZH1/2 specifically prevents the methylation of lysine 27 on histone H3 (H3K27). This decrease in histone methylation alters gene expression patterns associated with cancer pathways, enhances transcription of certain target genes, and results in decreased proliferation of EZH1/2-expressing cancer cells. EZH1/2, histone lysine methyltransferase (HMT) class enzymes and catalytic subunits of the polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2), are overexpressed or mutated in a variety of cancer cells and play key roles in tumor cell proliferation, progression, stem cell self-renewal and migration.", + "Valproic Acid": "", + "Valrubicin": "", + "Valspodar": "", + "Vandetanib": "", + "Vandetanib-eluting Radiopaque Bead BTG-002814": "", + "Vandortuzumab Vedotin": "", + "Vantictumab": "", + "Vanucizumab": "", + "Vapreotide": "", + "Varlilumab": "", + "Varlitinib": "", + "Varlitinib Tosylate": "", + "Vascular Disrupting Agent BNC105": "", + "Vascular Disrupting Agent BNC105P": "", + "Vascular Disrupting Agent ZD6126": "", + "Vatalanib": "", + "Vatalanib Succinate": "", + "Vecabrutinib": "", + "Vector-peptide Conjugated Paclitaxel": "", + "Vedolizumab": "", + "VEGF Inhibitor PTC299": "", + "VEGF/HGF-targeting DARPin MP0250": "", + "VEGFR2 Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor PF-00337210": "", + "VEGFR2/PDGFR/c-Kit/Flt-3 Inhibitor SU014813": "", + "VEGFR Inhibitor KRN951": "", + "VEGFR-2 DNA Vaccine VXM01": "", + "VEGFR/FGFR Inhibitor ODM-203": "", + "VEGFR/PDGFR Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor TAK-593": "", + "Veliparib": "", + "Veltuzumab": "", + "Vemurafenib": "", + "Venetoclax": "", + "Verapamil": "", + "Verpasep Caltespen": "", + "Verubulin": "", + "Verubulin Hydrochloride": "", + "Vesencumab": "A human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against neuropilin-1 (NRP1), with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Upon intravenous administration, vesencumab specifically targets and binds to NRP1; the antibody-NRP1 complex prevents the subsequent coupling of NRP1 to VEGFR2, thereby potentially inhibiting VEGF-mediated signaling and potentially preventing angiogenesis. In combination with other anti-VEGF therapies, vesencumab may enhance their anti-angiogenic effect. NRP1 is a membrane-bound co-receptor normally expressed by endothelial cells and overexpressed by certain tumor cells, and plays a role in angiogenesis, cell survival, migration, and invasion.", + "Vesigenurtucel-L": "", + "VGEF Mixed-Backbone Antisense Oligonucleotide GEM 220": "", + "VGEFR/c-kit/PDGFR Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor XL820": "", + "Viagenpumatucel-L": "", + "Vibecotamab": "An anti-CD123/anti-CD3 bispecific monoclonal antibody, in which most of the naturally-occurring Fc domain is maintained, with potential immunostimulatory and antineoplastic activities. Vibecotamab possesses two antigen-recognition and binding sites, one for the CD3 complex, a group of T-cell surface glycoproteins that complex with the T-cell receptor (TCR), and one for CD123, a tumor-associated antigen (TAA) overexpressed on the surface of certain tumor cells. Upon administration of vibecotamab, this bispecific antibody simultaneously binds to both CD3-expressing T-cells and CD123-expressing cancer cells, thereby crosslinking CD123-expressing tumor cells and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). This may result in potent CTL-mediated cell lysis of CD123-expressing tumor cells. CD123, the interleukin-3 receptor alpha chain, is overexpressed in a variety of hematological malignancies; its expression is low or absent in normal hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells. The Fc domain on the antibody prolongs the half-life of the bispecific antibody and enhances T-cell mediated tumor cell killing through its binding to the Fc receptors.", + "Vibostolimab": "An antagonistic agent targeting the co-inhibitory molecule and immune checkpoint inhibitor T-cell immunoglobulin (Ig) and immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) domains (TIGIT; T-cell immunoreceptor with Ig and ITIM domains; T-cell immunoglobulin and ITIM domain), with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, vibostolimab targets and binds to TIGIT expressed on various immune cells, particularly on tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes (TILs) and natural killer (NK) cells, thereby preventing the interaction of TIGIT with its ligands CD112 (nectin-2; poliovirus receptor related-2; PVRL2) and CD155 (poliovirus receptor; PVR; nectin-like protein 5; NECL-5), which are expressed on T-cells, NK cells and certain cancer cells. This enhances the interaction of CD112 and CD155 with the costimulatory receptor CD226 (DNAX Accessory molecule-1; DNAM-1), which is expressed on immune cells, such as NK cells and CD8+ T-cells, and activates CD226-mediated signaling. This activates the immune system to exert a T-cell-mediated immune response against cancer cells. TIGIT, a member of the Ig super family and an immune inhibitory receptor, is overexpressed on tumor antigen-specific CD8+ T-cells and CD8+ TILs and plays a key role in the suppression of T-cell proliferation and activation; it is involved in tumor cell immune evasion, and the inhibition of antiviral immune responses.", + "Vilaprisan": "", + "Vinblastine": "", + "Vinblastine Sulfate": "", + "Vincristine": "", + "Vincristine Liposomal": "", + "Vincristine Sulfate": "", + "Vincristine Sulfate Liposome": "", + "Vindesine": "", + "Vinepidine": "", + "Vinflunine": "", + "Vinflunine Ditartrate": "", + "Vinfosiltine": "", + "Vinorelbine": "", + "Vinorelbine Tartrate": "", + "Vinorelbine Tartrate Emulsion": "", + "Vinorelbine Tartrate Oral": "", + "Vintafolide": "", + "Vinzolidine": "", + "Vinzolidine Sulfate": "", + "Virulizin": "", + "Vismodegib": "", + "Vistusertib": "", + "Vitamin D3 Analogue ILX23-7553": "", + "Vitamin E Compound": "", + "Vitespen": "", + "VLP-encapsulated TLR9 Agonist CMP-001": "", + "Vocimagene Amiretrorepvec": "", + "Vofatamab": "", + "Volasertib": "", + "Volociximab": "", + "Vonlerolizumab": "", + "Vopratelimab": "", + "Vorasidenib": "An orally available inhibitor of mutated forms of both isocitrate dehydrogenase type 1 (IDH1, IDH1 [NADP+] soluble) in the cytoplasm and type 2 (IDH2, isocitrate dehydrogenase [NADP+], mitochondrial) in the mitochondria, with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, vorasidenib specifically inhibits mutant forms of IDH1 and IDH2, thereby inhibiting the formation of the oncometabolite 2-hydroxyglutarate (2HG) from alpha-ketoglutarate (a-KG). This prevents 2HG-mediated signaling and leads to both an induction of cellular differentiation and an inhibition of cellular proliferation in tumor cells expressing IDH mutations. In addition, vorasidenib is able to penetrate the blood-brain barrier (BBB). IDH1 and 2, metabolic enzymes that catalyze the conversion of isocitrate into a-KG, play key roles in energy production and are mutated in a variety of cancer cell types. In addition, mutant forms of IDH1 and 2 catalyze the formation of 2HG and drive cancer growth by blocking cellular differentiation and inducing cellular proliferation.", + "Vorinostat": "", + "Vorolanib": "", + "Vorsetzumab Mafodotin": "", + "Vosaroxin": "", + "Vosilasarm": "An orally bioavailable, non-steroidal selective androgen receptor modulator (SARM), with potential tissue-selective androgenic/anti-androgenic activities. Upon oral administration, vosilasarm acts as an agonist in select tissues, such as skeletal muscle and bone, where it binds to and activates androgen receptors (ARs). In the prostate and breasts, RAD140 acts as an antagonist and blocks AR activation and AR-mediated cellular proliferation. Therefore, this agent may improve bone formation and muscle mass and strength, and may inhibit both the growth of the prostate in males and AR-dependent breast cancer cell proliferation. Compared to anabolic agents, SARMs have reduced androgenic properties.", + "Voxtalisib": "", + "Vulinacimab": "A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against human vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR-2) with potential anti-angiogenesis and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, vulinacimab specifically binds to and inhibits VEGFR-2, which may inhibit tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFR-2, a tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an essential role in angiogenesis and the proliferation, survival, migration and differentiation of endothelial cells, is overexpressed in certain tumor types.", + "Warfarin Sodium": "", + "Wee1 Inhibitor ZN-c3": "An inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase Wee1 (Wee1-like protein kinase; Wee1A kinase; WEE1hu) with potential antineoplastic sensitizing activity. Although the exact mechanism of action by which this agent inhibits Wee1 has yet to be disclosed, upon administration of ZN-c3, this agent targets and inhibits Wee1. Inhibition of Wee1 promotes both premature mitosis and a prolonged mitotic arrest leading to cell death in susceptible tumor cells, such as p53-deficient or mutated human cancers that lack the G1 checkpoint, upon treatment with DNA-damaging chemotherapeutic agents. Unlike normal cells, most p53-deficient or mutated human cancers lack the G1 checkpoint as p53 is the key regulator of the G1 checkpoint and these cells rely on the G2 checkpoint for DNA repair to damaged cells. Annulment of the G2 checkpoint may therefore make p53-deficient tumor cells more vulnerable to antineoplastic agents and enhance their cytotoxic effect. Overexpression of Wee1 occurs in several cancer types and high expression of Wee1 is associated with poor outcomes. Wee1 phosphorylates Cdc2 in the Cdc2/cyclin B (CDK1/cyclin B) complex which blocks progression from G2 into mitosis; it negatively regulates the G2 checkpoint by disallowing entry into mitosis in response to DNA damage.", + "Wee1 Kinase Inhibitor Debio 0123": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the human tyrosine kinase Wee1 (Wee1-like protein kinase; Wee1A kinase; WEE1hu), with potential antineoplastic sensitizing activity. Upon oral administration of Debio 0123, this agent targets, binds to and inhibits Wee1. Inhibition of Wee1 inhibits Cdk1 (Cdc2) phosphorylation, promotes both premature mitosis and a prolonged mitotic arrest, which results in the accumulation of unrepaired DNA damage. This leads to apoptosis in susceptible tumor cells, such as p53-deficient or mutated human cancers that lack the G1 checkpoint, especially in combination with DNA-damaging chemotherapeutic agents. Unlike normal cells, most p53-deficient or mutated human cancers lack the G1 checkpoint as p53 is the key regulator of the G1 checkpoint and these cells rely on the G2 checkpoint for DNA repair to damaged cells. Annulment of the G2 checkpoint may therefore make p53-deficient tumor cells more vulnerable to antineoplastic agents and enhance their cytotoxic effect. Overexpression of Wee1 occurs in several cancer types and high expression of Wee1 is associated with poor outcomes. Wee1 phosphorylates Cdc2 in the Cdc2/cyclin B (CDK1/cyclin B) complex which blocks progression from G2 into mitosis. The Wee1 tyrosine kinase is activated upon DNA damage and regulates the G2-M and S cell cycle checkpoints.", + "White Carrot": "", + "Wnt Signaling Inhibitor SM04755": "", + "Wnt Signaling Pathway Inhibitor SM08502": "", + "Wnt-5a Mimic Hexapeptide Foxy-5": "", + "Wobe-Mugos E": "", + "WT1 Peptide Vaccine OCV-501": "", + "WT1 Peptide Vaccine WT2725": "", + "WT1 Protein-derived Peptide Vaccine DSP-7888": "", + "WT1-A10/AS01B Immunotherapeutic GSK2130579A": "", + "WT1/PSMA/hTERT-encoding Plasmid DNA INO-5401": "", + "Xanthohumol": "", + "XBP1-US/XBP1-SP/CD138/CS1 Multipeptide Vaccine PVX-410": "", + "Xeloda": "", + "Xentuzumab": "", + "Xevinapant": "An orally available mimetic of the natural second mitochondrial-derived activator of caspases (Smac) and inhibitor of Inhibitor of Apoptosis Proteins (IAPs), with potential immunomodulating, apoptotic-inducing, chemo-radio-sensitizing and antineoplastic activities. Upon oral administration,xevinapant targets and binds to the Smac binding groove on IAPs, including the direct caspase inhibitor X chromosome-linked IAP (XIAP), and the cellular IAPs 1 (c-IAP1) and 2 (c-IAP2). This inhibits the activities of these IAPs and promotes the induction of apoptosis. Additionally, as xevinapant inhibits the activity of IAPs, it may work synergistically with cytotoxic drugs and/or radiation to overcome tumor cell resistance to apoptosis. As IAPs regulate nuclear factor-kappa B (NFkB) signaling pathways, which drives the expression of genes involved in immune and inflammatory responses, xevinapant may enhance anti-tumor immune responses when administered with certain immunomodulating agents, such as immune checkpoint inhibitors. IAPs are overexpressed by many cancer cell types and suppress both intrinsic and extrinsic apoptosis by binding to and inhibiting active caspases via their baculoviral lAP repeat (BIR) domains. They contribute to chemo-radio-resistance of cancer cells to certain cytotoxic agents and radiation, promote tumor cell survival and are associated with poor prognosis in certain types of cancer. SMAC, a pro-apoptotic mitochondrial protein, is an endogenous inhibitor of the IAPs family of cellular proteins.", + "Xiaoai Jiedu Decoction": "", + "XIAP Antisense Oligonucleotide AEG35156": "", + "XIAP/cIAP1 Antagonist ASTX660": "", + "Xiliertinib": "An orally available, ATP-competitive inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, xiliertinib binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling, and may lead to both induction of cell death and inhibition of tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization.", + "Xisomab 3G3": "A humanized anti-factor XI (FXI) antibody, with potential anti-thrombotic activity. Upon administration, xisomab 3G3 targets and binds to the apple 2 domain of FXI, thereby preventing the binding of FXI to factor XIIa (FXIIa). This blocks factor XIIa-mediated FXI activation without inhibiting FXI activation by thrombin or the procoagulant function of FXIa. The abrogation of FXI activation prolongs the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and reduces platelet and fibrin accumulation. This results in the inhibition of contact activation-initiated blood coagulation and prevents thrombus formation. FXI contributes to thrombotic disease while playing a limited role in normal hemostasis. Activation of FXI is essential for thrombus growth and stabilization.", + "XPO1 Inhibitor SL-801": "", + "Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody CC49": "", + "Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody HMFG1": "", + "Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody Lym-1": "", + "Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody m170": "", + "Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody M195": "", + "Yang Yin Fu Zheng": "", + "Yangzheng Xiaoji Extract": "", + "Yiqi-yangyin-jiedu Herbal Decoction": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Anti-CD19 Monoclonal Antibody BU12": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Anti-CD45 Monoclonal Antibody AHN-12": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Anti-CD45 Monoclonal Antibody BC8": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Anti-CDH3 Monoclonal Antibody FF-21101": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Anti-CEA Monoclonal Antibody cT84.66": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Basiliximab": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Colloid": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Daclizumab": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 DOTA Anti-CEA Monoclonal Antibody M5A": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Glass Microspheres": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody B3": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody BrE-3": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody Hu3S193": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Monoclonal Antibody MN-14": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Resin Microspheres": "", + "Yttrium Y 90 Tabituximab Barzuxetan": "A radioimmunoconjugate composed of a humanized monoclonal antibody (MoAb) OTSA101 against FZD10 and labeled with yttrium y 90, with potential antineoplastic activity. The MoAb moiety of yttrium Y 90-labeled anti-FZD10 monoclonal antibody OTSA101 binds to FZD10, thereby delivering a cytotoxic dose of beta radiation to FZD10 positive tumor cells. FZD10 (also called CD350), a member of the Frizzled family of G protein-coupled receptors that is involved in the Wnt/beta-catenin/TCF signaling pathway, is overexpressed in a variety of cancer cell types but undetectable in normal, healthy human tissues except for the placenta.", + "Yttrium Y 90-DOTA-Biotin": "", + "Yttrium Y 90-DOTA-di-HSG Peptide IMP-288": "", + "Yttrium Y 90-Edotreotide": "", + "Yttrium Y 90-labeled Anti-FZD10 Monoclonal Antibody OTSA101": "", + "Yttrium Y-90 Clivatuzumab Tetraxetan": "", + "Yttrium Y-90 Epratuzumab Tetraxetan": "", + "Yttrium Y-90 Ibritumomab Tiuxetan": "", + "Yttrium Y-90 Tacatuzumab Tetraxetan": "", + "Yttrium-90 Polycarbonate Brachytherapy Plaque": "", + "Z-Endoxifen Hydrochloride": "", + "Zalcitabine": "", + "Zalifrelimab": "", + "Zalutumumab": "", + "Zandelisib": "An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the delta isoform of phosphatidylinositide 3-kinase (PI3K), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zandelisib selectively inhibits the delta isoform of PI3K and prevents the activation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. This both decreases proliferation and induces cell death in PI3K-delta-overexpressing tumor cells. PI3K-delta plays a key role in the proliferation and survival of hematologic cancer cells. The targeted inhibition of PI3K-delta is designed to preserve PI3K signaling in normal, non-neoplastic cells. PI3K, an enzyme often overexpressed in cancer cells, plays a crucial role in tumor cell regulation and survival.", + "Zanidatamab": "An engineered immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) bi-specific monoclonal antibody that targets two different non-overlapping epitopes of the human tumor-associated antigen (TAA) epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2), ECD2 and ECD4, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, zanidatamab targets and binds to the two distinct HER2 domains on the tumor cell surface. This results in dual HER2 signal blockade, HER2 clustering, receptor internalization and downregulation. This also induces a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor cells that overexpress HER2. Antibody-dependent cellular phagocytosis (ADCP) is also induced and further stimulates the immune system to kill HER2-overexpressing tumor cells. The HER2 receptor internalization also further inhibits HER2 activation, HER2-mediated signaling and HER2-mediated tumor cell growth. HER2, a tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed by many cancer cell types.", + "Zanolimumab": "", + "Zanubrutinib": "", + "Zebularine": "", + "Zelavespib": "A purine-based heat shock protein 90 (Hsp90) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic activity. Zelavespib specifically inhibits active Hsp90, thereby inhibiting its chaperone function and promoting the proteasomal degradation of oncogenic signaling proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation and survival. This may result in the inhibition of cellular proliferation in susceptible tumor cell populations. Hsp90, a molecular chaperone protein, is upregulated in a variety of tumor cell types.", + "Zibotentan": "", + "Zinc Finger Nuclease ZFN-603": "", + "Zinc Finger Nuclease ZFN-758": "", + "Zinostatin": "", + "Zinostatin Stimalamer": "", + "Zirconium Zr 89 Panitumumab": "", + "Ziv-Aflibercept": "", + "Zolbetuximab": "", + "Zoledronic Acid": "", + "Zoptarelin Doxorubicin": "", + "Zorifertinib": "An orally available inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, zorifertinib binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR as well as certain mutant forms of EGFR. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling, and may lead to both induction of cell death and inhibition of tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization.", + "Zorubicin": "", + "Zorubicin Hydrochloride": "", + "Zotatifin": "A selective inhibitor of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4A (eIF4A), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration of zotatifin, this agent targets and binds to elF4A, and promotes eIF4A binding to mRNA with specific polypurine motifs within their 5'-untranslated region (5'-UTR), leading to the formation of a stable sequence-specific ternary complex with eIF4A and mRNA (elF4A- zotatifin-mRNA). This results in the translational repression of key oncogenes and anti-apoptotic proteins involved in tumor cell proliferation, survival and metastasis, such as KRAS, Myc, myeloid cell leukemia-1 (Mcl-1), B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2), cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) 4 and 6, cyclin D, fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) 1 and 2, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2; ERBB2), and beta-catenin. The inhibition of the expression of these oncogenes leads to the inhibition of various oncogenic signal transduction pathways. This inhibits proliferation and induces apoptosis in tumor cells. eIF4A, a RNA helicase and the rate-limiting component of the eukaryotic translation initiation complex, catalyzes the ATP-dependent unwinding of RNA duplexes and facilitates 43S ribosome scanning within the 5'-UTR. elF4A is activated by various oncogenic signaling pathways, including RAS/mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) and phosphatidylinositide 3-kinase (PI3K)/AKT pathways, and regulates the translation of oncogenes and tumor survival factors with complex secondary structures within the 5'-UTRs that are required for tumor cell proliferation, survival and metastasis.", + "Zotiraciclib Citrate": "An orally bioavailable citrate salt form of zotiraciclib a multi-kinase inhibitor for cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) subtypes 1, 2, 7 and 9, Janus-associated kinase 2 (JAK2), FMS-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3, FLK2, STK1), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, CDK/JAK2/FLT3 Inhibitor TG02 binds to and inhibits the CDK subtypes, JAK2, and FLT3. TG02 also inhibits, to a lesser extent, TYK2, TYRO3, STAT5 and P38delta. This may result in both an induction of apoptosis and an inhibition of tumor cell proliferation in cancer cells that overexpress these kinases. JAK2, often upregulated or mutated in a variety of cancer cells, mediates STAT3 activation and plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and survival. CDKs are serine/threonine kinases that play key roles in the regulation of the cell cycle and cellular proliferation. FLT3, a class III tyrosine kinase receptor, is overexpressed or mutated in most B lineage and acute myeloid leukemias.", + "Zuclomiphene Citrate": "", + "Other": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "therapeutic_level_achieved": { + "column_description": "Indicates a target level of treatment was reached, according to the patient's treatment plan.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "therapeutic_levels_achieved": { + "column_description": "An indication that the intended level of therapeutic agent was achieved in an individual.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "therapeutic_target_level": { + "column_description": "Describes a specific target for an administered treatment.", + "value_data": { + ">14 mg/L": "" + } + }, + "treatment_anatomic_site": { + "column_description": "The anatomic site or field targeted by a treatment regimen or single agent therapy.", + "value_data": { + "Abdomen, total": "", + "Abdominal Wall": "", + "Acetabulum": "", + "Adenoid": "", + "Adipose": "", + "Adrenal": "", + "Alveolar Ridge": "", + "Amniotic Fluid": "", + "Ampulla of Vater": "", + "Anal Sphincter": "", + "Ankle": "", + "Anorectum": "", + "Antecubital Fossa": "", + "Antrum": "", + "Anus": "", + "Aorta": "", + "Aortic Body": "", + "Appendix": "", + "Aqueous Fluid": "", + "Arm": "", + "Artery": "", + "Ascending Colon": "", + "Ascending Colon Hepatic Flexure": "", + "Ascites": "", + "Auditory Canal": "", + "Autonomic Nervous System": "", + "Axilla": "", + "Back": "", + "Bile Duct": "", + "Bladder": "", + "Blood": "", + "Blood Vessel": "", + "Body, total": "", + "Bone": "", + "Bone Marrow": "The tissue occupying the spaces of bone. It consists of blood vessel sinuses and a network of hematopoietic cells which give rise to the red cells, white cells, and megakaryocytes.", + "Bone, non-spine": "", + "Bowel": "", + "Brain": "", + "Brain Stem": "", + "Breast": "", + "Broad Ligament": "", + "Bronchiole": "", + "Bronchus": "", + "Brow": "", + "Buccal Cavity": "", + "Buccal Mucosa": "The mucosal membranes located on the inside of the cheek, in the buccal cavity.", + "Buttock": "", + "Calf": "", + "Capillary": "", + "Cardia": "", + "Carina": "", + "Carotid Artery": "", + "Carotid Body": "", + "Cartilage": "", + "Cecum": "", + "Cell-Line": "", + "Central Nervous System": "", + "Cerebellum": "", + "Cerebral Cortex": "", + "Cerebrospinal Fluid": "The fluid that is contained within the brain ventricles, the subarachnoid space and the central canal of the spinal cord.", + "Cerebrum": "", + "Cervical Spine": "", + "Cervix": "", + "Chest": "", + "Chest Wall": "", + "Chin": "", + "Clavicle": "", + "Clitoris": "", + "Colon": "", + "Colon - Mucosa Only": "", + "Common Duct": "", + "Conjunctiva": "", + "Connective Tissue": "Supporting tissue that surrounds other tissues and organs. Specialized connective tissue includes bone, cartilage, blood, and fat.", + "Dermal": "", + "Descending Colon": "", + "Diaphragm": "", + "Distant Site": "", + "Duodenum": "", + "Ear": "", + "Ear Canal": "", + "Ear, Pinna (External)": "", + "Elbow": "", + "Endocrine Gland": "", + "Epididymis": "", + "Epidural Space": "", + "Epitrochlear": "A lymph node located above and adjacent to the elbow.", + "Esophagogastric Junction": "", + "Esophagus": "", + "Esophagus - Mucosa Only": "", + "Eye": "", + "Fallopian Tube": "", + "Femoral Artery": "", + "Femoral Vein": "", + "Femur": "", + "Fibroblasts": "", + "Fibula": "", + "Finger": "", + "Floor of Mouth": "", + "Fluid": "", + "Foot": "", + "Forearm": "", + "Forehead": "", + "Foreskin": "", + "Frontal Cortex": "", + "Frontal Lobe": "The part of the brain located anterior to the parietal lobes at the front of each cerebral hemisphere.", + "Fundus of Stomach": "", + "Gallbladder": "", + "Ganglia": "", + "Gastroesophageal Junction": "", + "Gastrointestinal Tract": "", + "Gastrointestinal, Intestine": "", + "Genitourinary, NOS": "", + "Groin": "", + "Gum": "", + "Hand": "", + "Hard Palate": "", + "Head - Face Or Neck, Nos": "", + "Head and Neck": "", + "Heart": "", + "Hepatic": "", + "Hepatic Duct": "", + "Hepatic Vein": "", + "Hilar": "A lymph node located in the area around the hilum.", + "Hip": "", + "Hippocampus": "", + "Humerus": "", + "Hypopharynx": "", + "Ileocecal Valve": "", + "Ileum": "", + "Ilium": "", + "Index Finger": "", + "Ischium": "", + "Islet Cells": "", + "Jaw": "", + "Jejunum": "", + "Joint": "", + "Kidney": "", + "Knee": "", + "Lacrimal Gland": "", + "Large Bowel": "", + "Laryngopharynx": "", + "Larynx": "", + "Leg": "", + "Leptomeninges": "", + "Ligament": "", + "Lip": "", + "Liver": "", + "Locoregional Site": "", + "Lumbar Spine": "", + "Lung": "", + "Lymph Node": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Axilla": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Cervical": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Distant": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Epitrochlear": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Femoral": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Hilar": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Iliac-Common": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Iliac-External": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Inguinal": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Internal Mammary": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Mammary": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Mediastinal": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Mesenteric": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Occipital": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Paraaortic": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Parotid": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Pelvic": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Popliteal": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Regional": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Retroperitoneal": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Scalene": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Splenic": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Subclavicular": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Submandibular": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Supraclavicular": "", + "Mandible": "", + "Mantle": "", + "Maxilla": "", + "Mediastinal Soft Tissue": "", + "Mediastinum": "", + "Mesentery": "", + "Mesothelium": "", + "Middle Finger": "", + "Mitochondria": "", + "Muscle": "", + "Nails": "", + "Nasal Cavity": "", + "Nasal Soft Tissue": "", + "Nasopharynx": "", + "Neck": "The region that connects the head to the rest of the body.", + "Nerve": "", + "Nerve(s) Cranial": "", + "Occipital Cortex": "", + "Ocular Orbits": "", + "Omentum": "", + "Oral Cavity": "", + "Oral Cavity - Mucosa Only": "", + "Oropharynx": "", + "Ovary": "", + "Palate": "", + "Pancreas": "", + "Parametrium": "", + "Paraspinal Ganglion": "", + "Parathyroid": "", + "Parotid Gland": "", + "Patella": "", + "Pelvis": "", + "Penis": "", + "Pericardium": "", + "Periorbital Soft Tissue": "", + "Peritoneal Cavity": "", + "Peritoneum": "", + "Pharynx": "", + "Pineal": "", + "Pineal Gland": "", + "Pituitary Gland": "", + "Placenta": "", + "Pleura": "", + "Popliteal Fossa": "", + "Pouch": "", + "Primary Tumor Field": "", + "Primary tumor site": "", + "Prostate": "", + "Prostate Bed": "", + "Prostate, Seminal Vesicles and Lymph Nodes": "", + "Pylorus": "", + "Rectosigmoid Junction": "", + "Rectum": "", + "Regional Site": "", + "Retina": "", + "Retro-Orbital Region": "", + "Retroperitoneum": "", + "Rib": "", + "Ring Finger": "", + "Round Ligament": "", + "Sacrum": "", + "Salivary Gland": "", + "Scalp": "", + "Scapula": "", + "Sciatic Nerve": "", + "Scrotum": "", + "Seminal Vesicle": "", + "Shoulder": "", + "Sigmoid Colon": "", + "Sinus": "", + "Sinus(es), Maxillary": "", + "Skeletal Muscle": "", + "Skin": "", + "Skin, lower extremity, local": "", + "Skin, total": "", + "Skin, trunk, local": "", + "Skin, upper extremity, local": "", + "Skull": "", + "Small Bowel": "", + "Small Bowel - Mucosa Only": "", + "Small Finger": "", + "Soft Tissue": "A general term comprising tissue that is not hardened or calcified; including muscle, fat, blood vessels, nerves, tendons, ligaments and fascia.", + "Spinal Column": "", + "Spinal Cord": "", + "Spine": "", + "Spleen": "", + "Splenic Flexure": "", + "Sternum": "", + "Stomach": "", + "Stomach - Mucosa Only": "", + "Subcutaneous Tissue": "", + "Synovium": "", + "Temporal Cortex": "", + "Tendon": "", + "Testis": "", + "Thigh": "", + "Thoracic Spine": "", + "Thorax": "", + "Throat": "", + "Thumb": "", + "Thymus": "", + "Thyroid": "", + "Tibia": "", + "Tongue": "", + "Tonsil": "", + "Tonsil (Pharyngeal)": "", + "Trachea / Major Bronchi": "", + "Transverse Colon": "", + "Trunk": "", + "Umbilical Cord": "", + "Ureter": "", + "Urethra": "", + "Urinary Tract": "", + "Uterus": "", + "Uvula": "", + "Vagina": "", + "Vas Deferens": "", + "Vein": "", + "Venous": "", + "Vertebra": "", + "Vulva": "", + "White Blood Cells": "", + "Wrist": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "treatment_anatomic_sites": { + "column_description": "The anatomic site or field targeted by a treatment regimen or single agent therapy.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "treatment_arm": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the treatment arm assigned to a patient at the time eligibility is determined.", + "value_data": { + "A081105": "", + "A081801": "", + "E4512": "", + "EA5142": "" + } + }, + "treatment_dose": { + "column_description": "The numeric value used to describe the total dose of an agent the patient received.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "treatment_dose_max": { + "column_description": "A maximum quantity of an agent administered to the study participant.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "treatment_dose_units": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the dose units of an agent the patient received.", + "value_data": { + "AUC": "", + "cGy": "", + "g/day": "", + "g/m2": "", + "Gy": "", + "IU/kg": "", + "IU/mg": "", + "mCi": "", + "mEq": "", + "mg": "A metric unit of mass equal to one thousandth of a gram or 1000 micrograms. One milligram equals approximately 0.015 432 grain or 35.274 x 10E-6 ounce.", + "mg/day": "", + "mg/dL": "", + "mg/kg": "", + "mg/kg/day": "", + "mg/m2": "", + "mg/m2/day": "", + "mg/m2/wk": "", + "mg/mL": "", + "mg/wk": "", + "mIU": "", + "mL": "", + "ug": "", + "ug/m2": "", + "Wafer": "" + } + }, + "treatment_duration": { + "column_description": "The number of days during which the treatment was given.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "treatment_effect": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the pathologic effect a treatment(s) had on the tumor.", + "value_data": { + "Complete Necrosis (No Viable Tumor)": "", + "Incomplete Necrosis (Viable Tumor Present)": "", + "No Known Treatment Effect": "", + "No Necrosis": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "treatment_effect_indicator": { + "column_description": "The text term used to indicate whether the treatment had an effect on the patient.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "treatment_intent_type": { + "column_description": "Text term to identify the reason for the administration of a treatment regimen. [Manually-curated]", + "value_data": { + "Adjuvant": "", + "Androgen Deprivation Therapy (ADT)": "", + "Cancer Control": "", + "Consolidation Therapy": "", + "Cure": "", + "First-Line Therapy": "", + "Induction": "The first choice of treatment for a particular type of cancer.", + "Maintenance Therapy": "", + "Neoadjuvant": "", + "Palliative": "", + "Prevention": "", + "Radiation Boost": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "treatment_or_therapy": { + "column_description": "A yes/no/unknown/not applicable indicator related to the administration of therapeutic agents received.", + "value_data": { + "yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "no": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "not reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "treatment_outcome": { + "column_description": "Text term that describes the patient's final outcome after the treatment was administered.", + "value_data": { + "Complete Response": "", + "Mixed Response": "", + "No Measurable Disease": "", + "No Response": "", + "Normalization of Tumor Markers": "", + "Partial Response": "", + "Persistent Disease": "", + "Progressive Disease": "", + "Stable Disease": "", + "Treatment Ongoing": "", + "Treatment Stopped Due to Toxicity": "", + "Very Good Partial Response": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "treatment_outcome_duration": { + "column_description": "The number of days a patient reached a specific result or effect after treatment.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "treatment_type": { + "column_description": "Text term that describes the kind of treatment administered.", + "value_data": { + "Ablation, Cryo": "", + "Ablation, Ethanol Injection": "", + "Ablation, Microwave": "", + "Ablation, NOS": "", + "Ablation, Radiofrequency": "", + "Ablation, Radiosurgical": "", + "Ancillary Treatment": "", + "Antiseizure Treatment": "", + "Biopsy, Excisional": "", + "Biopsy, Incisional": "", + "Bisphosphonate Therapy": "", + "Blinded Study, Treatment Unknown": "", + "Brachytherapy, High Dose": "", + "Brachytherapy, Low Dose": "", + "Brachytherapy, NOS": "", + "Chemoembolization": "", + "Chemoprotectant": "", + "Chemotherapy": "", + "Concurrent Chemoradiation": "", + "Cryoablation": "", + "Distal Pancreatectomy": "", + "Embolization": "", + "Ethanol Injection Ablation": "", + "External Beam Radiation": "", + "Hormone Therapy": "", + "I-131 Radiation Therapy": "", + "Immunotherapy (Including Vaccines)": "", + "Internal Radiation": "", + "Isolated Limb Perfusion (ILP)": "", + "Organ Transplantation": "", + "Peptide Receptor Radionuclide Therapy (PRRT)": "", + "Pharmaceutical Therapy, NOS": "", + "Pleurodesis": "", + "Pleurodesis, NOS": "", + "Pleurodesis, Talc": "", + "Radiation Therapy, NOS": "", + "Radiation, 2D Conventional": "", + "Radiation, 3D Conformal": "", + "Radiation, Combination": "", + "Radiation, Cyberknife": "", + "Radiation, External Beam": "", + "Radiation, Hypofractionated": "Radiation treatment in which the total dose of radiation is divided into large doses and treatments are given less than once a day.", + "Radiation, Implants": "", + "Radiation, Intensity-Modulated Radiotherapy": "", + "Radiation, Internal": "", + "Radiation, Mixed Photon Beam": "", + "Radiation, Photon Beam": "Radiation therapy using photon beam.", + "Radiation, Proton Beam": "", + "Radiation, Radioisotope": "", + "Radiation, Stereotactic/Gamma Knife/SRS": "", + "Radiation, Systemic": "", + "Radioactive Iodine Therapy": "", + "Radioembolization": "", + "Radiosensitizing Agent": "", + "Stem Cell Transplantation, Allogeneic": "", + "Stem Cell Transplantation, Autologous": "", + "Stem Cell Transplantation, Double Autologous": "", + "Stem Cell Transplantation, Haploidentical": "", + "Stem Cell Transplantation, Non-Myeloablative": "", + "Stem Cell Transplantation, NOS": "", + "Stem Cell Transplantation, Syngenic": "", + "Stem Cell Treatment": "", + "Stereotactic Radiosurgery": "", + "Steroid Therapy": "", + "Surgery": "", + "Surgery, Minimally Invasive": "", + "Surgery, NOS": "", + "Surgery, Open": "", + "Targeted Molecular Therapy": "", + "Total Pancreatectomy": "", + "Whipple": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "creation_datetime": { + "column_description": "The datetime of portion creation encoded as seconds from epoch.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "is_ffpe": { + "column_description": "Indicator to signify whether or not the tissue sample was fixed in formalin and embedded in paraffin (FFPE).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "portion_number": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the sequential number assigned to a portion of the sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "aa_change": { + "column_description": "Alphanumeric value used to describe the amino acid change for a specific genetic variant. Example: R116Q.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "aneuploidy": { + "column_description": "A chromosomal abnormality in which there is an addition or loss of chromosomes within a set (e.g., 23 + 22 or 23 + 24).", + "value_data": { + "Monosomy": "", + "Trisomy": "" + } + }, + "antigen": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe an antigen included in molecular testing.", + "value_data": { + "BCL6": "This gene is involved in transcriptional repression and plays a role in the modulation of B-cell responses.", + "CA19-9": "CA 19-9 is a fucosylated glycosphingolipid carbohydrate antigen that is soluble and is adsorbed to erythrocytes and to many adenocarcinomas of the digestive tract, especially pancreatic tumors. By structure CA 19-9 is related to the Lewis blood group antigens.", + "CA-125": "A substance that may be found in high amounts in the blood of patients with certain types of cancer, including ovarian cancer. CA-125 levels may also help monitor how well cancer treatments are working or if cancer has come back.", + "CCND1": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of mitotic events.", + "CD3": "Consisting of cell surface type I membrane Delta, Epsilon, Gamma, Zeta, and Eta protein subunits with ITAM domains and noncovalently associated with the disulfide bound heterodimeric alpha/beta and gamma/delta TCR, the CD3 complex couples receptor antigen recognition to signal transduction pathways during T-cell activation. During TCR engagement with MHC-associated antigen on host cell surfaces and synapse formation, CD3 activity leads to Tyr-phosphorylated CD3 subunits, Tyr phosphorylation of LAT colocalized in lipid rafts, and MAPK activation. CD3 signal transduction appears to involve LCK, ZAP70, Nck, SLA, SLA2, and DOCK2. CD3 subunits may also associate with the cytoskeleton. CD3 also mediates TCR signal transduction during the developmental transition through positive selection of immature thymocytes to mature CD4+ or CD8+ T cells. (NCI)", + "CD5": "T-cell surface glycoprotein CD5 (495 aa, ~54 kDa) is encoded by the human CD5 gene. This protein may be involved in regulating the proliferation of T-cells.", + "CD7": "T-cell antigen CD7 (240 aa, ~25 kDa) is encoded by the human CD7 gene. This protein plays a role in the development and function of lymphoid cells.", + "CD10": "Neprilysin (750 aa, ~86 kDa) is encoded by the human MME gene. This protein is involved in the metabolism of biologically active peptides.", + "CD14": "Monocyte differentiation antigen CD14 (375 aa, ~40 kDa) is encoded by the human CD14 gene. This protein plays a role in the innate immune response to lipopolysaccharide exposure.", + "CD15": "A carbohydrate molecule found on the surface of neutrophils, eosinophils and monocytes. It is involved in neutrophil chemotaxis and phagocytosis. Expression of this antigen is associated with Hodgkin disease, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, and acute lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "CD19": "B-lymphocyte antigen CD19 (556 aa, ~61 kDa) is encoded by the human CD19 gene. This protein is involved in enhancing B-cell receptor-dependent signaling.", + "CD20": "B-lymphocyte antigen CD20 (297 aa, ~33 kDa) is encoded by the human MS4A1 gene. This protein plays a role in both the activation and proliferation of B-cells.", + "CD22": "B-cell receptor CD22 (847 aa, ~95 kDa) is encoded by the human CD22 gene. This protein is involved in B-cell/B-cell interactions and downstream signaling.", + "CD23": "Low affinity immunoglobulin epsilon Fc receptor (321 aa, ~36 kDa) is encoded by the human FCER2 gene. This protein is involved in B cell differentiation and IgE production.", + "CD25": "Interleukin-2 receptor subunit alpha (272 aa, ~31 kDa) is encoded by the human IL2RA gene. This protein plays a role in interleukin-2-dependent signaling.", + "CD30": "Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 8 (595 aa, ~ 64 kDa) is encoded by the human TNFRSF8 gene. This protein is involved in ligand-mediated signal transduction, the positive regulation of apoptosis and the inhibition of cell proliferation.", + "CD33": "Myeloid cell surface antigen CD33 (364 aa, ~40 kDa) is encoded by the human CD33 gene. This protein is involved in the mediation of cell adhesion and the regulation of cell-cell signaling.", + "CD34": "Hematopoietic progenitor cell antigen CD34 (385 aa, ~41 kDa) is encoded by the human CD34 gene. This protein plays a role in cell-cell adhesion and may have a role in leukocyte migration.", + "CD43": "Leukosialin (400 aa, ~40 kDa) is encoded by the human SPN gene. This protein is involved in immune cell function.", + "CD45": "Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase C (1304 aa, ~147 kDa) is encoded by the human PTPRC gene. This protein plays a role in protein dephosphorylation.", + "CD56": "Cell adhesion molecule involved in a diverse range of contact-mediated interactions among neurons, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and myotubes. It is widely but transiently expressed in many tissues early in embryogenesis. Four main isoforms exist, including CD56 (ANTIGENS, CD56), but there are many other variants resulting from alternative splicing and post-translational modifications. (From Pigott & Power, The Adhesion Molecule FactsBook, 1993, pp115-119)", + "CD79A": "This gene is involved in B-cell signaling and proliferation.", + "CD117": "Mast/stem cell growth factor receptor Kit (976 aa, ~110 kDa) is encoded by the human KIT gene. This protein is involved in cell survival, tyrosine phosphorylation and ligand-mediated signaling.", + "CD138": "Syndecan-1 (310 aa, ~32 kDa) is encoded by the human SDC1 gene. This protein is involved in the mediation of cell adhesion, signaling and cytoskeletal organization.", + "CEA": "A cancer-specific antigen associated with both tumors and the developing fetus. The main use of this antigen is as a tumor marker, especially with respect to intestinal cancers. Production of the antigen ceases shortly before birth, but may reappear in people who develop certain types of cancer.", + "FMC-7": "", + "HLA-DR": "Encoded by multiple HLA-DRA and HLA-DRB genes in a complex variable 5 cM region of MHC between HLA-B and -D, HLA-DR Antigens are Class II histocompatibility transmembrane glycoprotein heterodimers of alpha (heavy, 35-kD) and beta (light, 27-kD) chains. Located predominantly on B cells and macrophages, HLA-DR antigens function in antigen presentation to regulatory T cells in the immune response and in self/nonself discrimination. Invariant alpha and polymorphic beta chains have glycosylated N-termini, hydrophobic membrane regions, and hydrophilic C-termini. The heterodimer consists of 4 extracellular domains; invariant alpha-1, polymorphic N-terminal beta-1, and conserved Ig-like alpha-2 and beta-2. Alpha-1 and alpha-2 contain disulfide loops. Beta-1 contains 2 small variable regions. Alpha sequences have relatively simple structure; beta chains carry the major polymorphic determinants.", + "Immunoglobulin, Cytoplasmic": "", + "Immunoglobulin, Surface": "", + "Kappa, Surface": "", + "Ki67": "", + "Lambda, Surface": "", + "Mesothelin": "Mesothelin (630 aa, ~69 kDa) is encoded by the human MSLN gene. This protein may play a role in cellular adhesion.", + "NSE": "Gamma-enolase (434 aa, ~47 kDa) is encoded by the human ENO2 gene. This protein is involved in glycolysis, neurotrophy and neuroprotection.", + "Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)": "Prostate-specific antigen (261 aa, ~29 kDa) is encoded by the human KLK3 gene. This protein plays a role in both proteolysis and seminal fluid liquefaction.", + "Squamous Cell Carcinoma Antigen (SCCA)": "The determination of the squamous cell carcinoma antigen present in a sample.", + "TAG-72": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "biospecimen_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the biological material used for testing, diagnostic, treatment or research purposes.", + "value_data": { + "Blood": "", + "Bone Marrow": "The tissue occupying the spaces of bone. It consists of blood vessel sinuses and a network of hematopoietic cells which give rise to the red cells, white cells, and megakaryocytes.", + "Buccal Mucosa": "The mucosal membranes located on the inside of the cheek, in the buccal cavity.", + "Buffy Coat": "The middle layer of an anticoagulated blood specimen following separation by centrifugation. It contains most of the white blood cells and platelets.", + "Cerebrospinal Fluid": "The fluid that is contained within the brain ventricles, the subarachnoid space and the central canal of the spinal cord.", + "Connective Tissue": "Supporting tissue that surrounds other tissues and organs. Specialized connective tissue includes bone, cartilage, blood, and fat.", + "Embryonic Fluid": "Fluids surrounding or related to an embryo.", + "Embryonic Tissue": "Tissue that is formed during the embryonic stage of life of an organism.", + "Feces": "The material discharged from the bowel during defecation. It consists of undigested food, intestinal mucus, epithelial cells, and bacteria.", + "Granulocyte": "A type of leukocyte with a multilobed nucleus and cytoplasmic granules. The unique morphology of the nucleus has led to their also being known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMLs or PMNs). Granulocytes are subdivided according to the staining properties of their granules into eosinophils (red with acidic dye), basophils (blue with basic dye), and neutrophils (not amenable to staining with either acidic or basic dyes).", + "Involved Tissue, NOS": "", + "Muscle Tissue": "Tissue responsible for the body movements and the shape and size changes of internal organs. Muscle tissue is composed of specialized contractile cells. There are two types of muscle tissue recognized: striated and smooth muscle. The striated muscle tissue is further subdivided into skeletal, visceral striated, and cardiac muscle.", + "Nerve Tissue": "The tissue that generates and conducts electrical signals in the body. It contains the neurons.", + "Peritoneal Fluid": "The small amount of fluid that is generated in the abdominal cavity to lubricate the peritoneum.", + "Plasma": "Plasma is the fluid (noncellular) portion of the circulating blood, as distinguished from the serum that is the fluid portion of the blood obtained by removal of the fibrin clot and blood cells after coagulation.", + "Pleural Fluid": "The fluid that is ordinarily present in the pleural space. It allows for normal movement of the lungs during respiration.", + "Saliva": "The watery fluid in the mouth made by the salivary glands. Saliva moistens food to help digestion and it helps protect the mouth against infections.", + "Serum": "The clear portion of the blood that remains after the removal of the blood cells and the clotting proteins.", + "Skin": "", + "Soft Tissue": "A general term comprising tissue that is not hardened or calcified; including muscle, fat, blood vessels, nerves, tendons, ligaments and fascia.", + "Tissue, NOS": "An anatomical structure consisting of similarly specialized cells and intercellular matrix, aggregated according to genetically determined spatial relationships, performing a specific function.", + "Uninvolved Tissue, NOS": "", + "Urine": "The fluid that is excreted by the kidneys. It is stored in the bladder and discharged through the urethra.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "biospecimen_volume": { + "column_description": "The volume of the biospecimen.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "blood_test_normal_range_lower": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the lower limit of the normal range used to describe a healthy individual at the institution where the test was completed.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "blood_test_normal_range_upper": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the upper limit of the normal range used to describe a healthy individual at the institution where the test was completed.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "cell_count": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the number of cells used for molecular testing.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "chromosomal_translocation": { + "column_description": "A genetic exchange where a piece of one chromosome is transferred to another chromosome.", + "value_data": { + "t(3;5)(q25;q34)": "", + "t(6;9)": "", + "t(6;11)(q27;q23)": "", + "t(8;21)": "", + "t(9;11)(p22;q23)": "", + "t(10;11)(p11.2;q23)": "", + "t(11;19)(q23;p13.1)": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "chromosome": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe a chromosome targeted or included in molecular testing. If a specific genetic variant is being reported, this property can be used to capture the chromosome where that variant is located.", + "value_data": { + "chr1": "The designation for each member of the largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 1 spans about 247 million nucleotide base pairs and represents about 8% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr2": "The designation for each member of the second largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 2 spans more than 237 million base pairs and represents almost 8% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr3": "The designation for each member of the third largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 3 spans almost 200 million base pairs and represents about 6.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr4": "The designation for each member of the fourth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 4 spans more than 186 million base pairs and represents between 6 and 6.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr5": "The designation for each member of the fifth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 5 spans about 181 million base pairs and represents almost 6% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr6": "The designation for each member of the sixth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 6 spans more than 170 million base pairs and represents between 5.5 and 6% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr7": "The designation for each member of the seventh largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 7 spans more than 158 million base pairs and represents between 5 and 5.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr8": "The designation for each member of the eighth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 8 spans about 145 million base pairs and represents between 4.5 and 5.0% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr9": "The designation for each member of the ninth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 9 spans about 145 million base pairs of nucleic acids and represents between 4 and 4.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr10": "The designation for each member of the tenth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 10 spans about 135 million base pairs and represents between 4 and 4.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr11": "The designation for each member of the eleventh largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 11 spans about 134.5 million base pairs and represents between 4 and 4.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr12": "The designation for each member of the twelfth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 12 spans about 143 million base pairs and represents between 4 and 4.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr13": "The designation for each member of the thirteenth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 13 spans about 113 million base pairs and represents between 3.5 and 4% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr14": "The designation for each member of the fourteenth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 14 spans about 105 million base pairs and represents between 3 and 3.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr15": "The designation for each member of the fifteenth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 15 spans about 106 million base pairs and represents between 3 and 3.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr16": "The designation for each member of the sixteenth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 16 spans about 90 million base pairs and represents just under 3% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr17": "The designation for each member of the seventeenth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 17 spans more than 81 million base pairs and represents between 2.5 and 3% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr18": "The designation for each member of the eighteenth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 18 spans about 76 million base pairs and represents about 2.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr19": "The designation for each member of the nineteenth largest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 19 spans more than 63 million base pairs and represents between 2 and 2.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr20": "The designation for each member of the third smallest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 20 spans around 63 million base pairs and represents between 2 and 2.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr21": "The designation for each member of the second smallest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 21 spans around 47 million nucleotides and represents about 1.5% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr22": "The designation for each member of the smallest human autosomal chromosome pair. Chromosome 22 spans about 49 million base pairs and represents between 1.5 and 2% of the total DNA in normal diploid cells.", + "chr23": "The X or Y chromosome in human beings that determines the sex of an individual. Females have two X chromosomes in diploid cells; males have an X and a Y chromosome. The sex chromosomes comprise the 23rd chromosome pair in a human karyotype.", + "chrM": "Typically small, circular, intronless, and maternally inherited, mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is the multicopy deoxyribonucleic acid genome of mitochondria, intracellular organelles responsible for vital respiratory chain and oxidative phosphorylation reactions in higher eukaryotes. Replicated and transcribed by a separate enzymatic machinery from that of nuclear DNA, mtDNA encodes only a subset of mitochondrial functions. (NCI04)", + "chrX": "The sex chromosome that is present in both sexes: singly in males and doubly in females.", + "chrY": "The y-shaped sex chromosome. In mammals, its presence or absence determines male or female sex.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "chromosome_arm": { + "column_description": "Under the microscope chromosomes appear as thin, thread-like structures. They all have a short arm and long arm separated by a primary constriction called the centromere. The short arm is designated as p and the long arm as q.", + "value_data": { + "p": "", + "q": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "clonality": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe whether a genomic variant is related by descent from a single progenitor cell.", + "value_data": { + "Clonal": "A population of cells or organisms that are identifiable by specific, shared characteristics and presumed to have originated from a single progenitor.", + "Non-clonal": "An indication that the cells in a sample did not arise from a single progenitor cell." + } + }, + "copy_number": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the number of times a section of the genome is repeated or copied within an insertion, duplication or deletion variant.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "cytoband": { + "column_description": "Alphanumeric value used to describe the cytoband or chromosomal location targeted or included in molecular analysis. If a specific genetic variant is being reported, this property can be used to capture the cytoband where the variant is located. Format: [chromosome][chromosome arm].[band+sub-bands]. Example: 17p13.1.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_test": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date of the laboratory test.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "exon": { + "column_description": "Exon number targeted or included in a molecular analysis. If a specific genetic variant is being reported, this property can be used to capture the exon where that variant is located.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "gene_symbol": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe a gene targeted or included in molecular analysis. For rearrangements, this is shold be used to represent the reference gene.", + "value_data": { + "A1CF": "This gene is involved in the deamination of APOB mRNA.", + "ABI1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and negative regulation of cell proliferation.", + "ABL1": "This gene is involved in cell adhesion, differentiation, division and stress response.", + "ABL2": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "ACACA": "This gene plays a role in the synthesis of long-chain fatty acids.", + "ACKR3": "This gene is involved in the regulation of chemokine signaling.", + "ACSL3": "This gene is involved in lipid biosynthesis.", + "ACSL6": "This gene is involved in the biosynthesis of lipids.", + "ACVR1": "This gene plays a role in the transforming growth factor-beta signal transduction pathway through serine/threonine specificity.", + "ACVR2A": "This gene plays a role in the transforming growth factor-beta signal transduction pathway through constitutive kinase activity.", + "AFF1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and translocations in the gene are associated with acute leukemia.", + "AFF3": "This gene is involved in transcriptional activation and is purported to play roles in lymphoid development and oncogenesis.", + "AFF4": "This gene plays a regulatory role in transcription and is involved in male germ cell differentiation.", + "AKAP9": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and modulates synaptic transmission.", + "AKT1": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and negative regulation of apoptosis. It also plays a role in glucose transport, glycogen synthesis, protein synthesis and neuronal survival.", + "AKT2": "This gene plays a role in glucose homeostasis and the inhibition of apoptosis.", + "AKT3": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and the inhibition of apoptosis.", + "ALDH2": "This gene plays a role in intermediary metabolism.", + "ALK": "This gene is involved in brain development and neuronal specificity.", + "AMER1": "This gene may play a role in kidney development.", + "ANK1": "This gene plays a role in red blood cell morphology.", + "APC": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction. It is involved in both adhesion and migration of cells.", + "APOBEC3B": "This gene plays a role in viral DNA cytosine deamination.", + "AQP1": "", + "AR": "This gene plays a role in the transcriptional activation of androgen responsive genes.", + "ARAF": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and the cellular response to mitogens.", + "ARHGAP5": "This gene is involved in the regulation of GTPase activity.", + "ARHGAP26": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "ARHGEF12": "This gene plays a role in both G-protein coupled receptor- and Rho-mediated signaling.", + "ARID1A": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "ARID1B": "This gene plays a role in both chromatin remodeling and transcriptional regulation.", + "ARID2": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and chromatin remodeling.", + "ARNT": "This gene is involved in xenobiotic metabolism and receptor-ligand mediated interactions.", + "ASPSCR1": "This gene is involved in the modulation of blood glucose levels.", + "ASXL1": "This gene may be involved in both transcriptional regulation and chromatin remodeling.", + "ASXL2": "This gene plays a role in both chromatin modification and the positive regulation of transcription.", + "ATF1": "This gene is involved in the modulation of transcription.", + "ATIC": "This gene plays a role in purine biosynthesis.", + "ATM": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, DNA repair and cell cycle regulation.", + "ATP1A1": "This gene is involved in both ion transport and ATP metabolism.", + "ATP2B3": "This gene plays a role in ATP-dependent calcium transport.", + "ATR": "This gene is involved in cell cycle checkpoints and DNA recombination.", + "ATRX": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of both chromatin remodeling and transcription.", + "AXIN1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and is involved in development.", + "AXIN2": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and plays a role in development.", + "B2M": "This gene plays a role in immune responses.", + "BAP1": "This gene is involved in cellular growth regulation and is purported to have tumor suppression activity.", + "BARD1": "This gene plays a role in cellular response and is susceptible to oncogenic mutations in breast and ovarian cancers.", + "BCL2": "This gene is involved in apoptotic regulation. Overexpression of this gene promotes the pathogenesis of B-Cell lymphomas, due to anti-apoptotic activity.", + "BCL2L12": "This gene is involved in the regulation of apoptosis.", + "BCL3": "This gene is involved in transcriptional co-activation and signal transduction.", + "BCL6": "This gene is involved in transcriptional repression and plays a role in the modulation of B-cell responses.", + "BCL7A": "This gene may play a role in signal transduction.", + "BCL9": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and is involved in development.", + "BCL9L": "This gene plays a role in the coactivation of gene transcription.", + "BCL10": "This gene is involved in the promotion of apoptosis.", + "BCL11A": "This gene is involved in both the modulation of cell shape and lymphopoiesis.", + "BCL11B": "This gene may play a role in tumor suppression, signaling and T cell development.", + "BCLAF1": "Human BCLAF1 wild-type allele is located within 6q22-q23 and is approximately 33 kb in length. This allele, which encodes Bcl-2-associated transcription factor 1 protein, plays a role in both apoptosis promotion and the repression of transcription.", + "BCOR": "This gene plays a role in the repression of gene transcription.", + "BCORL1": "This gene plays a role in the inhibition of gene expression.", + "BCR": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "BIRC3": "This anti-apoptotic gene regulates apoptotic activity. BIRC3 gene promotes tumor cell survival.", + "BIRC6": "This gene regulates the apoptotic program via signal transduction in the ubiquitination pathway.", + "BLM": "This gene plays a role in DNA unwinding and recombination-mediated telomere lengthening.", + "BMP5": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of mesenchymal differentiation. It is involved in cartilage and bone formation.", + "BMPR1A": "This gene plays a role in the bone morphogenetic protein signaling pathway.", + "BRAF": "This gene is involved in cell organization/biogenesis and the inhibition of apoptosis.", + "BRCA1": "This gene plays a role in cell cycle control, regulation of transcription and the maintenance of genomic stability. It is also involved in the inhibition of mammary cell growth.", + "BRCA2": "This gene is involved in cell cycle control, DNA repair and the maintenance of genomic stability. It also plays a role in the proliferation of embryonic cells.", + "BRD1": "This gene is involved in the localization of histone acetyltransferase complexes.", + "BRD3": "This gene may play a role in both histone acetylation and transcriptional regulation.", + "BRD4": "This gene plays a role in mitosis.", + "BRIP1": "This gene is involved in DNA double-strand break repair.", + "BTBD18": "This gene may be involved in protein ubiquitination.", + "BTG1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of cell proliferation.", + "BTK": "This gene is involved in both signaling and B-cell development.", + "BUB1B": "This gene is involved in mitotic progression.", + "C15orf65": "This gene has no known function.", + "CACNA1D": "This gene is involved in voltage-dependent calcium transport.", + "CALB2": "", + "CALR": "This gene plays a role in calcium binding and protein folding.", + "CAMTA1": "This gene is involved in both DNA binding and transcription.", + "CANT1": "This gene plays a role in both nucleotide hydrolysis and signal transduction.", + "CARD11": "This gene plays a role in apoptotic regulation.", + "CARS": "This gene is involved in transfer RNA metabolism.", + "CASP8": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, immune cell homeostasis, lymphocyte activation and immunoprotection.", + "CBFA2T2": "This gene may be involved in tumor suppression.", + "CBFA2T3": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "CBFB": "This gene is involved in hematopoiesis and osteogenesis.", + "CBL": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and the regulation of protein degradation.", + "CBLB": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of T cell activation.", + "CBLC": "This gene is involved in both ubiquitination and signaling.", + "CCDC6": "This gene may play a role in tumor suppression.", + "CCNB1IP1": "This gene plays a role in both ubiquitination and cell cycle progression.", + "CCNC": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of gene transcription.", + "CCND1": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of mitotic events.", + "CCND2": "This gene is involved in the regulation of the G1/S phase of the cell cycle.", + "CCND3": "This gene is involved in cell cycle progression.", + "CCNE1": "This gene regulates the G1/S phase of the cell cycle by cyclin expression.", + "CCR4": "This gene is involved in chemokine-dependent G protein-coupled receptor signaling.", + "CCR7": "This gene plays a role in immune function.", + "CD28": "This gene plays several roles in cellular functions specific to the T-cell.", + "CD74": "This gene plays a role in antigen processing and presentation.", + "CD79A": "This gene is involved in B-cell signaling and proliferation.", + "CD79B": "This gene plays a role in signaling in B-cells.", + "CD99": "This gene plays a role in the cell adhesion process.", + "CD209": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of host defense responses and mediates pathogen-binding properties.", + "CD274": "This gene is involved in T cell activation and proliferation.", + "CDC73": "This gene is involved in transcription and may play a role in cell cycle progression.", + "CDH1": "This gene plays a role in cell-cell adhesion and loss of function contributes to the progression of many carcinomas.", + "CDH10": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of neuronal cell shape and cell-cell adhesion.", + "CDH11": "This gene is involved in the adherens junction.", + "CDH17": "This gene is involved in cell-cell adhesion and intestinal proton-dependent peptide transport.", + "CDK4": "This gene is involved in G1 stage cell cycle progression.", + "CDK6": "This gene plays a role in the progression of the cell cycle.", + "CDK12": "This gene is involved in protein phosphorylation, RNA splicing and transcription elongation.", + "CDKN1A": "This gene is a regulator of cell cycle progression at the G1 phase of the cell cycle.", + "CDKN1B": "This gene is involved in cell cycle regulation and cyclin regulation.", + "CDKN2A": "This gene functions as a tumor suppressor and transcriptional regulator.", + "CDKN2C": "This gene is involved in cell cycle inhibition and regulation.", + "CDX2": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional initiation, embryonic axial elongation and patterning.", + "CEBPA": "This gene plays a role in body weight homeostasis and cellular proliferation. Mutations in the gene are associated with acute myeloid leukemia.", + "CEP89": "This gene is involved in cilia formation.", + "CEP164": "", + "CEP170B": "This gene may be involved in microtubule organization.", + "CHCHD7": "This gene may be involved in stature.", + "CHD2": "This gene may be involved in the regulation of both gene expression and chromatin modification.", + "CHD4": "This gene is involved in ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling.", + "CHEK2": "This gene plays a role in cell survival and the negative regulation of cell growth.", + "CHGA": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of the neuroendocrine system.", + "CHIC2": "This gene may play a role in vesicular transport.", + "CHST11": "This gene plays a role in the metabolism of chondroitin sulfate.", + "CIC": "This gene is involved in the modulation of transcription.", + "CIITA": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "CLIP1": "This gene plays a role in both endocytosis and mitosis.", + "CLP1": "This gene plays a role in RNA processing.", + "CLTC": "This gene plays a role in both the formation of cellular vesicles and receptor-mediated endocytosis.", + "CLTCL1": "This gene is involved in both receptor-mediated endocytosis and vesicle formation.", + "CNBD1": "This gene is involved in cyclic nucleotide binding.", + "CNBP": "This gene is involved in sterol-mediated transcription.", + "CNOT3": "This gene is involved in mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational regulation and general transcription regulation.", + "CNTNAP2": "This gene may be involved in axonal structure.", + "CNTRL": "This gene plays a role in cell cycle progression.", + "COL1A1": "This gene plays an important structural role in cartilage and mutations in the gene are associated with osteogenesis imperfecta.", + "COL2A1": "This gene plays a role in both skeletal development and cartilage structure.", + "COL3A1": "This gene plays a role in collagen formation in connective tissues.", + "COX6C": "This gene is involved in mitochondrial respiration.", + "CREB1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and its activity is modulated in response to hormonal stimulation from the cAMP pathway.", + "CREB3L1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation in response to cellular stress.", + "CREB3L2": "This gene is involved in the response to cellular stress.", + "CREBBP": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and in NF-kappa B signal transduction.", + "CRLF2": "This gene is involved in cytokine binding and signaling.", + "CRNKL1": "This gene is involved in RNA binding and pre-mRNA splicing.", + "CRTC1": "This gene plays a role in the positive regulation of transcription.", + "CRTC3": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "CSF1R": "This gene is essential for the regulation of the production, differentiation, and function of macrophages.", + "CSF3R": "This gene plays an inhibitory role in cell survival and proliferation.", + "CSMD3": "This gene plays a role in neuronal development.", + "CTCF": "This gene is involved in epigenetic control of gene expression.", + "CTDP1": "", + "CTNNA2": "This gene is involved in cell-cell adhesion and cellular differentiation in the nervous system.", + "CTNNB1": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and regulation of transcription.", + "CTNND1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "CTNND2": "This gene is involved in the regulation of both transcription and signal transduction.", + "CUL3": "This gene plays a role in protein degradation and cell cycle arrest.", + "CUX1": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and Golgi vesicle transport.", + "CXCR4": "This gene is involved in the mediation of viral entry into cells and cellular migration and chemotaxis.", + "CYLD": "This gene is involved in protein deubiquitination.", + "CYP2C8": "This gene plays a role in drug metabolism. It is also involved in the oxidation of both endobiotics and xenobiotics.", + "CYSLTR2": "This gene is involved in cysteinyl leukotriene binding and signal transduction.", + "DAXX": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction, regulation of transcription and enhancement of apoptosis.", + "DCAF12L2": "This gene may play a role in protein complex formation.", + "DCC": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of several processes that determine neuronal cell morphology.", + "DCTN1": "This gene is involved in the modulation of retrograde transport of cytoplasmic organelles and vesicles.", + "DDB2": "This gene plays a role in DNA repair.", + "DDIT3": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of transcription.", + "DDR2": "This gene plays a role in extracellular matrix communication processes and receptor-mediated signal transduction.", + "DDX3X": "This gene is involved in RNA binding.", + "DDX5": "This gene is involved in the mediation of RNA metabolism.", + "DDX6": "This gene plays a role in the translation of mRNA encoded by genes involved in cell proliferation and malignant transformation.", + "DDX10": "This gene plays a role in both RNA metabolism and ATP hydrolysis.", + "DEK": "This gene is involved in RNA processing and regulation of chromatin organization.", + "DGCR8": "This gene plays a role in microRNA processing.", + "DICER1": "This gene is involved in the RNA interference pathway.", + "DNAJB1": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of protein folding.", + "DNM2": "This gene plays a role in both GTP hydrolysis and microtubule organization.", + "DNMT3A": "This gene is involved in epigenetic modification of DNA.", + "DNTT": "", + "DOT1L": "This gene is involved in epigenetic control of gene expression.", + "DROSHA": "This gene plays a role in the processing of microRNA in the nucleus.", + "DUX4L1": "Human DUX4L1 gene is located in the vicinity of 4q35 and is approximately 2 kb in length. The product is a processed pseudogene that produces an RNA transcript, but does not encode a protein product. This gene is within a D4Z4 repeat array; contraction of this macrosatellite repeat is associated with facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD).", + "EBF1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional activation.", + "ECT2L": "This gene may be involved in guanine nucleotide exchange.", + "EED": "This gene plays a role in the negative regulation of transcription.", + "EGFR": "This gene is involved in the epidermal growth factor signal transduction pathway.", + "EIF1AX": "This gene is involved in translation initiation and efficiency.", + "EIF3E": "This gene is involved in the initiation and regulation of protein translation.", + "EIF4A2": "This gene is involved in translation initiation.", + "ELF3": "This gene is involved in the regulation of both transcription and epithelial cell differentiation. It also plays a role in angiogenesis.", + "ELF4": "This gene plays a role in both DNA binding and transcriptional activation.", + "ELK4": "This gene is involved in the regulation of transcription.", + "ELL": "This gene is involved in the modulation of transcription.", + "ELN": "This gene is involved in the structure of the extracellular matrix.", + "EML4": "This gene may play a role in cytoskeletal assembly.", + "EP300": "This gene plays a role in DNA repair and regulation of transcription.", + "EPAS1": "This gene plays a role in the cellular response to hypoxia.", + "EPCAM": "", + "EPHA3": "This gene is involved in receptor tyrosine kinase signal transduction and plays a role in lymphoid function and differentiation.", + "EPHA7": "This gene plays a role in mediation of developmental processes.", + "EPS15": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cell proliferation.", + "ERBB2": "This gene plays a role in cellular proliferation and is involved in the oncogenic process through amplification and/or overexpression in several cancers.", + "ERBB3": "This gene is involved in signal transduction pathways that result in cellular proliferation or differentiation. The gene has also been associated with numerous cancers.", + "ERBB4": "This gene is involved in neuronal development and plays a role in receptor tyrosine kinase signal transduction that regulates cellular proliferation and differentiation.", + "ERC1": "This gene plays a role in signaling.", + "ERCC2": "This gene is involved in nucleotide excision repair and corrects sensitivity to UV radiation and defective nucleotide excision repair in xeroderma pigmentosum cells of complementation group D.", + "ERCC3": "This gene is involved in DNA excision repair and transcription.", + "ERCC4": "This gene is involved in nucleotide excision repair and is involved in the correction of defective nucleotide excision repair in xeroderma pigmentosum cells of complementation group F.", + "ERCC5": "This gene plays a role in the nucleotide base excision repair of UV-induced DNA damage and mutations of the gene cause Cockayne syndrome.", + "ERG": "This gene plays a regulatory role in transcription, cellular maintenance and hematopoiesis.", + "ESR1": "This gene is involved in ligand-activated transcriptional activity.", + "ETNK1": "This gene plays a role in phospholipid biosynthesis.", + "ETV1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional activation and spinal cord development.", + "ETV4": "This gene plays a regulatory role in transcription and in matrix metalloproteinase activity.", + "ETV5": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of gene transcription.", + "ETV6": "This gene plays a regulatory role in transcription and in matrix metalloproteinase activity.", + "EWSR1": "This gene may play a role in post-transcriptional regulation; however the function remains to be elucidated. Mutations in the gene result in Ewing sarcoma and other tumors.", + "EXT1": "This gene plays a role in heparin/heparin sulfate biosynthesis, axon guidance and biogenesis/cell organization.", + "EXT2": "This gene is involved in the heparin/heparin sulfate biosynthesis, cell organization/biogenesis and development of the cytoskeleton in chondrocytes.", + "EZH2": "This gene plays a role in chromatin remodeling and transcriptional regulation.", + "EZR": "This gene plays a role in cellular structure.", + "FAM46C": "This gene is involved in polyadenylation of RNA and mRNA stability.", + "FAM47C": "This gene has no known function.", + "FAM131B": "This gene has not been characterized.", + "FAM135B": "This gene may play a role in the metabolism of lipids.", + "FANCA": "This gene may be involved in the mediation of DNA repair.", + "FANCC": "This gene may play a role in DNA cross-link repair.", + "FANCD2": "This gene is involved in the regulation of meiosis, DNA repair and the cell cycle.", + "FANCE": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of both DNA repair and protein localization.", + "FANCF": "This gene may be involved in the regulation of DNA repair.", + "FANCG": "This gene is involved in the maintenance of genomic integrity and nuclear signal transduction. Allelic variants of the gene are involved in Fanconi syndrome.", + "FAS": "This gene is involved in the mediation of cellular surface receptors and apoptotic signals.", + "FAT1": "This gene is involved in both cellular polarization and cell-cell adhesion.", + "FAT3": "This gene is involved in cell adhesion and neurite development.", + "FAT4": "This gene plays a role in planar cell polarity.", + "FBLN2": "This gene plays a role in protein-protein interactions in the extracellular matrix.", + "FBXO11": "This gene plays a role in the recognition of proteins to be ubiquitinylated.", + "FBXW7": "This gene is involved in ubiquitin-dependent proteolysis and regulation of the G1-S cell cycle checkpoint.", + "FCGR2B": "This gene plays a role in the inhibition of immune functions and cellular proliferation.", + "FCRL4": "This gene may be involved in B cell receptor signaling.", + "FEN1": "This gene is involved in DNA replication and repair.", + "FES": "This gene is involved in hematopoiesis and the maintenance of cellular transformation.", + "FEV": "This gene may play a role in transcriptional repression.", + "FGFR1": "This gene plays a role in mitogenesis and differentiation.", + "FGFR1OP": "This gene is involved in the regulation of cell shape, polarity and motility.", + "FGFR2": "This gene plays a role in mitogenesis and differentiation and mutations in the gene are associated with craniosynostotic syndromes and bone malformations.", + "FGFR3": "This gene plays a role in bone development and maintenance and mutations in the gene are associated with craniosynostosis and several types of skeletal dysplasia.", + "FGFR4": "This gene plays a role in mitogenesis and differentiation.", + "FH": "This gene plays a role in the Krebs cycle.", + "FHIT": "This gene is involved in nucleotide metabolism and cell cycle control.", + "FIP1L1": "This gene is involved in mRNA processing.", + "FKBP9": "This gene is involved in chaperone-mediated protein folding.", + "FLCN": "This gene may play a role in tumor suppression.", + "FLI1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional activation and has been implicated in the pathogenesis of neuroepithelioma.", + "FLNA": "This gene is involved in remodeling of the cytoskeleton.", + "FLT3": "This gene plays a role in hematopoiesis and may function as a growth factor receptor.", + "FLT4": "This gene plays an essential role in the development of embryonic cardiovasculature and lymphatic vessel formation.", + "FNBP1": "This gene plays a role in endocytosis.", + "FOXA1": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of gene expression.", + "FOXL2": "This gene plays a role in ovarian function.", + "FOXO1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and may play a role in myogenic growth and differentiation.", + "FOXO3": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and apoptosis.", + "FOXO4": "This gene plays a role in smooth muscle cell differentiation, cellular growth, cell cycle regulation and tumor suppression.", + "FOXP1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional modulation.", + "FOXR1": "This gene plays a role in DNA binding and transcriptional regulation.", + "FRYL": "This gene is involved in the regulation of cell shape and polarity.", + "FSTL3": "This gene plays a role in a variety of processes including transcription.", + "FUBP1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional modulation.", + "FUS": "This gene is involved in gene expression, genomic integrity and RNA processing.", + "GAS7": "This gene may play a role in neuronal development.", + "GATA1": "This gene is involved in erythropoiesis and transcriptional activation.", + "GATA2": "This gene is involved in both DNA binding and transcriptional regulation.", + "GATA3": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of transcription.", + "GCET1": "", + "GLI1": "This gene plays a regulatory role in transcription and embryonic development.", + "GLIS2": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and signaling pathway modulation.", + "GMPS": "This gene plays a role in nucleotide biosynthesis.", + "GNA11": "This gene is involved in signal transduction.", + "GNAQ": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and is involved in calcium signaling.", + "GNAS": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and is associated with pituitary tumors.", + "GOLGA5": "This gene is involved in Golgi maintenance.", + "GOPC": "This gene plays a role in protein transport.", + "GPC3": "This gene is involved in heparin sulfate binding.", + "GPHN": "This gene is involved in vitamin metabolism.", + "GRIN2A": "This gene is involved in the regulation of ion transport.", + "GRM3": "This gene is involved in ligand-depending signaling.", + "H3F3A": "This gene is involved in chromatin structure.", + "H3F3B": "This gene plays a role in nucleosome assembly.", + "HERPUD1": "This gene is involved in the response to endoplasmic reticulum stress.", + "HEY1": "This gene is involved in both transcription factor binding and transcriptional repression.", + "HIF1A": "This gene plays a role in cardiovascular development and systemic oxygen homeostasis.", + "HIP1": "This gene plays a role in both vesicle coat formation and endocytosis.", + "HIST1H3B": "This gene is involved in chromatin structure.", + "HIST1H4I": "This gene plays a role in nucleosomal structure.", + "HLA-A": "This gene is involved in immune responses and histocompatibility processes.", + "HLF": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and DNA binding.", + "HMGA1": "This gene plays a role in a number of cellular processes including apoptosis, chromatin organization and transcriptional regulation.", + "HMGA2": "This gene is involved in chromatin organization and regulation of gene transcription. It also plays a role in development.", + "HMGB3": "This gene plays a role in development and the regulation of gene transcription.", + "HMGN2P46": "This gene may be involved in prostate functions.", + "HNF1A": "This gene plays a role in both DNA binding and transcriptional modulation.", + "HNRNPA2B1": "This gene is involved in RNA processing and transport.", + "HNRNPH1": "", + "HOOK3": "This gene plays a role in endocytosis and Golgi maintenance.", + "HOXA9": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation, morphogenesis and differentiation.", + "HOXA11": "This gene is involved in embryologic pattern formation.", + "HOXA13": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional modulation.", + "HOXB1": "This gene is involved in the development of anterior embryonic structures and facial nerves.", + "HOXC11": "This gene is involved in embryological development.", + "HOXC13": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of transcription.", + "HOXD11": "This gene is involved in limb morphogenesis.", + "HOXD13": "This gene plays a role in the development of limbs and appendages.", + "HRAS": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cellular communication.", + "HSP90AA1": "This gene is involved in both protein folding and nitric oxide metabolism.", + "HSP90AB1": "This gene plays a role in both interferon signaling and protein folding.", + "ID3": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional repression.", + "IDH1": "This gene plays a role in carbohydrate metabolism.", + "IDH2": "This gene plays a role in intermediary metabolism.", + "IGH": "This region represents the germline organization of the immunoglobulin heavy chain locus. The locus includes V (variable), J (joining), diversity (D), and C (constant) segments. During B cell development, a recombination event at the DNA level joins a D segment with a J segment; a V segment is then joined to the D-J gene. The C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several D and J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase, and by somatic hypermutation, which occurs during B cell maturation in the spleen and lymph nodes. (from LocusLink)", + "IGK": "This region represents the germline organization of the kappa light chain locus. The locus includes V (variable), J (joining), and C (constant) segments. During B cell development, a recombination event at the DNA level joins a single V segment with a J segment; the C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase, and by somatic hypermutation, which occurs during B cell maturation in the spleen and lymph nodes. (from LocusLink)", + "IGKC": "This gene plays a role in the structure of immunoglobulin light chains.", + "IGL": "This region represents the germline organization of the lambda light chain locus. The locus includes V (variable), J (joining), and C (constant) segments. During B cell development, a recombination event at the DNA level joins a single V segment with a J segment; the C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase, and by somatic hypermutation, which occurs during B cell maturation in the spleen and lymph nodes. (from LocusLink)", + "IKBKB": "This gene is involved in protein phosphorylation.", + "IKZF1": "This gene is involved in B-cell and T-cell maturation.", + "IL2": "This gene is involved in growth and lymphokine regulation.", + "IL6ST": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and is putatively involved in embryonic development.", + "IL7R": "This gene is involved in the regulation of lymphopoiesis.", + "IL21R": "This gene is involved in cytokine recognition.", + "INO80D": "This gene plays a role in ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling.", + "IRF4": "This gene is involved in the regulation of B-cell differentiation and proliferation. It also plays a role in mediating the proliferation of mitogen-stimulated T cells.", + "IRS4": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and ligand binding.", + "ISX": "This gene is involved in gene expression regulation in the intestine.", + "ITGAV": "This gene plays a role in cell communication and angiogenesis.", + "ITK": "This gene is involved in the differentiation and proliferation of T cells.", + "JAK1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "JAK2": "This gene is involved in erythropoiesis and signal transduction.", + "JAK3": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "JARID2": "", + "JAZF1": "This gene may be involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "JUN": "This gene plays a critical role in transcriptional regulation and cellular growth.", + "KAT6A": "This gene is involved in both histone acetylation and transcriptional regulation.", + "KAT6B": "This gene plays a role in both transcription and histone acetylation.", + "KAT7": "This gene is involved in epigenetic control of gene expression.", + "KCNJ5": "This gene is involved in ion transport.", + "KDM5A": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional modulation.", + "KDM5C": "This gene is involved in histone modification.", + "KDM6A": "This gene is involved in the modulation of histone methylation.", + "KDR": "This gene plays a role in angiogenesis and vascular regulation.", + "KDSR": "This gene plays a role in glycosphingolipid metabolism.", + "KEAP1": "This gene is involved in ubiquitin-mediated protein degradation.", + "KIAA1549": "This gene may play a role in brain functions.", + "KIF5B": "This gene is involved in the transport of vesicles along microtubules.", + "KIT": "This gene plays a role in cellular hematopoiesis and differentiations. Mutations in the gene are associated with several diseases, including acute myelogenous leukemia, gastrointestinal tumors, and mast cell disease.", + "KLF4": "This gene plays a role in gene transcription.", + "KLF6": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional activation.", + "KLK2": "This gene plays a role in proteolysis.", + "KMT2A": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and alterations in the gene are associated with acute lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "KMT2C": "This gene plays a role in both methylation and transcriptional regulation", + "KMT2D": "This gene plays a role in co-activation of gene expression.", + "KNL1": "This gene is involved in both signaling and chromosome alignment in mitosis.", + "KNSTRN": "This gene plays a role in both mitotic spindle formation and chromosome segregation.", + "KRAS": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and apoptosis.", + "KRT7": "This gene plays a role in DNA replication.", + "KRT20": "This gene plays a role in the formation of intestinal epithelia.", + "KTN1": "This gene plays a role in kinesin function.", + "LARP4B": "This gene is involved in RNA metabolism and translation.", + "LASP1": "This gene is involved in actin-dependent ion transport.", + "LCK": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and the development/function of T cells.", + "LCP1": "This gene plays a role in cytoskeletal remodeling.", + "LEF1": "This gene plays a role in both signal transduction and transcription.", + "LHFP": "This gene may play a role in cell adhesion or cell proliferation.", + "LIFR": "This gene plays a critical role in cell fate and proliferation in both embryonic and adult cells.", + "LMNA": "This gene is involved in the architecture of nuclear membrane construction.", + "LMO1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of transcription.", + "LMO2": "This gene plays a crucial role in hematopoietic development and is involved in transcriptional activation.", + "LPP": "This gene may be involved in cell shape and cell motility.", + "LRIG3": "This gene may be involved in signaling.", + "LRP1B": "This gene plays a role in low density lipoprotein metabolism.", + "LSM14A": "This gene plays a role in the storage of mRNA.", + "LYL1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and is involved in the pathogenesis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "LZTR1": "This gene may be involved in Golgi stabilization, embryogenesis or transcriptional regulation.", + "MAF": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and cellular differentiation.", + "MAFB": "This gene plays a role in both hematopoiesis and transcriptional modulation.", + "MALAT1": "This gene may play a role in carcinogenesis.", + "MALT1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and in the pathology of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphomas.", + "MAML2": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and signal transduction.", + "MAML3": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional activation and signaling.", + "MAP2K1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and regulation of transcription. It is also involved in cell differentiation, growth and proliferation.", + "MAP2K2": "This gene plays a role in both protein phosphorylation and signal transduction.", + "MAP2K4": "This gene is involved in MAPK signaling.", + "MAP3K1": "This gene plays a role in mediating cellular responses to growth factors, metabolic stimuli and mitogens.", + "MAP3K13": "This gene is involved in both protein phosphorylation and signaling.", + "MAPK1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and positive regulation of the cell cycle.", + "MAX": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and plays a role in the mediation of DNA-protein interactions.", + "MB21D2": "This gene plays a role in protein-protein interactions.", + "MDM2": "This gene plays a role in several cellular processes related to cellular viability; including the cell cycle and apoptosis.", + "MDM4": "This gene plays a role in both cell cycle arrest and the inhibition of apoptosis.", + "MDS2": "This gene plays a role in myelodysplastic syndrome.", + "MECOM": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation, histone methylation and leukemogenesis.", + "MED12": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of RNA polymerase II-dependent transcription.", + "MEN1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and has tumor suppressor activity.", + "MET": "This gene plays a regulatory role in the modulation of cell-surface receptors and hepatocyte growth factor interactions.", + "MGMT": "This gene is involved in DNA repair.", + "MIB1": "This gene is involved in both ubiquitination and cell signaling.", + "MITF": "This gene is involved in transcriptional promotion in melanocytes.", + "MKL1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional modulation and muscle cell differentiation.", + "MLF1": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and cell cycle arrest.", + "MLH1": "This gene plays a role in DNA mismatch repair.", + "MLH2": "This gene is involved in mismatch repair and mutations in the gene result in hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer 3.", + "MLLT1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and translocations in the gene are associated with acute leukemia.", + "MLLT3": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and translocations in the gene are associated with leukemia.", + "MLLT4": "This gene is involved in cell adhesion and cytoskeletal modeling", + "MLLT6": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and aberrations in the gene are associated with acute leukemias due to chromosomal translocations.", + "MLLT10": "This gene may be involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "MLLT11": "This gene is involved in mitochondrial functions.", + "MN1": "This gene is involved in tumor suppression.", + "MNX1": "This gene plays a role in both the regulation of transcription and DNA binding.", + "MPL": "This gene plays a regulatory role in megakaryocytopoiesis and platelet formation.", + "MSH2": "This gene plays a role in DNA mismatch repair mutations in the gene result in hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer-1.", + "MSH6": "This gene is involved in mismatch repair and plays a role in several cancers.", + "MSI2": "This gene is involved in translational regulation.", + "MSN": "This gene plays a role in both cell adhesion and cytoskeleton modeling.", + "MTCP1": "This gene plays a role in the proliferation of T cells and is involved in cell cycle regulation.", + "MTOR": "This gene plays a role in apoptosis, cell growth, differentiation and proliferation.", + "MUC1": "This gene plays a role in cellular signal transduction and is used as a biomarker for breast cancer.", + "MUC4": "This gene is involved in both cell adhesion and receptor signaling.", + "MUC16": "This gene is involved in both cellular adhesion and the maintenance of mucosal surfaces.", + "MUTYH": "This gene plays a role in the repair of oxidative DNA damage.", + "MYB": "This gene plays a role in hematopoietic cell proliferation and development.", + "MYC": "This gene plays a role in cell cycle progression and apoptosis. Cytogenetic aberrations in the gene are involved in cellular transformation and are associated with a variety of hematopoietic tumors, leukemias and lymphomas.", + "MYCL": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and is frequently amplified in small-cell lung cancer.", + "MYCN": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and amplification of this gene is associated with a variety of tumors, most notably neuroblastomas.", + "MYD88": "This gene is involved in the modulation of proinflammatory gene expression.", + "MYH9": "This gene is involved in both cytoskeleton modeling and cytokinesis.", + "MYH11": "This gene plays a regulatory role in muscle contraction and the required ATP hydrolysis.", + "MYO5A": "This gene is involved in vesicle transport along actin filaments.", + "MYOD1": "This gene plays a role in DNA binding and myogenesis.", + "NAB2": "This gene plays a role in the repression of gene transcription.", + "NACA": "This gene plays a role in protein sorting.", + "NBEA": "This gene plays a role in membrane-targeting of protein kinase A.", + "NBN": "This gene plays a role in DNA repair and cell cycle checkpoints.", + "NCKIPSD": "This gene plays a role in stress fiber formation.", + "NCOA1": "This gene plays a role in regulation of transcription.", + "NCOA2": "This gene is involved in regulation of transcription. It also plays a role in myogenic differentiation.", + "NCOA4": "This gene is involved in the transcriptional activation of target genes.", + "NCOR1": "This gene is involved in chromatin remodeling and repression of transcription.", + "NCOR2": "This gene plays a role in repression of transcription. It is also involved in chromatin remodeling.", + "NDRG1": "This gene plays a role in cellular stress responses. It is also involved in both cell growth and differentiation.", + "NF1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cytoskeletal remodeling.", + "NF2": "This gene plays a role in cell adhesion and cytoskeletal remodeling. It is also involved in suppression of cell growth.", + "NFATC2": "This gene is involved in cytokine gene transcription.", + "NFE2L2": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "NFIB": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and mediates DNA-binding interactions.", + "NFKB2": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation, signal transduction and inflammatory responses.", + "NFKBIE": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and regulation of transcription. It is involved in the immune response.", + "NIN": "This gene is involved in the localization of the centrosome.", + "NKX2-1": "This gene plays a role in thyroid gene transcription.", + "NONO": "This gene may play a role in both transcriptional regulation and nuclear RNA processing.", + "NOTCH1": "This gene is involved in intercellular signal transduction that plays a key role in development.", + "NOTCH2": "This gene plays a role in cell-cell signaling.", + "NPM1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of ribosomal assembly.", + "NR4A3": "This gene is involved in the modulation of transcription.", + "NRAS": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cell cycle regulation.", + "NRG1": "This gene plays a role in cellular differentiation, growth and proliferation.", + "NSD1": "This gene is involved in the mediation of histone methylation.", + "NSD2": "This gene plays a role in histone-lysine methylation.", + "NSD3": "This gene is involved in histone methylation.", + "NT5C2": "This gene plays a role in purine metabolism.", + "NTHL1": "This gene plays a role in nucleotide-excision DNA repair.", + "NTRK1": "This gene is involved in cellular differentiation and neurotrophic functions.", + "NTRK3": "This gene plays a role in neuronal development and cellular differentiation. Mutations in the gene are associated with medulloblastomas, secretory breast carcinomas and other cancers.", + "NUMA1": "This gene plays an essential role in normal mitosis. It is also involved in cell organization/biogenesis.", + "NUP98": "This gene plays a role in transport and is frequently overexpressed in prostate cancers.", + "NUP214": "This gene plays a critical role in nuclear transport and docking regulation. Alterations in the gene have been associated with several cancers and leukemias.", + "NUTM1": "This gene may be involved in testicular function.", + "NUTM2A": "This gene has an unknown function.", + "NUTM2B": "The function of this gene is unknown.", + "OLIG2": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and oligodendrocyte and motor neuron differentiation. This gene may play a role in the development of brain tumors.", + "OMD": "This gene is involved in cell adhesion.", + "P2RY8": "This gene plays a role in signaling.", + "PABPC1": "This gene is involved in binding to poly(A)RNA.", + "PAFAH1B2": "This gene is involved in lipid metabolism.", + "PALB2": "This gene may play a role in the repair of DNA damage that is resolved by recombination.", + "PATZ1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "PAX3": "This gene plays a role in the transcriptional activation of target genes. It is involved in melanogenesis, neurogenesis and skeletal muscle development.", + "PAX5": "This gene is involved in the transcriptional regulation of target genes. It plays a role in B-cell differentiation, neural development and spermatogenesis.", + "PAX7": "This gene plays a role in the transcriptional regulation of target genes. It is involved in pattern formation during embryogenesis.", + "PAX8": "This gene is involved in thyroid development and transcriptional regulation.", + "PBRM1": "This gene plays a role in chromatin remodeling.", + "PBX1": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of transcription.", + "PCBP1": "This gene plays a role in RNA splicing.", + "PCM1": "This gene is involved in centrosome formation.", + "PDCD1LG2": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of T-cell proliferation.", + "PDE4DIP": "This gene plays a role in protein complex localization.", + "PDGFB": "This gene is involved in cellular growth and proliferation. It is also plays a role in intercellular signaling.", + "PDGFRA": "This gene plays a role in mitogenic activities affecting mesenchymal cells and is involved in receptor tyrosine kinase signal transduction.", + "PDGFRB": "This gene plays a role in mitogenic activities affecting mesenchymal cells and a translocation in the gene results in chronic myelomonocytic leukemia.", + "PDPN": "", + "PER1": "This gene is involved in circadian rhythm.", + "PGR": "This gene plays a role in the signal transduction processes that are involved in pregnancy.", + "PHF6": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "PHF23": "This gene may be involved in chromatin remodeling.", + "PHOX2B": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of transcription.", + "PICALM": "This gene plays a role in receptor mediated endocytosis.", + "PIK3CA": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, cell growth and angiogenesis.", + "PIK3CB": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, cell growth and angiogenesis.", + "PIK3R1": "This gene is involved in phosphoinositol signaling.", + "PIM1": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, cell cycle regulation and signal transduction.", + "PIM3": "This gene is involved in serine/threonine kinase activity that inhibits apoptosis, promotes cell survival and regulates protein translation.", + "PLAG1": "This gene is involved in cellular proliferation.", + "PLCG1": "This gene is involved in both intracellular signaling and second messenger production.", + "PML": "This gene plays a role in tumor suppression and is involved in the regulation of p53 in response to oncogenic signal transduction.", + "PMS1": "This gene is involved in mismatch repair and mutations in the gene result in hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer 3.", + "PMS2": "This gene is involved in mismatch repair and mutations in the gene result in hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer 4.", + "POLD1": "This gene is involved in DNA replication and proofreading.", + "POLE": "This gene is involved in both DNA replication and DNA base-excision repair.", + "POLG": "This gene plays a role in the replication of mitochondrial DNA.", + "POLQ": "This gene is involved in DNA synthesis and repair.", + "POT1": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of telomere length.", + "POU2AF1": "This gene is involved in both humoral immunity and transcriptional regulation.", + "POU5F1": "This gene plays a role in early mammalian development.", + "PPARG": "This gene plays a regulatory role in adipocyte differentiation.", + "PPFIBP1": "This gene plays a role in protein-protein interactions and cell-matrix adhesion.", + "PPM1D": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of cell cycle arrest.", + "PPP2R1A": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of cell growth and division.", + "PPP6C": "This gene plays a role in both protein dephosphorylation and signaling.", + "PRCC": "This gene may be involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "PRDM1": "This gene is involved in repression of transcription. It plays a role in the formation of pre-plasma memory B cells and immunoglobulin-secreting plasma cells.", + "PRDM2": "This gene is involved in both methylation of histone H3 and transcriptional regulation.", + "PRDM16": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and adipocyte differentiation.", + "PREX2": "This gene is involved in guanine nucleotide exchange.", + "PRF1": "This gene is involved in cytolysis.", + "PRKACA": "This gene is involved in the regulation of diverse cell processes including cell growth, proliferation, differentiation and motility.", + "PRKAR1A": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of protein kinase A.", + "PRKCB": "This gene is involved in diverse cell processes such as apoptosis, B cell activation and endothelial cell proliferation.", + "PRPF40B": "This gene may be involved in mRNA splicing.", + "PRRX1": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and muscle cell development.", + "PSIP1": "This gene is involved in regulation of transcription. It also plays a role in mediation of pre-mRNA splicing.", + "PTCH1": "This gene is involved in tumor suppression and mutations in this gene have been associated with several cancers and cancer related diseases.", + "PTEN": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and apoptosis. It is also involved in the regulation of cell cycle progression.", + "PTGS2": "", + "PTK6": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "PTP4A1": "This gene is involved in liver cell growth and the cellular response to mitogens.", + "PTPN6": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of multiple signaling pathways in hematopoietic cells.", + "PTPN11": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of cell signaling. It is involved in cell migration, metabolic control, mitogenic activation and gene transcription.", + "PTPN13": "This gene is involved in both protein dephosphorylation and signal transduction.", + "PTPRB": "This gene is involved in dephosphorylation of proteins.", + "PTPRC": "This gene plays a role in suppression of cytokine receptor signaling and the regulation of signal transduction in lymphocytes.", + "PTPRK": "This gene is involved in receptor signaling, cell-cell contact and cell migration.", + "PTPRT": "This gene plays a role in the control of motor axon guidance.", + "PWWP2A": "This gene may play a role in protein-protein or protein-DNA interactions.", + "QKI": "This gene is involved in both the biosynthesis and maintenance of mRNA.", + "RABEP1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of both GTPase activity and endocytosis.", + "RAC1": "This gene is involved in both cell motility and signal transduction.", + "RAD21": "This gene is involved in chromosomal cohesion, DNA repair and apoptosis.", + "RAD51B": "This gene plays a role in the mediation of homologous recombinational repair of DNA.", + "RAF1": "This gene is involved in cell growth, proliferation, differentiation and migration. It also plays a role in apoptosis.", + "RALGDS": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cytoskeletal remodeling. It is also involved in regulation of cell growth.", + "RANBP2": "This gene is involved in both SUMOylation and nuclear transport.", + "RAP1GDS1": "This gene is involved in guanine nucleotide exchange.", + "RARA": "This gene plays a role in transcription and retinoic acid receptor signal transduction.", + "RB1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of cell differentiation, growth and proliferation.", + "RBM10": "This gene is involved in RNA binding and processing.", + "RBM15": "This gene plays a role in RNA binding.", + "RECQL4": "This gene is involved in the initiation of DNA replication and sister-chromatid cohesion.", + "REL": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and signal transduction through the nuclear factor kappa B NFKB signal transduction pathway.", + "RET": "This gene plays an essential role in neural crest development, cellular growth and differentiation. Mutations in the gene are associated with a variety of neoplasias and carcinomas", + "RGPD3": "This gene may play a role in the localization of the GTPase Ran.", + "RGS7": "This gene plays a role in the inhibition of both G protein-coupled receptor signaling and signal transduction.", + "RHOA": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction. It is involved in several cellular functions including cell differentiation and cytoskeletal remodeling.", + "RHOH": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction in hematopoietic cells.", + "RMI2": "This gene is involved in DNA replication.", + "RNF43": "This gene is involved in both protein ubiquitination and the Wnt signaling pathway.", + "RNF213": "This gene may be involved in ubiquitination.", + "ROBO2": "This gene plays a role in ligand binding, axon guidance and cell migration.", + "ROS1": "This gene plays a role in receptor tyrosine phosphorylation signal transduction, and is thought to play a role in cellular growth or differentiation, but an exact function has not been substantiated.", + "RPL5": "This gene plays a role in ribosome assembly.", + "RPL10": "This gene plays a role in protein biosynthesis. It is also involved in signal transduction.", + "RPL22": "This gene is involved in translation.", + "RPN1": "This gene plays a role in post-translational protein modification.", + "RPS15": "", + "RSPO2": "This gene plays a role in both Wnt signaling and embryonic morphogenesis.", + "RSPO3": "This gene is thought to be involved in transport; however, a function has yet to be elucidated.", + "RUNX1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and cytogenetic aberrations are associated with several leukemias.", + "RUNX1T1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and hematopoiesis.", + "S100A7": "This gene is involved in both calcium binding and antimicrobial activity.", + "SALL4": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and stem cell maintenance.", + "SBDS": "This gene plays a role in ribosome formation.", + "SDC4": "This gene is involved in cell-matrix interactions.", + "SDHA": "This gene is involved in the mitochondrial respiratory chain.", + "SDHAF2": "This gene is involved in the electron transport chain.", + "SDHB": "This gene plays a role in electron transport in the mitochondria.", + "SDHC": "This gene is involved in mitochondrial electron transport.", + "SDHD": "This gene plays a role in the localization of succinate dehydrogenase activity.", + "SEPT5": "This gene plays a role in cell division.", + "SEPT6": "This gene is involved in both cytokinesis and the organization of the actin cytoskeleton.", + "SEPT9": "This gene plays a role in actin filament dynamics.", + "SET": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, biogenesis, DNA replication and nuclear organization.", + "SETBP1": "This gene may be involved in the modulation of protein SET activity.", + "SETD1A": "", + "SETD2": "This gene is involved in epigenetic control of gene expression.", + "SF3B1": "This gene is involved in mRNA splicing.", + "SFPQ": "This gene may be involved in both transcriptional regulation and nuclear RNA processing.", + "SFRP4": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction, apoptosis and cell proliferation.", + "SGK1": "This gene plays a role in both protein phosphorylation and cellular stress response.", + "SH2B3": "This gene plays a role in T-cell activation.", + "SH3GL1": "This gene may be involved in endocytosis.", + "SHTN1": "This gene is involved in neuronal polarization.", + "SIRPA": "This gene is involved in cellular signal transduction and tyrosine kinase-coupled signaling processes.", + "SKI": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and is involved in cellular signal transduction.", + "SLC34A2": "This gene plays a role in phosphate transport.", + "SLC45A3": "This gene plays a role in transmembrane transport.", + "SLC66A2 (aka PQLC1)": "", + "SMAD2": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and repression of transcription.", + "SMAD3": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and apoptosis. It also plays a role in the regulation of both steroid synthesis and T-cell response.", + "SMAD4": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and transcriptional activation. It is also involved in suppression of angiogenesis.", + "SMARCA4": "This gene plays a role in chromatin remodeling, cell cycle control and regulation of transcription.", + "SMARCB1": "This gene plays a role in chromatin remodeling and regulation of transcription.", + "SMARCD1": "This gene plays a role in chromatin remodeling and regulation of transcription.", + "SMARCE1": "This gene is involved in chromatin remodeling and regulation of transcription.", + "SMC1A": "This gene is involved in maintenance of sister chromatid cohesion during mitosis.", + "SMO": "This gene plays a role in G protein-coupled receptor signal transduction and sonic hedgehog pathway activation.", + "SND1": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and RNA interference.", + "SNX29": "This gene may be involved in signal transduction or lipid binding.", + "SOCS1": "This gene is involved in the attenuation of cytokine signaling.", + "SOX2": "This gene is involved in embryonic development and in the determination of cell fate.", + "SPECC1": "This gene may be involved in nuclear structure.", + "SPEN": "This gene plays a role in hormone-mediated transcriptional regulation.", + "SPOP": "This gene may be involved in both transcriptional repression and protein ubiquitination.", + "SRC": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, hormonogenesis, focal adhesion and the formation of intercellular junctions.", + "SRGAP3": "This gene plays a role in GTPase-mediated signaling.", + "SRSF2": "This gene plays a role in RNA splicing.", + "SRSF3": "This gene plays a role in RNA splicing and export.", + "SS18": "This gene is involved in transcriptional activation.", + "SS18L1": "This gene plays a role in the positive regulation of transcription.", + "SSX1": "This gene may be involved in the regulation of transcription.", + "SSX2": "This gene may play a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "SSX4": "This gene may be involved in transcriptional modulation.", + "STAG1": "This gene plays a role in sister chromatid binding.", + "STAG2": "This gene is involved in cell division.", + "STAT3": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and activation of transcription. It is involved in regulation of both apoptosis and cell growth.", + "STAT5B": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and activation of transcription. It plays a role in the immune response via stimulation of T-cell proliferation.", + "STAT6": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and activation of transcription.", + "STIL": "This gene plays a role in both cellular proliferation and embryonic development.", + "STK11": "This gene plays a role in cell cycle regulation. It is also putatively involved in glucose production.", + "STRN": "This gene may play a role in cell scaffolding or calcium signaling.", + "SUFU": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of both transcription and signaling.", + "SUZ12": "This gene plays a role in embryonic development and histone methylation.", + "SYK": "This gene plays a role in receptor tyrosine phosphorylation signal transduction, phagocytosis, endothelial cell growth and proliferation.", + "SYP": "This gene is involved in vesicle targeting and synaptic plasticity.", + "TAF15": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional initiation.", + "TAL1": "This gene plays a role in regulation of transcription and cell organization. It is involved in both embryonic hematopoiesis and adult erythropoiesis.", + "TAL2": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation. It plays a role in T-cell acute lymphocytic leukemia.", + "TBL1XR1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional activation.", + "TBX3": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional repression and limb development.", + "TCEA1": "This gene is involved in transcription.", + "TCF3": "This gene plays a role in regulation of transcription. It is involved in the control of tissue-specific cell fate during embryogenesis.", + "TCF7L2": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and regulation of transcription.", + "TCF12": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and tissue differentiation.", + "TCL1A": "This gene is involved in signal transduction.", + "TEC": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and regulation of immune function.", + "TERT": "This gene is involved in cell cycle regulation and telomere maintenance.", + "TET1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of DNA methylation.", + "TET2": "This gene is involved in oxidation.", + "TFE3": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional activation. It is involved in melanogenesis.", + "TFEB": "This gene plays a role in transcription.", + "TFG": "This gene is involved in signaling.", + "TFPT": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of apoptosis.", + "TFRC": "This gene plays a regulatory role in receptor-mediated endocytosis and iron metabolism.", + "TGFBR2": "This gene plays a role in cellular proliferation and mitogenic responses.", + "THRAP3": "This gene is involved in the activation of transcription.", + "TLR2": "", + "TLX1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and organogenesis. Translocations in the gene are associated with acute T-cell leukemia.", + "TLX3": "This gene may be involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "TMEM127": "This gene may play a role in signaling and protein trafficking.", + "TMPRSS2": "This gene plays a role in the activation of pathway signaling.", + "TNC": "This gene is involved in cell adhesion, differentiation and proliferation.", + "TNFAIP3": "This gene may play a role in the regulation of apoptosis.", + "TNFRSF14": "This gene plays a role in receptor signaling.", + "TNFRSF17": "This gene is involved in the modulation of cytokine signaling.", + "TOP1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of both DNA topology and transcription.", + "TOP2B": "This gene is involved in chromosome recombination, DNA replication and the regulation of DNA topology during transcription.", + "TP53": "This gene plays a critical role in cell cycle regulation and has tumor suppressor activity.", + "TP63": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and limb development.", + "TPM3": "This gene plays a role in muscle contraction.", + "TPM4": "This gene is involved in smooth muscle cell contraction.", + "TPR": "This gene plays a role in both nuclear transport and mitosis.", + "TRA": "This region represents the germline organization of the T cell receptor alpha locus. The alpha locus includes V (variable), J (joining), and C (constant) segments. During T cell development, the alpha chain is synthesized by a recombination event at the DNA level joining a V segment with a J segment. The C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase. (from LocusLink)", + "TRAF7": "This gene is involved in both MAPK signaling and protein ubiquitination.", + "TRB": "This region represents the germline organization of the T cell receptor beta locus. The beta locus includes V (variable), J (joining), diversity (D), and C (constant) segments. During T cell development, the beta chain is synthesized by a recombination event at the DNA level joining a D segment with a J segment; a V segment is then joined to the D-J gene. The C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several D and J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase. Chromosomal abnormalities involving the T-cell receptor beta locus have been associated with T-cell lymphomas. (from LocusLink)", + "TRD": "This region represents the germline organization of the T cell receptordelta locus. The delta locus includes V (variable), J (joining), diversity (D), and C (constant) segments. During T cell development, the delta chain is synthesized by a recombination event at the DNA level joining a D segment with a J segment; a V segment is then joined to the D-J gene. The C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several D and J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase. (from LocusLink)", + "TRIM24": "This gene plays a role in hormone-dependent gene transcription.", + "TRIM27": "This gene is involved in the differentiation of male germ cells.", + "TRIM33": "This gene is involved in the mediation of protein ubiquitination.", + "TRIP11": "This gene plays a role in thyroid receptor binding.", + "TRRAP": "This gene is involved in DNA repair and regulation of mitosis.", + "TSC1": "This gene is involved in cell cycle regulation and the loss of cellular adhesion.", + "TSC2": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cell cycle control. It is involved in cell adhesion, differentiation, growth and migration.", + "TSHR": "This gene plays an important role in the regulation of thyroid cell metabolism.", + "U2AF1": "This gene is involved in the splicing of mRNA.", + "UBB": "This gene is involved in ubiquitin-dependent proteolysis.", + "UBR5": "This gene plays a role in protein ubiquitination.", + "USP6": "This gene is involved in the regulation of cellular ubiquitination. It also plays a role in promoting the recycling of endocytic vesicles to the plasma membrane.", + "USP8": "This gene plays a role in ubiquitin-dependent proteolysis and cell proliferation.", + "VAV1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction. It is involved in the development and activation of both B cells and T cells.", + "VHL": "This gene is involved in transcriptional repression and protein degradation.", + "VTI1A": "This gene is involved in vesicular transport.", + "WAS": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and plays a role in cell communication and organization.", + "WDCP": "This gene plays a role in binding to tyrosine-protein kinase HCK.", + "WIF1": "This gene plays a role in Wnt protein-dependent signaling.", + "WNK2": "This gene plays a role in electrolyte homeostasis, cell signaling, cell survival, and cellular proliferation.", + "WRN": "This gene is involved in DNA repair and the unwinding of DNA.", + "WT1": "This gene plays a role in regulation of transcription. It is involved in the control of both cell differentiation and proliferation.", + "WWTR1": "This gene is involved in regulation of transcription. It is involved in fetal/neonatal cardiac and muscle development.", + "XPA": "This gene facilitates DNA binding in repair processes and is associated with the disease xeroderma pigmentosum complementation group A.", + "XPC": "This gene is involved in nucleotide excision repair.", + "XPO1": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of nuclear export.", + "YWHAE": "This gene plays a role in signaling.", + "ZBTB16": "This gene plays a role in apoptosis and regulation of transcription. It is also involved in cell organization/biogenesis and megakaryocytic development.", + "ZCCHC8": "This gene plays a role in RNA binding.", + "ZEB1": "This gene is involved in the transcriptional repression of interleukin 2.", + "ZEB2": "This gene is involved in regulation of transcription.", + "ZFHX3": "This gene is involved in myoblast and neuronal differentiation.", + "ZMYM3": "This gene is involved in chromatin modification.", + "ZNF198": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional modulation.", + "ZNF331": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "ZNF384": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and DNA binding.", + "ZNF429": "This gene may play a role in the regulation of gene transcription.", + "ZNF444": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and DNA binding.", + "ZNF479": "This gene may play a role in the regulation of gene transcription.", + "ZNF521": "This gene plays a role in both the positive and negative regulation of transcription.", + "ZNRF3": "This gene is involved in protein ubiquitination and Wnt pathway inhibition.", + "ZRSR2": "This gene is involved in mRNA processing.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context." + } + }, + "histone_family": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the family, or classification of a group of basic proteins found in chromatin, called histones.", + "value_data": { + "H1": "Linker Histone H1 interacts with DNA between nucleosome units in mediating chromatin compaction into higher order structures. Histones are basic nuclear proteins responsible for the nucleosome structure of eukaryotic chromatin. Repeating nucleosome units contain two molecules each of core Histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 that form an octamer complex around which approximately 146 base pairs of DNA is wrapped. (NCI)", + "H2A": "Slightly lysine rich histone. One of four histones assembled into a nucleosomal core octamer. Various posttranslationally modified forms and variants exist. Combines with histone H2B in a heterodimer; two H2A/H2B dimers are incorporated in the nucleosomal octamer.", + "H2B": "Histone H2B is a core subunit of the eukaryotic nucleosome complex. Histones are basic nuclear proteins responsible for the nucleosome structure of chromatin. Repeating nucleosome units contain two molecules each of Histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 that form an octamer complex around which approximately 146 base pairs of DNA is wrapped. Linker Histone H1 interacts with DNA between nucleosome units in mediating chromatin compaction into higher order structures. (NCI)", + "H3": "Histone H3 is a core subunit of the eukaryotic nucleosome complex. Histones are basic nuclear proteins responsible for the nucleosome structure of chromatin. Repeating nucleosome units contain two molecules each of Histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 that form an octamer complex around which approximately 146 base pairs of DNA is wrapped. Linker Histone H1 interacts with DNA between nucleosome units in mediating chromatin compaction into higher order structures. (NCI)", + "H4": "Histone H4 (103 aa, ~11 kDa) is encoded by the human H4C1, H4C2, H4C3, H4C4, H4C5, H4C6, H4C6, H4C8, H4C9, H4C11, H4C12, H4C13, H4C14, H4C15, H4-16 genes. This protein plays a role in nucleating the formation of high order chromatin structures as a part of nucleosomes.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "histone_variant": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe a specific histone variants, which are proteins that substitute for the core canonical histones.", + "value_data": { + "CENP-A": "Histone H3-like centromeric protein A (140 aa, ~16 kDa) is encoded by the human CENPA gene. This protein plays a role in cell cycle progression, cell division and centromeric nucleosome assembly.", + "H2A-Bbd": "A variant form of histone H2A found in chromatin structures that are transcriptionally active.", + "H2A.X": "Histone H2AX (143 aa, ~15 kDa) is encoded by the human H2AX gene. This protein plays a role in nucleosome formation and V(D)J recombination.", + "H2A.Z": "Histone H2A.Z (128 aa, ~14 kDa) is encoded by the human H2AZ1 gene. This protein is involved in nucleosome and heterochromatin formation.", + "H2A.Z.1": "Histone H2A.Z (128 aa, ~14 kDa) is encoded by the human H2AZ1 gene. This protein is involved in nucleosome and heterochromatin formation.", + "H2A.Z.2": "Histone H2A.V (128 aa, ~14 kDa) is encoded by the human H2AZ2 gene. This protein is involved in nucleosome formation.", + "H2A.Z.2.2": "Histone H2A.V isoform 2 (114 aa, ~12 kDa) is encoded by the human H2AZ2 gene. This protein plays a role in nucleosome stability.", + "H3.1": "Histone H3.1 (136 aa, ~15 kDa) is encoded by the human H3C1, H3C2, H3C3, H3C4, H3C6, H3C7, H3C8, H3C10, H3C11 and H3C12 genes. This protein plays a role in the formation of chromatin structures.", + "H3.2": "Histone H3.2 (136 aa, ~15 kDa) is encoded by the human H3C13, H3C14 and H3C15 genes. This protein plays a role in nucleosome remodeling and chromosomal structure.", + "H3.3": "Histone H3.3 (136 aa, ~15 kDa) is encoded by both the human H3-3A and H3-3B genes. This protein plays a role in chromosomal structure.", + "H3.5": "Histone H3.3C (135 aa, ~15 kDa) is encoded by the human H3-5 gene. This protein is involved in the modulation of DNA accessibility to the transcriptional machinery.", + "H3.X": "Human H3.X gene is located in the vicinity of 5p15.1 and is approximately 0.4 kb in length. This pseudogene has no formally documented products.", + "H3.Y": "Histone H3.Y (136 aa, ~15 kDa) is encoded by the human H3.Y gene. This protein may be involved in both transcriptional regulation and the formation of higher order chromatin structures.", + "H3t (H3.4)": "Histone H3.1t (136 aa, ~16 kDa) is encoded by the human H3-4 gene. This protein is involved in formation of higher order chromatin structures.", + "mH2A": "A histone protein that is comprised of a histone H2A domain, which allows interaction with the nucleosome, and a macro domain, which may bind to ADP-ribose. This protein can substitute for histone H2A in the nucleosomal complex and plays a role in transcriptional repression and X chromosome inactivation.", + "mH2A.1": "Core histone macro-H2A.1 (372 aa, ~40 kDa) is encoded by the human MACROH2A1 gene. This protein plays a role in chromatin modification.", + "mH2A.2": "Core histone macro-H2A.2 (372 aa, ~40 kDa) is encoded by the human MACROH2A2 gene. This protein plays a role in nucleosome formation and transcriptional repression.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "hpv_strain": { + "column_description": "The specific hpv strain being tested.", + "value_data": { + "HPV16": "", + "HPV18": "", + "HPV31": "", + "HPV33": "", + "HPV35": "", + "HPV39": "", + "HPV45": "", + "HPV51": "", + "HPV52": "", + "HPV56": "", + "HPV58": "", + "HPV59": "", + "HPV66": "", + "HPV68": "", + "HPV73": "" + } + }, + "intron": { + "column_description": "Intron number targeted or included in molecular analysis. If a specific genetic variant is being reported, this property can be used to capture the intron where that variant is located.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "laboratory_test": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the medical testing used to diagnose, treat or further understand a patient's disease.", + "value_data": { + "5-Hydroxyindoleacetic Acid": "The determination of the amount of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid present in a sample.", + "Absolute Neutrophil": "The real number of white blood cells (WBC) that are neutrophils. It is derived by multiplying the WBC count by the percent of neutrophils in the differential WBC count. The normal range for ANC is 1.5 to 8.0 (1,500 to 8,000/mm3).", + "Albumin": "A quantitative measurement of albumin present in a sample.", + "Alpha Fetoprotein": "The determination of the amount of alpha-fetoprotein present in a sample.", + "B-cell genotyping": "The determination of the genomic DNA sequences in a subject's B-cells.", + "Basophil": "The determination of the absolute number of basophils in a blood sample.", + "Beta 2 Microglobulin": "The determination of the amount of beta-2 microglobulin present in a sample.", + "BG8": "", + "Blast Count": "", + "Blood Urea Nitrogen": "A quantitative measurement of the amount of urea nitrogen present in a serum sample.", + "C-Reactive Protein": "A quantitative measurement of the amount of C-reactive protein present in a sample.", + "Calcium": "A quantitative measurement of the amount of calcium present in a sample.", + "Cellularity": "The determination of the amount of degree, quality or condition of cells present in a sample.", + "Chromogranin A": "The determination of the amount of chromogranin A present in a sample.", + "Chromogranin B": "The determination of the amount of chromogranin B present in a sample.", + "Circulating Endothelial Cells": "", + "Circulating Tumor Cells": "The determination of the amount of circulating tumor cells present in a sample.", + "Creatinine": "A quantitative measurement of the amount of creatinine present in a sample.", + "Cytokeratin 5": "", + "Cytokeratin 6": "", + "Dopamine-Secreting": "", + "Eosinophil": "The determination of the number of eosinophils in a blood sample.", + "Epinephrine-Secreting": "", + "Epstein-Barr Virus": "Any microbiologic test or molecular assay used to detect the presence of Epstein-Barr virus in a sample.", + "Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate": "", + "Gamma-Enolase": "The determination of the amount of neuron specific enolase present in a sample.", + "Glucose": "The determination of the amount of glucose present in a sample.", + "Hematocrit": "A measure of the volume of red blood cells expressed as a percentage of the total blood volume. Normal in males is 43-49%, in females 37-43%.", + "Hemoglobin": "A quantitative measurement of the amount of hemoglobin present in a biospecimen.", + "HPV-E6/E7": "The determination of the amount of the human papillomavirus transforming proteins E6 and E7 present in a sample.", + "Human Chorionic Gonadotropin": "The determination of the amount of choriogonadotropin present in a sample.", + "Human Papillomavirus": "Any microbiologic test or molecular assay used to detect the presence of a human papillomavirus in a sample.", + "Immunoglobulin A": "The determination of the amount of immunoglobulin A present in a sample.", + "Immunoglobulin G": "The determination of the amount of immunoglobulin G present in a sample.", + "Immunoglobulin M": "The determination of the amount of immunoglobulin M present in a sample.", + "Lactate Dehydrogenase": "A quantitative measurement of the amount of lactate dehydrogenase present in a sample.", + "Leukocytes": "A test to determine the number of leukocytes in a biospecimen.", + "Luteinizing Hormone": "The determination of the amount of luteinizing hormone present in a sample.", + "Lymphoblasts": "The determination of the amount of lymphoblasts (immature cells that differentiate to form lymphocytes) present in a sample.", + "Lymphocytes": "The determination of the number of lymphocytes in a blood sample.", + "M Protein": "The determination of the amount of monoclonal protein present in a sample.", + "Metamyelocytes": "The determination of the number of metamyelocytes present in a sample.", + "Metanephrine-Secreting": "", + "Metaphase Nucleus Count": "", + "Methoxytyramine-Secreting": "", + "Microsatellite Instability": "", + "Minimal Residual Disease": "", + "Monocytes": "", + "Myeloblasts": "The determination of the number of myeloblast cells present in a sample.", + "Myelocytes": "The determination of the number of myelocyte cells present in a sample.", + "Neutrophil Bands": "The determination of the number of band neutrophils in a blood sample.", + "Norepinephrine-Secreting": "", + "Normetanephrine-Secreting": "", + "Platelets": "The determination of the number of platelets in a biospecimen.", + "Prolymphocytes": "The determination of the number of prolymphocytes in a blood sample.", + "Promonocytes": "The determination of the number of promonocytes in a blood sample.", + "Promyelocytes": "The determination of the number of promyelocytes present in a sample.", + "Prothrombin Time": "", + "Segmented Neutrophil": "The determination of the amount of segmented neutrophils present in a sample.", + "Serum Free Immunoglobulin Light Chain, Kappa": "The determination of the amount of free kappa light chain present in a sample.", + "Serum Free Immunoglobulin Light Chain, Lambda": "The determination of the amount of free lambda light chain present in a sample.", + "Serum Free Immunoglobulin Light Chain, NOS": "The determination of the amount of immunoglobulin light chain present in a sample.", + "Serum Mesothelin": "", + "TAG-72": "", + "Testosterone": "The determination of the amount of free and bound testosterone present in a sample.", + "Total Bilirubin": "The measurement of the total amount of bilirubin present in a particular substrate. The substrate most often tested is blood, but other fluids extracted from the body may be used periodically depending on the purpose of the test.", + "Total Protein": "A quantitative measurement of the total amount of protein present in a sample of serum.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "loci_abnormal_count": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the number of loci determined to be abnormal.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "loci_count": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the number of loci tested.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "locus": { + "column_description": "The position of a gene or a chromosomal marker on a chromosome; also, a stretch of DNA at a particular place on a particular chromosome. The use of locus is sometimes restricted to mean regions of DNA that are expressed.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "mismatch_repair_mutation": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether the mutation included in molecular testing was known to have an affect on the mismatch repair process.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "mitotic_count": { + "column_description": "The number of mitoses identified under the microscope in tumors. The method of counting varies, according to the specific tumor examined. Usually, the mitotic count is determined based on the number of mitoses per high power field (40X) or 10 high power fields.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "mitotic_total_area": { + "column_description": "The total area reviewed when calculating the mitotic index ratio.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "molecular_analysis_method": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the method used for molecular analysis.", + "value_data": { + "Comparative Genomic Hybridization": "Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) is a technique that allows the detection of losses and gains in DNA copy number across the entire genome without prior knowledge of specific chromosomal abnormalities. Comparative genomic hybridization utilizes the hybridization of differentially labeled tumor and reference DNA to generate a map of DNA copy number changes in tumor genomes. Comparative genomic hybridization is an ideal tool for analyzing chromosomal imbalances in archived tumor material and for examining possible correlations between these findings and tumor phenotypes. (from Ried et al. J Mol Med 1997 75:801-14)", + "Cytogenetics, NOS": "Techniques for analysis of chromosomal and subchromosomal properties and structures, such as those to diagnose, classify, screen for, or manage genetic diseases and abnormalities.", + "FISH": "A physical mapping approach that uses fluorescent tags to detect hybridization of probes within metaphase chromosomes or less condensed somatic interphase chromatin. This technique can be used for identification of chromosomal abnormalities and for gene mapping.", + "Flow Cytometry": "A technique for counting, examining and sorting microscopic particles suspended in a stream of fluid.", + "IHC": "Immunohistochemical staining techniques allow for the visualization of antigens via the sequential application of a specific antibody to the antigen (primary antibody), a secondary antibody to the primary antibody and an enzyme complex with a chromogenic substrate. The enzymatic activation of the chromogen results in a visible reaction product at the antigen site. The specimen may then be counterstained and coverslipped. Results are interpreted using a light microscope and aid in the differential diagnosis of pathophysiological processes, which may or may not be associated with a particular antigen.", + "Immunofluorescence": "A microscopy staining method that utilizes immunofluorescent markers for use with histological applications of preserved cells.", + "ISH": "Use of a DNA or RNA probe to detect the presence of complementary sequences in chromosomes, cells, or tissues.", + "Karyotype": "The preparation, analysis, and interpretation of a karyotype, the representation of the chromosome set of a cell.", + "Microarray": "Analysis using microarray technology (e.g., cDNA arrays to see gene expression or protein microarrays to profile the pattern of proteins).", + "Microsatellite Analysis": "A laboratory procedure to detect microsatellite instability.", + "Microscopy, NOS": "The use of various technologies to resolve the structure or features of objects too small or fine to naturally be seen by eye.", + "Nuclear Staining": "A microscopy staining method that uses a dye or a contrast agent that specifically binds to chromosomal material and/or nucleoproteins, which permits visualization of a cellular nucleus.", + "PCR": "A method for amplifying a DNA base sequence using multiple rounds of heat denaturation of the DNA and annealing of oligonucleotide primers complementary to flanking regions in the presence of a heat-stable polymerase. This results in duplication of the targeted DNA region. Newly synthesized DNA strands can subsequently serve as additional templates for the same primer sequences, so that successive rounds of primer annealing, strand elongation, and dissociation produce rapid and highly specific amplification of the desired sequence. PCR also can be used to detect the existence of the defined sequence in a DNA sample.", + "RNA Sequencing": "A procedure that can determine the nucleotide sequence for all of the RNA transcripts in an individual.", + "RT-PCR": "A laboratory procedure in which an RNA strand is first transcribed into a DNA complement and then subjected to PCR amplification. Transcribing an RNA strand into a DNA complement is termed reverse transcription and is done by the enzyme reverse transcriptase.", + "Sequencing, NOS": "The determination of the sequence of component residues in a macromolecule, e.g. amino acids in a protein or nucleotide bases in DNA/RNA or the computational analysis performed to determine the similarities between nonidentical proteins or molecules of DNA or RNA.", + "Southern Blotting": "A technique for the detection of specific DNA fragments that have been separated by polyacrylamide-gel electrophoresis, transferred to a nitrocellulose or other type of paper or nylon membrane, and detected by hybridization and visualization with a labeled probe.", + "Targeted Sequencing": "A technique that determines the nucleotide sequence of a pre-specified region of DNA or RNA by using primers that are specific for that region.", + "WGS": "A procedure that can determine the DNA sequence for nearly the entire genome of an individual.", + "WXS": "A procedure that can determine the DNA sequence for all of the exons in an individual.", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "molecular_consequence": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the molecular consequence of genetic variation.", + "value_data": { + "3 Prime UTR Variant": "Any mutation in a gene occurring in the 3' end which contains sequences which may regulate the transcription or translation of the message. 3' UTR mutations are found only outside of open reading frames.", + "5 Prime UTR Variant": "Any mutation in a gene occurring in the 5' end which contains sequences which may regulate the transcription or translation of the message. 5' UTR mutations are found only outside of open-reading frames.", + "Coding Sequence Variant": "A change in the nucleotide sequence of an exon in a gene.", + "Downstream Gene Variant": "Any gene mutation that occurs in the sequences downstream from a coding region of interest.", + "Exon Variant": "", + "Feature Elongation": "The mutation of either a splice site or stop codon that leads to an extended transcript.", + "Feature Truncation": "The mutation of either a splice site or stop codon that leads to a truncated transcript.", + "Frameshift Variant": "A mutation occurring within the protein-coding region of a gene which results in a shift in the reading frame of the encoded protein. Frameshift mutations often result in the premature truncation of a gene product.", + "Incomplete Terminal Codon Variant": "", + "Inframe Deletion": "A loss of three consecutive nucleotides (one codon) or multiple codons in a gene that encodes for a protein where one or more canonical amino acids are deleted but does not result in a frameshift mutation.", + "Inframe Insertion": "A gain of three consecutive nucleotides (one codon) or multiple codons in a gene that encodes for a protein where one or more non-wildtype amino acids are inserted but does not result in a frameshift mutation.", + "Intergenic Variant": "A change in the nucleotide sequence of a region between gene loci.", + "Intron Variant": "Any mutation within an intron, including the sequences that comprise the intron boundary.", + "Mature miRNA Variant": "A ribonucleotide variation in the sequence of a fully processed microRNA.", + "Missense Variant": "A point mutation occurring within the protein-coding region of a gene, and which codes for a different amino acid than expected.", + "NMD Transcript Variant": "A mutation occurring in a sequence that regulates non-sense mediated mRNA decay.", + "Non-coding Transcript Exon Variant": "A change in the nucleotide sequence of an exon in a non-coding gene.", + "Non-coding Transcript Variant": "A change in the nucleotide sequence of a non-coding gene.", + "Nonsense": "A point mutation occurring within the protein-coding region of a gene, and which codes for a stop that can truncate the protein.", + "Protein Altering Variant": "A point mutation occurring within the protein-coding region of a gene, and which codes for a different amino acid than expected.", + "Regulatory Region Ablation": "A deletion mutation where the deleted sequence includes of a regulatory region for a gene.", + "Regulatory Region Amplification": "An increase in the copy number of a region containing a regulatory sequence for a gene.", + "Regulatory Region Variant": "A change in the nucleotide sequence of a regulatory region for a gene.", + "Splice Acceptor Variant": "A heritable single nucleotide polymorphism located at the acceptor splice site in certain allelic variants of eukaryotic genes. These sites are located in genes at intron to exon junctions at the 3' end of the intron.", + "Splice Donor Variant": "An inherited single base change at a donor splice site in a genomic DNA sequence that results in an allelic variant of the wild-type gene. Donor splice sites are located at exon to intron junctions at the 5' end of the intron.", + "Splice Region Variant": "Any mutation that occurs within the discrete sequences comprising the 5' or 3' splice sites of a gene that has a spliced message. Splice-site mutation may result in a deletion or insertion of extraneous amino acids in the gene product or a change in the reading frame of the spliced message.", + "Start Lost": "A mutation occurring within the start codon of a gene that results in a sequence that no longer encodes a start codon. This can result in a gene deletion or gene transcription may start from an alternative start site.", + "Stop Gain": "A point mutation occurring within the protein-coding region of a gene, and which codes for a stop that can truncate the protein.", + "Stop Lost": "A mutation occurring within the stop codon of a gene that results in a sequence that no longer encodes a stop codon and results in the transcription of non-coding regions downstream of the gene.", + "Stop Retained Variant": "A mutation occurring within the stop codon of a gene, which still encodes a stop codon.", + "Synonymous Variant": "A point mutation occurring within the protein-coding region of a gene, and which codes for the same amino acid as expected.", + "TF Binding Site Variant": "A change in the nucleotide sequence of a transcription factor binding site for a gene.", + "TFBS Ablation": "A deletion mutation where the deleted sequence includes a transcription factor binding site for a gene.", + "TFBS Amplification": "An increase in the copy number of a region containing a transcription factor binding site for a gene.", + "Transcript Ablation": "Any deletion mutation that occurs within a gene, including the 5' and 3' untranslated regions of the gene.", + "Transcript Amplification": "An increase in the copy number of a particular gene. This type of abnormality can be either inherited or somatic.", + "Upstream Gene Variant": "Any gene mutation that occurs in the sequences upstream from a coding region of interest." + } + }, + "mutation_codon": { + "column_description": "The codon where a change in the nucleotide sequence is occurring and causing an error.", + "value_data": { + "12": "", + "13": "", + "61": "" + } + }, + "pathogenicity": { + "column_description": "The text used to describe a variant's level of involvement in the cause of the patient's disease according to the standards outlined by the American College of Medical Genetics and Genomics (ACMG).", + "value_data": { + "Benign": "A genetic variant that is known to not contribute to the development of a disease.", + "Likely Benign": "A genetic variant that is not expected to contribute to the development of a disease, but the scientific evidence may be insufficient to prove this conclusively.", + "Likely Pathogenic": "A genetic variant that is known to have a high likelihood (greater than 90% certainty) to contribute to the development of a disease.", + "Pathogenic": "A genetic variant that is known to directly contribute to the development of disease.", + "Uncertain Significance": "A variation in a genetic sequence whose association with disease risk is unknown." + } + }, + "ploidy": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the number of sets of homologous chromosomes.", + "value_data": { + "Aneuploid": "A chromosomal abnormality in which there is an addition or loss of chromosomes within a set (e.g., 23 + 22 or 23 + 24).", + "Diploid": "Having two sets of homologous chromosomes.", + "Hyperdiploid": "A chromosomal abnormality in which the chromosomal number is greater than the normal diploid number.", + "Hypodiploid": "A chromosomal abnormality in which the chromosomal number is less than the normal diploid number.", + "Near Diploid": "A chromosomal abnormality in which the total chromosome number is slightly more (hyperdiploid) or slightly less (hypodiploid) than the normal diploid number.", + "Tetraploid": "A numerical chromosomal abnormality characterized by the presence of four complete sets of chromosomes.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "second_exon": { + "column_description": "The second exon number involved in molecular variation. If a specific genetic variant is being reported, this property can be used to capture the second exon where that variant is located. This property is typically used for a translocation where two different locations are involved in the variation.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "second_gene_symbol": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe a secondary gene targeted or included in molecular analysis. For rearrangements, this is should represent the location of the variant.", + "value_data": { + "A1CF": "This gene is involved in the deamination of APOB mRNA.", + "ABI1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and negative regulation of cell proliferation.", + "ABL1": "This gene is involved in cell adhesion, differentiation, division and stress response.", + "ABL2": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "ACACA": "This gene plays a role in the synthesis of long-chain fatty acids.", + "ACKR3": "This gene is involved in the regulation of chemokine signaling.", + "ACSL3": "This gene is involved in lipid biosynthesis.", + "ACSL6": "This gene is involved in the biosynthesis of lipids.", + "ACVR1": "This gene plays a role in the transforming growth factor-beta signal transduction pathway through serine/threonine specificity.", + "ACVR2A": "This gene plays a role in the transforming growth factor-beta signal transduction pathway through constitutive kinase activity.", + "AFF1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and translocations in the gene are associated with acute leukemia.", + "AFF3": "This gene is involved in transcriptional activation and is purported to play roles in lymphoid development and oncogenesis.", + "AFF4": "This gene plays a regulatory role in transcription and is involved in male germ cell differentiation.", + "AKAP9": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and modulates synaptic transmission.", + "AKT1": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and negative regulation of apoptosis. It also plays a role in glucose transport, glycogen synthesis, protein synthesis and neuronal survival.", + "AKT2": "This gene plays a role in glucose homeostasis and the inhibition of apoptosis.", + "AKT3": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and the inhibition of apoptosis.", + "ALDH2": "This gene plays a role in intermediary metabolism.", + "ALK": "This gene is involved in brain development and neuronal specificity.", + "AMER1": "This gene may play a role in kidney development.", + "ANK1": "This gene plays a role in red blood cell morphology.", + "APC": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction. It is involved in both adhesion and migration of cells.", + "APOBEC3B": "This gene plays a role in viral DNA cytosine deamination.", + "AR": "This gene plays a role in the transcriptional activation of androgen responsive genes.", + "ARAF": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and the cellular response to mitogens.", + "ARHGAP5": "This gene is involved in the regulation of GTPase activity.", + "ARHGAP26": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "ARHGEF12": "This gene plays a role in both G-protein coupled receptor- and Rho-mediated signaling.", + "ARID1A": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "ARID1B": "This gene plays a role in both chromatin remodeling and transcriptional regulation.", + "ARID2": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and chromatin remodeling.", + "ARNT": "This gene is involved in xenobiotic metabolism and receptor-ligand mediated interactions.", + "ASPSCR1": "This gene is involved in the modulation of blood glucose levels.", + "ASXL1": "This gene may be involved in both transcriptional regulation and chromatin remodeling.", + "ASXL2": "This gene plays a role in both chromatin modification and the positive regulation of transcription.", + "ATF1": "This gene is involved in the modulation of transcription.", + "ATIC": "This gene plays a role in purine biosynthesis.", + "ATM": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, DNA repair and cell cycle regulation.", + "ATP1A1": "This gene is involved in both ion transport and ATP metabolism.", + "ATP2B3": "This gene plays a role in ATP-dependent calcium transport.", + "ATR": "This gene is involved in cell cycle checkpoints and DNA recombination.", + "ATRX": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of both chromatin remodeling and transcription.", + "AXIN1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and is involved in development.", + "AXIN2": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and plays a role in development.", + "B2M": "This gene plays a role in immune responses.", + "BAP1": "This gene is involved in cellular growth regulation and is purported to have tumor suppression activity.", + "BARD1": "This gene plays a role in cellular response and is susceptible to oncogenic mutations in breast and ovarian cancers.", + "BCL2": "This gene is involved in apoptotic regulation. Overexpression of this gene promotes the pathogenesis of B-Cell lymphomas, due to anti-apoptotic activity.", + "BCL2L12": "This gene is involved in the regulation of apoptosis.", + "BCL3": "This gene is involved in transcriptional co-activation and signal transduction.", + "BCL6": "This gene is involved in transcriptional repression and plays a role in the modulation of B-cell responses.", + "BCL7A": "This gene may play a role in signal transduction.", + "BCL9": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and is involved in development.", + "BCL9L": "This gene plays a role in the coactivation of gene transcription.", + "BCL10": "This gene is involved in the promotion of apoptosis.", + "BCL11A": "This gene is involved in both the modulation of cell shape and lymphopoiesis.", + "BCL11B": "This gene may play a role in tumor suppression, signaling and T cell development.", + "BCLAF1": "Human BCLAF1 wild-type allele is located within 6q22-q23 and is approximately 33 kb in length. This allele, which encodes Bcl-2-associated transcription factor 1 protein, plays a role in both apoptosis promotion and the repression of transcription.", + "BCOR": "This gene plays a role in the repression of gene transcription.", + "BCORL1": "This gene plays a role in the inhibition of gene expression.", + "BCR": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "BIRC3": "This anti-apoptotic gene regulates apoptotic activity. BIRC3 gene promotes tumor cell survival.", + "BIRC6": "This gene regulates the apoptotic program via signal transduction in the ubiquitination pathway.", + "BLM": "This gene plays a role in DNA unwinding and recombination-mediated telomere lengthening.", + "BMP5": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of mesenchymal differentiation. It is involved in cartilage and bone formation.", + "BMPR1A": "This gene plays a role in the bone morphogenetic protein signaling pathway.", + "BRAF": "This gene is involved in cell organization/biogenesis and the inhibition of apoptosis.", + "BRCA1": "This gene plays a role in cell cycle control, regulation of transcription and the maintenance of genomic stability. It is also involved in the inhibition of mammary cell growth.", + "BRCA2": "This gene is involved in cell cycle control, DNA repair and the maintenance of genomic stability. It also plays a role in the proliferation of embryonic cells.", + "BRD1": "This gene is involved in the localization of histone acetyltransferase complexes.", + "BRD3": "This gene may play a role in both histone acetylation and transcriptional regulation.", + "BRD4": "This gene plays a role in mitosis.", + "BRIP1": "This gene is involved in DNA double-strand break repair.", + "BTBD18": "This gene may be involved in protein ubiquitination.", + "BTG1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of cell proliferation.", + "BTK": "This gene is involved in both signaling and B-cell development.", + "BUB1B": "This gene is involved in mitotic progression.", + "C15orf65": "This gene has no known function.", + "CACNA1D": "This gene is involved in voltage-dependent calcium transport.", + "CALR": "This gene plays a role in calcium binding and protein folding.", + "CAMTA1": "This gene is involved in both DNA binding and transcription.", + "CANT1": "This gene plays a role in both nucleotide hydrolysis and signal transduction.", + "CARD11": "This gene plays a role in apoptotic regulation.", + "CARS": "This gene is involved in transfer RNA metabolism.", + "CASP8": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, immune cell homeostasis, lymphocyte activation and immunoprotection.", + "CBFA2T2": "This gene may be involved in tumor suppression.", + "CBFA2T3": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "CBFB": "This gene is involved in hematopoiesis and osteogenesis.", + "CBL": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and the regulation of protein degradation.", + "CBLB": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of T cell activation.", + "CBLC": "This gene is involved in both ubiquitination and signaling.", + "CCDC6": "This gene may play a role in tumor suppression.", + "CCNB1IP1": "This gene plays a role in both ubiquitination and cell cycle progression.", + "CCNC": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of gene transcription.", + "CCND1": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of mitotic events.", + "CCND2": "This gene is involved in the regulation of the G1/S phase of the cell cycle.", + "CCND3": "This gene is involved in cell cycle progression.", + "CCNE1": "This gene regulates the G1/S phase of the cell cycle by cyclin expression.", + "CCR4": "This gene is involved in chemokine-dependent G protein-coupled receptor signaling.", + "CCR7": "This gene plays a role in immune function.", + "CD28": "This gene plays several roles in cellular functions specific to the T-cell.", + "CD74": "This gene plays a role in antigen processing and presentation.", + "CD79A": "This gene is involved in B-cell signaling and proliferation.", + "CD79B": "This gene plays a role in signaling in B-cells.", + "CD99": "This gene plays a role in the cell adhesion process.", + "CD209": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of host defense responses and mediates pathogen-binding properties.", + "CD274": "This gene is involved in T cell activation and proliferation.", + "CDC73": "This gene is involved in transcription and may play a role in cell cycle progression.", + "CDH1": "This gene plays a role in cell-cell adhesion and loss of function contributes to the progression of many carcinomas.", + "CDH10": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of neuronal cell shape and cell-cell adhesion.", + "CDH11": "This gene is involved in the adherens junction.", + "CDH17": "This gene is involved in cell-cell adhesion and intestinal proton-dependent peptide transport.", + "CDK4": "This gene is involved in G1 stage cell cycle progression.", + "CDK6": "This gene plays a role in the progression of the cell cycle.", + "CDK12": "This gene is involved in protein phosphorylation, RNA splicing and transcription elongation.", + "CDKN1A": "This gene is a regulator of cell cycle progression at the G1 phase of the cell cycle.", + "CDKN1B": "This gene is involved in cell cycle regulation and cyclin regulation.", + "CDKN2A": "This gene functions as a tumor suppressor and transcriptional regulator.", + "CDKN2C": "This gene is involved in cell cycle inhibition and regulation.", + "CDX2": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional initiation, embryonic axial elongation and patterning.", + "CEBPA": "This gene plays a role in body weight homeostasis and cellular proliferation. Mutations in the gene are associated with acute myeloid leukemia.", + "CEP89": "This gene is involved in cilia formation.", + "CEP164": "", + "CEP170B": "This gene may be involved in microtubule organization.", + "CHCHD7": "This gene may be involved in stature.", + "CHD2": "This gene may be involved in the regulation of both gene expression and chromatin modification.", + "CHD4": "This gene is involved in ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling.", + "CHEK2": "This gene plays a role in cell survival and the negative regulation of cell growth.", + "CHGA": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of the neuroendocrine system.", + "CHIC2": "This gene may play a role in vesicular transport.", + "CHST11": "This gene plays a role in the metabolism of chondroitin sulfate.", + "CIC": "This gene is involved in the modulation of transcription.", + "CIITA": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "CLIP1": "This gene plays a role in both endocytosis and mitosis.", + "CLP1": "This gene plays a role in RNA processing.", + "CLTC": "This gene plays a role in both the formation of cellular vesicles and receptor-mediated endocytosis.", + "CLTCL1": "This gene is involved in both receptor-mediated endocytosis and vesicle formation.", + "CNBD1": "This gene is involved in cyclic nucleotide binding.", + "CNBP": "This gene is involved in sterol-mediated transcription.", + "CNOT3": "This gene is involved in mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational regulation and general transcription regulation.", + "CNTNAP2": "This gene may be involved in axonal structure.", + "CNTRL": "This gene plays a role in cell cycle progression.", + "COL1A1": "This gene plays an important structural role in cartilage and mutations in the gene are associated with osteogenesis imperfecta.", + "COL2A1": "This gene plays a role in both skeletal development and cartilage structure.", + "COL3A1": "This gene plays a role in collagen formation in connective tissues.", + "COX6C": "This gene is involved in mitochondrial respiration.", + "CREB1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and its activity is modulated in response to hormonal stimulation from the cAMP pathway.", + "CREB3L1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation in response to cellular stress.", + "CREB3L2": "This gene is involved in the response to cellular stress.", + "CREBBP": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and in NF-kappa B signal transduction.", + "CRLF2": "This gene is involved in cytokine binding and signaling.", + "CRNKL1": "This gene is involved in RNA binding and pre-mRNA splicing.", + "CRTC1": "This gene plays a role in the positive regulation of transcription.", + "CRTC3": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "CSF1R": "This gene is essential for the regulation of the production, differentiation, and function of macrophages.", + "CSF3R": "This gene plays an inhibitory role in cell survival and proliferation.", + "CSMD3": "This gene plays a role in neuronal development.", + "CTCF": "This gene is involved in epigenetic control of gene expression.", + "CTDP1": "", + "CTNNA2": "This gene is involved in cell-cell adhesion and cellular differentiation in the nervous system.", + "CTNNB1": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and regulation of transcription.", + "CTNND1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "CTNND2": "This gene is involved in the regulation of both transcription and signal transduction.", + "CUL3": "This gene plays a role in protein degradation and cell cycle arrest.", + "CUX1": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and Golgi vesicle transport.", + "CXCR4": "This gene is involved in the mediation of viral entry into cells and cellular migration and chemotaxis.", + "CYLD": "This gene is involved in protein deubiquitination.", + "CYP2C8": "This gene plays a role in drug metabolism. It is also involved in the oxidation of both endobiotics and xenobiotics.", + "CYSLTR2": "This gene is involved in cysteinyl leukotriene binding and signal transduction.", + "DAXX": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction, regulation of transcription and enhancement of apoptosis.", + "DCAF12L2": "This gene may play a role in protein complex formation.", + "DCC": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of several processes that determine neuronal cell morphology.", + "DCTN1": "This gene is involved in the modulation of retrograde transport of cytoplasmic organelles and vesicles.", + "DDB2": "This gene plays a role in DNA repair.", + "DDIT3": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of transcription.", + "DDR2": "This gene plays a role in extracellular matrix communication processes and receptor-mediated signal transduction.", + "DDX3X": "This gene is involved in RNA binding.", + "DDX5": "This gene is involved in the mediation of RNA metabolism.", + "DDX6": "This gene plays a role in the translation of mRNA encoded by genes involved in cell proliferation and malignant transformation.", + "DDX10": "This gene plays a role in both RNA metabolism and ATP hydrolysis.", + "DEK": "This gene is involved in RNA processing and regulation of chromatin organization.", + "DGCR8": "This gene plays a role in microRNA processing.", + "DICER1": "This gene is involved in the RNA interference pathway.", + "DNAJB1": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of protein folding.", + "DNM2": "This gene plays a role in both GTP hydrolysis and microtubule organization.", + "DNMT3A": "This gene is involved in epigenetic modification of DNA.", + "DOT1L": "This gene is involved in epigenetic control of gene expression.", + "DROSHA": "This gene plays a role in the processing of microRNA in the nucleus.", + "DUX4L1": "Human DUX4L1 gene is located in the vicinity of 4q35 and is approximately 2 kb in length. The product is a processed pseudogene that produces an RNA transcript, but does not encode a protein product. This gene is within a D4Z4 repeat array; contraction of this macrosatellite repeat is associated with facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD).", + "EBF1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional activation.", + "ECT2L": "This gene may be involved in guanine nucleotide exchange.", + "EED": "This gene plays a role in the negative regulation of transcription.", + "EGFR": "This gene is involved in the epidermal growth factor signal transduction pathway.", + "EIF1AX": "This gene is involved in translation initiation and efficiency.", + "EIF3E": "This gene is involved in the initiation and regulation of protein translation.", + "EIF4A2": "This gene is involved in translation initiation.", + "ELF3": "This gene is involved in the regulation of both transcription and epithelial cell differentiation. It also plays a role in angiogenesis.", + "ELF4": "This gene plays a role in both DNA binding and transcriptional activation.", + "ELK4": "This gene is involved in the regulation of transcription.", + "ELL": "This gene is involved in the modulation of transcription.", + "ELN": "This gene is involved in the structure of the extracellular matrix.", + "EML4": "This gene may play a role in cytoskeletal assembly.", + "EP300": "This gene plays a role in DNA repair and regulation of transcription.", + "EPAS1": "This gene plays a role in the cellular response to hypoxia.", + "EPHA3": "This gene is involved in receptor tyrosine kinase signal transduction and plays a role in lymphoid function and differentiation.", + "EPHA7": "This gene plays a role in mediation of developmental processes.", + "EPS15": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cell proliferation.", + "ERBB2": "This gene plays a role in cellular proliferation and is involved in the oncogenic process through amplification and/or overexpression in several cancers.", + "ERBB3": "This gene is involved in signal transduction pathways that result in cellular proliferation or differentiation. The gene has also been associated with numerous cancers.", + "ERBB4": "This gene is involved in neuronal development and plays a role in receptor tyrosine kinase signal transduction that regulates cellular proliferation and differentiation.", + "ERC1": "This gene plays a role in signaling.", + "ERCC2": "This gene is involved in nucleotide excision repair and corrects sensitivity to UV radiation and defective nucleotide excision repair in xeroderma pigmentosum cells of complementation group D.", + "ERCC3": "This gene is involved in DNA excision repair and transcription.", + "ERCC4": "This gene is involved in nucleotide excision repair and is involved in the correction of defective nucleotide excision repair in xeroderma pigmentosum cells of complementation group F.", + "ERCC5": "This gene plays a role in the nucleotide base excision repair of UV-induced DNA damage and mutations of the gene cause Cockayne syndrome.", + "ERG": "This gene plays a regulatory role in transcription, cellular maintenance and hematopoiesis.", + "ESR1": "This gene is involved in ligand-activated transcriptional activity.", + "ETNK1": "This gene plays a role in phospholipid biosynthesis.", + "ETV1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional activation and spinal cord development.", + "ETV4": "This gene plays a regulatory role in transcription and in matrix metalloproteinase activity.", + "ETV5": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of gene transcription.", + "ETV6": "This gene plays a regulatory role in transcription and in matrix metalloproteinase activity.", + "EWSR1": "This gene may play a role in post-transcriptional regulation; however the function remains to be elucidated. Mutations in the gene result in Ewing sarcoma and other tumors.", + "EXT1": "This gene plays a role in heparin/heparin sulfate biosynthesis, axon guidance and biogenesis/cell organization.", + "EXT2": "This gene is involved in the heparin/heparin sulfate biosynthesis, cell organization/biogenesis and development of the cytoskeleton in chondrocytes.", + "EZH2": "This gene plays a role in chromatin remodeling and transcriptional regulation.", + "EZR": "This gene plays a role in cellular structure.", + "FAM46C": "This gene is involved in polyadenylation of RNA and mRNA stability.", + "FAM47C": "This gene has no known function.", + "FAM131B": "This gene has not been characterized.", + "FAM135B": "This gene may play a role in the metabolism of lipids.", + "FANCA": "This gene may be involved in the mediation of DNA repair.", + "FANCC": "This gene may play a role in DNA cross-link repair.", + "FANCD2": "This gene is involved in the regulation of meiosis, DNA repair and the cell cycle.", + "FANCE": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of both DNA repair and protein localization.", + "FANCF": "This gene may be involved in the regulation of DNA repair.", + "FANCG": "This gene is involved in the maintenance of genomic integrity and nuclear signal transduction. Allelic variants of the gene are involved in Fanconi syndrome.", + "FAS": "This gene is involved in the mediation of cellular surface receptors and apoptotic signals.", + "FAT1": "This gene is involved in both cellular polarization and cell-cell adhesion.", + "FAT3": "This gene is involved in cell adhesion and neurite development.", + "FAT4": "This gene plays a role in planar cell polarity.", + "FBLN2": "This gene plays a role in protein-protein interactions in the extracellular matrix.", + "FBXO11": "This gene plays a role in the recognition of proteins to be ubiquitinylated.", + "FBXW7": "This gene is involved in ubiquitin-dependent proteolysis and regulation of the G1-S cell cycle checkpoint.", + "FCGR2B": "This gene plays a role in the inhibition of immune functions and cellular proliferation.", + "FCRL4": "This gene may be involved in B cell receptor signaling.", + "FEN1": "This gene is involved in DNA replication and repair.", + "FES": "This gene is involved in hematopoiesis and the maintenance of cellular transformation.", + "FEV": "This gene may play a role in transcriptional repression.", + "FGFR1": "This gene plays a role in mitogenesis and differentiation.", + "FGFR1OP": "This gene is involved in the regulation of cell shape, polarity and motility.", + "FGFR2": "This gene plays a role in mitogenesis and differentiation and mutations in the gene are associated with craniosynostotic syndromes and bone malformations.", + "FGFR3": "This gene plays a role in bone development and maintenance and mutations in the gene are associated with craniosynostosis and several types of skeletal dysplasia.", + "FGFR4": "This gene plays a role in mitogenesis and differentiation.", + "FH": "This gene plays a role in the Krebs cycle.", + "FHIT": "This gene is involved in nucleotide metabolism and cell cycle control.", + "FIP1L1": "This gene is involved in mRNA processing.", + "FKBP9": "This gene is involved in chaperone-mediated protein folding.", + "FLCN": "This gene may play a role in tumor suppression.", + "FLI1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional activation and has been implicated in the pathogenesis of neuroepithelioma.", + "FLNA": "This gene is involved in remodeling of the cytoskeleton.", + "FLT3": "This gene plays a role in hematopoiesis and may function as a growth factor receptor.", + "FLT4": "This gene plays an essential role in the development of embryonic cardiovasculature and lymphatic vessel formation.", + "FNBP1": "This gene plays a role in endocytosis.", + "FOXA1": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of gene expression.", + "FOXL2": "This gene plays a role in ovarian function.", + "FOXO1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and may play a role in myogenic growth and differentiation.", + "FOXO3": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and apoptosis.", + "FOXO4": "This gene plays a role in smooth muscle cell differentiation, cellular growth, cell cycle regulation and tumor suppression.", + "FOXP1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional modulation.", + "FOXR1": "This gene plays a role in DNA binding and transcriptional regulation.", + "FRYL": "This gene is involved in the regulation of cell shape and polarity.", + "FSTL3": "This gene plays a role in a variety of processes including transcription.", + "FUBP1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional modulation.", + "FUS": "This gene is involved in gene expression, genomic integrity and RNA processing.", + "GAS7": "This gene may play a role in neuronal development.", + "GATA1": "This gene is involved in erythropoiesis and transcriptional activation.", + "GATA2": "This gene is involved in both DNA binding and transcriptional regulation.", + "GATA3": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of transcription.", + "GLI1": "This gene plays a regulatory role in transcription and embryonic development.", + "GLIS2": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and signaling pathway modulation.", + "GMPS": "This gene plays a role in nucleotide biosynthesis.", + "GNA11": "This gene is involved in signal transduction.", + "GNAQ": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and is involved in calcium signaling.", + "GNAS": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and is associated with pituitary tumors.", + "GOLGA5": "This gene is involved in Golgi maintenance.", + "GOPC": "This gene plays a role in protein transport.", + "GPC3": "This gene is involved in heparin sulfate binding.", + "GPHN": "This gene is involved in vitamin metabolism.", + "GRIN2A": "This gene is involved in the regulation of ion transport.", + "GRM3": "This gene is involved in ligand-depending signaling.", + "H3F3A": "This gene is involved in chromatin structure.", + "H3F3B": "This gene plays a role in nucleosome assembly.", + "HERPUD1": "This gene is involved in the response to endoplasmic reticulum stress.", + "HEY1": "This gene is involved in both transcription factor binding and transcriptional repression.", + "HIF1A": "This gene plays a role in cardiovascular development and systemic oxygen homeostasis.", + "HIP1": "This gene plays a role in both vesicle coat formation and endocytosis.", + "HIST1H3B": "This gene is involved in chromatin structure.", + "HIST1H4I": "This gene plays a role in nucleosomal structure.", + "HLA-A": "This gene is involved in immune responses and histocompatibility processes.", + "HLF": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and DNA binding.", + "HMGA1": "This gene plays a role in a number of cellular processes including apoptosis, chromatin organization and transcriptional regulation.", + "HMGA2": "This gene is involved in chromatin organization and regulation of gene transcription. It also plays a role in development.", + "HMGB3": "This gene plays a role in development and the regulation of gene transcription.", + "HMGN2P46": "This gene may be involved in prostate functions.", + "HNF1A": "This gene plays a role in both DNA binding and transcriptional modulation.", + "HNRNPA2B1": "This gene is involved in RNA processing and transport.", + "HNRNPH1": "", + "HOOK3": "This gene plays a role in endocytosis and Golgi maintenance.", + "HOXA9": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation, morphogenesis and differentiation.", + "HOXA11": "This gene is involved in embryologic pattern formation.", + "HOXA13": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional modulation.", + "HOXB1": "This gene is involved in the development of anterior embryonic structures and facial nerves.", + "HOXC11": "This gene is involved in embryological development.", + "HOXC13": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of transcription.", + "HOXD11": "This gene is involved in limb morphogenesis.", + "HOXD13": "This gene plays a role in the development of limbs and appendages.", + "HRAS": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cellular communication.", + "HSP90AA1": "This gene is involved in both protein folding and nitric oxide metabolism.", + "HSP90AB1": "This gene plays a role in both interferon signaling and protein folding.", + "ID3": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional repression.", + "IDH1": "This gene plays a role in carbohydrate metabolism.", + "IDH2": "This gene plays a role in intermediary metabolism.", + "IGH": "This region represents the germline organization of the immunoglobulin heavy chain locus. The locus includes V (variable), J (joining), diversity (D), and C (constant) segments. During B cell development, a recombination event at the DNA level joins a D segment with a J segment; a V segment is then joined to the D-J gene. The C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several D and J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase, and by somatic hypermutation, which occurs during B cell maturation in the spleen and lymph nodes. (from LocusLink)", + "IGK": "This region represents the germline organization of the kappa light chain locus. The locus includes V (variable), J (joining), and C (constant) segments. During B cell development, a recombination event at the DNA level joins a single V segment with a J segment; the C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase, and by somatic hypermutation, which occurs during B cell maturation in the spleen and lymph nodes. (from LocusLink)", + "IGL": "This region represents the germline organization of the lambda light chain locus. The locus includes V (variable), J (joining), and C (constant) segments. During B cell development, a recombination event at the DNA level joins a single V segment with a J segment; the C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase, and by somatic hypermutation, which occurs during B cell maturation in the spleen and lymph nodes. (from LocusLink)", + "IKBKB": "This gene is involved in protein phosphorylation.", + "IKZF1": "This gene is involved in B-cell and T-cell maturation.", + "IL2": "This gene is involved in growth and lymphokine regulation.", + "IL6ST": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and is putatively involved in embryonic development.", + "IL7R": "This gene is involved in the regulation of lymphopoiesis.", + "IL21R": "This gene is involved in cytokine recognition.", + "INO80D": "This gene plays a role in ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling.", + "IRF4": "This gene is involved in the regulation of B-cell differentiation and proliferation. It also plays a role in mediating the proliferation of mitogen-stimulated T cells.", + "IRS4": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and ligand binding.", + "ISX": "This gene is involved in gene expression regulation in the intestine.", + "ITGAV": "This gene plays a role in cell communication and angiogenesis.", + "ITK": "This gene is involved in the differentiation and proliferation of T cells.", + "JAK1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "JAK2": "This gene is involved in erythropoiesis and signal transduction.", + "JAK3": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "JARID2": "", + "JAZF1": "This gene may be involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "JUN": "This gene plays a critical role in transcriptional regulation and cellular growth.", + "KAT6A": "This gene is involved in both histone acetylation and transcriptional regulation.", + "KAT6B": "This gene plays a role in both transcription and histone acetylation.", + "KAT7": "This gene is involved in epigenetic control of gene expression.", + "KCNJ5": "This gene is involved in ion transport.", + "KDM5A": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional modulation.", + "KDM5C": "This gene is involved in histone modification.", + "KDM6A": "This gene is involved in the modulation of histone methylation.", + "KDR": "This gene plays a role in angiogenesis and vascular regulation.", + "KDSR": "This gene plays a role in glycosphingolipid metabolism.", + "KEAP1": "This gene is involved in ubiquitin-mediated protein degradation.", + "KIAA1549": "This gene may play a role in brain functions.", + "KIF5B": "This gene is involved in the transport of vesicles along microtubules.", + "KIT": "This gene plays a role in cellular hematopoiesis and differentiations. Mutations in the gene are associated with several diseases, including acute myelogenous leukemia, gastrointestinal tumors, and mast cell disease.", + "KLF4": "This gene plays a role in gene transcription.", + "KLF6": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional activation.", + "KLK2": "This gene plays a role in proteolysis.", + "KMT2A": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and alterations in the gene are associated with acute lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "KMT2C": "This gene plays a role in both methylation and transcriptional regulation", + "KMT2D": "This gene plays a role in co-activation of gene expression.", + "KNL1": "This gene is involved in both signaling and chromosome alignment in mitosis.", + "KNSTRN": "This gene plays a role in both mitotic spindle formation and chromosome segregation.", + "KRAS": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and apoptosis.", + "KTN1": "This gene plays a role in kinesin function.", + "LARP4B": "This gene is involved in RNA metabolism and translation.", + "LASP1": "This gene is involved in actin-dependent ion transport.", + "LCK": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and the development/function of T cells.", + "LCP1": "This gene plays a role in cytoskeletal remodeling.", + "LEF1": "This gene plays a role in both signal transduction and transcription.", + "LHFP": "This gene may play a role in cell adhesion or cell proliferation.", + "LIFR": "This gene plays a critical role in cell fate and proliferation in both embryonic and adult cells.", + "LMNA": "This gene is involved in the architecture of nuclear membrane construction.", + "LMO1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of transcription.", + "LMO2": "This gene plays a crucial role in hematopoietic development and is involved in transcriptional activation.", + "LPP": "This gene may be involved in cell shape and cell motility.", + "LRIG3": "This gene may be involved in signaling.", + "LRP1B": "This gene plays a role in low density lipoprotein metabolism.", + "LSM14A": "This gene plays a role in the storage of mRNA.", + "LYL1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and is involved in the pathogenesis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "LZTR1": "This gene may be involved in Golgi stabilization, embryogenesis or transcriptional regulation.", + "MAF": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and cellular differentiation.", + "MAFB": "This gene plays a role in both hematopoiesis and transcriptional modulation.", + "MALAT1": "This gene may play a role in carcinogenesis.", + "MALT1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and in the pathology of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphomas.", + "MAML2": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and signal transduction.", + "MAML3": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional activation and signaling.", + "MAP2K1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and regulation of transcription. It is also involved in cell differentiation, growth and proliferation.", + "MAP2K2": "This gene plays a role in both protein phosphorylation and signal transduction.", + "MAP2K4": "This gene is involved in MAPK signaling.", + "MAP3K1": "This gene plays a role in mediating cellular responses to growth factors, metabolic stimuli and mitogens.", + "MAP3K13": "This gene is involved in both protein phosphorylation and signaling.", + "MAPK1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and positive regulation of the cell cycle.", + "MAX": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and plays a role in the mediation of DNA-protein interactions.", + "MB21D2": "This gene plays a role in protein-protein interactions.", + "MDM2": "This gene plays a role in several cellular processes related to cellular viability; including the cell cycle and apoptosis.", + "MDM4": "This gene plays a role in both cell cycle arrest and the inhibition of apoptosis.", + "MDS2": "This gene plays a role in myelodysplastic syndrome.", + "MECOM": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation, histone methylation and leukemogenesis.", + "MED12": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of RNA polymerase II-dependent transcription.", + "MEN1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and has tumor suppressor activity.", + "MET": "This gene plays a regulatory role in the modulation of cell-surface receptors and hepatocyte growth factor interactions.", + "MGMT": "This gene is involved in DNA repair.", + "MITF": "This gene is involved in transcriptional promotion in melanocytes.", + "MKL1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional modulation and muscle cell differentiation.", + "MLF1": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and cell cycle arrest.", + "MLH1": "This gene plays a role in DNA mismatch repair.", + "MLH2": "This gene is involved in mismatch repair and mutations in the gene result in hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer 3.", + "MLLT1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and translocations in the gene are associated with acute leukemia.", + "MLLT3": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and translocations in the gene are associated with leukemia.", + "MLLT4": "This gene is involved in cell adhesion and cytoskeletal modeling", + "MLLT6": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and aberrations in the gene are associated with acute leukemias due to chromosomal translocations.", + "MLLT10": "This gene may be involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "MLLT11": "This gene is involved in mitochondrial functions.", + "MN1": "This gene is involved in tumor suppression.", + "MNX1": "This gene plays a role in both the regulation of transcription and DNA binding.", + "MPL": "This gene plays a regulatory role in megakaryocytopoiesis and platelet formation.", + "MSH2": "This gene plays a role in DNA mismatch repair mutations in the gene result in hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer-1.", + "MSH6": "This gene is involved in mismatch repair and plays a role in several cancers.", + "MSI2": "This gene is involved in translational regulation.", + "MSN": "This gene plays a role in both cell adhesion and cytoskeleton modeling.", + "MTCP1": "This gene plays a role in the proliferation of T cells and is involved in cell cycle regulation.", + "MTOR": "This gene plays a role in apoptosis, cell growth, differentiation and proliferation.", + "MUC1": "This gene plays a role in cellular signal transduction and is used as a biomarker for breast cancer.", + "MUC4": "This gene is involved in both cell adhesion and receptor signaling.", + "MUC16": "This gene is involved in both cellular adhesion and the maintenance of mucosal surfaces.", + "MUTYH": "This gene plays a role in the repair of oxidative DNA damage.", + "MYB": "This gene plays a role in hematopoietic cell proliferation and development.", + "MYC": "This gene plays a role in cell cycle progression and apoptosis. Cytogenetic aberrations in the gene are involved in cellular transformation and are associated with a variety of hematopoietic tumors, leukemias and lymphomas.", + "MYCL": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and is frequently amplified in small-cell lung cancer.", + "MYCN": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and amplification of this gene is associated with a variety of tumors, most notably neuroblastomas.", + "MYD88": "This gene is involved in the modulation of proinflammatory gene expression.", + "MYH9": "This gene is involved in both cytoskeleton modeling and cytokinesis.", + "MYH11": "This gene plays a regulatory role in muscle contraction and the required ATP hydrolysis.", + "MYO5A": "This gene is involved in vesicle transport along actin filaments.", + "MYOD1": "This gene plays a role in DNA binding and myogenesis.", + "NAB2": "This gene plays a role in the repression of gene transcription.", + "NACA": "This gene plays a role in protein sorting.", + "NBEA": "This gene plays a role in membrane-targeting of protein kinase A.", + "NBN": "This gene plays a role in DNA repair and cell cycle checkpoints.", + "NCKIPSD": "This gene plays a role in stress fiber formation.", + "NCOA1": "This gene plays a role in regulation of transcription.", + "NCOA2": "This gene is involved in regulation of transcription. It also plays a role in myogenic differentiation.", + "NCOA4": "This gene is involved in the transcriptional activation of target genes.", + "NCOR1": "This gene is involved in chromatin remodeling and repression of transcription.", + "NCOR2": "This gene plays a role in repression of transcription. It is also involved in chromatin remodeling.", + "NDRG1": "This gene plays a role in cellular stress responses. It is also involved in both cell growth and differentiation.", + "NF1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cytoskeletal remodeling.", + "NF2": "This gene plays a role in cell adhesion and cytoskeletal remodeling. It is also involved in suppression of cell growth.", + "NFATC2": "This gene is involved in cytokine gene transcription.", + "NFE2L2": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "NFIB": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and mediates DNA-binding interactions.", + "NFKB2": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation, signal transduction and inflammatory responses.", + "NFKBIE": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and regulation of transcription. It is involved in the immune response.", + "NIN": "This gene is involved in the localization of the centrosome.", + "NKX2-1": "This gene plays a role in thyroid gene transcription.", + "NONO": "This gene may play a role in both transcriptional regulation and nuclear RNA processing.", + "NOTCH1": "This gene is involved in intercellular signal transduction that plays a key role in development.", + "NOTCH2": "This gene plays a role in cell-cell signaling.", + "NPM1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of ribosomal assembly.", + "NR4A3": "This gene is involved in the modulation of transcription.", + "NRAS": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cell cycle regulation.", + "NRG1": "This gene plays a role in cellular differentiation, growth and proliferation.", + "NSD1": "This gene is involved in the mediation of histone methylation.", + "NSD2": "This gene plays a role in histone-lysine methylation.", + "NSD3": "This gene is involved in histone methylation.", + "NT5C2": "This gene plays a role in purine metabolism.", + "NTHL1": "This gene plays a role in nucleotide-excision DNA repair.", + "NTRK1": "This gene is involved in cellular differentiation and neurotrophic functions.", + "NTRK3": "This gene plays a role in neuronal development and cellular differentiation. Mutations in the gene are associated with medulloblastomas, secretory breast carcinomas and other cancers.", + "NUMA1": "This gene plays an essential role in normal mitosis. It is also involved in cell organization/biogenesis.", + "NUP98": "This gene plays a role in transport and is frequently overexpressed in prostate cancers.", + "NUP214": "This gene plays a critical role in nuclear transport and docking regulation. Alterations in the gene have been associated with several cancers and leukemias.", + "NUTM1": "This gene may be involved in testicular function.", + "NUTM2A": "This gene has an unknown function.", + "NUTM2B": "The function of this gene is unknown.", + "OLIG2": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and oligodendrocyte and motor neuron differentiation. This gene may play a role in the development of brain tumors.", + "OMD": "This gene is involved in cell adhesion.", + "P2RY8": "This gene plays a role in signaling.", + "PABPC1": "This gene is involved in binding to poly(A)RNA.", + "PAFAH1B2": "This gene is involved in lipid metabolism.", + "PALB2": "This gene may play a role in the repair of DNA damage that is resolved by recombination.", + "PATZ1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "PAX3": "This gene plays a role in the transcriptional activation of target genes. It is involved in melanogenesis, neurogenesis and skeletal muscle development.", + "PAX5": "This gene is involved in the transcriptional regulation of target genes. It plays a role in B-cell differentiation, neural development and spermatogenesis.", + "PAX7": "This gene plays a role in the transcriptional regulation of target genes. It is involved in pattern formation during embryogenesis.", + "PAX8": "This gene is involved in thyroid development and transcriptional regulation.", + "PBRM1": "This gene plays a role in chromatin remodeling.", + "PBX1": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of transcription.", + "PCBP1": "This gene plays a role in RNA splicing.", + "PCM1": "This gene is involved in centrosome formation.", + "PDCD1LG2": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of T-cell proliferation.", + "PDE4DIP": "This gene plays a role in protein complex localization.", + "PDGFB": "This gene is involved in cellular growth and proliferation. It is also plays a role in intercellular signaling.", + "PDGFRA": "This gene plays a role in mitogenic activities affecting mesenchymal cells and is involved in receptor tyrosine kinase signal transduction.", + "PDGFRB": "This gene plays a role in mitogenic activities affecting mesenchymal cells and a translocation in the gene results in chronic myelomonocytic leukemia.", + "PER1": "This gene is involved in circadian rhythm.", + "PGR": "This gene plays a role in the signal transduction processes that are involved in pregnancy.", + "PHF6": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "PHF23": "This gene may be involved in chromatin remodeling.", + "PHOX2B": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of transcription.", + "PICALM": "This gene plays a role in receptor mediated endocytosis.", + "PIK3CA": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, cell growth and angiogenesis.", + "PIK3CB": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, cell growth and angiogenesis.", + "PIK3R1": "This gene is involved in phosphoinositol signaling.", + "PIM1": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, cell cycle regulation and signal transduction.", + "PIM3": "This gene is involved in serine/threonine kinase activity that inhibits apoptosis, promotes cell survival and regulates protein translation.", + "PLAG1": "This gene is involved in cellular proliferation.", + "PLCG1": "This gene is involved in both intracellular signaling and second messenger production.", + "PML": "This gene plays a role in tumor suppression and is involved in the regulation of p53 in response to oncogenic signal transduction.", + "PMS1": "This gene is involved in mismatch repair and mutations in the gene result in hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer 3.", + "PMS2": "This gene is involved in mismatch repair and mutations in the gene result in hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer 4.", + "POLD1": "This gene is involved in DNA replication and proofreading.", + "POLE": "This gene is involved in both DNA replication and DNA base-excision repair.", + "POLG": "This gene plays a role in the replication of mitochondrial DNA.", + "POLQ": "This gene is involved in DNA synthesis and repair.", + "POT1": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of telomere length.", + "POU2AF1": "This gene is involved in both humoral immunity and transcriptional regulation.", + "POU5F1": "This gene plays a role in early mammalian development.", + "PPARG": "This gene plays a regulatory role in adipocyte differentiation.", + "PPFIBP1": "This gene plays a role in protein-protein interactions and cell-matrix adhesion.", + "PPM1D": "This gene plays a role in the modulation of cell cycle arrest.", + "PPP2R1A": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of cell growth and division.", + "PPP6C": "This gene plays a role in both protein dephosphorylation and signaling.", + "PRCC": "This gene may be involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "PRDM1": "This gene is involved in repression of transcription. It plays a role in the formation of pre-plasma memory B cells and immunoglobulin-secreting plasma cells.", + "PRDM2": "This gene is involved in both methylation of histone H3 and transcriptional regulation.", + "PRDM16": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and adipocyte differentiation.", + "PREX2": "This gene is involved in guanine nucleotide exchange.", + "PRF1": "This gene is involved in cytolysis.", + "PRKACA": "This gene is involved in the regulation of diverse cell processes including cell growth, proliferation, differentiation and motility.", + "PRKAR1A": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of protein kinase A.", + "PRKCB": "This gene is involved in diverse cell processes such as apoptosis, B cell activation and endothelial cell proliferation.", + "PRPF40B": "This gene may be involved in mRNA splicing.", + "PRRX1": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and muscle cell development.", + "PSIP1": "This gene is involved in regulation of transcription. It also plays a role in mediation of pre-mRNA splicing.", + "PTCH1": "This gene is involved in tumor suppression and mutations in this gene have been associated with several cancers and cancer related diseases.", + "PTEN": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and apoptosis. It is also involved in the regulation of cell cycle progression.", + "PTK6": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction.", + "PTP4A1": "This gene is involved in liver cell growth and the cellular response to mitogens.", + "PTPN6": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of multiple signaling pathways in hematopoietic cells.", + "PTPN11": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of cell signaling. It is involved in cell migration, metabolic control, mitogenic activation and gene transcription.", + "PTPN13": "This gene is involved in both protein dephosphorylation and signal transduction.", + "PTPRB": "This gene is involved in dephosphorylation of proteins.", + "PTPRC": "This gene plays a role in suppression of cytokine receptor signaling and the regulation of signal transduction in lymphocytes.", + "PTPRK": "This gene is involved in receptor signaling, cell-cell contact and cell migration.", + "PTPRT": "This gene plays a role in the control of motor axon guidance.", + "PWWP2A": "This gene may play a role in protein-protein or protein-DNA interactions.", + "QKI": "This gene is involved in both the biosynthesis and maintenance of mRNA.", + "RABEP1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of both GTPase activity and endocytosis.", + "RAC1": "This gene is involved in both cell motility and signal transduction.", + "RAD21": "This gene is involved in chromosomal cohesion, DNA repair and apoptosis.", + "RAD51B": "This gene plays a role in the mediation of homologous recombinational repair of DNA.", + "RAF1": "This gene is involved in cell growth, proliferation, differentiation and migration. It also plays a role in apoptosis.", + "RALGDS": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cytoskeletal remodeling. It is also involved in regulation of cell growth.", + "RANBP2": "This gene is involved in both SUMOylation and nuclear transport.", + "RAP1GDS1": "This gene is involved in guanine nucleotide exchange.", + "RARA": "This gene plays a role in transcription and retinoic acid receptor signal transduction.", + "RB1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of cell differentiation, growth and proliferation.", + "RBM10": "This gene is involved in RNA binding and processing.", + "RBM15": "This gene plays a role in RNA binding.", + "RECQL4": "This gene is involved in the initiation of DNA replication and sister-chromatid cohesion.", + "REL": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and signal transduction through the nuclear factor kappa B NFKB signal transduction pathway.", + "RET": "This gene plays an essential role in neural crest development, cellular growth and differentiation. Mutations in the gene are associated with a variety of neoplasias and carcinomas", + "RGPD3": "This gene may play a role in the localization of the GTPase Ran.", + "RGS7": "This gene plays a role in the inhibition of both G protein-coupled receptor signaling and signal transduction.", + "RHOA": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction. It is involved in several cellular functions including cell differentiation and cytoskeletal remodeling.", + "RHOH": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction in hematopoietic cells.", + "RMI2": "This gene is involved in DNA replication.", + "RNF43": "This gene is involved in both protein ubiquitination and the Wnt signaling pathway.", + "RNF213": "This gene may be involved in ubiquitination.", + "ROBO2": "This gene plays a role in ligand binding, axon guidance and cell migration.", + "ROS1": "This gene plays a role in receptor tyrosine phosphorylation signal transduction, and is thought to play a role in cellular growth or differentiation, but an exact function has not been substantiated.", + "RPL5": "This gene plays a role in ribosome assembly.", + "RPL10": "This gene plays a role in protein biosynthesis. It is also involved in signal transduction.", + "RPL22": "This gene is involved in translation.", + "RPN1": "This gene plays a role in post-translational protein modification.", + "RPS15": "", + "RSPO2": "This gene plays a role in both Wnt signaling and embryonic morphogenesis.", + "RSPO3": "This gene is thought to be involved in transport; however, a function has yet to be elucidated.", + "RUNX1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and cytogenetic aberrations are associated with several leukemias.", + "RUNX1T1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and hematopoiesis.", + "S100A7": "This gene is involved in both calcium binding and antimicrobial activity.", + "SALL4": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and stem cell maintenance.", + "SBDS": "This gene plays a role in ribosome formation.", + "SDC4": "This gene is involved in cell-matrix interactions.", + "SDHA": "This gene is involved in the mitochondrial respiratory chain.", + "SDHAF2": "This gene is involved in the electron transport chain.", + "SDHB": "This gene plays a role in electron transport in the mitochondria.", + "SDHC": "This gene is involved in mitochondrial electron transport.", + "SDHD": "This gene plays a role in the localization of succinate dehydrogenase activity.", + "SEPT5": "This gene plays a role in cell division.", + "SEPT6": "This gene is involved in both cytokinesis and the organization of the actin cytoskeleton.", + "SEPT9": "This gene plays a role in actin filament dynamics.", + "SET": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, biogenesis, DNA replication and nuclear organization.", + "SETBP1": "This gene may be involved in the modulation of protein SET activity.", + "SETD1A": "", + "SETD2": "This gene is involved in epigenetic control of gene expression.", + "SF3B1": "This gene is involved in mRNA splicing.", + "SFPQ": "This gene may be involved in both transcriptional regulation and nuclear RNA processing.", + "SFRP4": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction, apoptosis and cell proliferation.", + "SGK1": "This gene plays a role in both protein phosphorylation and cellular stress response.", + "SH2B3": "This gene plays a role in T-cell activation.", + "SH3GL1": "This gene may be involved in endocytosis.", + "SHTN1": "This gene is involved in neuronal polarization.", + "SIRPA": "This gene is involved in cellular signal transduction and tyrosine kinase-coupled signaling processes.", + "SKI": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation and is involved in cellular signal transduction.", + "SLC34A2": "This gene plays a role in phosphate transport.", + "SLC45A3": "This gene plays a role in transmembrane transport.", + "SLC66A2 (aka PQLC1)": "", + "SMAD2": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and repression of transcription.", + "SMAD3": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and apoptosis. It also plays a role in the regulation of both steroid synthesis and T-cell response.", + "SMAD4": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and transcriptional activation. It is also involved in suppression of angiogenesis.", + "SMARCA4": "This gene plays a role in chromatin remodeling, cell cycle control and regulation of transcription.", + "SMARCB1": "This gene plays a role in chromatin remodeling and regulation of transcription.", + "SMARCD1": "This gene plays a role in chromatin remodeling and regulation of transcription.", + "SMARCE1": "This gene is involved in chromatin remodeling and regulation of transcription.", + "SMC1A": "This gene is involved in maintenance of sister chromatid cohesion during mitosis.", + "SMO": "This gene plays a role in G protein-coupled receptor signal transduction and sonic hedgehog pathway activation.", + "SND1": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and RNA interference.", + "SNX29": "This gene may be involved in signal transduction or lipid binding.", + "SOCS1": "This gene is involved in the attenuation of cytokine signaling.", + "SOX2": "This gene is involved in embryonic development and in the determination of cell fate.", + "SPECC1": "This gene may be involved in nuclear structure.", + "SPEN": "This gene plays a role in hormone-mediated transcriptional regulation.", + "SPOP": "This gene may be involved in both transcriptional repression and protein ubiquitination.", + "SRC": "This gene is involved in apoptosis, hormonogenesis, focal adhesion and the formation of intercellular junctions.", + "SRGAP3": "This gene plays a role in GTPase-mediated signaling.", + "SRSF2": "This gene plays a role in RNA splicing.", + "SRSF3": "This gene plays a role in RNA splicing and export.", + "SS18": "This gene is involved in transcriptional activation.", + "SS18L1": "This gene plays a role in the positive regulation of transcription.", + "SSX1": "This gene may be involved in the regulation of transcription.", + "SSX2": "This gene may play a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "SSX4": "This gene may be involved in transcriptional modulation.", + "STAG1": "This gene plays a role in sister chromatid binding.", + "STAG2": "This gene is involved in cell division.", + "STAT3": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and activation of transcription. It is involved in regulation of both apoptosis and cell growth.", + "STAT5B": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and activation of transcription. It plays a role in the immune response via stimulation of T-cell proliferation.", + "STAT6": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and activation of transcription.", + "STIL": "This gene plays a role in both cellular proliferation and embryonic development.", + "STK11": "This gene plays a role in cell cycle regulation. It is also putatively involved in glucose production.", + "STRN": "This gene may play a role in cell scaffolding or calcium signaling.", + "SUFU": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of both transcription and signaling.", + "SUZ12": "This gene plays a role in embryonic development and histone methylation.", + "SYK": "This gene plays a role in receptor tyrosine phosphorylation signal transduction, phagocytosis, endothelial cell growth and proliferation.", + "SYP": "This gene is involved in vesicle targeting and synaptic plasticity.", + "TAF15": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional initiation.", + "TAL1": "This gene plays a role in regulation of transcription and cell organization. It is involved in both embryonic hematopoiesis and adult erythropoiesis.", + "TAL2": "This gene is involved in transcriptional regulation. It plays a role in T-cell acute lymphocytic leukemia.", + "TBL1XR1": "This gene is involved in transcriptional activation.", + "TBX3": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional repression and limb development.", + "TCEA1": "This gene is involved in transcription.", + "TCF3": "This gene plays a role in regulation of transcription. It is involved in the control of tissue-specific cell fate during embryogenesis.", + "TCF7L2": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and regulation of transcription.", + "TCF12": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and tissue differentiation.", + "TCL1A": "This gene is involved in signal transduction.", + "TEC": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and regulation of immune function.", + "TERT": "This gene is involved in cell cycle regulation and telomere maintenance.", + "TET1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of DNA methylation.", + "TET2": "This gene is involved in oxidation.", + "TFE3": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional activation. It is involved in melanogenesis.", + "TFEB": "This gene plays a role in transcription.", + "TFG": "This gene is involved in signaling.", + "TFPT": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of apoptosis.", + "TFRC": "This gene plays a regulatory role in receptor-mediated endocytosis and iron metabolism.", + "TGFBR2": "This gene plays a role in cellular proliferation and mitogenic responses.", + "THRAP3": "This gene is involved in the activation of transcription.", + "TLR2": "", + "TLX1": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and organogenesis. Translocations in the gene are associated with acute T-cell leukemia.", + "TLX3": "This gene may be involved in transcriptional regulation.", + "TMEM127": "This gene may play a role in signaling and protein trafficking.", + "TMPRSS2": "This gene plays a role in the activation of pathway signaling.", + "TNC": "This gene is involved in cell adhesion, differentiation and proliferation.", + "TNFAIP3": "This gene may play a role in the regulation of apoptosis.", + "TNFRSF14": "This gene plays a role in receptor signaling.", + "TNFRSF17": "This gene is involved in the modulation of cytokine signaling.", + "TOP1": "This gene is involved in the regulation of both DNA topology and transcription.", + "TOP2B": "This gene is involved in chromosome recombination, DNA replication and the regulation of DNA topology during transcription.", + "TP53": "This gene plays a critical role in cell cycle regulation and has tumor suppressor activity.", + "TP63": "This gene plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and limb development.", + "TPM3": "This gene plays a role in muscle contraction.", + "TPM4": "This gene is involved in smooth muscle cell contraction.", + "TPR": "This gene plays a role in both nuclear transport and mitosis.", + "TRA": "This region represents the germline organization of the T cell receptor alpha locus. The alpha locus includes V (variable), J (joining), and C (constant) segments. During T cell development, the alpha chain is synthesized by a recombination event at the DNA level joining a V segment with a J segment. The C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase. (from LocusLink)", + "TRAF7": "This gene is involved in both MAPK signaling and protein ubiquitination.", + "TRB": "This region represents the germline organization of the T cell receptor beta locus. The beta locus includes V (variable), J (joining), diversity (D), and C (constant) segments. During T cell development, the beta chain is synthesized by a recombination event at the DNA level joining a D segment with a J segment; a V segment is then joined to the D-J gene. The C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several D and J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase. Chromosomal abnormalities involving the T-cell receptor beta locus have been associated with T-cell lymphomas. (from LocusLink)", + "TRD": "This region represents the germline organization of the T cell receptordelta locus. The delta locus includes V (variable), J (joining), diversity (D), and C (constant) segments. During T cell development, the delta chain is synthesized by a recombination event at the DNA level joining a D segment with a J segment; a V segment is then joined to the D-J gene. The C segment is later joined by splicing at the RNA level. Recombination of many different V segments with several D and J segments provides a wide range of antigen recognition. Additional diversity is attained by junctional diversity, resulting from the random additional of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase. (from LocusLink)", + "TRIM24": "This gene plays a role in hormone-dependent gene transcription.", + "TRIM27": "This gene is involved in the differentiation of male germ cells.", + "TRIM33": "This gene is involved in the mediation of protein ubiquitination.", + "TRIP11": "This gene plays a role in thyroid receptor binding.", + "TRRAP": "This gene is involved in DNA repair and regulation of mitosis.", + "TSC1": "This gene is involved in cell cycle regulation and the loss of cellular adhesion.", + "TSC2": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction and cell cycle control. It is involved in cell adhesion, differentiation, growth and migration.", + "TSHR": "This gene plays an important role in the regulation of thyroid cell metabolism.", + "U2AF1": "This gene is involved in the splicing of mRNA.", + "UBB": "This gene is involved in ubiquitin-dependent proteolysis.", + "UBR5": "This gene plays a role in protein ubiquitination.", + "USP6": "This gene is involved in the regulation of cellular ubiquitination. It also plays a role in promoting the recycling of endocytic vesicles to the plasma membrane.", + "USP8": "This gene plays a role in ubiquitin-dependent proteolysis and cell proliferation.", + "VAV1": "This gene plays a role in signal transduction. It is involved in the development and activation of both B cells and T cells.", + "VHL": "This gene is involved in transcriptional repression and protein degradation.", + "VTI1A": "This gene is involved in vesicular transport.", + "WAS": "This gene is involved in signal transduction and plays a role in cell communication and organization.", + "WDCP": "This gene plays a role in binding to tyrosine-protein kinase HCK.", + "WIF1": "This gene plays a role in Wnt protein-dependent signaling.", + "WNK2": "This gene plays a role in electrolyte homeostasis, cell signaling, cell survival, and cellular proliferation.", + "WRN": "This gene is involved in DNA repair and the unwinding of DNA.", + "WT1": "This gene plays a role in regulation of transcription. It is involved in the control of both cell differentiation and proliferation.", + "WWTR1": "This gene is involved in regulation of transcription. It is involved in fetal/neonatal cardiac and muscle development.", + "XPA": "This gene facilitates DNA binding in repair processes and is associated with the disease xeroderma pigmentosum complementation group A.", + "XPC": "This gene is involved in nucleotide excision repair.", + "XPO1": "This gene plays a role in the regulation of nuclear export.", + "YWHAE": "This gene plays a role in signaling.", + "ZBTB16": "This gene plays a role in apoptosis and regulation of transcription. It is also involved in cell organization/biogenesis and megakaryocytic development.", + "ZCCHC8": "This gene plays a role in RNA binding.", + "ZEB1": "This gene is involved in the transcriptional repression of interleukin 2.", + "ZEB2": "This gene is involved in regulation of transcription.", + "ZFHX3": "This gene is involved in myoblast and neuronal differentiation.", + "ZMYM3": "This gene is involved in chromatin modification.", + "ZNF198": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional modulation.", + "ZNF331": "This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.", + "ZNF384": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and DNA binding.", + "ZNF429": "This gene may play a role in the regulation of gene transcription.", + "ZNF444": "This gene is involved in both transcriptional regulation and DNA binding.", + "ZNF479": "This gene may play a role in the regulation of gene transcription.", + "ZNF521": "This gene plays a role in both the positive and negative regulation of transcription.", + "ZNRF3": "This gene is involved in protein ubiquitination and Wnt pathway inhibition.", + "ZRSR2": "This gene is involved in mRNA processing.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "specialized_molecular_test": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe a specific test that is not covered in the list of molecular analysis methods.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "staining_intensity_scale": { + "column_description": "The scale used by the immunohistochemistry staining rating.", + "value_data": { + "3 Point Scale": "", + "4 Point Scale": "" + } + }, + "staining_intensity_value": { + "column_description": "The degree or magnitude of staining by a dye or reagent within a microscopic specimen.", + "value_data": { + "0": "A measurement of the amount or proportion of tissue or cells that have a staining intensity of 0.", + "1+": "A measurement of the amount or proportion of tissue or cells that have a staining intensity of 1+", + "2+": "A measurement of the amount or proportion of tissue or cells that have a staining intensity of 2+", + "3+": "A measurement of the amount or proportion of tissue or cells that have a staining intensity of 3+", + "4+": "A measurement of the amount or proportion of tissue or cells that have a staining intensity of 4+" + } + }, + "test_analyte_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of analyte used for molecular testing.", + "value_data": { + "DNA": "A long linear double-stranded polymer formed from nucleotides attached to a deoxyribose backbone and found in the nucleus of a cell; associated with the transmission of genetic information.", + "miRNA": "A sequence of single-stranded RNA, that is 20-25 nucleotides in length, which is transcribed from DNA but is not translated into a protein. This nucleic acid may regulate the transcription or translation of other genes.", + "mRNA": "A class of RNA molecule containing protein-coding information in its nucleotide sequence that can be translated into the amino acid sequence of a protein.", + "Protein": "A group of complex organic macromolecules composed of one or more chains (linear polymers) of alpha-L-amino acids linked by peptide bonds and ranging in size from a few thousand to over 1 million Daltons. Proteins are fundamental genetically encoded components of living cells with specific structures and functions dictated by amino acid sequence.", + "Total RNA": "A biological sample comprised of all of the RNA collected from an experimental subject.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "test_result": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the result of the molecular test. If the test result was a numeric value see test_value.", + "value_data": { + "Abnormal, NOS": "A laboratory test result that falls outside of the normal, acceptable range.", + "Amplified": "", + "Copy Number Reported": "The number of molecules of a particular type on or in a cell or part of a cell. Usually applied to specific genes or to plasmids within a bacterium.", + "Elevated": "", + "Equivocal": "", + "High": "", + "Intermediate": "", + "Loss of Expression": "An indication that expression of a gene, RNA species or protein is not detected in a sample.", + "Low": "", + "Mitotic Count Reported": "", + "Negative": "A finding of normality following an examination or investigation looking for the presence of a microorganism, disease, or condition.", + "Normal": "Being approximately average or within certain limits; conforming with or constituting a norm or standard or level or type or social norm.", + "Not Amplified": "", + "Overexpressed": "Synthesis of excess polypeptide within the cell. Overexpression is often due to the amplification or deregulation of the gene which encodes the gene product.", + "Positive": "A finding of abnormality following an examination or observation confirming something, such as the presence of a disease, condition, or microorganism.", + "Stable": "", + "Staining Intensity Value Reported": "", + "Test Value Reported": "An indication as to whether a test value has been reported or recorded.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "test_units": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the units of the test value for a molecular test. This property is used in conjunction with test_value.", + "value_data": { + "cells/mL": "", + "g/dL": "", + "g/L": "", + "mcg/L": "", + "mcg/mL": "", + "mg/24 hr": "", + "mg/dL": "", + "mg/L": "", + "mm^2": "", + "mmol/L": "", + "mU/mol Hb": "", + "ng/mL": "", + "percent": "", + "U/g Hb": "", + "U/L": "", + "U/mL": "", + "ukat/L": "", + "umol/L": "", + "x10^3 cells/mcL": "", + "x10^9 cells/L": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "test_value": { + "column_description": "The text term or numeric value used to describe a specific result of a molecular test.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "test_value_range": { + "column_description": "The range of values within which the subject's results fall.", + "value_data": { + "0-25": "", + "26-50": "", + "51-75": "", + "76-100": "", + "<10%": "", + "10-19%": "", + "20-29%": "", + "30-39%": "", + "40-49%": "", + "50-59%": "", + "60-69%": "", + "70-79%": "", + "80-89%": "", + "90-99%": "", + "<1%": "", + "1-49%": "", + ">=50%": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "transcript": { + "column_description": "Alphanumeric value used to describe the transcript of a specific genetic variant.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "variant_origin": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the biological origin of a specific genetic variant.", + "value_data": { + "Germline": "Any mutation that appears in the gametes and which will therefore be transmitted to the progeny with some frequency.", + "Somatic": "Any mutation with an origin in cells that are not destined to become gametes. As a consequence, such mutations are not transmitted to progeny, though they will be transmitted during any mitosis within the individual. Somatic mutations may contribute to a broad variety of pathologies including cancer.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "variant_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of genetic variation.", + "value_data": { + "Alleles": "Mutually exclusive alternative forms of the same gene occupying the same locus on homologous chromosomes, differing in nucleotide sequence and governing the same biochemical and developmental process.", + "Amplification": "An increase in the copy number of a particular gene. This type of abnormality can be either inherited or somatic.", + "Chrimerism": "The occurrence in an individual of two or more cell populations of different chromosomal constitutions, derived from different individuals. This contrasts with mosaicism in which the different cell populations are derived from a single individual.", + "Conversion": "A rearrangement where nonreciprocal transfer of genetic information between two sites in the genome lead to the deletion of one sequence and the duplication of the transferred sequence.", + "Deletion": "Any rearrangement to the genomic content that results in the loss of one or more nucleotides of DNA. Deletions are generally irreversible rearrangements. They may alter the reading frame of a gene, or may result in loss of large chromosomal regions.", + "Deletion-Insertion": "A change in a nucleotide sequence where nucleotides in a reference sequence are replaced by other nucleotides and which is not a substitution, inversion or conversion.", + "Duplication": "Generation of an extra copy of a particular gene in the genome. A gene duplication abnormality may occur by gene amplification, random breakage and reunion, retrotransposition or unequal crossing-over at meiosis. A gene duplication abnormality can be either heritable or somatic.", + "Extension": "A mutation occurring within the stop codon of a gene that results in a sequence that no longer encodes a stop codon and results in the transcription of non-coding regions downstream of the gene.", + "Fusion": "", + "Gain": "Gain; to increase or the amount of increase.", + "Genetic Polymorphism": "", + "Hypermethylation": "Hypermethylation appears to be a controlled, epigenetic, heritable, and aberrant DNA methylation reaction on gene promoter regions and CpG islands associated with loss of (e.g., tumor-suppressor) gene function in diverse cellular pathways through transcriptional silencing by the formation of transcriptionally repressive chromatin.", + "Insertion": "Any rearrangement to the genomic content that adds one or more extra nucleotides into the DNA. Insertions may be reversible, particulary if caused by transposable elements. They may alter the reading frame of a gene, or may cause large scale additions of genomic DNA.", + "Internal Tandem Duplication": "", + "Inversion": "A structural change in genomic DNA where the 5' to 3' order of a nucleotide sequence is completely reversed to the 3' to 5' order relative to its adjacent sequences. This inversion is termed either pericentric, if it includes the centromere of a chromosome, or pancentric, if it excludes the centromere. An inversion mutation abnormality may be heritable or occur somatically.", + "Loss": "A gradual decline in amount or activity.", + "Methylation": "The covalent chemical or biochemical addition of a methyl group(s) to a compound. (NCI)", + "Mosaicism": "The presence of more than one genetically distinct cell line in germ and/or somatic cells.", + "Mutation, NOS": "", + "Partial Methylation": "An indication that 10-90% of the CpG islands in a gene or gene promoter have detectable methylation.", + "Rearrangement": "Any change in the structure of one or more chromosomes.", + "Repeated Sequences": "Nucleotide sequences present in multiple copies in the genome. There are several types of repeated sequences. Interspersed (or dispersed) DNA repeats (Interspersed Repetitive Sequences) are copies of transposable elements interspersed throughout the genome. Flanking (or terminal) repeats (Terminal Repeat Sequences) are sequences that are repeated on both ends of a sequence, for example, the long terminal repeats (LTRs) on retroviruses. Direct terminal repeats are in the same direction and inverted terminal repeats are opposite to each other in direction. Tandem repeats (Tandem Repeat Sequences) are repeated copies which lie adjacent to each other. These can also be direct or inverted. The ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA genes belong to the class of middle repetitive DNA.", + "Splice": "Any mutation that occurs within the discrete sequences comprising the 5' or 3' splice sites of a gene that has a spliced message. Splice-site mutation may result in a deletion or insertion of extraneous amino acids in the gene product or a change in the reading frame of the spliced message.", + "Substitution": "A point mutation occurring within the protein-coding region of a gene, and which codes for a different amino acid than expected.", + "Translocation": "A genetic exchange where a piece of one chromosome is transferred to another chromosome.", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "zygosity": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the zygosity of a specific genetic variant.", + "value_data": { + "Hemizygous": "Having only one copy of a particular gene or genetic region.", + "Heterozygous": "Having two different allelic forms of a gene, one inherited from each parent, on each of the two homologous chromosomes.", + "Homozygous": "Having two identical allelic forms of a gene, one inherited from each parent, on each of the two homologous chromosomes.", + "Nullizygous": "Having no copies, or nonfunctional copies, of a particular gene or genetic region.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "submitted_tangent_copy_numbers": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "project": { + "column_description": "Study name of the project.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "bcr_id": { + "column_description": "TCGA-provided BCR id.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "raw_methylation_arrays": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "proc_internal": { + "column_description": "Internal data processing flag", + "value_data": { + "dna-seq skip": "" + } + }, + "adverse_event": { + "column_description": "Text that represents the Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events low level term name for an adverse event.", + "value_data": { + "Abdominal Distension": "", + "Abdominal Infection": "", + "Abdominal Pain": "", + "Abdominal Soft Tissue Necrosis": "", + "Abducens Nerve Disorder": "", + "Accessory Nerve Disorder": "", + "Acidosis": "", + "Acoustic Nerve Disorder NOS": "", + "Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time Prolonged": "", + "Acute Coronary Syndrome": "", + "Acute Kidney Injury": "", + "Adrenal Insufficiency": "", + "Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome": "", + "Agitation": "", + "Akathisia": "", + "Alanine Aminotransferase Increased": "", + "Alcohol Intolerance": "", + "Alkaline Phosphatase Increased": "", + "Alkalosis": "", + "Allergic Reaction": "", + "Allergic Rhinitis": "", + "Alopecia": "", + "Amnesia": "", + "Anal Fistula": "", + "Anal Hemorrhage": "", + "Anal Mucositis": "", + "Anal Necrosis": "", + "Anal Pain": "", + "Anal Stenosis": "", + "Anal Ulcer": "", + "Anaphylaxis": "", + "Anemia": "", + "Ankle Fracture": "", + "Anorectal Infection": "", + "Anorexia": "", + "Anorgasmia": "", + "Anxiety": "", + "Aortic Injury": "", + "Aortic Valve Disease": "", + "Aphonia": "", + "Apnea": "", + "Appendicitis": "", + "Appendicitis Perforated": "", + "Arachnoiditis": "", + "Arterial Injury": "", + "Arteritis Infective": "", + "Arthralgia": "", + "Arthritis": "", + "Ascites": "", + "Aspartate Aminotransferase Increased": "", + "Aspiration": "", + "Asystole": "", + "Ataxia": "", + "Atelectasis": "", + "Atrial Fibrillation": "", + "Atrial Flutter": "", + "Atrioventricular Block Complete": "", + "Atrioventricular Block First Degree": "", + "Autoimmune Disorder": "", + "Avascular Necrosis": "", + "Azoospermia": "", + "Back Pain": "", + "Bile Duct Stenosis": "", + "Biliary Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Biliary Fistula": "", + "Biliary Tract Infection": "", + "Bladder Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Bladder Infection": "", + "Bladder Perforation": "", + "Bladder Spasm": "", + "Bloating": "", + "Blood and Lymphatic System Disorders - Other": "", + "Blood Antidiuretic Hormone Abnormal": "", + "Blood Bilirubin Increased": "", + "Blood Corticotrophin Decreased": "", + "Blood Gonadotrophin Abnormal": "", + "Blood Prolactin Abnormal": "", + "Blurred Vision": "", + "Body Odor": "", + "Bone Infection": "", + "Bone Marrow Hypocellular": "", + "Bone Pain": "", + "Brachial Plexopathy": "", + "Breast Atrophy": "", + "Breast Infection": "", + "Breast Pain": "", + "Bronchial Fistula": "", + "Bronchial Infection": "", + "Bronchial Obstruction": "", + "Bronchial Stricture": "", + "Bronchopleural Fistula": "", + "Bronchopulmonary Hemorrhage": "", + "Bronchospasm": "", + "Bruising": "", + "Bullous Dermatitis": "", + "Burn": "", + "Buttock Pain": "", + "Capillary Leak Syndrome": "", + "Carbon Monoxide Diffusing Capacity Decreased": "", + "Cardiac Arrest": "", + "Cardiac Disorders - Other": "", + "Cardiac Troponin I Increased": "", + "Cardiac Troponin T Increased": "", + "Cataract": "", + "Catheter Related Infection": "", + "CD4 Lymphocytes Decreased": "", + "Cecal Hemorrhage": "", + "Cecal Infection": "", + "Central Nervous System Necrosis": "", + "Cerebrospinal Fluid Leakage": "", + "Cervicitis Infection": "", + "Cheilitis": "", + "Chest Pain - Cardiac": "", + "Chest Wall Pain": "", + "Chills": "", + "Cholecystitis": "", + "Cholesterol High": "", + "Chronic Kidney Disease": "", + "Chylothorax": "", + "Cognitive Disturbance": "", + "Colitis": "", + "Colonic Fistula": "", + "Colonic Hemorrhage": "", + "Colonic Obstruction": "", + "Colonic Perforation": "", + "Colonic Stenosis": "", + "Colonic Ulcer": "", + "Concentration Impairment": "", + "Conduction Disorder": "", + "Confusion": "", + "Congenital, Familial and Genetic Disorders - Other": "", + "Conjunctivitis": "", + "Conjunctivitis Infective": "", + "Constipation": "", + "Constrictive Pericarditis": "", + "Corneal Infection": "", + "Corneal Ulcer": "", + "Cough": "", + "CPK Increased": "", + "Cranial Nerve Infection": "", + "Creatinine Increased": "", + "Cushingoid": "", + "Cystitis Noninfective": "", + "Cytokine Release Syndrome": "", + "Death Neonatal": "", + "Death NOS": "", + "Dehydration": "", + "Delayed Orgasm": "", + "Delayed Puberty": "", + "Delirium": "", + "Delusions": "", + "Dental Caries": "", + "Depressed Level of Consciousness": "", + "Depression": "", + "Dermatitis Radiation": "", + "Device Related Infection": "", + "Diarrhea": "", + "Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation": "", + "Dizziness": "", + "Dry Eye": "", + "Dry Mouth": "", + "Dry Skin": "", + "Duodenal Fistula": "", + "Duodenal Hemorrhage": "", + "Duodenal Infection": "", + "Duodenal Obstruction": "", + "Duodenal Perforation": "", + "Duodenal Stenosis": "", + "Duodenal Ulcer": "", + "Dysarthria": "", + "Dysesthesia": "", + "Dysgeusia": "", + "Dysmenorrhea": "", + "Dyspareunia": "", + "Dyspepsia": "", + "Dysphagia": "", + "Dysphasia": "", + "Dyspnea": "", + "Ear and Labyrinth Disorders - Other": "", + "Ear Pain": "", + "Edema Cerebral": "", + "Edema Face": "", + "Edema Limbs": "", + "Edema Trunk": "", + "Ejaculation Disorder": "", + "Ejection Fraction Decreased": "", + "Electrocardiogram QT Corrected Interval Prolonged": "", + "Encephalitis Infection": "", + "Encephalomyelitis Infection": "", + "Encephalopathy": "", + "Endocarditis Infective": "", + "Endocrine Disorders - Other": "", + "Endophthalmitis": "", + "Enterocolitis": "", + "Enterocolitis Infectious": "", + "Enterovesical Fistula": "", + "Epistaxis": "", + "Erectile Dysfunction": "", + "Erythema Multiforme": "", + "Erythroderma": "", + "Esophageal Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Esophageal Fistula": "", + "Esophageal Hemorrhage": "", + "Esophageal Infection": "", + "Esophageal Necrosis": "", + "Esophageal Obstruction": "", + "Esophageal Pain": "", + "Esophageal Perforation": "", + "Esophageal Stenosis": "", + "Esophageal Ulcer": "", + "Esophageal Varices Hemorrhage": "", + "Esophagitis": "", + "Euphoria": "", + "Exostosis": "", + "External Ear Inflammation": "", + "External Ear Pain": "", + "Extraocular Muscle Paresis": "", + "Extrapyramidal Disorder": "", + "Eye Disorders - Other": "", + "Eye Infection": "", + "Eye Pain": "", + "Eyelid Function Disorder": "", + "Facial Muscle Weakness": "", + "Facial Nerve Disorder": "", + "Facial Pain": "", + "Fall": "", + "Fallopian Tube Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Fallopian Tube Obstruction": "", + "Fallopian Tube Perforation": "", + "Fallopian Tube Stenosis": "", + "Fat Atrophy": "", + "Fatigue": "", + "Febrile Neutropenia": "", + "Fecal Incontinence": "", + "Female Genital Tract Fistula": "", + "Feminization Acquired": "", + "Fetal Death": "", + "Fetal Growth Retardation": "", + "Fever": "", + "Fibrinogen Decreased": "", + "Fibrosis Deep Connective Tissue": "", + "Flank Pain": "", + "Flashing Lights": "", + "Flatulence": "", + "Floaters": "", + "Flu Like Symptoms": "", + "Flushing": "", + "Forced Expiratory Volume Decreased": "", + "Fracture": "", + "Gait Disturbance": "", + "Gallbladder Fistula": "", + "Gallbladder Infection": "", + "Gallbladder Necrosis": "", + "Gallbladder Obstruction": "", + "Gallbladder Pain": "", + "Gallbladder Perforation": "", + "Gastric Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Gastric Fistula": "", + "Gastric Hemorrhage": "", + "Gastric Necrosis": "", + "Gastric Perforation": "", + "Gastric Stenosis": "", + "Gastric Ulcer": "", + "Gastritis": "", + "Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease": "", + "Gastrointestinal Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Gastrointestinal Disorders - Other": "", + "Gastrointestinal Fistula": "", + "Gastrointestinal Pain": "", + "Gastrointestinal Stoma Necrosis": "", + "Gastroparesis": "", + "General Disorders and Administration Site Conditions - Other": "", + "Generalized Muscle Weakness": "", + "Genital Edema": "", + "GGT Increased": "", + "Gingival Pain": "", + "Glaucoma": "", + "Glossopharyngeal Nerve Disorder": "", + "Glucose Intolerance": "", + "Growth Accelerated": "", + "Growth Hormone Abnormal": "", + "Growth Suppression": "", + "Gum Infection": "", + "Gynecomastia": "", + "Hallucinations": "", + "Haptoglobin Decreased": "", + "Head Soft Tissue Necrosis": "", + "Headache": "", + "Hearing Impaired": "", + "Heart Failure": "", + "Hematoma": "", + "Hematosalpinx": "", + "Hematuria": "", + "Hemoglobin Increased": "", + "Hemoglobinuria": "", + "Hemolysis": "", + "Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome": "", + "Hemorrhoidal Hemorrhage": "", + "Hemorrhoids": "", + "Hepatic Failure": "", + "Hepatic Hemorrhage": "", + "Hepatic Infection": "", + "Hepatic Necrosis": "", + "Hepatic Pain": "", + "Hepatitis Viral": "", + "Hepatobiliary Disorders - Other": "", + "Hiccups": "", + "Hip Fracture": "", + "Hirsutism": "", + "Hoarseness": "", + "Hot Flashes": "", + "Hydrocephalus": "", + "Hypercalcemia": "", + "Hyperglycemia": "", + "Hyperhidrosis": "", + "Hyperkalemia": "", + "Hypermagnesemia": "", + "Hypernatremia": "", + "Hyperparathyroidism": "", + "Hypersomnia": "", + "Hypertension": "", + "Hyperthyroidism": "", + "Hypertrichosis": "", + "Hypertriglyceridemia": "", + "Hyperuricemia": "", + "Hypoalbuminemia": "", + "Hypocalcemia": "", + "Hypoglossal Nerve Disorder": "", + "Hypoglycemia": "", + "Hypohidrosis": "", + "Hypokalemia": "", + "Hypomagnesemia": "", + "Hyponatremia": "", + "Hypoparathyroidism": "", + "Hypophosphatemia": "", + "Hypotension": "", + "Hypothermia": "", + "Hypothyroidism": "", + "Hypoxia": "", + "Ileal Fistula": "", + "Ileal Hemorrhage": "", + "Ileal Obstruction": "", + "Ileal Perforation": "", + "Ileal Stenosis": "", + "Ileal Ulcer": "", + "Ileus": "", + "Immune System Disorders - Other": "", + "Infections and Infestations - Other": "", + "Infective Myositis": "", + "Infusion Related Reaction": "", + "Infusion Site Extravasation": "", + "Injection Site Reaction": "", + "Injury to Carotid Artery": "", + "Injury to Inferior Vena Cava": "", + "Injury to Jugular Vein": "", + "Injury to Superior Vena Cava": "", + "Injury, Poisoning and Procedural Complications - Other": "", + "INR Increased": "", + "Insomnia": "", + "Intestinal Stoma Leak": "", + "Intestinal Stoma Obstruction": "", + "Intestinal Stoma Site Bleeding": "", + "Intra-Abdominal Hemorrhage": "", + "Intracranial Hemorrhage": "", + "Intraoperative Arterial Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Breast Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Cardiac Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Ear Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Endocrine Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Gastrointestinal Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Head and Neck Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Hemorrhage": "", + "Intraoperative Hepatobiliary Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Musculoskeletal Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Neurological Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Ocular Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Renal Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Reproductive Tract Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Respiratory Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Skin Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Splenic Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Urinary Injury": "", + "Intraoperative Venous Injury": "", + "Investigations - Other": "", + "Iron Overload": "", + "Irregular Menstruation": "", + "Irritability": "", + "Ischemia Cerebrovascular": "", + "IVth Nerve Disorder": "", + "Jejunal Fistula": "", + "Jejunal Hemorrhage": "", + "Jejunal Obstruction": "", + "Jejunal Perforation": "", + "Jejunal Stenosis": "", + "Jejunal Ulcer": "", + "Joint Effusion": "", + "Joint Infection": "", + "Joint Range of Motion Decreased": "", + "Joint Range of Motion Decreased Cervical Spine": "", + "Joint Range of Motion Decreased Lumbar Spine": "", + "Keratitis": "", + "Kidney Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Kidney Infection": "", + "Kyphosis": "", + "Lactation Disorder": "", + "Large Intestinal Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Laryngeal Edema": "", + "Laryngeal Fistula": "", + "Laryngeal Hemorrhage": "", + "Laryngeal Inflammation": "", + "Laryngeal Mucositis": "", + "Laryngeal Obstruction": "", + "Laryngeal Stenosis": "", + "Laryngitis": "", + "Laryngopharyngeal Dysesthesia": "", + "Laryngospasm": "", + "Left Ventricular Systolic Dysfunction": "", + "Lethargy": "", + "Leukemia Secondary to Oncology Chemotherapy": "", + "Leukocytosis": "", + "Leukoencephalopathy": "", + "Libido Decreased": "", + "Libido Increased": "", + "Lip Infection": "", + "Lip Pain": "", + "Lipase Increased": "", + "Lipohypertrophy": "", + "Localized Edema": "", + "Lordosis": "", + "Lower Gastrointestinal Hemorrhage": "", + "Lung Infection": "", + "Lymph Gland Infection": "", + "Lymph Leakage": "", + "Lymph Node Pain": "", + "Lymphedema": "", + "Lymphocele": "", + "Lymphocyte Count Decreased": "", + "Lymphocyte Count Increased": "", + "Malabsorption": "", + "Malaise": "", + "Mania": "", + "Mediastinal Hemorrhage": "", + "Mediastinal Infection": "", + "Memory Impairment": "", + "Meningismus": "", + "Meningitis": "", + "Menopause": "", + "Menorrhagia": "", + "Metabolism and Nutrition Disorders - Other": "", + "Middle Ear Inflammation": "", + "Mitral Valve Disease": "", + "Mobitz (Type) II Atrioventricular Block": "", + "Mobitz Type I": "", + "Movements Involuntary": "", + "Mucosal Infection": "", + "Mucositis Oral": "", + "Multi-Organ Failure": "", + "Muscle Weakness Left-Sided": "", + "Muscle Weakness Lower Limb": "", + "Muscle Weakness Right-Sided": "", + "Muscle Weakness Trunk": "", + "Muscle Weakness Upper Limb": "", + "Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue Disorders - Other": "", + "Musculoskeletal Deformity": "", + "Myalgia": "", + "Myelitis": "", + "Myelodysplastic Syndrome": "", + "Myocardial Infarction": "", + "Myocarditis": "", + "Myositis": "", + "Nail Discoloration": "", + "Nail Infection": "", + "Nail Loss": "", + "Nail Ridging": "", + "Nasal Congestion": "", + "Nausea": "", + "Neck Edema": "", + "Neck Pain": "", + "Neck Soft Tissue Necrosis": "", + "Neoplasms Benign, Malignant and Unspecified (Incl Cysts and Polyps) - Other": "", + "Nervous System Disorders - Other": "", + "Neuralgia": "", + "Neutrophil Count Decreased": "", + "Night Blindness": "", + "Nipple Deformity": "", + "Non-Cardiac Chest Pain": "", + "Nystagmus": "", + "Obesity": "", + "Obstruction Gastric": "", + "Oculomotor Nerve Disorder": "", + "Olfactory Nerve Disorder": "", + "Oligospermia": "", + "Optic Nerve Disorder": "", + "Oral Cavity Fistula": "", + "Oral Dysesthesia": "", + "Oral Hemorrhage": "", + "Oral Pain": "", + "Osteonecrosis of Jaw": "", + "Osteoporosis": "", + "Otitis Externa": "", + "Otitis Media": "", + "Ovarian Hemorrhage": "", + "Ovarian Infection": "", + "Ovarian Rupture": "", + "Ovulation Pain": "", + "Pain": "", + "Pain in Extremity": "", + "Pain of Skin": "", + "Palmar-Plantar Erythrodysesthesia Syndrome": "", + "Palpitations": "", + "Pancreas Infection": "", + "Pancreatic Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Pancreatic Duct Stenosis": "", + "Pancreatic Enzymes Decreased": "", + "Pancreatic Fistula": "", + "Pancreatic Hemorrhage": "", + "Pancreatic Necrosis": "", + "Pancreatitis": "", + "Papilledema": "", + "Papulopustular Rash": "", + "Paresthesia": "", + "Paronychia": "", + "Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia": "", + "Pelvic Floor Muscle Weakness": "", + "Pelvic Infection": "", + "Pelvic Pain": "", + "Pelvic Soft Tissue Necrosis": "", + "Penile Infection": "", + "Penile Pain": "", + "Perforation Bile Duct": "", + "Pericardial Effusion": "", + "Pericardial Tamponade": "", + "Pericarditis": "", + "Perineal Pain": "", + "Periodontal Disease": "", + "Periorbital Edema": "", + "Periorbital Infection": "", + "Peripheral Ischemia": "", + "Peripheral Motor Neuropathy": "", + "Peripheral Nerve Infection": "", + "Peripheral Sensory Neuropathy": "", + "Peritoneal Infection": "", + "Peritoneal Necrosis": "", + "Personality Change": "", + "Phantom Pain": "", + "Pharyngeal Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Pharyngeal Fistula": "", + "Pharyngeal Hemorrhage": "", + "Pharyngeal Mucositis": "", + "Pharyngeal Necrosis": "", + "Pharyngeal Stenosis": "", + "Pharyngitis": "", + "Pharyngolaryngeal Pain": "", + "Phlebitis": "", + "Phlebitis Infective": "", + "Photophobia": "", + "Photosensitivity": "", + "Platelet Count Decreased": "", + "Pleural Effusion": "", + "Pleural Hemorrhage": "", + "Pleural Infection": "", + "Pleuritic Pain": "", + "Pneumonitis": "", + "Pneumothorax": "", + "Portal Hypertension": "", + "Portal Vein Thrombosis": "", + "Postnasal Drip": "", + "Postoperative Hemorrhage": "", + "Postoperative Thoracic Procedure Complication": "", + "Precocious Puberty": "", + "Pregnancy, Puerperium and Perinatal Conditions - Other": "", + "Premature Delivery": "", + "Premature Menopause": "", + "Presyncope": "", + "Proctitis": "", + "Productive Cough": "", + "Prolapse of Intestinal Stoma": "", + "Prolapse of Urostomy": "", + "Prostate Infection": "", + "Prostatic Hemorrhage": "", + "Prostatic Obstruction": "", + "Prostatic Pain": "", + "Proteinuria": "", + "Pruritus": "", + "Psychiatric Disorders - Other": "", + "Psychosis": "", + "Pulmonary Edema": "", + "Pulmonary Fibrosis": "", + "Pulmonary Fistula": "", + "Pulmonary Hypertension": "", + "Pulmonary Valve Disease": "", + "Purpura": "", + "Pyramidal Tract Syndrome": "", + "Radiation Recall Reaction (Dermatologic)": "", + "Radiculitis": "", + "Rash Acneiform": "", + "Rash Maculo-Papular": "", + "Rash Pustular": "", + "Rectal Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Rectal Fistula": "", + "Rectal Hemorrhage": "", + "Rectal Mucositis": "", + "Rectal Necrosis": "", + "Rectal Obstruction": "", + "Rectal Pain": "", + "Rectal Perforation": "", + "Rectal Stenosis": "", + "Rectal Ulcer": "", + "Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Palsy": "", + "Renal and Urinary Disorders - Other": "", + "Renal Calculi": "", + "Renal Colic": "", + "Renal Hemorrhage": "", + "Reproductive System and Breast Disorders - Other": "", + "Respiratory Failure": "", + "Respiratory, Thoracic and Mediastinal Disorders - Other": "", + "Restlessness": "", + "Restrictive Cardiomyopathy": "", + "Retinal Detachment": "", + "Retinal Tear": "", + "Retinal Vascular Disorder": "", + "Retinoic Acid Syndrome": "", + "Retinopathy": "", + "Retroperitoneal Hemorrhage": "", + "Reversible Posterior Leukoencephalopathy Syndrome": "", + "Rhinitis Infective": "", + "Right Ventricular Dysfunction": "", + "Salivary Duct Inflammation": "", + "Salivary Gland Fistula": "", + "Salivary Gland Infection": "", + "Scalp Pain": "", + "Scleral Disorder": "", + "Scoliosis": "", + "Scrotal Infection": "", + "Scrotal Pain": "", + "Seizure": "", + "Sepsis": "", + "Seroma": "", + "Serum Amylase Increased": "", + "Serum Sickness": "", + "Sick Sinus Syndrome": "", + "Sinus Bradycardia": "", + "Sinus Disorder": "", + "Sinus Pain": "", + "Sinus Tachycardia": "", + "Sinusitis": "", + "Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue Disorders - Other": "", + "Skin Atrophy": "", + "Skin Hyperpigmentation": "", + "Skin Hypopigmentation": "", + "Skin Induration": "", + "Skin Infection": "", + "Skin Ulceration": "", + "Sleep Apnea": "", + "Small Intestinal Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Small Intestinal Mucositis": "", + "Small Intestinal Obstruction": "", + "Small Intestinal Perforation": "", + "Small Intestinal Stenosis": "", + "Small Intestine Infection": "", + "Small Intestine Ulcer": "", + "Sneezing": "", + "Social Circumstances - Other": "", + "Soft Tissue Infection": "", + "Soft Tissue Necrosis Lower Limb": "", + "Soft Tissue Necrosis Upper Limb": "", + "Somnolence": "", + "Sore Throat": "", + "Spasticity": "", + "Spermatic Cord Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Spermatic Cord Hemorrhage": "", + "Spermatic Cord Obstruction": "", + "Spinal Fracture": "", + "Spleen Disorder": "", + "Splenic Infection": "", + "Stenosis of Gastrointestinal Stoma": "", + "Stevens-Johnson Syndrome": "", + "Stoma Site Infection": "", + "Stomach Pain": "", + "Stomal Ulcer": "", + "Stridor": "", + "Stroke": "", + "Sudden Death NOS": "", + "Suicidal Ideation": "", + "Suicide Attempt": "", + "Superficial Soft Tissue Fibrosis": "", + "Superficial Thrombophlebitis": "", + "Superior Vena Cava Syndrome": "", + "Supraventricular Tachycardia": "", + "Surgical and Medical Procedures - Other": "", + "Syncope": "", + "Telangiectasia": "", + "Testicular Disorder": "", + "Testicular Hemorrhage": "", + "Testicular Pain": "", + "Thromboembolic Event": "", + "Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura": "", + "Tinnitus": "", + "Tooth Development Disorder": "", + "Tooth Discoloration": "", + "Tooth Infection": "", + "Toothache": "", + "Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis": "", + "Tracheal Fistula": "", + "Tracheal Hemorrhage": "", + "Tracheal Mucositis": "", + "Tracheal Obstruction": "", + "Tracheal Stenosis": "", + "Tracheitis": "", + "Tracheostomy Site Bleeding": "", + "Transient Ischemic Attacks": "", + "Treatment Related Secondary Malignancy": "", + "Tremor": "", + "Tricuspid Valve Disease": "", + "Trigeminal Nerve Disorder": "", + "Trismus": "", + "Tumor Lysis Syndrome": "", + "Tumor Pain": "", + "Typhlitis": "", + "Unequal Limb Length": "", + "Unintended Pregnancy": "", + "Upper Gastrointestinal Hemorrhage": "", + "Upper Respiratory Infection": "", + "Ureteric Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Urethral Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Urethral Infection": "", + "Urinary Fistula": "", + "Urinary Frequency": "", + "Urinary Incontinence": "", + "Urinary Retention": "", + "Urinary Tract Infection": "", + "Urinary Tract Obstruction": "", + "Urinary Tract Pain": "", + "Urinary Urgency": "", + "Urine Discoloration": "", + "Urine Output Decreased": "", + "Urostomy Leak": "", + "Urostomy Obstruction": "", + "Urostomy Site Bleeding": "", + "Urostomy Stenosis": "", + "Urticaria": "", + "Uterine Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Uterine Fistula": "", + "Uterine Hemorrhage": "", + "Uterine Infection": "", + "Uterine Obstruction": "", + "Uterine Pain": "", + "Uterine Perforation": "", + "Uveitis": "", + "Vaginal Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Vaginal Discharge": "", + "Vaginal Dryness": "", + "Vaginal Fistula": "", + "Vaginal Hemorrhage": "", + "Vaginal Infection": "", + "Vaginal Inflammation": "", + "Vaginal Obstruction": "", + "Vaginal Pain": "", + "Vaginal Perforation": "", + "Vaginal Stricture": "", + "Vaginismus": "", + "Vagus Nerve Disorder": "", + "Vas Deferens Anastomotic Leak": "", + "Vascular Access Complication": "", + "Vascular Disorders - Other": "", + "Vasculitis": "", + "Vasovagal Reaction": "", + "Venous Injury": "", + "Ventricular Arrhythmia": "", + "Ventricular Fibrillation": "", + "Ventricular Tachycardia": "", + "Vertigo": "", + "Vestibular Disorder": "", + "Virilization": "", + "Visceral Arterial Ischemia": "", + "Vital Capacity Abnormal": "", + "Vitreous Hemorrhage": "", + "Voice Alteration": "", + "Vomiting": "", + "Vulval Infection": "", + "Watering Eyes": "", + "Weight Gain": "", + "Weight Loss": "", + "Wheezing": "", + "White Blood Cell Decreased": "", + "Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome": "", + "Wound Complication": "", + "Wound Dehiscence": "", + "Wound Infection": "", + "Wrist Fracture": "" + } + }, + "adverse_event_grade": { + "column_description": "Numeric representation of the intensity/severity of an unfavorable and unintended sign (including an abnormal laboratory finding), symptom, syndrome, or disease, temporally associated with the use of a medical product or procedure, regardless of whether or not it is considered related to the product or procedure (attribution of unrelated, unlikely, possible, probable, or definite).", + "value_data": { + "Grade 1": "", + "Grade 2": "", + "Grade 3": "", + "Grade 4": "", + "Grade 5": "" + } + }, + "barretts_esophagus_goblet_cells_present": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether goblet cells were determined to be present in a patient diagnosed with Barrett's esophagus.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "cause_of_response": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the suspected cause or reason for the patient disease response.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "comorbidity": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe a comorbidity disease, which coexists with the patient's malignant disease.", + "value_data": { + "Abnormal Glucose Level": "", + "Acute Renal Failure": "", + "Adenocarcinoma": "", + "Adenomatous Polyposis Coli": "", + "Adrenocortical Insufficiency": "", + "Allergies": "", + "Alpha-1 Antitrypsin": "", + "Anemia": "", + "Anxiety": "", + "Arrhythmia": "", + "Arthritis": "", + "Asthma": "", + "Ataxia-telangiectasia": "", + "Atrial Fibrillation": "", + "Autoimmune Lymphoproliferative Syndrome (ALPS)": "", + "Avascular Necrosis": "", + "Bacteroides fragilis": "", + "Barrett's Esophagus": "", + "Basal Cell Carcinoma": "", + "Beckwith-Wiedemann": "", + "Behcet's Disease": "", + "Biliary Disorder": "", + "Blood Clots": "", + "Bone Fracture(s)": "", + "Bronchitis": "", + "Calcium Channel Blockers": "", + "Cancer": "A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.", + "Cataracts": "", + "Celiac Disease": "", + "Cerebrovascular Disease": "", + "Chlamydia": "", + "Chloroma": "", + "Cholelithiasis": "", + "Chronic Fatigue Syndrome": "", + "Chronic Pancreatitis": "", + "Chronic Renal Failure": "", + "Chronic Systemic Steroid Use": "", + "Cirrhosis, Unknown Etiology": "", + "Clonal Hematopoiesis": "", + "CNS Infection": "", + "Colon Polyps": "", + "Common Variable Immunodeficiency": "", + "Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)": "", + "Connective Tissue Disorder": "", + "COPD": "", + "Coronary Artery Disease": "", + "Crohn's Disease": "", + "Cryptococcal Meningitis": "", + "Cryptogenic Organizing Pneumonia": "", + "Cytomegalovirus (CMV)": "", + "Deep Vein Thrombosis / Thromboembolism": "", + "Denys-Drash Syndrome": "", + "Depression": "", + "Dermatomyosis": "", + "Diabetes": "", + "Diabetes, Type II": "", + "Diabetic Neuropathy": "", + "Diet Controlled Diabetes": "", + "Diverticulitis": "", + "Down Syndrome": "", + "DVT/PE": "", + "Dyslipidemia": "", + "EBV Lymphoproliferation": "", + "Eczema": "", + "Epilepsy": "", + "Epstein-Barr Virus": "Any microbiologic test or molecular assay used to detect the presence of Epstein-Barr virus in a sample.", + "Familial Adenomatous Polyposis": "", + "Fanconi Anemia": "", + "Fibromyalgia": "", + "Fibrosis": "", + "Gastritis": "", + "Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease": "", + "GERD": "", + "Glaucoma": "", + "Glycogen Storage Disease": "", + "Gonadal Dysfunction": "", + "Gorlin Syndrome": "", + "Gout": "", + "H. pylori Infection": "", + "Hashimoto's Thyroiditis": "", + "Headache": "", + "Heart Disease": "", + "Hemihypertrophy": "", + "Hemorrhagic Cystitis": "", + "Hepatitis": "", + "Hepatitis A Infection": "", + "Hepatitis B Infection": "", + "Hepatitis C Infection": "", + "Hepatitis, Chronic": "", + "Hereditary Non-polyposis Colon Cancer": "", + "Herpes": "", + "Herpes Zoster": "", + "High Grade Liver Dysplastic Nodule": "", + "HIV / AIDS": "", + "Hodgkin Lymphoma": "", + "Human Papillomavirus Infection": "", + "HUS/TTP": "", + "Hypercalcemia": "", + "Hypercholesterolemia": "", + "Hyperglycemia": "", + "Hyperlipidemia": "", + "Hypertension": "", + "Hypospadias": "", + "Hypothyroidism": "", + "Inflammatory Bowel Disease": "", + "Insulin Controlled Diabetes": "", + "Interstitial Pneumontis or ARDS": "", + "Intraductal Papillary Mucinous Neoplasm": "", + "Iron Overload": "", + "Ischemic Heart Disease": "", + "ITP": "", + "Joint Replacement": "", + "Kidney Disease": "", + "Li-Fraumeni Syndrome": "", + "Liver Cirrhosis (Liver Disease)": "", + "Liver Toxicity (Non-Infectious)": "", + "Low Grade Liver Dysplastic Nodule": "", + "Lupus": "", + "Lymphamatoid Papulosis": "", + "Lymphocytic Meningitis": "", + "Lynch Syndrome": "", + "MAI": "", + "Malaria": "", + "Metabolic Syndrome": "", + "Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)": "", + "Myasthenia Gravis": "", + "Mycobacterium avium Complex": "", + "Myocardial Infarction": "", + "Neuroendocrine Tumor": "", + "Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis": "", + "Obesity": "", + "Organ transplant (site)": "", + "Osteoarthritis": "", + "Osteoporosis or Osteopenia": "", + "Other Cancer Within 5 Years": "", + "Other Nonmalignant Systemic Disease": "", + "Other Pulmonary Complications": "", + "Pain (Various)": "", + "Pancreatitis": "", + "Peptic Ulcer (Ulcer)": "", + "Peripheral Neuropathy": "", + "Peripheral Vascular Disease": "", + "Peutz-Jeghers Disease": "", + "Pneumocystis Pneumonia": "", + "Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)": "", + "Pregnancy in Patient or Partner": "", + "Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis": "", + "Psoriasis": "", + "Pulmonary Fibrosis": "", + "Pulmonary Hemorrhage": "", + "Renal Dialysis": "", + "Renal Failure (Requiring Dialysis)": "", + "Renal Insufficiency": "", + "Rheumatoid Arthritis": "", + "Rheumatologic Disease": "", + "Rubinstein-Taybi Syndrome": "", + "Sarcoidosis": "", + "Seizure": "", + "Shingles": "", + "Sjogren's Syndrome": "", + "Sleep apnea": "", + "Smoking": "", + "Staph Osteomyelitis": "", + "Staphylococcus aureus": "", + "Steatosis": "", + "Stroke": "", + "Syphilis": "", + "Thyroid Disease, Non-Cancer": "", + "Transient Ischemic Attack": "", + "Treponema pallidum": "", + "Tuberculosis": "", + "Turcot Syndrome": "", + "Tyrosinemia": "", + "Ulcerative Colitis": "", + "Urinary Tract Infection": "", + "Varicella Zoster Virus": "", + "Wagr Syndrome": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "days_to_adverse_event": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date of the patient's adverse event.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_first_event": { + "column_description": "The number of days from the index date to the date of the first event.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_follow_up": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date of the patient's last follow-up appointment or contact.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_imaging": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date the imaging or scan was performed on the patient.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_progression": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date the patient's disease progressed.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_progression_free": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date the patient's disease was formally confirmed as progression-free.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_recurrence": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date the patient's disease recurred.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_risk_factor": { + "column_description": "The number of days from the index date to the date the patient was diagnosed with a specific risk factor.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "discontiguous_lesion_count": { + "column_description": "The number of the discontiguous lesions in a new tumor event.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "disease_response": { + "column_description": "Code assigned to describe the patient's response or outcome to the disease.", + "value_data": { + "AJ-Adjuvant Therapy": "", + "BED-Biochemical Evidence of Disease": "", + "CPD-Clinical Progression": "", + "CR-Complete Response": "", + "CRU-Complete Response Unconfirmed": "", + "DU-Disease Unchanged": "", + "IMR-Immunoresponse": "", + "IPD-Immunoprogression": "", + "MR-Minimal/Marginal response": "", + "MX-Mixed Response": "", + "Non-CR/Non-PD-Non-CR/Non-PD": "", + "NPB-No Palliative Benefit": "", + "NR-No Response": "", + "PA-Palliative Therapy": "", + "PB-Palliative Benefit": "", + "PD-Progressive Disease": "", + "PDM-Persistent Distant Metastasis": "", + "PLD-Persistent Locoregional Disease": "", + "PPD-Pseudoprogression": "", + "PR-Partial Response": "", + "PSR-Pseudoresponse": "", + "RD-Responsive Disease": "", + "RP-Response": "", + "RPD-Radiographic Progressive Disease": "", + "sCR-Stringent Complete Response": "", + "SD-Stable Disease": "", + "SPD-Surgical Progression": "", + "TE-Too Early": "", + "TF-Tumor Free": "", + "VGPR-Very Good Partial Response": "", + "WT-With Tumor": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "ecog_performance_status": { + "column_description": "The ECOG functional performance status of the patient/participant.", + "value_data": { + "0": "", + "1": "", + "2": "", + "3": "", + "4": "", + "5": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "evidence_of_progression_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of evidence used to determine whether the patient's disease progressed.", + "value_data": { + "Convincing Image Source": "", + "Histologic Confirmation": "" + } + }, + "evidence_of_recurrence_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of evidence used to determine whether the patient's disease recurred.", + "value_data": { + "Biopsy with Histologic Confirmation": "", + "Convincing Image Source": "", + "Histologic Confirmation": "", + "Physical Examination": "", + "Positive Biomarker(s)": "" + } + }, + "first_event": { + "column_description": "Describes the patient's first event after initial treatment.", + "value_data": { + "Censored": "", + "Death": "", + "Death without Remission": "", + "Event": "", + "Induction Death": "", + "Induction Failure": "", + "None": "", + "Presented with Metastases": "", + "Progression": "", + "Relapse": "", + "Second Malignant Neoplasm": "", + "Other": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "history_of_tumor": { + "column_description": "Indicates whether patient has a history of tumors.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "history_of_tumor_type": { + "column_description": "Describes the type of the patient's prior diagnosed tumor.", + "value_data": { + "Colorectal Cancer": "", + "Lower Grade Glioma": "", + "Phenochromocytoma or Paraganglioma": "" + } + }, + "hpv_positive_type": { + "column_description": "Text classification to represent the strain or type of human papillomavirus identified in an individual.", + "value_data": { + "16": "", + "18": "", + "26": "", + "31": "", + "33": "", + "35": "", + "39": "", + "45": "", + "51": "", + "52": "", + "53": "", + "56": "", + "58": "", + "59": "", + "63": "", + "66": "", + "68": "", + "70": "", + "73": "", + "82": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "imaging_anatomic_site": { + "column_description": "The named location(s) within the body where an image was taken.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "imaging_findings": { + "column_description": "Recorded findings noted during the review of a specific medical image.", + "value_data": { + "Carcinomatosis": "", + "Kidney Involvement": "", + "Liver Involvement": "", + "Lung Involvement": "", + "Normal": "", + "Retroperitoneal Lymph Node Involvement": "", + "Vena Cava Involvement/Thrombus": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "imaging_result": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the result of the imaging or scan performed on the patient.", + "value_data": { + "Indeterminate": "", + "Negative": "A finding of normality following an examination or investigation looking for the presence of a microorganism, disease, or condition.", + "Not Performed": "", + "Positive": "A finding of abnormality following an examination or observation confirming something, such as the presence of a disease, condition, or microorganism.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "imaging_suv": { + "column_description": "The standardized update value (SUV) is the effectively dimensionless measure of regional tracer uptake calculated as the activity concentration within a 2D region of interest (ROI) or 3D volume of interest (VOI) measured on a PET image (nCi1mL) / [injected dose (nCi) / body weight (g)].", + "value_data": {} + }, + "imaging_suv_max": { + "column_description": "The standardized update value (SUV) is the effectively dimensionless measure of regional tracer uptake calculated as the activity concentration within a 2D region of interest (ROI) or 3D volume of interest (VOI) measured on a PET image (nCi1mL) / [injected dose (nCi) / body weight (g)]. Specifically, the maximum SUV recorded for a patient.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "imaging_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of imaging or scan performed on the patient.", + "value_data": { + "99mTc Bone Scintigraphy": "", + "CT Scan": "", + "MRI": "", + "PET": "", + "Ultrasound": "The use of high-frequency sound waves to generate images of the body." + } + }, + "karnofsky_performance_status": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the classification used of the functional capabilities of a person.", + "value_data": { + "0": "", + "10": "", + "20": "", + "30": "", + "40": "", + "50": "", + "60": "", + "70": "", + "80": "", + "90": "", + "100": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "peritoneal_washing_results": { + "column_description": "The results from this minimally invasive procedure that permits sampling of peritoneal fluid for cytopathologic analysis.", + "value_data": { + "Negative": "", + "Positive": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "procedures_performed": { + "column_description": "The type of procedures performed on the patient.", + "value_data": { + "Colonoscopy": "", + "Endoscopy": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "progression_or_recurrence": { + "column_description": "Indicates whether a patient has a progression or recurrence after initial treatment. This can include local, regional, or metastatic disease.", + "value_data": { + "yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "no": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "not reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "progression_or_recurrence_anatomic_site": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the anatomic site of the progressive or recurrent disease.", + "value_data": { + "Abdomen, NOS": "", + "Abdominal esophagus": "", + "Accessory sinus, NOS": "", + "Acoustic nerve": "", + "Adrenal gland, NOS": "", + "Ampulla of Vater": "", + "Anal canal": "", + "Anterior 2/3 of tongue, NOS": "", + "Anterior floor of mouth": "", + "Anterior mediastinum": "", + "Anterior surface of epiglottis": "", + "Anterior wall of bladder": "", + "Anterior wall of nasopharynx": "", + "Anus, NOS": "", + "Aortic body and other paraganglia": "", + "Appendix": "", + "Ascending colon": "", + "Autonomic nervous system, NOS": "", + "Axillary tail of breast": "", + "Base of tongue, NOS": "", + "Biliary tract, NOS": "", + "Bladder neck": "", + "Bladder, NOS": "", + "Blood": "", + "Body of pancreas": "", + "Body of penis": "", + "Body of stomach": "", + "Bone marrow": "The tissue occupying the spaces of bone. It consists of blood vessel sinuses and a network of hematopoietic cells which give rise to the red cells, white cells, and megakaryocytes.", + "Bone of limb, NOS": "", + "Bone, NOS": "", + "Bones of skull and face and associated joints": "", + "Border of tongue": "", + "Brain stem": "", + "Brain, NOS": "", + "Branchial cleft": "", + "Breast, NOS": "", + "Broad ligament": "", + "Cardia, NOS": "", + "Carotid body": "", + "Cauda equina": "", + "Cecum": "", + "Central portion of breast": "", + "Cerebellum, NOS": "", + "Cerebral meninges": "", + "Cerebrum": "", + "Cervical esophagus": "", + "Cervix uteri": "", + "Cheek mucosa": "", + "Choroid": "", + "Ciliary body": "", + "Clitoris": "", + "Cloacogenic zone": "", + "Colon, NOS": "", + "Commissure of lip": "", + "Conjunctiva": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of abdomen": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of head, face, and neck": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of lower limb and hip": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of pelvis": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of thorax": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of trunk, NOS": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of upper limb and shoulder": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues, NOS": "", + "Cornea, NOS": "", + "Corpus uteri": "", + "Cortex of adrenal gland": "", + "Cranial nerve, NOS": "", + "Craniopharyngeal duct": "", + "Descended testis": "", + "Descending colon": "", + "Dome of bladder": "", + "Dorsal surface of tongue, NOS": "", + "Duodenum": "", + "Endocervix": "", + "Endocrine gland, NOS": "", + "Endometrium": "", + "Epididymis": "", + "Esophagus, NOS": "", + "Ethmoid sinus": "", + "Exocervix": "", + "External ear": "", + "External lip, NOS": "", + "External lower lip": "", + "External upper lip": "", + "Extrahepatic bile duct": "", + "Eye, NOS": "", + "Eyelid": "", + "Fallopian tube": "", + "Female genital tract, NOS": "", + "Floor of mouth, NOS": "", + "Frontal lobe": "The part of the brain located anterior to the parietal lobes at the front of each cerebral hemisphere.", + "Frontal sinus": "", + "Fundus of stomach": "", + "Fundus uteri": "", + "Gallbladder": "", + "Gastric antrum": "", + "Gastrointestinal tract, NOS": "", + "Glans penis": "", + "Glottis": "", + "Greater curvature of stomach, NOS": "", + "Gum, NOS": "", + "Hard palate": "", + "Head of pancreas": "", + "Head, face or neck, NOS": "", + "Heart": "", + "Hematopoietic system, NOS": "", + "Hepatic flexure of colon": "", + "Hypopharyngeal aspect of aryepiglottic fold": "", + "Hypopharynx, NOS": "", + "Ileum": "", + "Ill-defined sites within respiratory system": "", + "Intestinal tract, NOS": "", + "Intra-abdominal lymph nodes": "", + "Intrahepatic bile duct": "", + "Intrathoracic lymph nodes": "", + "Islets of Langerhans": "", + "Isthmus uteri": "", + "Jejunum": "", + "Kidney, NOS": "", + "Labium majus": "", + "Labium minus": "", + "Lacrimal gland": "", + "Laryngeal cartilage": "", + "Larynx, NOS": "", + "Lateral floor of mouth": "", + "Lateral wall of bladder": "", + "Lateral wall of nasopharynx": "", + "Lateral wall of oropharynx": "", + "Lesser curvature of stomach, NOS": "", + "Lingual tonsil": "", + "Lip, NOS": "", + "Liver": "", + "Long bones of lower limb and associated joints": "", + "Long bones of upper limb, scapula and associated joints": "", + "Lower gum": "", + "Lower limb, NOS": "", + "Lower lobe, lung": "", + "Lower third of esophagus": "", + "Lower-inner quadrant of breast": "", + "Lower-outer quadrant of breast": "", + "Lung, NOS": "", + "Lymph node, NOS": "", + "Lymph nodes of axilla or arm": "", + "Lymph nodes of head, face and neck": "", + "Lymph nodes of inguinal region or leg": "", + "Lymph nodes of multiple regions": "", + "Main bronchus": "", + "Major salivary gland, NOS": "", + "Male genital organs, NOS": "", + "Mandible": "", + "Maxillary sinus": "", + "Meckel diverticulum": "", + "Mediastinum, NOS": "", + "Medulla of adrenal gland": "", + "Meninges, NOS": "", + "Middle ear": "", + "Middle lobe, lung": "", + "Middle third of esophagus": "", + "Mouth, NOS": "", + "Mucosa of lip, NOS": "", + "Mucosa of lower lip": "", + "Mucosa of upper lip": "", + "Myometrium": "", + "Nasal cavity": "", + "Nasopharynx, NOS": "", + "Nervous system, NOS": "", + "Nipple": "", + "Occipital lobe": "One of the four regions of cortex in each cerebral hemisphere. It is located posterior to the temporal lobe and inferior to the parietal lobe.", + "Olfactory nerve": "", + "Optic nerve": "", + "Orbit, NOS": "", + "Oropharynx, NOS": "", + "Other ill-defined sites": "", + "Other specified parts of female genital organs": "", + "Other specified parts of male genital organs": "", + "Other specified parts of pancreas": "", + "Ovary": "", + "Overlapping lesion of accessory sinuses": "", + "Overlapping lesion of biliary tract": "", + "Overlapping lesion of bladder": "", + "Overlapping lesion of bones, joints and articular cartilage": "", + "Overlapping lesion of bones, joints and articular cartilage of limbs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of brain": "", + "Overlapping lesion of brain and central nervous system": "", + "Overlapping lesion of breast": "", + "Overlapping lesion of cervix uteri": "", + "Overlapping lesion of colon": "", + "Overlapping lesion of connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues": "", + "Overlapping lesion of corpus uteri": "", + "Overlapping lesion of digestive system": "", + "Overlapping lesion of endocrine glands and related structures": "", + "Overlapping lesion of esophagus": "", + "Overlapping lesion of eye and adnexa": "", + "Overlapping lesion of female genital organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of floor of mouth": "", + "Overlapping lesion of heart, mediastinum and pleura": "", + "Overlapping lesion of hypopharynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of ill-defined sites": "", + "Overlapping lesion of larynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of lip": "", + "Overlapping lesion of lip, oral cavity and pharynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of lung": "", + "Overlapping lesion of major salivary glands": "", + "Overlapping lesion of male genital organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of nasopharynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of other and unspecified parts of mouth": "", + "Overlapping lesion of palate": "", + "Overlapping lesion of pancreas": "", + "Overlapping lesion of penis": "", + "Overlapping lesion of peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system": "", + "Overlapping lesion of rectum, anus and anal canal": "", + "Overlapping lesion of respiratory system and intrathoracic organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of retroperitoneum and peritoneum": "", + "Overlapping lesion of skin": "", + "Overlapping lesion of small intestine": "", + "Overlapping lesion of stomach": "", + "Overlapping lesion of tongue": "", + "Overlapping lesion of tonsil": "", + "Overlapping lesion of urinary organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of vulva": "", + "Overlapping lesions of oropharynx": "", + "Palate, NOS": "", + "Pancreas, NOS": "", + "Pancreatic duct": "", + "Parametrium": "", + "Parathyroid gland": "", + "Paraurethral gland": "", + "Parietal lobe": "One of the lobes of the cerebral hemisphere located superiorly to the occipital lobe and posteriorly to the frontal lobe. Cognition and visuospatial processing are its main functions.", + "Parotid gland": "", + "Pelvic bones, sacrum, coccyx and associated joints": "", + "Pelvic lymph nodes": "", + "Pelvis, NOS": "", + "Penis, NOS": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of abdomen": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of head, face, and neck": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of lower limb and hip": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of pelvis": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of thorax": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of trunk, NOS": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of upper limb and shoulder": "", + "Peritoneum, NOS": "", + "Pharynx, NOS": "", + "Pineal gland": "", + "Pituitary gland": "", + "Placenta": "", + "Pleura, NOS": "", + "Postcricoid region": "", + "Posterior mediastinum": "", + "Posterior wall of bladder": "", + "Posterior wall of hypopharynx": "", + "Posterior wall of nasopharynx": "", + "Posterior wall of oropharynx": "", + "Prepuce": "", + "Prostate gland": "", + "Pylorus": "", + "Pyriform sinus": "", + "Rectosigmoid junction": "", + "Rectum, NOS": "", + "Renal pelvis": "", + "Reticuloendothelial system, NOS": "", + "Retina": "", + "Retromolar area": "", + "Retroperitoneum": "", + "Rib, sternum, clavicle and associated joints": "", + "Round ligament": "", + "Scrotum, NOS": "", + "Short bones of lower limb and associated joints": "", + "Short bones of upper limb and associated joints": "", + "Sigmoid colon": "", + "Skin of lip, NOS": "", + "Skin of lower limb and hip": "", + "Skin of other and unspecified parts of face": "", + "Skin of scalp and neck": "", + "Skin of trunk": "", + "Skin of upper limb and shoulder": "", + "Skin, NOS": "", + "Small intestine, NOS": "", + "Soft palate, NOS": "", + "Specified parts of peritoneum": "", + "Spermatic cord": "", + "Sphenoid sinus": "", + "Spinal cord": "", + "Spinal meninges": "", + "Spleen": "", + "Splenic flexure of colon": "", + "Stomach, NOS": "", + "Subglottis": "", + "Sublingual gland": "", + "Submandibular gland": "", + "Superior wall of nasopharynx": "", + "Supraglottis": "", + "Tail of pancreas": "", + "Temporal lobe": "One of the cerebral lobes. It is located inferior to the frontal and parietal lobes and anterior to the occipital lobe.", + "Testis, NOS": "", + "Thoracic esophagus": "", + "Thorax, NOS": "", + "Thymus": "", + "Thyroid gland": "", + "Tongue, NOS": "", + "Tonsil, NOS": "", + "Tonsillar fossa": "", + "Tonsillar pillar": "", + "Trachea": "", + "Transverse colon": "", + "Trigone of bladder": "", + "Undescended testis": "", + "Unknown primary site": "", + "Upper gum": "", + "Upper limb, NOS": "", + "Upper lobe, lung": "", + "Upper respiratory tract, NOS": "", + "Upper third of esophagus": "", + "Upper-inner quadrant of breast": "", + "Upper-outer quadrant of breast": "", + "Urachus": "", + "Ureter": "", + "Ureteric orifice": "", + "Urethra": "", + "Urinary system, NOS": "", + "Uterine adnexa": "The accessory structures of the uterus, including the ovaries, fallopian tubes, broad ligament, and the ovarian and uterine ligaments.", + "Uterus, NOS": "", + "Uvula": "", + "Vagina, NOS": "", + "Vallecula": "", + "Ventral surface of tongue, NOS": "", + "Ventricle, NOS": "", + "Vertebral column": "", + "Vestibule of mouth": "", + "Vulva, NOS": "The external, visible part of the female genitalia surrounding the urethral and vaginal opening. The vulva includes the clitoris and inner as well as outer labia.", + "Waldeyer ring": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "progression_or_recurrence_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of progressive or recurrent disease or relapsed disease.", + "value_data": { + "Biochemical": "", + "Distant": "", + "Local": "", + "Locoregional": "", + "Regional": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "recist_targeted_regions_number": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the number of baseline target lesions, as described by the Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours (RECIST) criteria.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "recist_targeted_regions_sum": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the sum of baseline target lesions, as described by the Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours (RECIST) criteria.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "risk_factor": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe a risk factor the patient had at the time of or prior to their diagnosis.", + "value_data": { + "Abnormal Glucose Level": "", + "Adenomyosis": "", + "Adenosis (Atypical Adenomatous Hyperplasia)": "", + "Alcohol Consumption": "", + "Alcoholic Liver Disease": "", + "Allergy, Animal, NOS": "", + "Allergy, Ant": "", + "Allergy, Bee": "", + "Allergy, Cat": "", + "Allergy, Dairy or Lactose": "", + "Allergy, Dog": "", + "Allergy, Eggs": "", + "Allergy, Food, NOS": "", + "Allergy, Fruit": "", + "Allergy, Meat": "", + "Allergy, Mold or Dust": "", + "Allergy, Nuts": "", + "Allergy, Processed Foods": "", + "Allergy, Seafood": "", + "Allergy, Wasp": "", + "Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency": "", + "Altered Mental Status": "", + "Androgen Excess": "", + "Anemia": "", + "Asthma": "", + "Ataxia-telangiectasia": "", + "Autoimmune Atrophic Chronic Gastritis": "", + "Autoimmune Lymphoproliferative Syndrome (ALPS)": "", + "Bacteroides fragilis": "", + "BAP1 Tumor Predisposition Syndrome": "", + "Barrett's Esophagus": "", + "Beckwith-Wiedemann": "", + "Behcet's Disease": "", + "Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia": "", + "Birt-Hogg-Dube Syndrome": "", + "BRCA Family History": "", + "Cancer": "A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.", + "Chlamydia": "", + "Chloroma": "", + "Cholelithiasis": "", + "Chronic Hepatitis": "", + "Chronic Kidney Disease": "", + "Chronic Pancreatitis": "", + "Chronic Systemic Steroid Use": "", + "Cirrhosis": "", + "Colon Polyps": "", + "Colonization, Bacterial": "", + "Colonization, Fungal": "", + "Common variable immune deficiency (CVID)": "", + "Cortisol Excess": "", + "Cowden Syndrome": "", + "Cryptococcal Meningitis": "", + "Cyst(s)": "", + "Cytomegalovirus (CMV)": "", + "Denys-Drash Syndrome": "", + "Dermatomyosis": "", + "Diabetes, NOS": "", + "Diabetes, Type I": "", + "Diabetes, Type II": "", + "Diet": "", + "Diverticulitis": "", + "Down Syndrome": "", + "EBV Lymphoproliferation": "", + "Eczema": "", + "Endometriosis": "", + "Endosalpingiosis": "", + "Epithelial Dysplasia": "", + "Epithelial Hyperplasia": "", + "Epstein-Barr Virus": "Any microbiologic test or molecular assay used to detect the presence of Epstein-Barr virus in a sample.", + "Escherichia coli": "", + "Estrogen Excess": "", + "Familial Adenomatous Polyposis": "", + "Fanconi Anemia": "", + "Fibrosis": "", + "Gastric Polyp(s)": "", + "Gastritis": "", + "Gilbert's Syndrome": "", + "Glomerular Disease": "", + "Gorlin Syndrome": "", + "H. pylori Infection": "", + "Hashimoto's Thyroiditis": "", + "Hay Fever": "", + "Headache": "", + "Helicobacter Pylori-Associated Gastritis": "", + "Hematologic Disorder, NOS": "", + "Hemihypertrophy": "", + "Hemochromatosis": "", + "Hepatic Encephalopathy": "", + "Hepatitis A Infection": "", + "Hepatitis B Infection": "", + "Hepatitis C Infection": "", + "Hepatitis, NOS": "", + "Hereditary Breast Cancer": "", + "Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia": "", + "Hereditary Kidney Oncocytoma": "", + "Hereditary Leiomyomatosis and Renal Cell Carcinoma": "", + "Hereditary Ovarian Cancer": "", + "Hereditary Papillary Renal Cell Carcinoma": "", + "Hereditary Prostate Cancer": "", + "Hereditary Renal Cell Carcinoma": "", + "Herpes Zoster": "", + "High Grade Dysplasia": "", + "High-grade Prostatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia (PIN)": "", + "HIV": "", + "Hodgkin Lymphoma": "", + "Human Herpesvirus-6 (HHV-6)": "", + "Human Herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8)": "", + "Human Papillomavirus Infection": "", + "Hypospadias": "", + "Inflammation": "", + "Inflammation, Hyperkeratosis": "", + "Inherited Genetic Syndrome, NOS": "", + "Intestinal Metaplasia": "", + "Iron Overload": "", + "Li-Fraumeni Syndrome": "", + "Low Grade Dysplasia": "", + "Lymphamatoid Papulosis": "", + "Lymphocytic Meningitis": "", + "Lymphocytic Thyroiditis": "", + "Lynch Syndrome": "", + "Malaria": "", + "Metabolic Syndrome": "", + "Mineralcorticoids Excess": "", + "Motor / Movement Change": "", + "Myasthenia Gravis": "", + "Mycobacterium avium Complex": "", + "Myelodysplastic Syndrome": "", + "Neurocystericerosis": "", + "Nodular Prostatic Hyperplasia": "", + "Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease": "", + "Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis": "", + "None": "", + "Obesity": "", + "Oral Contraceptives": "", + "Pancreatitis": "", + "Parasitic Disease of Biliary Tract": "", + "Pneumocystis Pneumonia": "", + "Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)": "", + "Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis": "", + "Recurrent Pyogenic Cholangitis": "", + "Reflux Disease": "", + "Rheumatoid Arthritis": "", + "Rubella": "", + "Rubinstein-Taybi Syndrome": "", + "Sarcoidosis": "", + "Seizure": "", + "Sensory Changes": "", + "Serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma (STIC)": "", + "Shingles": "", + "Sialadenitis": "", + "Sjogren's Syndrome": "", + "Skin Rash": "", + "Squamous Metaplasia": "", + "Staphylococcus aureus": "", + "Steatosis": "", + "Succinate Dehydrogenase-Deficient Renal Cell Carcinoma": "", + "Syphilis": "", + "Tattoo": "", + "Thyroid Nodular Hyperplasia": "", + "Tobacco, NOS": "", + "Tobacco, Smokeless": "", + "Tobacco, Smoking": "", + "Treponema pallidum": "", + "Tuberculosis": "", + "Tuberous Sclerosis": "", + "Tubulointerstitial Disease": "", + "Tumor-associated Lymphoid Proliferation": "", + "Turcot Syndrome": "", + "Undescended Testis": "", + "Varicella Zoster Virus": "", + "Vascular Disease": "", + "Vision Changes": "", + "Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome": "", + "Wagr Syndrome": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "scan_tracer_used": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of tracer used during the imaging or scan of the patient.", + "value_data": { + "Acetate": "", + "Axumin": "", + "Choline": "", + "PSMA": "", + "Sodium Fluoride": "" + } + }, + "year_of_follow_up": { + "column_description": "The year of the patient's last follow-up appointment or contact.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "adapter_name": { + "column_description": "Name of the sequencing adapter.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "adapter_sequence": { + "column_description": "Base sequence of the sequencing adapter.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "base_caller_name": { + "column_description": "Name of the base caller.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "base_caller_version": { + "column_description": "Version of the base caller.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "chipseq_antibody": { + "column_description": "The antibody used in the ChIP-Seq assay.", + "value_data": { + "abcam ab4729 anti-H3K27ac": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context." + } + }, + "chipseq_target": { + "column_description": "Antibody target of the ChIP-Seq assay", + "value_data": { + "H3K4me1": "", + "H3K4me3": "", + "H3K9me3": "", + "H3K27me3": "", + "H3K36me3": "", + "H3K27ac": "", + "Input Control": "", + "Unknown": "" + } + }, + "days_to_sequencing": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date the read group was sequenced.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "experiment_name": { + "column_description": "Submitter-defined name for the experiment.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "flow_cell_barcode": { + "column_description": "Flow cell barcode. Wrong or missing information may affect analysis results.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "fragment_maximum_length": { + "column_description": "Maximum length of the sequenced fragments (e.g., as predicted by Agilent Bioanalyzer).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "fragment_mean_length": { + "column_description": "Mean length of the sequenced fragments (e.g., as predicted by Agilent Bioanalyzer).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "fragment_minimum_length": { + "column_description": "Minimum length of the sequenced fragments (e.g., as predicted by Agilent Bioanalyzer).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "fragment_standard_deviation_length": { + "column_description": "Standard deviation of the sequenced fragments length (e.g., as predicted by Agilent Bioanalyzer).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "fragmentation_enzyme": { + "column_description": "The restriction enzyme used for nucleotide fragmentation.", + "value_data": { + "MboI": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context." + } + }, + "includes_spike_ins": { + "column_description": "Spike-in included?", + "value_data": {} + }, + "instrument_model": { + "column_description": "Specific model of sequencing instrument used.", + "value_data": { + "454 GS FLX Titanium": "", + "AB SOLiD 2": "", + "AB SOLiD 3": "", + "AB SOLiD 4": "", + "Complete Genomics": "", + "Illumina Genome Analyzer II": "", + "Illumina Genome Analyzer IIx": "", + "Illumina HiSeq 2000": "", + "Illumina HiSeq 2500": "", + "Illumina HiSeq 4000": "", + "Illumina HiSeq X Five": "", + "Illumina HiSeq X Ten": "", + "Illumina MiSeq": "", + "Illumina NextSeq": "", + "Illumina NovaSeq 6000": "", + "Illumina NovaSeq X": "", + "Ion Torrent PGM": "", + "Ion Torrent Proton": "", + "Ion Torrent S5": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "PacBio RS": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "is_paired_end": { + "column_description": "Are the reads paired end?", + "value_data": {} + }, + "lane_number": { + "column_description": "The basic machine unit for sequencing. For Illumina machines, this reflects the physical lane number. Wrong or missing information may affect analysis results.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "library_name": { + "column_description": "Name of the library.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "library_preparation_kit_name": { + "column_description": "Name of Library Preparation Kit", + "value_data": {} + }, + "library_preparation_kit_vendor": { + "column_description": "Vendor of Library Preparation Kit", + "value_data": {} + }, + "library_preparation_kit_catalog_number": { + "column_description": "Catalog of Library Preparation Kit", + "value_data": {} + }, + "library_preparation_kit_version": { + "column_description": "Version of Library Preparation Kit", + "value_data": {} + }, + "library_selection": { + "column_description": "Library Selection Method", + "value_data": { + "Affinity Enrichment": "", + "Hybrid Selection": "", + "miRNA Size Fractionation": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "PCR": "A method for amplifying a DNA base sequence using multiple rounds of heat denaturation of the DNA and annealing of oligonucleotide primers complementary to flanking regions in the presence of a heat-stable polymerase. This results in duplication of the targeted DNA region. Newly synthesized DNA strands can subsequently serve as additional templates for the same primer sequences, so that successive rounds of primer annealing, strand elongation, and dissociation produce rapid and highly specific amplification of the desired sequence. PCR also can be used to detect the existence of the defined sequence in a DNA sample.", + "Poly-T Enrichment": "", + "Random": "", + "rRNA Depletion": "" + } + }, + "library_strand": { + "column_description": "Library stranded-ness.", + "value_data": { + "Unstranded": "", + "First_Stranded": "", + "Second_Stranded": "", + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context." + } + }, + "library_strategy": { + "column_description": "Library strategy.", + "value_data": { + "ATAC-Seq": "", + "Bisulfite-Seq": "", + "ChIP-Seq": "", + "HiChIP": "", + "m6A MeRIP-Seq": "", + "miRNA-Seq": "", + "RNA-Seq": "", + "scATAC-Seq": "", + "scRNA-Seq": "", + "Targeted Sequencing": "A technique that determines the nucleotide sequence of a pre-specified region of DNA or RNA by using primers that are specific for that region.", + "WGS": "A procedure that can determine the DNA sequence for nearly the entire genome of an individual.", + "WXS": "A procedure that can determine the DNA sequence for all of the exons in an individual." + } + }, + "multiplex_barcode": { + "column_description": "The barcode/index sequence used. Wrong or missing information may affect analysis results.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "number_expect_cells": { + "column_description": "Expected number of recovered cells in droplet-based single-cell libraries.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "read_group_name": { + "column_description": "Read Group Name", + "value_data": {} + }, + "read_length": { + "column_description": "The length of the reads.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "rin": { + "column_description": "A numerical assessment of the integrity of RNA based on the entire electrophoretic trace of the RNA sample including the presence or absence of degradation products.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "sequencing_center": { + "column_description": "Name of the center that provided the sequence files.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "sequencing_date": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "size_selection_range": { + "column_description": "Range of size selection.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "single_cell_library": { + "column_description": "Library preparation strategy that distinguishes different single-cell assays.", + "value_data": { + "Chromium 3' Gene Expression v2 Library": "", + "Chromium 3' Gene Expression v3 Library": "", + "Chromium scATAC v1 Library": "", + "Smart-Seq2": "" + } + }, + "spike_ins_concentration": { + "column_description": "Spike in concentration.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "spike_ins_fasta": { + "column_description": "Name of the FASTA file that contains the spike-in sequences.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "target_capture_kit": { + "column_description": "Description that can uniquely identify a target capture kit. Suggested value is a combination of vendor, kit name, and kit version.", + "value_data": { + "Custom AmpliSeq Cancer Hotspot GENIE-MDA Augmented Panel v1 - 46 Genes": "", + "Custom GENIE-DFCI OncoPanel - 275 Genes": "", + "Custom GENIE-DFCI Oncopanel - 300 Genes": "", + "Custom GENIE-DFCI Oncopanel - 447 Genes": "", + "Custom HaloPlex DLBCL Panel - 370 Genes": "", + "Custom Ion AmpliSeq Hotspot GENIE-MOSC3 Augmented Panel - 74 Genes": "", + "Custom Large Construct Capture TARGET-OS Panel - 8 Genes": "", + "Custom MSK IMPACT Panel - 341 Genes": "", + "Custom MSK IMPACT Panel - 410 Genes": "", + "Custom MSK IMPACT Panel - 468 Genes": "", + "Custom Myeloid GENIE-VICC Panel - 37 Genes": "", + "Custom Personalis ACEcp VAREPOP-APOLLO Panel v2": "", + "Custom PGDX SureSelect CancerSelect VAREPOP-APOLLO Panel - 203 Genes": "", + "Custom PGDX SureSelect CancerSelect VAREPOP-APOLLO Panel - 88 Genes": "", + "Custom SeqCap EZ BeatAML Panel - 12.5 Mb": "", + "Custom SeqCap EZ HGSC VCRome v2.1 ER Augmented v1": "", + "Custom SeqCap EZ HGSC VCRome v2.1 ER Augmented v2": "", + "Custom SeqCap EZ TARGET-OS Panel - 7.0 Mb": "", + "Custom Solid Tumor GENIE-VICC Panel - 34 Genes": "", + "Custom SureSelect CGCI-BLGSP Panel - 4.6 Mb": "", + "Custom SureSelect CGCI-BLGSP Panel - 7.8 Mb": "", + "Custom SureSelect CGCI-HTMCP-CC KMT2D And Hotspot Panel - 37.0 Kb": "", + "Custom SureSelect CGCI-HTMCP-CC Panel - 19.7 Mb": "", + "Custom SureSelect GENIE-UHN Panel - 555 Genes": "", + "Custom SureSelect Human All Exon v1.1 Plus 3 Boosters": "", + "Custom SureSelect TARGET-AML_NBL_WT Panel - 2.8 Mb": "", + "Custom Twist Broad Exome v1.0 - 35.0 Mb": "", + "Custom Twist Broad PanCancer Panel - 396 Genes": "", + "Custom Twist MP2PRT-WT Panel - 52 Kb": "", + "Foundation Medicine T5a Panel - 322 Genes": "", + "Foundation Medicine T7 Panel - 429 Genes": "", + "Ion AmpliSeq Cancer Hotspot Panel v2": "", + "Ion AmpliSeq Comprehensive Cancer Panel": "", + "Nextera DNA Exome": "", + "Nextera Rapid Capture Exome v1.2": "", + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context.", + "SeqCap EZ HGSC VCRome v2.1": "", + "SeqCap EZ Human Exome v2.0": "", + "SeqCap EZ Human Exome v3.0": "", + "SureSelect Human All Exon v3": "", + "SureSelect Human All Exon v4": "", + "SureSelect Human All Exon v5": "", + "SureSelect Human All Exon v5 + UTR": "", + "TruSeq Amplicon Cancer Panel": "", + "TruSeq Exome Enrichment - 62 Mb": "", + "TruSeq RNA Exome": "", + "TruSight Myeloid Sequencing Panel": "", + "Twist Human Comprehensive Exome": "", + "xGen Exome Research Panel v1.0": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "target_capture_kit_catalog_number": { + "column_description": "Catalog of Target Capture Kit.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "target_capture_kit_name": { + "column_description": "Name of Target Capture Kit.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "target_capture_kit_target_region": { + "column_description": "Target Capture Kit BED file.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "target_capture_kit_vendor": { + "column_description": "Vendor of Target Capture Kit.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "target_capture_kit_version": { + "column_description": "Version of Target Capture Kit.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "to_trim_adapter_sequence": { + "column_description": "Does the user suggest adapter trimming?", + "value_data": {} + }, + "channel": { + "column_description": "The corresponding color channel used to generate this data file.", + "value_data": { + "Green": "", + "Red": "" + } + }, + "chip_id": { + "column_description": "User specified identifier for the chip used to perform the methylation microarray.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "chip_position": { + "column_description": "User specified identifier for the specific position on the chip that the sample was loaded into to perform the methylation microarray.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "plate_name": { + "column_description": "User specified identifier of the plate used to prepare the sample for analysis.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "plate_well": { + "column_description": "User specified identifier for the specific well of the plate used to prepare the sample for analysis.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "category": { + "column_description": "Top level characterization of the annotation.", + "value_data": { + "Acceptable treatment for TCGA tumor": "", + "Administrative Compliance": "", + "Alternate sample pipeline": "", + "BCR Notification": "", + "Barcode incorrect": "", + "Biospecimen identity unknown": "", + "Case submitted is found to be a recurrence after submission": "", + "Center QC failed": "", + "Clinical data insufficient": "", + "Duplicate case": "", + "Duplicate item": "", + "General": "", + "Genotype mismatch": "", + "History of acceptable prior treatment related to a prior/other malignancy": "", + "History of unacceptable prior treatment related to a prior/other malignancy": "", + "Inadvertently shipped": "", + "Item does not meet study protocol": "", + "Item flagged DNU": "", + "Item Flagged Low Quality": "", + "Item in special subset": "", + "Item is noncanonical": "", + "Item may not meet study protocol": "", + "Molecular analysis outside specification": "", + "Neoadjuvant therapy": "", + "New notification type": "", + "New observation type": "", + "Normal class but appears diseased": "", + "Normal tissue origin incorrect": "", + "Observation": "", + "Pathology outside specification": "", + "Permanently missing item or object": "", + "Prior malignancy": "", + "Qualification metrics changed": "", + "Qualified in error": "", + "Sample compromised": "", + "Subject identity unknown": "", + "Subject withdrew consent": "", + "Synchronous malignancy": "", + "Tumor class but appears normal": "", + "Tumor tissue origin incorrect": "", + "Tumor type incorrect": "", + "WGA Failure": "" + } + }, + "classification": { + "column_description": "Top level classification of the annotation.", + "value_data": { + "Blocking Release": "", + "CenterNotification": "", + "Complete Data Freeze": "", + "Downstream Data Freeze": "", + "Notification": "", + "Observation": "", + "Redaction": "" + } + }, + "creator": { + "column_description": "Name of the person or entity responsible for the creation of the annotation.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "notes": { + "column_description": "Open entry for any further description or characterization of the data.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "status": { + "column_description": "Status of the annotation.", + "value_data": { + "Approved": "", + "Rescinded": "" + } + }, + "legacy_created_datetime": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "legacy_updated_datetime": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "aggregated_somatic_mutations": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "aligned_reads_indexes": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "analysis_metadata_files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "biospecimen_supplements": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "clinical_supplements": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "copy_number_auxiliary_files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "copy_number_estimates": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "demographics": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "experiment_metadata_files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "exposures": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "family_histories": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "filtered_copy_number_segments": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "gene_expressions": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "masked_methylation_arrays": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "masked_somatic_mutations": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "methylation_beta_values": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "mirna_expressions": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "molecular_tests": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "other_clinical_attributes": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "pathology_details": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "pathology_reports": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "protein_expressions": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "read_group_qcs": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "run_metadata_files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "secondary_expression_analyses": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "simple_germline_variations": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "slide_images": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "somatic_mutation_indexes": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "treatments": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "methylation_array_harmonization_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "methylation_liftover_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "major_version": { + "column_description": "The number identifying the major version.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "minor_version": { + "column_description": "The number identifying the minor version.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "release_date": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "roots": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "somatic_aggregation_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "mirna_expression_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "derived_files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "related_files": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tags": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "data_subtypes": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "data_formats": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "experimental_strategies": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "platforms": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "described_cases": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "namespace": { + "column_description": "Domain name of the center (e.g. broad.mit.edu).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "short_name": { + "column_description": "Shortened name of the center (e.g. BI).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "center_type": { + "column_description": "Type classification of the center (e.g. CGCC).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "biospecimen_anatomic_site": { + "column_description": "Text term that represents the name of the primary disease site of the submitted tumor sample.", + "value_data": { + "Abdomen": "", + "Abdominal Wall": "", + "Acetabulum": "", + "Adenoid": "", + "Adipose": "", + "Adrenal": "", + "Alveolar Ridge": "", + "Amniotic Fluid": "", + "Ampulla Of Vater": "", + "Anal Sphincter": "", + "Ankle": "", + "Anorectum": "", + "Antecubital Fossa": "", + "Antrum": "", + "Anus": "", + "Aorta": "", + "Aortic Body": "", + "Appendix": "", + "Aqueous Fluid": "", + "Arm": "", + "Artery": "", + "Ascending Colon": "", + "Ascending Colon Hepatic Flexure": "", + "Auditory Canal": "", + "Autonomic Nervous System": "", + "Axilla": "", + "Back": "", + "Bile Duct": "", + "Bladder": "", + "Blood": "", + "Blood Vessel": "", + "Bone": "", + "Bone Marrow": "The tissue occupying the spaces of bone. It consists of blood vessel sinuses and a network of hematopoietic cells which give rise to the red cells, white cells, and megakaryocytes.", + "Bowel": "", + "Brain": "", + "Brain Stem": "", + "Breast": "", + "Broad Ligament": "", + "Bronchiole": "", + "Bronchus": "", + "Brow": "", + "Buccal Cavity": "", + "Buccal Mucosa": "The mucosal membranes located on the inside of the cheek, in the buccal cavity.", + "Buttock": "", + "Calf": "", + "Capillary": "", + "Cardia": "", + "Carina": "", + "Carotid Artery": "", + "Carotid Body": "", + "Cartilage": "", + "Cecum": "", + "Cell-Line": "", + "Central Nervous System": "", + "Cerebellum": "", + "Cerebral Cortex": "", + "Cerebrospinal Fluid": "The fluid that is contained within the brain ventricles, the subarachnoid space and the central canal of the spinal cord.", + "Cerebrum": "", + "Cervical Spine": "", + "Cervix": "", + "Chest": "", + "Chest Wall": "", + "Chin": "", + "Clavicle": "", + "Clitoris": "", + "Colon": "", + "Colon - Mucosa Only": "", + "Common Duct": "", + "Conjunctiva": "", + "Connective Tissue": "Supporting tissue that surrounds other tissues and organs. Specialized connective tissue includes bone, cartilage, blood, and fat.", + "Dermal": "", + "Descending Colon": "", + "Diaphragm": "", + "Duodenum": "", + "Ear": "", + "Ear Canal": "", + "Ear, Pinna (External)": "", + "Effusion": "", + "Elbow": "", + "Endocrine Gland": "", + "Epididymis": "", + "Epidural Space": "", + "Esophageal; Distal": "", + "Esophageal; Mid": "", + "Esophageal; Proximal": "", + "Esophagogastric Junction": "", + "Esophagus": "", + "Esophagus - Mucosa Only": "", + "Eye": "", + "Fallopian Tube": "", + "Femoral Artery": "", + "Femoral Vein": "", + "Femur": "", + "Fibroblasts": "", + "Fibula": "", + "Finger": "", + "Floor Of Mouth": "", + "Fluid": "", + "Foot": "", + "Forearm": "", + "Forehead": "", + "Foreskin": "", + "Frontal Cortex": "", + "Frontal Lobe": "The part of the brain located anterior to the parietal lobes at the front of each cerebral hemisphere.", + "Fundus Of Stomach": "", + "Gallbladder": "", + "Ganglia": "", + "Gastroesophageal Junction": "", + "Gastrointestinal Tract": "", + "Glottis": "", + "Groin": "", + "Gum": "", + "Hand": "", + "Hard Palate": "", + "Head & Neck": "", + "Head - Face Or Neck, Nos": "", + "Head, Face or Neck, NOS": "", + "Heart": "", + "Hepatic": "", + "Hepatic Duct": "", + "Hepatic Flexure": "", + "Hepatic Vein": "", + "Hip": "", + "Hippocampus": "", + "Humerus": "", + "Hypopharynx": "", + "Ileum": "", + "Ilium": "", + "Index Finger": "", + "Ischium": "", + "Islet Cells": "", + "Jaw": "", + "Jejunum": "", + "Joint": "", + "Kidney": "", + "Knee": "", + "Lacrimal Gland": "", + "Large Bowel": "", + "Laryngopharynx": "", + "Larynx": "", + "Leg": "", + "Leptomeninges": "", + "Ligament": "", + "Lip": "", + "Liver": "", + "Lumbar Spine": "", + "Lung": "", + "Lymph Node": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Axilla": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Cervical": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Distant": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Epitrochlear": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Femoral": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Hilar": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Iliac-Common": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Iliac-External": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Inguinal": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Internal Mammary": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Mammary": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Mesenteric": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Occipital": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Paraaortic": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Parotid": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Pelvic": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Popliteal": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Regional": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Retroperitoneal": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Scalene": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Splenic": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Subclavicular": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Submandibular": "", + "Lymph Node(s) Supraclavicular": "", + "Lymph Nodes(s) Mediastinal": "", + "Mandible": "", + "Maxilla": "", + "Mediastinal Soft Tissue": "", + "Mediastinum": "", + "Mesentery": "", + "Mesothelium": "", + "Middle Finger": "", + "Mitochondria": "", + "Muscle": "", + "Nails": "", + "Nasal Cavity": "", + "Nasal Soft Tissue": "", + "Nasopharynx": "", + "Neck": "The region that connects the head to the rest of the body.", + "Nerve": "", + "Nerve(s) Cranial": "", + "Occipital Cortex": "", + "Ocular Orbits": "", + "Omentum": "", + "Oral Cavity": "", + "Oral Cavity - Mucosa Only": "", + "Oropharynx": "", + "Ovary": "", + "Palate": "", + "Pancreas": "", + "Paranasal Sinuses": "", + "Paraspinal Ganglion": "", + "Parathyroid": "", + "Parotid Gland": "", + "Patella": "", + "Pelvis": "", + "Penis": "", + "Pericardium": "", + "Periorbital Soft Tissue": "", + "Peritoneal Cavity": "", + "Peritoneum": "", + "Pharynx": "", + "Pineal": "", + "Pineal Gland": "", + "Pituitary Gland": "", + "Placenta": "", + "Pleura": "", + "Popliteal Fossa": "", + "Prostate": "", + "Pylorus": "", + "Rectosigmoid Junction": "", + "Rectum": "", + "Retina": "", + "Retro-Orbital Region": "", + "Retroperitoneum": "", + "Rib": "", + "Ring Finger": "", + "Round Ligament": "", + "Sacrum": "", + "Salivary Gland": "", + "Scalp": "", + "Scapula": "", + "Sciatic Nerve": "", + "Scrotum": "", + "Seminal Vesicle": "", + "Shoulder": "", + "Sigmoid Colon": "", + "Sinus": "", + "Sinus(es), Maxillary": "", + "Skeletal Muscle": "", + "Skin": "", + "Skull": "", + "Small Bowel": "", + "Small Bowel - Mucosa Only": "", + "Small Finger": "", + "Soft Tissue": "A general term comprising tissue that is not hardened or calcified; including muscle, fat, blood vessels, nerves, tendons, ligaments and fascia.", + "Spinal Column": "", + "Spinal Cord": "", + "Spleen": "", + "Splenic Flexure": "", + "Sternum": "", + "Stomach": "", + "Stomach - Mucosa Only": "", + "Subcutaneous Tissue": "", + "Subglottis": "", + "Sublingual Gland": "", + "Submandibular Gland": "", + "Supraglottis": "", + "Synovium": "", + "Temporal Cortex": "", + "Tendon": "", + "Testis": "", + "Thigh": "", + "Thoracic Spine": "", + "Thorax": "", + "Throat": "", + "Thumb": "", + "Thymus": "", + "Thyroid": "", + "Tibia": "", + "Tongue": "", + "Tonsil": "", + "Tonsil (Pharyngeal)": "", + "Trachea / Major Bronchi": "", + "Transverse Colon": "", + "Trunk": "", + "Umbilical Cord": "", + "Ureter": "", + "Urethra": "", + "Urinary Tract": "", + "Uterus": "", + "Uvula": "", + "Vagina": "", + "Vas Deferens": "", + "Vein": "", + "Venous": "", + "Vertebra": "", + "Vulva": "", + "White Blood Cells": "", + "Wrist": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "biospecimen_laterality": { + "column_description": "For tumors in paired organs, designates the side on which the specimen was obtained.", + "value_data": { + "Bilateral": "", + "Left": "", + "Right": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "catalog_reference": { + "column_description": "HCMI catalog reference number for cancer model.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "composition": { + "column_description": "Text term that represents the cellular composition of the sample.", + "value_data": { + "2D Classical Conditionally Reprogrammed Cells": "", + "2D Modified Conditionally Reprogrammed Cells": "", + "3D Air-Liquid Interface Organoid": "", + "3D Neurosphere": "", + "3D Organoid": "", + "Adherent Cell Line": "", + "Bone Marrow Components": "", + "Bone Marrow Components NOS": "", + "Buccal Cells": "", + "Buffy Coat": "The middle layer of an anticoagulated blood specimen following separation by centrifugation. It contains most of the white blood cells and platelets.", + "Cell": "", + "Control Analyte": "", + "Derived Cell Line": "", + "EBV Immortalized": "", + "Fibroblasts from Bone Marrow Normal": "", + "Granulocytes": "", + "Human Original Cells": "", + "Liquid Suspension Cell Line": "", + "Lymphocytes": "The determination of the number of lymphocytes in a blood sample.", + "Mixed Adherent Suspension": "", + "Mononuclear Cells from Bone Marrow Normal": "", + "Peripheral Blood Components NOS": "", + "Peripheral Whole Blood": "", + "Plasma": "Plasma is the fluid (noncellular) portion of the circulating blood, as distinguished from the serum that is the fluid portion of the blood obtained by removal of the fibrin clot and blood cells after coagulation.", + "Pleural Effusion": "", + "Saliva": "The watery fluid in the mouth made by the salivary glands. Saliva moistens food to help digestion and it helps protect the mouth against infections.", + "Serum": "The clear portion of the blood that remains after the removal of the blood cells and the clotting proteins.", + "Solid Tissue": "", + "Sorted Cells": "", + "Sputum": "", + "Whole Bone Marrow": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "current_weight": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the current weight of the sample, measured in milligrams.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_collection": { + "column_description": "The number of days from the index date to the date a sample was collected for a specific study or project.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_sample_procurement": { + "column_description": "The number of days from the index date to the date a patient underwent a procedure (e.g. surgical resection) yielding a sample that was eventually used for research.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "diagnosis_pathologically_confirmed": { + "column_description": "The histologic description of tissue or cells confirmed by a pathology review of frozen or formalin fixed slide(s) completed after the diagnostic pathology review of the tumor sample used to extract analyte(s).", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "distance_normal_to_tumor": { + "column_description": "Text term to signify the distance between the tumor tissue and the normal control tissue that was procured for matching normal DNA.", + "value_data": { + "Adjacent (< or = 2cm)": "", + "Distal (>2cm)": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "distributor_reference": { + "column_description": "Distributor reference number for cancer model.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "freezing_method": { + "column_description": "Text term that represents the method used for freezing the sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "growth_rate": { + "column_description": "Rate at which the model grows, measured as hours to time to split.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "initial_weight": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the initial weight of the sample, measured in milligrams.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "intermediate_dimension": { + "column_description": "Intermediate dimension of the sample, in millimeters.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "longest_dimension": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the longest dimension of the sample, measured in millimeters.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "method_of_sample_procurement": { + "column_description": "The method used to procure the sample used to extract analyte(s).", + "value_data": { + "Abdomino-perineal Resection of Rectum": "", + "Anterior Resection of Rectum": "", + "Ascites Drainage": "", + "Aspirate": "", + "Autopsy": "A postmortem examination of the body that includes an examination of the internal organs and structures after dissection to determine the cause of death and the nature of pathological changes.", + "Biopsy": "", + "Blood Draw": "", + "Bone Marrow Aspirate": "", + "Buccal Mucosal Resection": "", + "Core Biopsy": "", + "Cystectomy": "", + "Deep Parotidectomy": "", + "Endo Rectal Tumor Resection": "", + "Endolaryngeal Excision": "", + "Endoscopic Biopsy": "", + "Endoscopic Mucosal Resection (EMR)": "", + "Enucleation": "", + "Excisional Biopsy": "", + "Fine Needle Aspiration": "", + "Full Hysterectomy": "", + "Glossectomy": "", + "Gross Total Resection": "", + "Hand Assisted Laparoscopic Radical Nephrectomy": "", + "Hysterectomy NOS": "", + "Incisional Biopsy": "", + "Indeterminant": "Cannot distinguish between two or more possible values in the current context.", + "Laparoscopic Biopsy": "", + "Laparoscopic Partial Nephrectomy": "", + "Laparoscopic Radical Nephrectomy": "", + "Laparoscopic Radical Prostatectomy with Robotics": "", + "Laparoscopic Radical Prostatectomy without Robotics": "", + "Laryngopharyngectomy": "", + "Left Hemicolectomy": "", + "Liquid Biopsy": "", + "Lobectomy": "", + "Local Resection (Exoresection; wall resection)": "", + "Lumpectomy": "", + "Lymph Node Dissection": "", + "Lymphadenectomy": "", + "Mandibulectomy": "", + "Maxillectomy": "", + "Metastasectomy": "", + "Modified Radical Mastectomy": "", + "Needle Biopsy": "", + "Omentectomy": "", + "Oophorectomy": "", + "Open Craniotomy": "", + "Open Partial Nephrectomy": "", + "Open Radical Nephrectomy": "", + "Open Radical Prostatectomy": "", + "Orchiectomy": "", + "Other Surgical Resection": "", + "Palatectomy": "", + "Pan-Procto Colectomy": "", + "Pancreatectomy": "", + "Paracentesis": "", + "Parotidectomy, NOS": "", + "Partial Hepatectomy": "", + "Partial Laryngectomy": "", + "Partial Maxillectomy": "", + "Partial Nephrectomy": "", + "Peritoneal Lavage": "", + "Pneumonectomy": "", + "Punch Biopsy": "", + "Radical Hysterectomy": "", + "Radical Maxillectomy": "", + "Radical Nephrectomy": "", + "Radical Prostatectomy": "", + "Right Hemicolectomy": "", + "Salpingectomy": "", + "Salpingo-oophorectomy": "", + "Sigmoid Colectomy": "", + "Simple Hysterectomy": "", + "Simple Mastectomy": "", + "Subtotal Prostatectomy": "", + "Subtotal Resection": "", + "Superficial Parotidectomy": "", + "Supracervical Hysterectomy": "", + "Supracricoid Laryngectomy": "", + "Supraglottic Laryngectomy": "", + "Surgical Resection": "", + "Thoracentesis": "", + "Thoracoscopic Biopsy": "", + "Tonsillectomy": "", + "Total Colectomy": "", + "Total Hepatectomy": "", + "Total Laryngectomy": "", + "Total Mastectomy": "", + "Total Nephrectomy": "", + "Transoral Laser Excision": "", + "Transplant": "", + "Transurethral resection (TURBT)": "", + "Transurethral Resection (TURP)": "", + "Transverse Colectomy": "", + "Tumor Debulking": "", + "Tumor Resection": "", + "Vertical Hemilaryngectomy": "", + "Wedge Resection": "", + "Whipple Procedure": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "oct_embedded": { + "column_description": "Indicator of whether or not the sample was embedded in Optimal Cutting Temperature (OCT) compound.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "passage_count": { + "column_description": "Number of passages (splits) between the original tissue and this model.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "pathology_report_uuid": { + "column_description": "UUID of the related pathology report.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "preservation_method": { + "column_description": "Text term that represents the method used to preserve the sample.", + "value_data": { + "Cryopreserved": "", + "EDTA": "", + "FFPE": "", + "Fresh": "", + "Frozen": "", + "OCT": "", + "Snap Frozen": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "sample_ordinal": { + "column_description": "A number describing the samples place in an ordered sequence.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "sample_type": { + "column_description": "Text term to describe the source of a biospecimen used for a laboratory test.", + "value_data": { + "Additional - New Primary": "", + "Additional Metastatic": "", + "Benign Neoplasms": "", + "Blood Derived Cancer - Bone Marrow": "", + "Blood Derived Cancer - Bone Marrow, Post-treatment": "", + "Blood Derived Cancer - Peripheral Blood": "", + "Blood Derived Cancer - Peripheral Blood, Post-treatment": "", + "Blood Derived Liquid Biopsy": "", + "Blood Derived Normal": "", + "Bone Marrow Normal": "", + "Buccal Cell Normal": "", + "Cell Line Derived Xenograft Tissue": "", + "Cell Lines": "", + "Control Analyte": "", + "DNA": "A long linear double-stranded polymer formed from nucleotides attached to a deoxyribose backbone and found in the nucleus of a cell; associated with the transmission of genetic information.", + "EBV Immortalized Normal": "", + "Expanded Next Generation Cancer Model": "", + "FFPE Recurrent": "", + "FFPE Scrolls": "", + "Fibroblasts from Bone Marrow Normal": "", + "GenomePlex (Rubicon) Amplified DNA": "", + "Granulocytes": "", + "Human Tumor Original Cells": "", + "In Situ Neoplasms": "", + "Lymphoid Normal": "", + "Metastatic": "", + "Mixed Adherent Suspension": "", + "Mononuclear Cells from Bone Marrow Normal": "", + "Neoplasms of Uncertain and Unknown Behavior": "", + "Next Generation Cancer Model": "", + "Next Generation Cancer Model Expanded Under Non-conforming Conditions": "", + "Pleural Effusion": "", + "Post neo-adjuvant therapy": "", + "Primary Blood Derived Cancer - Bone Marrow": "", + "Primary Blood Derived Cancer - Peripheral Blood": "", + "Primary Tumor": "", + "Primary Xenograft Tissue": "", + "Recurrent Blood Derived Cancer - Bone Marrow": "", + "Recurrent Blood Derived Cancer - Peripheral Blood": "", + "Recurrent Tumor": "", + "Repli-G (Qiagen) DNA": "", + "Repli-G X (Qiagen) DNA": "", + "RNA": "", + "Saliva": "The watery fluid in the mouth made by the salivary glands. Saliva moistens food to help digestion and it helps protect the mouth against infections.", + "Slides": "", + "Solid Tissue Normal": "", + "Total RNA": "A biological sample comprised of all of the RNA collected from an experimental subject.", + "Tumor": "", + "Tumor Adjacent Normal - Post Neo-adjuvant Therapy": "", + "Xenograft Tissue": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "sample_type_id": { + "column_description": "The accompanying sample type id for the sample type.", + "value_data": { + "01": "", + "02": "", + "03": "", + "04": "", + "05": "", + "06": "", + "07": "", + "08": "", + "09": "", + "10": "", + "11": "", + "12": "", + "13": "", + "14": "", + "15": "", + "16": "", + "17": "", + "18": "", + "20": "", + "30": "", + "31": "", + "32": "", + "40": "", + "41": "", + "42": "", + "50": "", + "60": "", + "61": "", + "85": "", + "86": "", + "87": "", + "99": "" + } + }, + "shortest_dimension": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the shortest dimension of the sample, measured in millimeters.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "specimen_type": { + "column_description": "The type of a material sample taken from a biological entity for testing, diagnostic, propagation, treatment or research purposes. This includes particular types of cellular molecules, cells, tissues, organs, body fluids, embryos, and body excretory substances.", + "value_data": { + "2D Classical Conditionally Reprogrammed Cells": "", + "2D Modified Conditionally Reprogrammed Cells": "", + "3D Air-Liquid Interface Organoid": "", + "3D Neurosphere": "", + "3D Organoid": "", + "Adherent Cell Line": "", + "Bone Marrow Components NOS": "", + "Bone Marrow NOS": "", + "Buccal Cells": "", + "Buffy Coat": "", + "Cell": "", + "Control Analyte": "", + "Derived Cell Line": "", + "Derived Cell Lines and Sorted Cells": "", + "EBV Immortalized": "", + "Fibroblasts from Bone Marrow": "", + "Granulocytes": "", + "Human Original Cells": "", + "Liquid Suspension Cell Line": "", + "Lymphocytes": "", + "Lymphoid": "", + "Mixed Adherent Suspension": "", + "Mononuclear Cells from Bone Marrow": "", + "Peripheral Blood Components NOS": "", + "Peripheral Blood NOS": "", + "Peripheral Whole Blood": "", + "Plasma": "", + "Pleural Effusion": "", + "Saliva": "", + "Serum": "", + "Solid Tissue": "", + "Sorted Cells": "", + "Sputum": "", + "Whole Bone Marrow": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "time_between_clamping_and_freezing": { + "column_description": "Numeric representation of the elapsed time between the surgical clamping of blood supply and freezing of the sample, measured in minutes.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "time_between_excision_and_freezing": { + "column_description": "Numeric representation of the elapsed time between the excision and freezing of the sample, measured in minutes.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tissue_collection_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the tyoe of collection used to obtain tissue.", + "value_data": { + "Prospective": "", + "Retrospective": "" + } + }, + "tissue_type": { + "column_description": "Text term that represents a description of the kind of tissue collected with respect to disease status or proximity to tumor tissue.", + "value_data": { + "Abnormal": "", + "Normal": "Being approximately average or within certain limits; conforming with or constituting a norm or standard or level or type or social norm.", + "Peritumoral": "", + "Tumor": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "tumor_code": { + "column_description": "Diagnostic tumor code of the tissue sample source.", + "value_data": { + "Acute Leukemia of Ambiguous Lineage (ALAL)": "", + "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)": "", + "Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)": "", + "Anal Cancer (all types)": "", + "Cervical Cancer (all types)": "", + "Clear cell sarcoma of the kidney (CCSK)": "", + "CNS, ependymoma": "", + "CNS, glioblastoma (GBM)": "", + "CNS, low grade glioma (LGG)": "", + "CNS, medulloblastoma": "", + "CNS, other": "", + "CNS, rhabdoid tumor": "", + "Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL)": "", + "Ewing sarcoma": "A small round cell tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation. It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor. It affects mostly males under age 20, and it can occur in soft tissue or bone. Pain and the presence of a mass are the most common clinical symptoms.", + "Induction Failure AML (AML-IF)": "", + "Lung Cancer (all types)": "", + "Neuroblastoma (NBL)": "", + "NHL, anaplastic large cell lymphoma": "", + "NHL, Burkitt lymphoma (BL)": "", + "Non cancerous tissue": "", + "Osteosarcoma (OS)": "", + "Rhabdoid tumor (kidney) (RT)": "", + "Rhabdomyosarcoma": "A rare aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. It usually occurs in children and young adults. Only a small percentage of tumors arise in the skeletal muscle of the extremities. The majority arise in other anatomical sites.", + "Soft tissue sarcoma, non-rhabdomyosarcoma": "", + "Wilms tumor (WT)": "" + } + }, + "tumor_code_id": { + "column_description": "BCR-defined id code for the tumor sample.", + "value_data": { + "00": "", + "01": "", + "02": "", + "03": "", + "04": "", + "10": "", + "15": "", + "20": "", + "21": "", + "30": "", + "40": "", + "41": "", + "50": "", + "51": "", + "52": "", + "60": "", + "61": "", + "62": "", + "63": "", + "64": "", + "65": "", + "70": "", + "71": "", + "80": "", + "81": "" + } + }, + "tumor_descriptor": { + "column_description": "Text that describes the kind of disease present in the tumor specimen as related to a specific timepoint.", + "value_data": { + "Metastatic": "", + "New Primary": "", + "NOS": "", + "Premalignant": "", + "Primary": "", + "Recurrence": "", + "Xenograft": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Applicable": "Determination of a value is not relevant in the current context.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "parent_samples": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "relationship_age_at_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "The age (in years) when the patient's relative was first diagnosed.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "relationship_gender": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the gender of the patient's relative with a history of cancer.", + "value_data": { + "female": "A person who belongs to the sex that normally produces ova. The term is used to indicate biological sex distinctions, or cultural gender role distinctions, or both.", + "male": "A person who belongs to the sex that normally produces sperm. The term is used to indicate biological sex distinctions, cultural gender role distinctions, or both.", + "unspecified": "Not stated explicitly or in detail.", + "unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "not reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "relationship_primary_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the malignant diagnosis of the patient's relative with a history of cancer.", + "value_data": { + "Adrenal Gland Cancer": "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the adrenal gland.", + "Basal Cell Cancer": "The most frequently seen skin cancer. It arises from basal cells of the epidermis and pilosebaceous units. Clinically it is divided into the following types: nodular, ulcerative, superficial, multicentric, erythematous, and sclerosing or morphea-like. More than 95% of these carcinomas occur in patients over 40. They develop on hair-bearing skin, most commonly on sun-exposed areas. Approximately 85% are found on the head and neck and the remaining 15% on the trunk and extremities. Basal cell carcinoma usually grows in a slow and indolent fashion. However, if untreated, the tumor may invade the subcutaneous fat, skeletal muscle and bone. Distant metastases are rare. Excision, curettage and irradiation cure most basal cell carcinomas.", + "Bile Duct Cancer": "A carcinoma arising from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts.", + "Bladder Cancer": "A carcinoma arising from the bladder epithelium. Approximately 90% of the bladder carcinomas are transitional cell carcinomas. The remainder are squamous cell carcinomas, adenocarcinomas and small cell neuroendocrine carcinomas.", + "Blood Cancer": "A malignant tumor that originates from myeloid or lymphoid cells i.e., leukemias and lymphomas.", + "Bone Cancer": "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the bone or articular cartilage.", + "Brain Cancer": "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the brain.", + "Breast Cancer": "A carcinoma arising from the breast, most commonly the terminal ductal-lobular unit. It is the most common malignant tumor in females. Risk factors include country of birth, family history, menstrual and reproductive history, fibrocystic disease and epithelial hyperplasia, exogenous estrogens, contraceptive agents, and ionizing radiation. The vast majority of breast carcinomas are adenocarcinomas (ductal or lobular). Breast carcinoma spreads by direct invasion, by the lymphatic route, and by the blood vessel route. The most common site of lymph node involvement is the axilla.", + "Cancer": "A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.", + "Cervical Cancer": "A carcinoma arising from either the exocervical squamous epithelium or the endocervical glandular epithelium. The major histologic types of cervical carcinoma are: squamous carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, adenosquamous carcinoma, adenoid cystic carcinoma and undifferentiated carcinoma.", + "Chondrosarcoma": "A malignant cartilaginous matrix-producing mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the bone and soft tissue. It usually affects middle-aged to elderly adults. The pelvic bones, ribs, shoulder girdle, and long bones are the most common sites of involvement. Most chondrosarcomas arise de novo, but some may develop in a preexisting benign cartilaginous lesion.", + "CNS Cancer": "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the brain or spinal cord. Representative examples include anaplastic astrocytoma, glioblastoma, anaplastic (malignant) meningioma, lymphoma, and metastatic carcinoma from another anatomic site.", + "Colorectal Cancer": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the colon or rectum and invades through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa. The vast majority are adenocarcinomas.", + "Esophageal Cancer": "A malignant epithelial tumor arising from the esophageal mucosa. Two major histologic types of esophageal carcinoma have been described: squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. This type of cancer is associated with excessive ethanol and cigarette usage.", + "Ewing Sarcoma": "A small round cell tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation. It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor. It affects mostly males under age 20, and it can occur in soft tissue or bone. Pain and the presence of a mass are the most common clinical symptoms.", + "Gallbladder Cancer": "A malignant tumor arising from the epithelium of the gallbladder. It is usually associated with the presence of gallstones. Clinical symptoms are not specific and usually present late in the course. Morphologically, most gallbladder carcinomas are adenocarcinomas; squamous cell carcinomas, adenosquamous carcinomas, signet ring carcinomas, and undifferentiated carcinomas can also occur.", + "Gastric Cancer": "A malignant epithelial tumor of the stomach mucosa. The vast majority of gastric carcinomas are adenocarcinomas, arising from the gastric glandular epithelium.", + "Glioblastoma": "The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade IV). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and it is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. It may develop from diffuse astrocytoma WHO grade II or anaplastic astrocytoma (secondary glioblastoma, IDH-mutant), but more frequently, it manifests after a short clinical history de novo, without evidence of a less malignant precursor lesion (primary glioblastoma, IDH- wildtype). (Adapted from WHO)", + "Gynecologic Cancer": "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the female reproductive system. Representative examples include endometrial carcinoma, cervical carcinoma, ovarian carcinoma, uterine corpus leiomyosarcoma, adenosarcoma, malignant mixed mesodermal (mullerian) tumor, and gestational choriocarcinoma.", + "Head and Neck Cancer": "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the head and neck. Representative examples include oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma, laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma, and salivary gland carcinoma.", + "Hematologic Cancer": "A neoplasm arising from hematopoietic cells found in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, lymph nodes and spleen (organs of the hematopoietic system). Hematopoietic cell neoplasms can also involve other anatomic sites (e.g. central nervous system, gastrointestinal tract), either by metastasis, direct tumor infiltration, or neoplastic transformation of extranodal lymphoid tissues. The commonest forms are the various types of leukemia, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, myeloproliferative neoplasms, and myelodysplastic syndromes.", + "Kaposi Sarcoma": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by a vascular proliferation which usually contains blunt endothelial cells. Erythrocyte extravasation and hemosiderin deposition are frequently present. The most frequent site of involvement is the skin; however it may also occur internally. It generally develops in people with compromised immune systems including those with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS).", + "Kidney Cancer": "A carcinoma arising from the epithelium of the renal parenchyma or the renal pelvis. The majority are renal cell carcinomas. Kidney carcinomas usually affect middle aged and elderly adults. Hematuria, abdominal pain, and a palpable mass are common symptoms.", + "Laryngeal Cancer": "Carcinoma that arises from the laryngeal epithelium. More than 90% of laryngeal carcinomas are squamous cell carcinomas. The remainder are adenoid cystic carcinomas, mucoepidermoid carcinomas and carcinomas with neuroendocrine differentiation.", + "Leukemia": "A malignant (clonal) hematologic disorder, involving hematopoietic stem cells and characterized by the presence of primitive or atypical myeloid or lymphoid cells in the bone marrow and the blood. Leukemias are classified as acute or chronic based on the degree of cellular differentiation and the predominant cell type present. Leukemia is usually associated with anemia, fever, hemorrhagic episodes, and splenomegaly. Common leukemias include acute myeloid leukemia, chronic myelogenous leukemia, acute lymphoblastic or precursor lymphoblastic leukemia, and chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Treatment is vital to patient survival; untreated, the natural course of acute leukemias is normally measured in weeks or months, while that of chronic leukemias is more often measured in months or years.", + "Liver Cancer": "A carcinoma that arises from the hepatocytes or intrahepatic bile ducts. The main subtypes are hepatocellular carcinoma (hepatoma) and cholangiocarcinoma.", + "Lung Cancer": "A carcinoma originating in the lung. Lung carcinomas usually arise from the epithelium that lines the bronchial tree (bronchogenic carcinomas), and are classified as small cell or non-small cell carcinomas. Non-small cell lung carcinomas are usually adenocarcinomas, squamous cell carcinomas, or large cell carcinomas. Metastatic carcinomas to the lung are also common, and can be difficult to distinguish from primary tumors.", + "Lymph Node Cancer": "A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the lymph node. Lymphomas and metastatic carcinomas are representative examples.", + "Lymphoma": "A malignant (clonal) proliferation of B- lymphocytes or T- lymphocytes which involves the lymph nodes, bone marrow and/or extranodal sites. This category includes Non-Hodgkin lymphomas and Hodgkin lymphomas.", + "Melanoma": "A malignant, usually aggressive tumor composed of atypical, neoplastic melanocytes. Most often, melanomas arise in the skin (cutaneous melanomas) and include the following histologic subtypes: superficial spreading melanoma, nodular melanoma, acral lentiginous melanoma, and lentigo maligna melanoma. Cutaneous melanomas may arise from acquired or congenital melanocytic or dysplastic nevi. Melanomas may also arise in other anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal system, eye, urinary tract, and reproductive system. Melanomas frequently metastasize to lymph nodes, liver, lungs, and brain.", + "Mesothelioma": "A usually malignant and aggressive neoplasm of the mesothelium which is often associated with exposure to asbestos.", + "Multiple Myeloma": "A bone marrow-based plasma cell neoplasm characterized by a serum monoclonal protein and skeletal destruction with osteolytic lesions, pathological fractures, bone pain, hypercalcemia, and anemia. Clinical variants include non-secretory myeloma, smoldering myeloma, indolent myeloma, and plasma cell leukemia.", + "Neuroblastoma": "A neuroblastic tumor characterized by the presence of neuroblastic cells, the absence of ganglion cells, and the absence of a prominent Schwannian stroma formation.", + "Osteosarcoma": "A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm, predominantly affecting adolescents and young adults. It usually involves bones and less frequently extraosseous sites. It often involves the long bones (particularly distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus). Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most frequent clinical symptom. It may spread to other anatomic sites, particularly the lungs.", + "Ovarian Cancer": "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the ovary. Most primary malignant ovarian neoplasms are either carcinomas (serous, mucinous, or endometrioid adenocarcinomas) or malignant germ cell tumors. Metastatic malignant neoplasms to the ovary include carcinomas, lymphomas, and melanomas.", + "Pancreas Cancer": "A carcinoma arising from the exocrine pancreas. The overwhelming majority of pancreatic carcinomas are adenocarcinomas.", + "Pediatric Liver Cancer": "A malignant neoplasm of the liver developed in childhood. Representative examples include hepatoblastoma, undifferentiated (embryonal) sarcoma, and extrarenal rhabdoid tumor.", + "Prostate Cancer": "One of the most common malignant tumors afflicting men. The majority of carcinomas arise in the peripheral zone and a minority occur in the central or the transitional zone of the prostate gland. Grossly, prostatic carcinomas appear as ill-defined yellow areas of discoloration in the prostate gland lobes. Adenocarcinomas represent the overwhelming majority of prostatic carcinomas. Prostatic-specific antigen (PSA) serum test is widely used as a screening test for the early detection of prostatic carcinoma. Treatment options include radical prostatectomy, radiation therapy, androgen ablation and cryotherapy. Watchful waiting or surveillance alone is an option for older patients with low-grade or low-stage disease.", + "Rectal Cancer": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the rectum and invades through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa. The vast majority are adenocarcinomas.", + "Rhabdomyosarcoma": "A rare aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. It usually occurs in children and young adults. Only a small percentage of tumors arise in the skeletal muscle of the extremities. The majority arise in other anatomical sites.", + "Sarcoma": "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm of the soft tissue or bone. It arises from muscle, fat, fibrous tissue, bone, cartilage, and blood vessels. Sarcomas occur in both children and adults. The prognosis depends largely on the degree of differentiation (grade) of the neoplasm. Representative subtypes are liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, osteosarcoma, and chondrosarcoma.", + "Skin Cancer": "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the skin. Primary malignant skin neoplasms most often are carcinomas (either basal cell or squamous cell carcinomas) or melanomas. Metastatic malignant neoplasms to the skin include carcinomas and lymphomas.", + "Spleen Cancer": "A malignant neoplasm affecting the spleen. Representative examples include leukemias, lymphomas, and sarcomas.", + "Testicular Cancer": "A malignant tumor predominantly affecting young men and often associated with cryptorchidism. Seminoma is the most frequently seen malignant testicular germ cell tumor, followed by embryonal carcinoma and yolk sac tumor.", + "Throat Cancer": "Carcinoma, predominantly squamous cell, arising from epithelial cells of the larynx or pharynx.", + "Thyroid Cancer": "A carcinoma arising from the thyroid gland. It includes the following main subtypes: follicular, papillary, medullary, poorly differentiated, and undifferentiated (anaplastic) carcinoma.", + "Tongue Cancer": "A malignant tumor arising from the epithelium that covers the tongue. The vast majority of tongue carcinomas are moderately or poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinomas.", + "Tonsillar Cancer": "A carcinoma arising from the tonsilar epithelium.", + "Uterine Cancer": "Primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the uterine corpus and/or the cervix.", + "Wilms Tumor": "An embryonal neoplasm characterized by the presence of epithelial, mesenchymal, and blastema components. The vast majority of cases arise from the kidney. A small number of cases with morphologic features resembling Wilms tumor of the kidney have been reported arising from the ovary and the cervix.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "relationship_type": { + "column_description": "The subgroup that describes the state of connectedness between members of the unit of society organized around kinship ties.", + "value_data": { + "Adopted Brother": "A male sibling who is legally adopted by one's biological parent or legal guardian.", + "Adopted Daughter": "A female child in the parent-child relationship established by a legal adoption proceeding.", + "Adopted Sister": "A female sibling who is legally adopted by one's biological parent or legal guardian.", + "Adopted Son": "A male child in the parent-child relationship established by a legal adoption proceeding.", + "Adoptive Father": "A male parent in the parent-child relationship established by a legal adoption proceeding.", + "Adoptive Mother": "A female parent in the parent-child relationship established by a legal adoption proceeding.", + "Aunt": "The sister of your father or mother; the wife of your uncle.", + "Brother": "A male sibling.", + "Brother-in-law": "A brother by marriage.", + "Child": "An age group comprised of individuals who are not yet an adult. The specific cut-off age will vary by purpose.", + "Cousin": "A child of your aunt or uncle or their descendents.", + "Daughter": "A female human offspring.", + "Daughter-in-law": "The wife of your son.", + "Domestic Partner": "Indicates a person who is a member of an unmarried couple, including same sex couples, living together in longstanding relationships, that are registered or unregistered.", + "Father": "A male parent.", + "Father-in-law": "The father of your spouse.", + "Female Cousin": "A female child of one's aunt or uncle.", + "Female Sibling of Adopted Child": "A female sibling of an adopted child. The said female is a biological or legal child of the parents who facilitated the adoption.", + "First Cousin": "A child of your aunt or uncle.", + "First Cousin Once Removed": "A child of your first cousin.", + "First Degree Relative, NOS": "", + "Foster Brother": "A male child being fostered by your parents or legal guardians.", + "Foster Daughter": "A female child you are fostering.", + "Foster Father": "A male foster parent.", + "Foster Mother": "A female foster parent.", + "Foster Sister": "A female child being fostered by your parents or legal guardians.", + "Foster Son": "A male child you are fostering.", + "Fraternal Twin Brother": "A male full sibling that developed from a separately fertilized ova during the same pregnancy.", + "Fraternal Twin Sibling": "Either of the two offspring from separately fertilized ova during the same pregnancy.", + "Fraternal Twin Sister": "A female full sibling that developed from a separately fertilized ova during the same pregnancy.", + "Full Brother": "A male who shares with his sibling the genetic makeup inherited from both of the biological parents.", + "Full Sister": "A female who shares with her sibling the genetic makeup inherited from both of the biological parents.", + "Grand Nephew": "A male child of one's niece or nephew.", + "Grand Niece": "A female child of one's niece or nephew.", + "Grandchild": "A child of your son or daughter.", + "Granddaughter": "A female grandchild.", + "Grandfather": "The father of your father or mother.", + "Grandmother": "The mother of your father or mother.", + "Grandparent": "A parent of your father or mother.", + "Grandson": "A male grandchild.", + "Great Grandchild": "A child of one's grandchild.", + "Half Brother": "A male sibling with whom you share a single parent.", + "Half Sibling": "A sibling with whom you share a single parent.", + "Half Sister": "A female sibling with whom you share a single parent.", + "Husband": "A male partner in marriage.", + "Identical Twin Brother": "A male full sibling that developed from a shared ovum.", + "Identical Twin Sibling": "Either of the two offspring resulting from a shared ovum.", + "Identical Twin Sister": "A female full sibling that developed from a shared ovum.", + "Legal Guardian": "An individual who is authorized under applicable State or local law to consent on behalf of a child or incapable person to general medical care including participation in clinical research.", + "Male Cousin": "A male child of one's aunt or uncle.", + "Male Sibling of Adopted Child": "A male sibling of an adopted child. The said male is a biological or legal child of the parents who facilitated the adoption.", + "Maternal Aunt": "A female relative who is a sibling of the biological mother, and who both share a common ancestor.", + "Maternal First Cousin": "A relative who is the offspring of a sibling of the biological mother and thus sharing a common ancestor.", + "Maternal First Cousin Once Removed": "A child of one's first cousin who is related by lineage through the mother's side of the family.", + "Maternal Grandfather": "A male relative who is the biological father of the biological mother.", + "Maternal Grandmother": "A female relative who is the biological mother of the biological mother.", + "Maternal Grandparent": "A relative who is the biological parent of the biological mother.", + "Maternal Great Aunt": "The aunt of one's mother.", + "Maternal Great Grandparent": "A parent of one's maternal grandparent.", + "Maternal Great Uncle": "The uncle of one's mother.", + "Maternal Half Brother": "A male sibling who shares the genetic makeup inherited from only the biological mother.", + "Maternal Half Sibling": "A relative with whom you share a biological mother but you have different fathers.", + "Maternal Half Sister": "A female sibling who shares the genetic makeup inherited from only the biological mother.", + "Maternal Uncle": "A male relative who is a sibling of the biological mother, and who both share a common ancestor.", + "Mother": "A female parent.", + "Mother-in-law": "The mother of your spouse.", + "Natural Brother": "A male who shares with his sibling the genetic makeup inherited from one or both of their shared biological parents.", + "Natural Child": "A son or daughter with genetic makeup inherited from the parent.", + "Natural Daughter": "A female human offspring.", + "Natural Father": "A male who contributes to the genetic makeup of his offspring through the fertilization of an ovum by his sperm.", + "Natural Grandchild": "A biological child of an individual's biological child.", + "Natural Grandfather": "A male relative who is the biological father of either the biological mother or the biological father.", + "Natural Grandmother": "A female relative who is the biological mother of either the biological mother or the biological father.", + "Natural Grandparent": "A biological parent of the biological father or biological mother.", + "Natural Mother": "A female who contributes to the genetic makeup of her offspring from the fertilization of her ovum.", + "Natural Parent": "The male who supplied the sperm or the female who supplied the egg which resulted in one's conception.", + "Natural Sibling": "A person's brother or sister with whom they share a genetic makeup inherited from one or both of their shared biological parents.", + "Natural Sister": "A female who shares with her sibling the genetic makeup inherited from one or both of their shared biological parents.", + "Natural Son": "A male progeny with genetic makeup inherited from the parent.", + "Nephew": "A son of your brother or sister.", + "Niece": "A daughter of your brother or sister.", + "Niece Second Degree Relative": "A daughter of one's biological sibling.", + "Parent": "A mother or a father; an immediate progenitor.", + "Paternal Aunt": "A female relative who is a sibling of the biological father, and who both share a common ancestor.", + "Paternal First Cousin": "A relative who is the offspring of a sibling of the biological father and thus sharing a common ancestor.", + "Paternal First Cousin Once Removed": "A child of one's first cousin who is related by lineage through the father's side of the family.", + "Paternal Grandfather": "A male relative who is the biological father of the biological father.", + "Paternal Grandmother": "A female relative who is the biological mother of the biological father.", + "Paternal Grandparent": "A relative who is the biological parent of the biological father.", + "Paternal Great Aunt": "The aunt of one's father.", + "Paternal Great Grandparent": "A parent of one's paternal grandparent.", + "Paternal Great Uncle": "The uncle of one's father.", + "Paternal Half Brother": "A male sibling who shares the genetic makeup inherited from only the biological father.", + "Paternal Half Sibling": "A relative with whom you share a biological father but you have different mothers.", + "Paternal Half Sister": "A female sibling who shares the genetic makeup inherited from only the biological father.", + "Paternal Uncle": "A male relative who is a sibling of the biological father, and who both share a common ancestor.", + "Sibling": "A person's brother or sister.", + "Sister": "A female sibling.", + "Sister-in-law": "A sister by marriage.", + "Son": "A male human offspring.", + "Son-in-law": "The husband of your daughter.", + "Spouse": "A person's partner in marriage.", + "Step Child": "A child of one's spouse, acquired through marriage.", + "Step Sibling": "A child of one's step parent.", + "Stepbrother": "A male child of one's step parent.", + "Stepdaughter": "A female child of one's spouse, acquired through marriage.", + "Stepfather": "A male that is related to a child or children through marriage to their biological parent.", + "Stepmother": "A female who is married to a spouse with children whom are not biologically related to her.", + "Stepsister": "A female child of one's step parent.", + "Stepson": "A male child of one's spouse, acquired through marriage.", + "Twin Sibling": "Either of two offspring born from the same pregnancy.", + "Uncle": "The brother of your father or mother; the husband of your aunt.", + "Unrelated": "Not connected or associated e.g. by kinship.", + "Ward": "A person who is under the protection or in the custody of another.", + "Wife": "A female partner in marriage.", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "relative_deceased": { + "column_description": "The historical fact that a legal or consanguineous family member has died.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "relative_smoker": { + "column_description": "Indication that a legal or consanguineous family member was a smoker.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "relative_with_cancer_history": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether any of the patient's relatives have a history of cancer.", + "value_data": { + "yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "no": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "not reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "relatives_with_cancer_history_count": { + "column_description": "The number of relatives the patient has with a known history of cancer.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "age_at_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "Age at the time of diagnosis expressed in number of days since birth.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_death": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date from a person's date of death represented as a calculated number of days.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "gender": { + "column_description": "Text designations that identify gender. Gender is described as the assemblage of properties that distinguish people on the basis of their societal roles. [Explanatory Comment 1: Identification of gender is based upon self-report and may come from a form, questionnaire, interview, etc.]", + "value_data": { + "female": "A person who belongs to the sex that normally produces ova. The term is used to indicate biological sex distinctions, or cultural gender role distinctions, or both.", + "male": "A person who belongs to the sex that normally produces sperm. The term is used to indicate biological sex distinctions, cultural gender role distinctions, or both.", + "unspecified": "Not stated explicitly or in detail.", + "unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "not reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "ethnicity": { + "column_description": "An individual's self-described social and cultural grouping, specifically whether an individual describes themselves as Hispanic or Latino. The provided values are based on the categories defined by the U.S. Office of Management and Business and used by the U.S. Census Bureau.", + "value_data": { + "hispanic or latino": "A person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race. The term, \"Spanish origin,\" can be used in addition to \"Hispanic or Latino.\" (OMB)", + "not hispanic or latino": "A person not of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "not reported": "Not provided or available.", + "not allowed to collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "icd_10": { + "column_description": "The tenth version of the International Classification of Disease (ICD), published by the World Health Organization in 1992. A system of numbered categories for representation of data. CDE: 3226287.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "race": { + "column_description": "An arbitrary classification of a taxonomic group that is a division of a species. It usually arises as a consequence of geographical isolation within a species and is characterized by shared heredity, physical attributes and behavior, and in the case of humans, by common history, nationality, or geographic distribution. The provided values are based on the categories defined by the U.S. Office of Management and Business and used by the U.S. Census Bureau.", + "value_data": { + "american indian or alaska native": "A person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America (including Central America) and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment. (OMB)", + "asian": "A person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including for example, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam. (OMB)", + "black or african american": "A person having origins in any of the Black racial groups of Africa. Terms such as \"Haitian\" or \"Negro\" can be used in addition to \"Black or African American\". (OMB)", + "native hawaiian or other pacific islander": "A person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands. (OMB)", + "white": "A person having origins in any of the original peoples of Europe, the Middle East, or North Africa. (OMB)", + "other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "not reported": "Not provided or available.", + "not allowed to collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "vital_status": { + "column_description": "The survival state of the person registered on the protocol.", + "value_data": { + "Alive": "Living; showing characteristics of life.", + "Dead": "The cessation of life.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "year_of_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the year of an individual's initial pathologic diagnosis of cancer.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "germline_mutation_calling_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "somatic_annotation_workflows": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "adrenal_hormone": { + "column_description": "Indicates the presence of the adrenal hormone. The adrenal hormone is made from cholesterol and protein produced by the adrenal glands and regulate electrolyte balance, blood pressure, inflammation, blood sugar balance, and immune system control.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "ajcc_clinical_m": { + "column_description": "Extent of the distant metastasis for the cancer based on evidence obtained from clinical assessment parameters determined prior to treatment.", + "value_data": { + "cM0 (i+)": "A distant metastasis TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of distant metastasis clinically or by radiologic studies, but there are small numbers of cells detected by special studies in the blood and bone marrow, or there is tiny metastasis (no larger than 0.2 mm) detected in nonregional lymph nodes.", + "M0": "A distant metastasis TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of distant metastasis.", + "M1": "A clinical and/or pathologic distant metastasis TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites.", + "M1a": "A TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites. The definition of M1a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for colorectal cancer it refers to metastasis confined to one organ or site (e.g., liver, lung, ovary, nonregional node); for prostate cancer it refers to metastasis to non-regional lymph node(s); for bone cancer it refers to metastasis to the lung.", + "M1b": "A TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites. The definition of M1b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in more than one organ/site or the peritoneum; for prostate cancer it refers to metastasis to bone(s); for bone cancer it refers to metastasis to distant sites other than lung.", + "M1c": "A TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites. The definition of M1c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for prostate cancer it refers to metastasis to anatomic site(s) other than bone, with or without bone disease; for retinoblastoma it refers to central nervous system metastasis; for melanoma of the uvea it refers to distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 8.0 cm or more.", + "MX": "A distant metastasis TNM finding indicating that the status of distant metastasis cannot be assessed.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "ajcc_clinical_n": { + "column_description": "Extent of the regional lymph node involvement for the cancer based on evidence obtained from clinical assessment parameters determined prior to treatment.", + "value_data": { + "N0": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of regional lymph node metastasis.", + "N0 (i+)": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there are malignant cells in regional lymph node(s) no greater than 0.2 mm and are detected by hematoxylin and eosin stain or immunohistochemistry.", + "N0 (i-)": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there are malignant cells in regional lymph node(s) no greater than 0.2 mm and are detected by hematoxylin and eosin stain or immunohistochemistry.", + "N0 (mol+)": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of regional lymph node metastasis histologically and by immunohistochemistry, but the molecular analysis (RT-PCR) is positive.", + "N0 (mol-)": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of regional lymph node metastasis histologically and by immunohistochemistry, but the molecular analysis (RT-PCR) is positive.", + "N1": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases usually in a limited number of regional lymph nodes. The definition of N1 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to micrometastases or metastases in 1-3 axillary lymph nodes; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to metastasis in 1 regional lymph node; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in 1-3 regional lymph nodes; and for bladder cancer it refers to metastasis in 1 regional lymph node in the true pelvis.", + "N1a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases usually in a limited number of regional lymph nodes. The definition of N1a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastasis in 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes (at least 1 tumor deposit greater than 2.0 mm); for cutaneous melanoma it refers to micrometastasis in one regional lymph node; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastasis in one regional lymph node.", + "N1b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases usually in a limited number of regional lymph nodes. The definition of N1b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in internal mammary lymph nodes with micrometastases or macrometastases detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy but not clinically detected; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to macrometastasis in one regional lymph node; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastasis in 2-3 regional lymph nodes.", + "N1bI": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is metastasis to 1-3 nodes. The metastasis is greater than 2 mm and all are less than 20 mm.", + "N1bII": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is metastasis to four or more nodes. The metastasis is greater than 2 mm and all are less than 20 mm.", + "N1bIII": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that the tumor extends beyond the lymph node capsule and is less than 20 mm.", + "N1bIV": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that the metastases to the lymph nodes are more than 20 mm.", + "N1c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases usually in a limited number of regional lymph nodes. The definition of N1c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes and in internal mammary lymph nodes with micrometastases or macrometastases detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy but not clinically detected; for colorectal cancer it refers to tumor deposit(s) in the subserosa, mesentery, or nonperitonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues without regional lymph node metastasis.", + "N1mi": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating the presence of micrometastases (greater than 0.2 mm and/or more than 200 cells, but none greater than 2.0 mm).", + "N2": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 4-9 axillary lymph nodes; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to metastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in 4 or more regional lymph nodes; and for bladder cancer it refers to metastases in multiple regional lymph nodes in the true pelvis.", + "N2a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 4 to 9 axillary lymph nodes (at least 1 tumor deposit greater than 2.0 mm); for cutaneous melanoma it refers to micrometastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in 4-6 regional lymph nodes.", + "N2b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases only in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary nodes and in the absence of clinically evident level I, II axillary lymph node metastases; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to macrometastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in seven or more regional lymph nodes.", + "N2c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for cutaneous melanoma it refers to intralymphatic metastases (in transit or satellite metastases) without metastatic nodes; for lip and oral cavity cancer it refers to metastases in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.", + "N3": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 10 or more axillary lymph nodes; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to metastases in 4 or more regional lymph nodes; for gastric cancer it refers to metastases in 7 or more regional lymph nodes; and for bladder cancer it refers to metastases in common iliac lymph nodes.", + "N3a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 10 or more axillary lymph nodes (at least one tumor deposit greater than 2.0 mm) or metastases to the infraclavicular (level III axillary) lymph nodes; for gastric cancer it refers to metastases in 7-15 regional lymph nodes; for nasopharyngeal cancer it refers to metastases to one or more lymph nodes greater than 6 cm in greatest dimension.", + "N3b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary lymph nodes in the presence of one or more positive axillary lymph nodes, or in more than 3 axillary lymph nodes and in internal mammary lymph nodes with micrometastases or macrometastases detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy but not clinically detected; for gastric cancer it refers to metastases in sixteen or more regional lymph nodes; for nasopharyngeal cancer it refers to extension to the supraclavicular fossa.", + "N3c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph nodes.", + "N4": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N4 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for ocular adnexal lymphoma it refers to metastases to central lymph nodes.", + "NX": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that the status of regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "ajcc_clinical_stage": { + "column_description": "Stage group determined from clinical information on the tumor (T), regional node (N) and metastases (M) and by grouping cases with similar prognosis for cancer.", + "value_data": { + "Stage 0": "Cancer confined to the epithelium without invasion of the basement membrane.", + "Stage 0a": "Cancer confined to the epithelium with formation of papillary structures without invasion of the basement membrane or noninvasive localized squamous cell carcinoma.", + "Stage 0is": "Cancer confined to the epithelium with formation of a flat surface without invasion of the basement membrane.", + "Stage I": "Invasive cancer confined to the original anatomic site of growth without lymph node involvement.", + "Stage IA": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to invasive cancer that is diagnosed microscopically only. The stromal invasion has a maximum depth of 5.00 mm and a horizontal spread of 7.00 mm or less; for endometrial cancer, it refers to cancer limited to endometrium or invades less than one-half of the myometrium.", + "Stage IA1": "A stage term referring to invasive cervical and lung cancer. For cervical cancer, it includes: T1a1, N0, M0. T1a1: Tumor with stromal invasion 3.0 mm or less in depth and 7.0 mm or less in horizontal spread. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. For lung cancer, it includes: (T1mi, N0, M0); (T1a, N0, M0). T1mi: Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma: adenocarcinoma (3 cm or less in greatest dimension) with a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. T1a: Tumor measuring 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. A superficial, spreading tumor of any size whose invasive component is limited to the bronchial wall and may extend proximal to the main bronchus also is classified as T1a, but these tumors are uncommon. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (adapted from AJCC)", + "Stage IA2": "A stage term referring to invasive cervical cancer and invasive lung cancer. For cervical cancer, it includes: T1a2, N0, M0. T1a2: Tumor with stromal invasion more than 3.0 mm and not more than 5.0 mm with a horizontal spread 7.0 mm or less. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. For lung cancer, it includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Tumor measuring more than 1 cm but 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (adapted from AJCC)", + "Stage IA3": "", + "Stage IB": "Invasive cancer confined to the original anatomic site of growth without lymph node involvement. The definition of stage IB depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IB is defined as follows: (T0, N1mi, M0); (T1, N1mi, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. N1mi: Nodal micrometastases. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for bone cancer, stage IB is defined as follows: (T2, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX). T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well differentiated-low grade. G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IB1": "A stage term referring to invasive cervical cancer that is confined to the cervix without lymph node involvement. It includes: T1b1, N0, M0. T1b1: Clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC)", + "Stage IB2": "A stage term referring to invasive cervical cancer that is confined to the cervix without lymph node involvement. It includes: T1b2, N0, M0. T1b2: Clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC)", + "Stage IB Cervix": "Invasive cancer confined to the original anatomic site of growth without lymph node involvement. The definition of stage IB depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IB is defined as follows: (T0, N1mi, M0); (T1, N1mi, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. N1mi: Nodal micrometastases. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for bone cancer, stage IB is defined as follows: (T2, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX). T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well differentiated-low grade. G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IC": "A cancer stage generally indicating the local invasion of tissues by cancer at the primary site.", + "Stage II": "Invasive cancer more extensive than stage I, usually involving local lymph nodes without spread to distant anatomic sites.", + "Stage II Cervix": "Invasive cancer more extensive than stage I, usually involving local lymph nodes without spread to distant anatomic sites.", + "Stage IIA": "Invasive cancer more extensive than stage I, usually involving local lymph nodes without spread to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIA depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIA is defined as follows: (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor more than 20 mm but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for bone cancer, stage IIA is defined as follows: T1, N0, M0, G3, G4. T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G3: Poorly differentiated. G4: Undifferentiated. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIA1": "A stage term that applies to cervical cancer and indicates that the tumor invades beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to the lower third of vagina. There is no parametrial invasion. The lesion is clinically visible and measures 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension.", + "Stage IIA2": "A stage term that applies to cervical cancer and indicates that the tumor invades beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to the lower third of vagina. There is no parametrial invasion. The lesion is clinically visible and measures more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension.", + "Stage IIA Cervix": "Invasive cancer more extensive than stage I, usually involving local lymph nodes without spread to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIA depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIA is defined as follows: (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor more than 20 mm but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for bone cancer, stage IIA is defined as follows: T1, N0, M0, G3, G4. T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G3: Poorly differentiated. G4: Undifferentiated. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIB": "Invasive cancer more extensive than stage I, usually involving local lymph nodes without spread to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIB depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIB is defined as follows: (T2, N1, MO); (T3, NO, MO). T2: Tumor more than 20 mm but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for bone cancer, stage IIB is defined as follows: T2, N0, M0, G3, G4. T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G3: Poorly differentiated. G4: Undifferentiated. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIC": "A cancer stage generally indicating the invasion of adjacent structures by cancer without distant metastases.", + "Stage IIC1": "", + "Stage III": "Locally advanced cancer that has spread to nearby organs but not to distant anatomic sites.", + "Stage IIIA": "Locally advanced cancer that has spread to nearby organs but not to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIIA depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIIA is defined as follows: (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor more than 20 mm but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s). N2: Metastases in ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph nodes that are clinically fixed or matted; or in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary nodes in the absence of clinically evident axillary lymph node metastases. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for cervical cancer, stage IIIA is defined as follows: T3a, N0, M0. T3a: Tumor involves lower third of vagina, no extension to pelvic wall. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIIB": "Locally advanced cancer that has spread to nearby organs but not to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIIB depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIIB is defined as follows: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0). T4: Tumor of any size with direct extension to the chest wall and/or to the skin (ulceration or skin nodules). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s). N2: Metastases in ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph nodes that are clinically fixed or matted; or in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary nodes in the absence of clinically evident axillary lymph node metastases. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for cervical cancer, stage IIIB is defined as follows: (T3b, Any N, M0); (T1-3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor extends to pelvic wall and/or involves lower third of vagina, and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney. T3b: Tumor extends to pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIIC": "Locally advanced cancer that has spread to nearby organs but not to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIIC depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIIC is defined as follows: Any T, N3, M0. N3: Metastases in ipsilateral infraclavicular (level III) axillary lymph nodes(s) with or without level I, II axillary lymph node involvement; or in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary lymph node(s) with clinically evident level I, II axillary lymph node metastases; or metastases in ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph node(s) with or without axillary or internal mammary lymph node involvement. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for appendix carcinoma, stage IIIC is defined as follows: Any T, N2, M0. N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIIC1": "A stage term that applies to uterine corpus cancer and indicates that the tumor is confined to the corpus uteri, or it invades the stromal connective tissue of the cervix but does not extend beyond the uterus, or it involves serosa and/or adnexa, vagina, or parametrial tissue. There is regional lymph node metastasis to the pelvic lymph nodes.", + "Stage IIIC2": "A stage term that applies to uterine corpus cancer and indicates that the tumor is confined to the corpus uteri, or it invades stromal connective tissue of the cervix but does not extend beyond the uterus, or it involves serosa and/or adnexa, vagina, or parametrial tissue. There is regional lymph node metastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes, with or without positive pelvic lymph nodes.", + "Stage IS": "Testicular cancer found in the testicle, spermatic cord and scrotum, associated with slightly elevated levels of all tumor markers or moderately/highly elevated levels of one or more tumor markers.", + "Stage IV": "Cancer that has spread to distant anatomic sites beyond its original site of growth.", + "Stage IVA": "Cancer that has spread to distant anatomic sites beyond its original site of growth. The definition of stage IVA depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for bone cancer, stage IVA is defined as follows: Any T, N0, M1a, Any G. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M1a: Distant metastasis to lung; for vaginal cancer, stage IVA is defined as follows: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor invades mucosa of the bladder or rectum and/or extends beyond the true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient evidence to classify a tumor as T4). M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IVB": "Cancer that has spread to distant anatomic sites beyond its original site of growth. The definition of stage IVB depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for bone cancer, stage IVB is defined as follows: (Any T, N1, Any M, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M1b: Metastasis to other distant sites; for vaginal cancer, stage IVB is defined as follows: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IVC": "Cancer that has spread to distant anatomic sites beyond its original site of growth. The definition of stage IVC depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for head and neck carcinomas (lip and oral cavity carcinoma, laryngeal carcinoma, nasal cavity and paranasal sinus carcinoma, pharynx carcinoma, thyroid gland carcinoma, and major salivary gland carcinoma) and head and neck mucosal melanoma, stage IVC is defined as follows: any T, any N, M1; for appendix carcinoma, stage IVC is defined as follows: any T, any N, M1b, any G. M1: Distant metastasis. M1b: Nonperitoneal metastasis. G: Grade (cellular differentiation).", + "Stage Tis": "A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor microscopically defined as carcinoma in situ.", + "Stage X": "A stage term that is applied to patients who have not been evaluated, but are presumed to have cancer.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "ajcc_clinical_t": { + "column_description": "Extent of the primary cancer based on evidence obtained from clinical assessment parameters determined prior to treatment.", + "value_data": { + "T0": "A primary tumor TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of primary tumor.", + "T1": "A clinical and/or pathologic primary tumor TNM finding indicating that the cancer is limited to the site of growth.", + "T1a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth. The definition of T1a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 0.1cm, but not more than 0.5 cm in greatest dimension; for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is 4 cm or less in greatest dimension; and for thyroid cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is 1 cm or less in greatest dimension.", + "T1a1": "Invasive cervical carcinoma with measured stromal invasion of 3.0 mm or less in depth and 7.0 mm or less in horizontal spread. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T1a2": "Invasive cervical carcinoma with measured stromal invasion of more than 3.0 mm and not more than 5.0 mm, with a horizontal spread of 7.0 mm or less. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T1b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth. The definition of T1b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 0.5 cm, but not more than 1.0 cm in greatest dimension; for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 4 cm, but not more than 7 cm in greatest dimension; and for thyroid cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 1 cm but not more than 2 cm in greatest dimension.", + "T1b1": "Cervical cancer with clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T1b2": "Cervical cancer with clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T1c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth. The definition of T1c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 1.0 cm, but not more than 2.0 cm in greatest dimension; for uterine corpus cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades one-half or more of the myometrium; and for melanoma of the iris it refers to a primary tumor limited to the iris with secondary glaucoma.", + "T1mi": "A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth and indicates microinvasion only.", + "T2": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to primary tumor that is more than 2.0 cm, but not more than 5.0 cm in greatest dimension; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to primary tumor that is 1.01 to 2 mm in thickness, with or without ulceration; for colorectal cancer it refers to primary tumor with invasion into the muscularis propria; and for bladder cancer it refers to primary tumor with invasion into the muscle layer.", + "T2a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that measures more than 7 cm but less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension, and is limited to the kidney; for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the superficial muscularis propria (inner half); for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to the lower third of vagina and there is no parametrial invasion.", + "T2a1": "Cervical carcinoma invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina without parametrial invasion. Clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T2a2": "Cervical carcinoma invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina without parametrial invasion. Clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T2b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that measures more than 10 cm in greatest dimension, and is limited to the kidney; for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the deep muscularis propria (outer half); for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to the lower third of vagina and there is parametrial invasion.", + "T2c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for prostate cancer it refers to a primary tumor that involves both lobes of the prostate gland; for ovarian cancer it refers to a primary tumor that involves one or both ovaries with extension or implants on the uterus and/or fallopian tubes, or other pelvic tissues, with malignant cells in either ascites or peritoneal washings; for fallopian tube cancer it refers to a primary tumor with pelvic extension and malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.", + "T2d": "A TNM stage finding term that refers to choroidal and ciliary body melanoma or conjunctival melanoma TNM staging. For choroidal and ciliary body melanoma it means tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension 5 mm or less in largest diameter. For conjunctival melanoma it means caruncular tumor, and more than 1 quadrant of the nonbulbar conjunctiva involved. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T3": "A clinical and/or pathologic primary tumor TNM finding usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive, without infiltration of adjacent structures.", + "T3a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive. The definition of T3a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that grossly extends into the renal vein or its segmental (muscle containing) branches or the tumor invades perirenal and/or renal sinus fat but does not extends beyond Gerota's fascia; for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that involves the lower third of vagina, without extension to pelvic wall; for liver cancer it refers to the presence of multiple tumors measuring more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.", + "T3b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive. The definition of T3b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that grossly extends into the vena cava below the diaphragm; for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that extends to the pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney; for liver cancer it refers to a single tumor or multiple tumors of any size involving a major branch of the portal vein or hepatic vein.", + "T3c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive. The definition of T3c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that grossly extends into the vena cava above the diaphragm, or invades the wall of the vena cava; for fallopian tube cancer it refers to a primary tumor with peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis measuring more than 2 cm in diameter; for melanoma of the conjunctiva it refers to a primary tumor invading the orbit.", + "T3d": "A TNM stage finding term that refers to choroidal and ciliary body melanoma, conjunctival melanoma, or retinoblastoma TNM staging. For choroidal and ciliary body melanoma it means tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension 5 mm or less in largest diameter. For conjunctival melanoma it means tumor of any size invading the nasolacrimal duct and/or lacrimal sac and/or paranasal sinuses. For retinoblastoma it means hyphema and/or massive vitreous hemorrhage (clinical) or full-thickness invasion into the outer third of the sclera and/or invasion into or around emissary channels (pathologic). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T4": "A clinical and/or pathologic primary tumor TNM finding indicating direct invasion of adjacent structures by cancer.", + "T4a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the prostatic stroma, uterus, and vagina; for gastric cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum); for colorectal cancer it refers to a primary tumor that penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.", + "T4b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the pelvic wall and abdominal wall; for gastric cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades adjacent structures; for colorectal cancer it refers to a primary tumor with direct invasion or adherence to other organs or structures.", + "T4c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that extends to the chest wall, not including the pectoralis muscle, and with edema (including peau d'orange) or ulceration of the skin of the breast or satellite skin nodules confined to the same breast; for ocular adnexal lymphoma it refers to a primary tumor that Involves the maxillofacial, ethmoidal, and/or frontal sinuses; for carcinoma of the conjunctiva it refers to a primary tumor that invades adjacent paranasal sinuses.", + "T4d": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4d TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that meets the clinical-pathologic criteria of inflammatory carcinoma; for ocular adnexal lymphoma it refers to a primary tumor with intracranial spread; for carcinoma of the conjunctiva it refers to a primary tumor that invades the brain.", + "T4e": "Choroidal and ciliary body melanoma, any tumor size category with extraocular extension more than 5 mm in largest diameter. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "Ta": "A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary, non-invasive, papillary cancer.", + "Tis": "A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor microscopically defined as carcinoma in situ.", + "Tis (DCIS)": "Breast cancer with a finding of ductal carcinoma in situ. Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is a benign entity and is removed from TNM staging in the AJCC Cancer Staging Manual, 8th Edition. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "Tis (LCIS)": "Breast cancer with a finding of lobular carcinoma in situ. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Ed.)", + "Tis (Paget's)": "Paget disease involving the skin overlying the mammary gland, without accompanying invasive ductal or lobular breast carcinoma.", + "TX": "A primary tumor TNM finding indicating that the status of the primary tumor cannot be assessed.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "ajcc_pathologic_m": { + "column_description": "Code to represent the defined absence or presence of distant spread or metastases (M) to locations via vascular channels or lymphatics beyond the regional lymph nodes, using criteria established by the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC).", + "value_data": { + "cM0 (i+)": "A distant metastasis TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of distant metastasis clinically or by radiologic studies, but there are small numbers of cells detected by special studies in the blood and bone marrow, or there is tiny metastasis (no larger than 0.2 mm) detected in nonregional lymph nodes.", + "M0": "A distant metastasis TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of distant metastasis.", + "M1": "A clinical and/or pathologic distant metastasis TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites.", + "M1a": "A TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites. The definition of M1a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for colorectal cancer it refers to metastasis confined to one organ or site (e.g., liver, lung, ovary, nonregional node); for prostate cancer it refers to metastasis to non-regional lymph node(s); for bone cancer it refers to metastasis to the lung.", + "M1b": "A TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites. The definition of M1b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in more than one organ/site or the peritoneum; for prostate cancer it refers to metastasis to bone(s); for bone cancer it refers to metastasis to distant sites other than lung.", + "M1c": "A TNM finding indicating the spread of cancer to distant anatomic sites. The definition of M1c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for prostate cancer it refers to metastasis to anatomic site(s) other than bone, with or without bone disease; for retinoblastoma it refers to central nervous system metastasis; for melanoma of the uvea it refers to distant metastasis, with the largest diameter of the largest metastasis measuring 8.0 cm or more.", + "M1d": "", + "M2": "", + "MX": "A distant metastasis TNM finding indicating that the status of distant metastasis cannot be assessed.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "ajcc_pathologic_n": { + "column_description": "The codes that represent the stage of cancer based on the nodes present (N stage) according to criteria based on multiple editions of the AJCC's Cancer Staging Manual.", + "value_data": { + "N0": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of regional lymph node metastasis.", + "N0 (i+)": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there are malignant cells in regional lymph node(s) no greater than 0.2 mm and are detected by hematoxylin and eosin stain or immunohistochemistry.", + "N0 (i-)": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there are malignant cells in regional lymph node(s) no greater than 0.2 mm and are detected by hematoxylin and eosin stain or immunohistochemistry.", + "N0 (mol+)": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of regional lymph node metastasis histologically and by immunohistochemistry, but the molecular analysis (RT-PCR) is positive.", + "N0 (mol-)": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of regional lymph node metastasis histologically and by immunohistochemistry, but the molecular analysis (RT-PCR) is positive.", + "N1": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases usually in a limited number of regional lymph nodes. The definition of N1 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to micrometastases or metastases in 1-3 axillary lymph nodes; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to metastasis in 1 regional lymph node; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in 1-3 regional lymph nodes; and for bladder cancer it refers to metastasis in 1 regional lymph node in the true pelvis.", + "N1a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases usually in a limited number of regional lymph nodes. The definition of N1a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastasis in 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes (at least 1 tumor deposit greater than 2.0 mm); for cutaneous melanoma it refers to micrometastasis in one regional lymph node; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastasis in one regional lymph node.", + "N1b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases usually in a limited number of regional lymph nodes. The definition of N1b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in internal mammary lymph nodes with micrometastases or macrometastases detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy but not clinically detected; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to macrometastasis in one regional lymph node; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastasis in 2-3 regional lymph nodes.", + "N1bI": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is metastasis to 1-3 nodes. The metastasis is greater than 2 mm and all are less than 20 mm.", + "N1bII": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that there is metastasis to four or more nodes. The metastasis is greater than 2 mm and all are less than 20 mm.", + "N1bIII": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that the tumor extends beyond the lymph node capsule and is less than 20 mm.", + "N1bIV": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that the metastases to the lymph nodes are more than 20 mm.", + "N1c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases usually in a limited number of regional lymph nodes. The definition of N1c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes and in internal mammary lymph nodes with micrometastases or macrometastases detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy but not clinically detected; for colorectal cancer it refers to tumor deposit(s) in the subserosa, mesentery, or nonperitonealized pericolic or perirectal tissues without regional lymph node metastasis.", + "N1mi": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating the presence of micrometastases (greater than 0.2 mm and/or more than 200 cells, but none greater than 2.0 mm).", + "N2": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 4-9 axillary lymph nodes; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to metastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in 4 or more regional lymph nodes; and for bladder cancer it refers to metastases in multiple regional lymph nodes in the true pelvis.", + "N2a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 4 to 9 axillary lymph nodes (at least 1 tumor deposit greater than 2.0 mm); for cutaneous melanoma it refers to micrometastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in 4-6 regional lymph nodes.", + "N2b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases only in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary nodes and in the absence of clinically evident level I, II axillary lymph node metastases; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to macrometastases in 2-3 regional lymph nodes; for colorectal cancer it refers to metastases in seven or more regional lymph nodes.", + "N2c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in several regional lymph nodes. The definition of N2c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for cutaneous melanoma it refers to intralymphatic metastases (in transit or satellite metastases) without metastatic nodes; for lip and oral cavity cancer it refers to metastases in bilateral or contralateral lymph nodes, none more than 6 cm in greatest dimension.", + "N2mi": "", + "N3": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 10 or more axillary lymph nodes; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to metastases in 4 or more regional lymph nodes; for gastric cancer it refers to metastases in 7 or more regional lymph nodes; and for bladder cancer it refers to metastases in common iliac lymph nodes.", + "N3a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in 10 or more axillary lymph nodes (at least one tumor deposit greater than 2.0 mm) or metastases to the infraclavicular (level III axillary) lymph nodes; for gastric cancer it refers to metastases in 7-15 regional lymph nodes; for nasopharyngeal cancer it refers to metastases to one or more lymph nodes greater than 6 cm in greatest dimension.", + "N3b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary lymph nodes in the presence of one or more positive axillary lymph nodes, or in more than 3 axillary lymph nodes and in internal mammary lymph nodes with micrometastases or macrometastases detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy but not clinically detected; for gastric cancer it refers to metastases in sixteen or more regional lymph nodes; for nasopharyngeal cancer it refers to extension to the supraclavicular fossa.", + "N3c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N3c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to metastases in ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph nodes.", + "N4": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of cancer metastases in multiple lymph nodes. The definition of N4 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for ocular adnexal lymphoma it refers to metastases to central lymph nodes.", + "NX": "A regional lymph node TNM finding indicating that the status of regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "ajcc_pathologic_stage": { + "column_description": "The extent of a cancer, especially whether the disease has spread from the original site to other parts of the body based on AJCC staging criteria.", + "value_data": { + "Stage 0": "", + "Stage 0a": "Cancer confined to the epithelium with formation of papillary structures without invasion of the basement membrane or noninvasive localized squamous cell carcinoma.", + "Stage 0is": "Cancer confined to the epithelium with formation of a flat surface without invasion of the basement membrane.", + "Stage I": "Invasive cancer confined to the original anatomic site of growth without lymph node involvement.", + "Stage IA": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to invasive cancer that is diagnosed microscopically only. The stromal invasion has a maximum depth of 5.00 mm and a horizontal spread of 7.00 mm or less; for endometrial cancer, it refers to cancer limited to endometrium or invades less than one-half of the myometrium.", + "Stage IA1": "A stage term referring to invasive cervical and lung cancer. For cervical cancer, it includes: T1a1, N0, M0. T1a1: Tumor with stromal invasion 3.0 mm or less in depth and 7.0 mm or less in horizontal spread. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. For lung cancer, it includes: (T1mi, N0, M0); (T1a, N0, M0). T1mi: Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma: adenocarcinoma (3 cm or less in greatest dimension) with a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. T1a: Tumor measuring 1 cm or less in greatest dimension. A superficial, spreading tumor of any size whose invasive component is limited to the bronchial wall and may extend proximal to the main bronchus also is classified as T1a, but these tumors are uncommon. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (adapted from AJCC)", + "Stage IA2": "A stage term referring to invasive cervical cancer and invasive lung cancer. For cervical cancer, it includes: T1a2, N0, M0. T1a2: Tumor with stromal invasion more than 3.0 mm and not more than 5.0 mm with a horizontal spread 7.0 mm or less. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. For lung cancer, it includes: T1b, N0, M0. T1b: Tumor measuring more than 1 cm but 2 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (adapted from AJCC)", + "Stage IA3": "", + "Stage IB": "Invasive cancer confined to the original anatomic site of growth without lymph node involvement. The definition of stage IB depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IB is defined as follows: (T0, N1mi, M0); (T1, N1mi, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. N1mi: Nodal micrometastases. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for bone cancer, stage IB is defined as follows: (T2, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX); (T3, N0, M0, G1, G2, GX). T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension. T3: Discontinuous tumors in the primary bone site. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well differentiated-low grade. G2: Moderately differentiated-low grade. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IB1": "A stage term referring to invasive cervical cancer that is confined to the cervix without lymph node involvement. It includes: T1b1, N0, M0. T1b1: Clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC)", + "Stage IB2": "A stage term referring to invasive cervical cancer that is confined to the cervix without lymph node involvement. It includes: T1b2, N0, M0. T1b2: Clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC)", + "Stage IC": "A cancer stage generally indicating the local invasion of tissues by cancer at the primary site.", + "Stage II": "Invasive cancer more extensive than stage I, usually involving local lymph nodes without spread to distant anatomic sites.", + "Stage IIA": "Invasive cancer more extensive than stage I, usually involving local lymph nodes without spread to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIA depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIA is defined as follows: (T0, N1, M0); (T1, N1, M0); (T2, N0, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor more than 20 mm but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for bone cancer, stage IIA is defined as follows: T1, N0, M0, G3, G4. T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G3: Poorly differentiated. G4: Undifferentiated. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIA1": "A stage term that applies to cervical cancer and indicates that the tumor invades beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to the lower third of vagina. There is no parametrial invasion. The lesion is clinically visible and measures 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension.", + "Stage IIA2": "A stage term that applies to cervical cancer and indicates that the tumor invades beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to the lower third of vagina. There is no parametrial invasion. The lesion is clinically visible and measures more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension.", + "Stage IIB": "Invasive cancer more extensive than stage I, usually involving local lymph nodes without spread to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIB depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIB is defined as follows: (T2, N1, MO); (T3, NO, MO). T2: Tumor more than 20 mm but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for bone cancer, stage IIB is defined as follows: T2, N0, M0, G3, G4. T2: Tumor more than 8 cm in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G3: Poorly differentiated. G4: Undifferentiated. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIC": "A cancer stage generally indicating the invasion of adjacent structures by cancer without distant metastases.", + "Stage III": "Locally advanced cancer that has spread to nearby organs but not to distant anatomic sites.", + "Stage IIIA": "Locally advanced cancer that has spread to nearby organs but not to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIIA depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIIA is defined as follows: (T0, N2, M0); (T1, N2, M0); (T2, N2, M0); (T3, N1, M0); (T3, N2, M0). T0: No evidence of primary tumor. T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. T2: Tumor more than 20 mm but not more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. T3: Tumor more than 50 mm in greatest dimension. N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s). N2: Metastases in ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph nodes that are clinically fixed or matted; or in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary nodes in the absence of clinically evident axillary lymph node metastases. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for cervical cancer, stage IIIA is defined as follows: T3a, N0, M0. T3a: Tumor involves lower third of vagina, no extension to pelvic wall. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIIA1": "", + "Stage IIIA2": "", + "Stage IIIB": "Locally advanced cancer that has spread to nearby organs but not to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIIB depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIIB is defined as follows: (T4, N0, M0); (T4, N1, M0); (T4, N2, M0). T4: Tumor of any size with direct extension to the chest wall and/or to the skin (ulceration or skin nodules). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. N1: Metastasis to movable ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph node(s). N2: Metastases in ipsilateral level I, II axillary lymph nodes that are clinically fixed or matted; or in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary nodes in the absence of clinically evident axillary lymph node metastases. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for cervical cancer, stage IIIB is defined as follows: (T3b, Any N, M0); (T1-3, N1, M0). T3: Tumor extends to pelvic wall and/or involves lower third of vagina, and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney. T3b: Tumor extends to pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney. N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIIC": "Locally advanced cancer that has spread to nearby organs but not to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIIC depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IIIC is defined as follows: Any T, N3, M0. N3: Metastases in ipsilateral infraclavicular (level III) axillary lymph nodes(s) with or without level I, II axillary lymph node involvement; or in clinically detected ipsilateral internal mammary lymph node(s) with clinically evident level I, II axillary lymph node metastases; or metastases in ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph node(s) with or without axillary or internal mammary lymph node involvement. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for appendix carcinoma, stage IIIC is defined as follows: Any T, N2, M0. N2: Metastasis in four or more regional lymph nodes. M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IIIC1": "A stage term that applies to uterine corpus cancer and indicates that the tumor is confined to the corpus uteri, or it invades the stromal connective tissue of the cervix but does not extend beyond the uterus, or it involves serosa and/or adnexa, vagina, or parametrial tissue. There is regional lymph node metastasis to the pelvic lymph nodes.", + "Stage IIIC2": "A stage term that applies to uterine corpus cancer and indicates that the tumor is confined to the corpus uteri, or it invades stromal connective tissue of the cervix but does not extend beyond the uterus, or it involves serosa and/or adnexa, vagina, or parametrial tissue. There is regional lymph node metastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes, with or without positive pelvic lymph nodes.", + "Stage IIID": "Locally advanced cancer that has spread to nearby organs but not to distant anatomic sites. The definition of stage IIID depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for cutaneous melanoma, stage IIID is defined as follows: T4b, N3a/b/c, M0. T4b: Tumor measuring more than 4.0 mm in thickness. Ulceration status: With ulceration. N3a: Four or more clinically occult nodal metastasis (i.e., detected by sentinel lymph node biopsy). Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. N3b: Four or more nodal metastases, at least one of which was clinically detected, or presence of any number of matted nodes. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: No. N3c: Two or more clinically occult nodal metastases. Presence of in-transit, satellite, and/or microsatellite metastases: Yes. M0: No evidence of distant metastasis. LDH level is not applicable. (partially adapted from AJCC 8th ed.)", + "Stage IS": "Testicular cancer found in the testicle, spermatic cord and scrotum, associated with slightly elevated levels of all tumor markers or moderately/highly elevated levels of one or more tumor markers.", + "Stage IV": "Cancer that has spread to distant anatomic sites beyond its original site of growth.", + "Stage IVA": "Cancer that has spread to distant anatomic sites beyond its original site of growth. The definition of stage IVA depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for bone cancer, stage IVA is defined as follows: Any T, N0, M1a, Any G. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M1a: Distant metastasis to lung; for vaginal cancer, stage IVA is defined as follows: T4, Any N, M0. T4: Tumor invades mucosa of the bladder or rectum and/or extends beyond the true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient evidence to classify a tumor as T4). M0: No distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IVB": "Cancer that has spread to distant anatomic sites beyond its original site of growth. The definition of stage IVB depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for bone cancer, stage IVB is defined as follows: (Any T, N1, Any M, Any G); (Any T, Any N, M1b, Any G). N1: Regional lymph node metastasis. M1b: Metastasis to other distant sites; for vaginal cancer, stage IVB is defined as follows: Any T, Any N, M1. M1: Distant metastasis. (partially adapted from AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Stage IVC": "Cancer that has spread to distant anatomic sites beyond its original site of growth. The definition of stage IVC depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for head and neck carcinomas (lip and oral cavity carcinoma, laryngeal carcinoma, nasal cavity and paranasal sinus carcinoma, pharynx carcinoma, thyroid gland carcinoma, and major salivary gland carcinoma) and head and neck mucosal melanoma, stage IVC is defined as follows: any T, any N, M1; for appendix carcinoma, stage IVC is defined as follows: any T, any N, M1b, any G. M1: Distant metastasis. M1b: Nonperitoneal metastasis. G: Grade (cellular differentiation).", + "Stage Tis": "A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor microscopically defined as carcinoma in situ.", + "Stage X": "A stage term that is applied to patients who have not been evaluated, but are presumed to have cancer.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "ajcc_pathologic_t": { + "column_description": "Code of pathological T (primary tumor) to define the size or contiguous extension of the primary tumor (T), using staging criteria from the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC).", + "value_data": { + "T0": "A primary tumor TNM finding indicating that there is no evidence of primary tumor.", + "T1": "A clinical and/or pathologic primary tumor TNM finding indicating that the cancer is limited to the site of growth.", + "T1a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth. The definition of T1a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 0.1cm, but not more than 0.5 cm in greatest dimension; for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is 4 cm or less in greatest dimension; and for thyroid cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is 1 cm or less in greatest dimension.", + "T1a1": "Invasive cervical carcinoma with measured stromal invasion of 3.0 mm or less in depth and 7.0 mm or less in horizontal spread. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T1a2": "Invasive cervical carcinoma with measured stromal invasion of more than 3.0 mm and not more than 5.0 mm, with a horizontal spread of 7.0 mm or less. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T1b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth. The definition of T1b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 0.5 cm, but not more than 1.0 cm in greatest dimension; for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 4 cm, but not more than 7 cm in greatest dimension; and for thyroid cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 1 cm but not more than 2 cm in greatest dimension.", + "T1b1": "Cervical cancer with clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T1b2": "Cervical cancer with clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T1c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth. The definition of T1c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that is more than 1.0 cm, but not more than 2.0 cm in greatest dimension; for uterine corpus cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades one-half or more of the myometrium; and for melanoma of the iris it refers to a primary tumor limited to the iris with secondary glaucoma.", + "T1c2": "", + "T1mi": "A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor limited to the site of growth and indicates microinvasion only.", + "T2": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2 TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to primary tumor that is more than 2.0 cm, but not more than 5.0 cm in greatest dimension; for cutaneous melanoma it refers to primary tumor that is 1.01 to 2 mm in thickness, with or without ulceration; for colorectal cancer it refers to primary tumor with invasion into the muscularis propria; and for bladder cancer it refers to primary tumor with invasion into the muscle layer.", + "T2a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that measures more than 7 cm but less than or equal to 10 cm in greatest dimension, and is limited to the kidney; for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the superficial muscularis propria (inner half); for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to the lower third of vagina and there is no parametrial invasion.", + "T2a1": "Cervical carcinoma invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina without parametrial invasion. Clinically visible lesion 4.0 cm or less in greatest dimension. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T2a2": "Cervical carcinoma invading beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina without parametrial invasion. Clinically visible lesion more than 4.0 cm in greatest dimension. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T2b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that measures more than 10 cm in greatest dimension, and is limited to the kidney; for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the deep muscularis propria (outer half); for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to the lower third of vagina and there is parametrial invasion.", + "T2c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor growth beyond the level of in situ cancer, minimal subepithelial invasion, or minimal greatest diameter. The definition of T2c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for prostate cancer it refers to a primary tumor that involves both lobes of the prostate gland; for ovarian cancer it refers to a primary tumor that involves one or both ovaries with extension or implants on the uterus and/or fallopian tubes, or other pelvic tissues, with malignant cells in either ascites or peritoneal washings; for fallopian tube cancer it refers to a primary tumor with pelvic extension and malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washings.", + "T2d": "A TNM stage finding term that refers to choroidal and ciliary body melanoma or conjunctival melanoma TNM staging. For choroidal and ciliary body melanoma it means tumor size category 2 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension 5 mm or less in largest diameter. For conjunctival melanoma it means caruncular tumor, and more than 1 quadrant of the nonbulbar conjunctiva involved. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T3": "A clinical and/or pathologic primary tumor TNM finding usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive, without infiltration of adjacent structures.", + "T3a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive. The definition of T3a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that grossly extends into the renal vein or its segmental (muscle containing) branches or the tumor invades perirenal and/or renal sinus fat but does not extends beyond Gerota's fascia; for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that involves the lower third of vagina, without extension to pelvic wall; for liver cancer it refers to the presence of multiple tumors measuring more than 5 cm in greatest dimension.", + "T3b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive. The definition of T3b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that grossly extends into the vena cava below the diaphragm; for cervical cancer it refers to a primary tumor that extends to the pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidney; for liver cancer it refers to a single tumor or multiple tumors of any size involving a major branch of the portal vein or hepatic vein.", + "T3c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor usually indicating that the cancer is locally invasive. The definition of T3c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for kidney cancer it refers to a primary tumor that grossly extends into the vena cava above the diaphragm, or invades the wall of the vena cava; for fallopian tube cancer it refers to a primary tumor with peritoneal metastasis outside the pelvis measuring more than 2 cm in diameter; for melanoma of the conjunctiva it refers to a primary tumor invading the orbit.", + "T3d": "A TNM stage finding term that refers to choroidal and ciliary body melanoma, conjunctival melanoma, or retinoblastoma TNM staging. For choroidal and ciliary body melanoma it means tumor size category 3 with ciliary body involvement and extraocular extension 5 mm or less in largest diameter. For conjunctival melanoma it means tumor of any size invading the nasolacrimal duct and/or lacrimal sac and/or paranasal sinuses. For retinoblastoma it means hyphema and/or massive vitreous hemorrhage (clinical) or full-thickness invasion into the outer third of the sclera and/or invasion into or around emissary channels (pathologic). (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "T4": "A clinical and/or pathologic primary tumor TNM finding indicating direct invasion of adjacent structures by cancer.", + "T4a": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4a TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the prostatic stroma, uterus, and vagina; for gastric cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the serosa (visceral peritoneum); for colorectal cancer it refers to a primary tumor that penetrates to the surface of the visceral peritoneum.", + "T4b": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4b TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for bladder cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades the pelvic wall and abdominal wall; for gastric cancer it refers to a primary tumor that invades adjacent structures; for colorectal cancer it refers to a primary tumor with direct invasion or adherence to other organs or structures.", + "T4c": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4c TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that extends to the chest wall, not including the pectoralis muscle, and with edema (including peau d'orange) or ulceration of the skin of the breast or satellite skin nodules confined to the same breast; for ocular adnexal lymphoma it refers to a primary tumor that Involves the maxillofacial, ethmoidal, and/or frontal sinuses; for carcinoma of the conjunctiva it refers to a primary tumor that invades adjacent paranasal sinuses.", + "T4d": "A general term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor with direct invasion of adjacent structures. The definition of T4d TNM finding depends on the specific type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer it refers to a primary tumor that meets the clinical-pathologic criteria of inflammatory carcinoma; for ocular adnexal lymphoma it refers to a primary tumor with intracranial spread; for carcinoma of the conjunctiva it refers to a primary tumor that invades the brain.", + "T4e": "Choroidal and ciliary body melanoma, any tumor size category with extraocular extension more than 5 mm in largest diameter. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "Ta": "A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary, non-invasive, papillary cancer.", + "Tis": "A term that refers to a TNM finding of a primary tumor microscopically defined as carcinoma in situ.", + "Tis (DCIS)": "Breast cancer with a finding of ductal carcinoma in situ. Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is a benign entity and is removed from TNM staging in the AJCC Cancer Staging Manual, 8th Edition. (from AJCC 8th Ed.)", + "Tis (LCIS)": "Breast cancer with a finding of lobular carcinoma in situ. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Ed.)", + "Tis (Paget's)": "Paget disease involving the skin overlying the mammary gland, without accompanying invasive ductal or lobular breast carcinoma.", + "TX": "A primary tumor TNM finding indicating that the status of the primary tumor cannot be assessed.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "ajcc_staging_system_edition": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the version or edition of the American Joint Committee on Cancer Staging Handbooks, a publication by the group formed for the purpose of developing a system of staging for cancer that is acceptable to the American medical profession and is compatible with other accepted classifications.", + "value_data": { + "1st": "", + "2nd": "", + "3rd": "", + "4th": "", + "5th": "", + "6th": "A cancer stage defined according to the AJCC 6th edition criteria.", + "7th": "A cancer stage defined according to the AJCC 7th edition criteria.", + "8th": "A cancer stage defined according to the AJCC 8th edition criteria.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "ann_arbor_b_symptoms": { + "column_description": "Text term to signify whether lymphoma B-symptoms are present as noted in the patient's medical record.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "ann_arbor_b_symptoms_described": { + "column_description": "Text descibing the specific lymphoma B-symptoms present.", + "value_data": { + "Fever": "", + "Night Sweats": "", + "Weight Loss": "", + "Other": "" + } + }, + "ann_arbor_clinical_stage": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the clinical classification of lymphoma, as defined by the Ann Arbor Lymphoma Staging System.", + "value_data": { + "Stage I": "A clinical stage that refers to lymphoma involving a single lymph node region or a single extranodal organ (Ie).", + "Stage II": "A clinical stage that refers to lymphoma involving two or more node regions on the same side of the diaphragm or a single extranodal organ plus its regional lymph nodes with or without other nodes on the same side of the diaphragm (IIe).", + "Stage III": "A clinical stage that refers to lymphoma involving node regions on both sides of the diaphragm, or an extralymphatic organ or site plus nodes on both sides of the diaphragm (IIIe), or lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm plus spleen (IIIs).", + "Stage IV": "A clinical stage that refers to diffuse extralymphatic involvement by lymphoma.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "ann_arbor_extranodal_involvement": { + "column_description": "Indicator that identifies whether a patient with malignant lymphoma has lymphomatous involvement of an extranodal site.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "ann_arbor_pathologic_stage": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the pathologic classification of lymphoma, as defined by the Ann Arbor Lymphoma Staging System.", + "value_data": { + "Stage I": "A pathologic stage that refers to lymphoma involving a single lymph node region or a single extranodal organ (Ie).", + "Stage II": "A pathologic stage that refers to lymphoma involving two or more node regions on the same side of the diaphragm or a single extranodal organ plus its regional lymph nodes with or without other nodes on the same side of the diaphragm (IIe).", + "Stage III": "A pathologic stage that refers to lymphoma involving node regions on both sides of the diaphragm, or an extralymphatic organ or site plus nodes on both sides of the diaphragm (IIIe), or lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm plus spleen (IIIs).", + "Stage IV": "A pathologic stage that refers to diffuse extralymphatic involvement by lymphoma.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "best_overall_response": { + "column_description": "The best improvement achieved throughout the entire course of protocol treatment.", + "value_data": { + "AJ-Adjuvant Therapy": "Any therapy that is administered to augment or stimulate other treatment modalities or to minimize or prevent disease recurrence subsequent to the main treatment plan.", + "CPD-Clinical Progression": "The worsening of a disease over time.", + "CR-Complete Response": "The disappearance of all signs of cancer in response to treatment.", + "CRU-Complete Response Unconfirmed": "An indication that a finding of complete response to treatment has not been confirmed.", + "DU-Disease Unchanged": "In an unchanged or similar condition.", + "IMR-Immunoresponse": "A marked decrease in contrast enhancement that is not due to actual tumor shrinkage, but that may be due to immunotherapy.", + "IPD-Immunoprogression": "A marked increase in contrast enhancement that is not due to actual tumor growth, but that may be due to a reaction to immunotherapy.", + "MR-Minimal/Marginal Response": "Some response with no new symptoms or disease and not meeting partial response.", + "MX-Mixed Response": "An indication that some disease characteristics are improving while others are worsening over time.", + "Non-CR/Non-PD-Non-CR/Non-PD": "", + "NPB-No Palliative Benefit": "An indication that the treatment for a patient is not relieving symptoms or providing comfort.", + "NR-No Response": "No apparent change or worsening in lesion staging classification.", + "PA-Palliative Therapy": "The patient- and family-centered active holistic care of patients with advanced, progressive disease. Essential components of palliative care are: pain and symptom control, communication regarding treatment and alternatives, prognosis, and available services, rehabilitation services, care that addresses treatment and palliative concerns, intellectual, emotional, social, and spiritual needs, terminal care, support in bereavement. The goal of palliative care is an achievement of the best quality of life for patients and their families.", + "PB-Palliative Benefit": "Any action or response, without curative intent, that mitigates some or all of the unpleasant effects of a disease or condition.", + "PD-Progressive Disease": "Any action or response, without curative intent, that mitigates some or all of the unpleasant effects of a disease or condition.", + "PPD-Pseudoprogression": "A radiologic finding observed during magnetic resonance imaging of brain glioblastoma, following concurrent radiotherapy and temozolomide treatment or vaccine therapy. It refers to the false positive finding of progression and enhancement of the lesion. It is considered a treatment effect due to tumor cell necrosis and subsequent edema formation and increased vascular permeability.", + "PR-Partial Response": "A finding indicating that there is a decrease in the size and the extent of tissue involvement by a malignant tumor in a patient.", + "PSR-Pseudoresponse": "A marked decrease in contrast enhancement that is not due to actual tumor shrinkage, but that may be due to anti-angiogenic therapy or an increase in steroid dosage.", + "RD-Responsive Disease": "An indication that a patient's disease is responding to treatment.", + "RP-Response": "The pathologic and/or clinical changes that result from treatment. The changes may include eradication of detectable disease, stabilization of disease, or disease progression.", + "RPD-Radiographic Progressive Disease": "An indication that the radiographically detectable signs of disease are becoming more prominent over time.", + "sCR-Stringent Complete Response": "The confirmed disappearance of all signs of cancer, and absence of molecular or cytogenetic marker of disease, in response to treatment with additional biochemical, immunological and histopathological analyses to verify the CR.", + "SD-Stable Disease": "Cancer that is neither decreasing nor increasing in extent or severity.", + "SPD-Surgical Progression": "", + "TE-Too Early": "At a point before the usual, expected, or specified time.", + "VGPR-Very Good Partial Response": "Partial response with additional serum and urine M-protein reduction, but not meeting complete response." + } + }, + "burkitt_lymphoma_clinical_variant": { + "column_description": "Burkitt's lymphoma categorization based on clinical features that differ from other forms of the same disease.", + "value_data": { + "Endemic": "A clinical variant of Burkitt lymphoma that occurs in equatorial Africa. The Epstein-Barr virus has been detected in all patients. It is the most common malignancy of childhood in this area.", + "Immunodeficiency-associated, adult": "Burkitt lymphoma in a patient with immunodeficiency.", + "Immunodeficiency-associated, pediatric": "Burkitt lymphoma in a patient with immunodeficiency.", + "Sporadic, adult": "A clinical variant of Burkitt lymphoma that occurs throughout the world. It affects both children and adults and is more frequently seen in males.", + "Sporadic, pediatric": "A clinical variant of Burkitt lymphoma that occurs throughout the world. It affects both children and adults and is more frequently seen in males.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "cancer_detection_method": { + "column_description": "The method used to detect disease.", + "value_data": { + "Screening": "", + "Surveillance": "", + "Symptomatic": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "child_pugh_classification": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the classification used in the prognosis of chronic liver disease, mainly cirrhosis.", + "value_data": { + "A": "Child-Pugh score indicating one-year survival of 100% in patients with chronic liver disease and cirrhosis. This score is determined by the study of the following five factors: bilirubin, albumin, international normalized ratio, presence and degree of ascites, and presence and degree of encephalopathy.", + "A5": "A total score of 5 for hepatic function, corresponding to class A in the Child-Pugh classification.", + "A6": "A total score of 6 for hepatic function, corresponding to class A in the Child-Pugh classification.", + "B": "Child-Pugh score indicating one-year survival of 80% in patients with chronic liver disease and cirrhosis. This score is determined by the study of the following five factors: bilirubin, albumin, international normalized ratio, presence and degree of ascites, and presence and degree of encephalopathy.", + "B7": "A total score of 7 for hepatic function, corresponding to class B in the Child-Pugh classification.", + "B8": "A total score of 8 for hepatic function, corresponding to class B in the Child-Pugh classification.", + "B9": "A total score of 9 for hepatic function, corresponding to class B in the Child-Pugh classification.", + "C": "Child-Pugh score indicating one-year survival of 45% in patients with chronic liver disease and cirrhosis. This score is determined by the study of the following five factors: bilirubin, albumin, international normalized ratio, presence and degree of ascites, and presence and degree of encephalopathy.", + "C10": "A total score of 10 for hepatic function, corresponding to class C in the Child-Pugh classification.", + "C11": "A total score of 11 for hepatic function, corresponding to class C in the Child-Pugh classification.", + "C12": "A total score of 12 for hepatic function, corresponding to class C in the Child-Pugh classification.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "clark_level": { + "column_description": "A morphologic finding indicating the cutaneous melanoma depth of invasion into the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.", + "value_data": { + "I": "A morphologic finding indicating that the cutaneous melanoma is confined to the epidermis and does not invade the dermis.", + "II": "A morphologic finding indicating that the cutaneous melanoma has invaded part of the papillary dermis but the malignant cellular infiltrate has not reached the papillary-reticular dermis interface.", + "III": "A morphologic finding indicating that the cutaneous melanoma has invaded the entire thickness of the papillary dermis but the malignant cellular infiltrate does not extend into the reticular dermis.", + "IV": "A morphologic finding indicating that the cutaneous melanoma has invaded the reticular dermis.", + "V": "A morphologic finding indicating that the cutaneous melanoma has invaded the subcutaneous tissue.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "classification_of_tumor": { + "column_description": "Text that describes the kind of disease present in the tumor specimen as related to a specific timepoint.", + "value_data": { + "metastasis": "A tumor that has spread from its original (primary) site of growth to another site, close to or distant from the primary site. Metastasis is characteristic of advanced malignancies, but in rare instances can be seen in neoplasms lacking malignant morphology.", + "Premalignant": "A neoplasm that is composed of dysplastic cells and there is no morphologic evidence of infiltration of the surrounding tissues.", + "primary": "A tumor at the original site of origin.", + "Prior primary": "", + "Progression": "", + "recurrence": "The reemergence of a neoplasm after a period of remission.", + "Synchronous primary": "", + "other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "not reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "cog_liver_stage": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the staging classification of liver tumors, as defined by the Children's Oncology Group (COG). This staging system specifically describes the extent of the primary tumor prior to treatment.", + "value_data": { + "Stage I": "Invasive cancer confined to the original anatomic site of growth without lymph node involvement.", + "Stage II": "Invasive cancer more extensive than stage I, usually involving local lymph nodes without spread to distant anatomic sites.", + "Stage III": "Locally advanced cancer that has spread to nearby organs but not to distant anatomic sites.", + "Stage IV": "Cancer that has spread to distant anatomic sites beyond its original site of growth.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "cog_neuroblastoma_risk_group": { + "column_description": "Text term that represents the categorization of patients on the basis of prognostic factors per a system developed by Children's Oncology Group (COG). Risk level is used to assign treatment intensity.", + "value_data": { + "High Risk": "The potential future harm that may arise from some present action or attribute or condition is almost certain.", + "Intermediate Risk": "The potential future harm that may arise from some present action or attribute or condition is moderate.", + "Low Risk": "The potential future harm that may arise from some present action or attribute or condition is small.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "cog_renal_stage": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the staging classification of renal tumors, as defined by the Children's Oncology Group (COG).", + "value_data": { + "Stage I": "Wilms' tumor is limited to the kidney and completely excised; the tumor was not ruptured before or during removal; the vessels of the renal sinus are not involved beyond 2 mm; there is no residual tumor present beyond the margins of excision.", + "Stage II": "Wilms' tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely excised; no residual tumor is apparent at or beyond the margins of the excision; tumor thrombus in vessels outside the kidney is Stage II if the thrombus is removed en bloc with the tumor.", + "Stage III": "Residual Wilms' tumor confined to the abdomen; Lymph nodes in the renal hilum, the periaortic chains, or beyond are found to contain tumor; diffuse peritoneal contamination by the tumor; implants are found on the peritoneal surfaces; tumor extends beyond the surgical margins either microscopically or grossly; tumor is not completely resectable because of local infiltration into vital structures.", + "Stage IV": "Presence of hematogenous metastases or metastases to distant lymph nodes.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "cog_rhabdomyosarcoma_risk_group": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the classification of rhabdomyosarcoma, as defined by the Children's Oncology Group (COG).", + "value_data": { + "High Risk": "The potential future harm that may arise from some present action or attribute or condition is almost certain.", + "Intermediate Risk": "The potential future harm that may arise from some present action or attribute or condition is moderate.", + "Low Risk": "The potential future harm that may arise from some present action or attribute or condition is small.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "contiguous_organ_invaded": { + "column_description": "The organ or contiguous site the disease migrated to from the primary site.", + "value_data": { + "Adrenal": "A flattened, roughly triangular body resting upon the upper end of each kidney; it is one of the ductless glands furnishing internal secretions (epinephrine and norepinephrine from the medulla and steroid hormones from the cortex).", + "Bladder": "The distensible sac-like organ that functions as a reservoir of urine, collecting from the kidneys and eliminating via the urethra.", + "Colon": "The part of the large intestine measured from the cecum to the rectum consisting of ascending, transverse, descending and sigmoid portions. The purpose of the colon is to remove water from digested food prior to excretion.", + "Inferior Vena Cava": "A large vein that returns blood from the lower half of the body to the heart.", + "Kidney": "One of the two bean-shaped organs located on each side of the spine in the retroperitoneum. The right kidney is located below the liver and the left kidney below the diaphragm. The kidneys filter and secret the metabolic products and minerals from the blood, thus maintaining the homeostasis. On the superior pole of each kidney there is an adrenal gland. Each kidney and adrenal gland is surrounded by fat.", + "Liver": "A triangular-shaped organ located under the diaphragm in the right hypochondrium. It is the largest internal organ of the body, weighting up to 2 kg. Metabolism and bile secretion are its main functions. It is composed of cells which have the ability to regenerate.", + "Small Bowel": "The section of the intestines between the pylorus and cecum. The small intestine is approximately 20 feet long and consists of the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. Its main function is to absorb nutrients from food as the food is transported to the large intestine.", + "Spleen": "An organ that is part of the hematopoietic and immune systems. It is composed of the white pulp and the red pulp and is surrounded by a capsule. It is located in the left hypochondriac region. Its functions include lymphocyte production, blood cell storage, and blood cell destruction.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "days_to_best_overall_response": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date of the patient was thought to have the best overall response to their disease.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date the patient was diagnosed with the malignant disease.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_last_follow_up": { + "column_description": "Time interval from the date of last follow up to the date of initial pathologic diagnosis, represented as a calculated number of days.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "days_to_last_known_disease_status": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date the patient's disease status was known.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "diagnosis_is_primary_disease": { + "column_description": "Indicates whether this specific diagnosis represents the disease that was the primary focus of the study. Additionally, this diagnosis is reflected at the case level, which is captured using the case.disease_type property.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "double_expressor_lymphoma": { + "column_description": "An immunohistochemical finding indicating the presence of double expression of MYC and BCL2 proteins in the neoplastic cells of a tumor sample.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "", + "No": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "double_hit_lymphoma": { + "column_description": "A rare B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that is characterized by the abnormal rearrangement of two genes, MYC gene and either BCL2 or BCL6 genes. Patients with this type of lymphoma usually respond poorly to standard treatments and have a poor prognosis.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "", + "No": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "eln_risk_classification": { + "column_description": "A recommended risk stratification system used to provide prognostic information in AML patients undergoing chemotherapy as well as allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.", + "value_data": { + "Adverse": "", + "Favorable": "Expressing something as positive, advantageous or desired.", + "Intermediate": "Lying between two extremes in time or space or degree.", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "enneking_msts_grade": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the surgical grade of the musculoskeletal sarcoma, using the Enneking staging system approved by the Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS).", + "value_data": { + "High Grade (G2)": "A high-grade lesion, corresponding to Broder's Grades 3 and 4, having a higher incidence of metastasis and characterized histologically by mitotic figures, prominent nucleoli, and pleomorphism.", + "Low Grade (G1)": "A low-grade lesion, corresponding to Broder's Grades 1 or 2, with a low risk for distant spread (< 25%). These tumors are characterized by low mitotic rates, low nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio, and limited pleomorphism.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "enneking_msts_metastasis": { + "column_description": "Text term and code that represents the metastatic stage of the musculoskeletal sarcoma, using the Enneking staging system approved by the Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS).", + "value_data": { + "No Metastasis (M0)": "No metastasis.", + "Regional or Distant Metastasis (M1)": "Regional or distant metastasis.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "enneking_msts_stage": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the stage of the musculoskeletal sarcoma, using the Enneking staging system approved by the Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS).", + "value_data": { + "Stage IA": "A stage for malignant musculoskeletal tumors characterized by low grade (G1), intracomparmental site (T1), and no metastasis (M0).", + "Stage IB": "A stage for malignant musculoskeletal tumors characterized by low grade (G1), extracomparmental site (T2), and no metastasis (M0).", + "Stage IIA": "A stage for malignant musculoskeletal tumors characterized by high grade (G2), intracomparmental site (T1), and no metastasis (M0).", + "Stage IIB": "A stage for malignant musculoskeletal tumors characterized by high grade (G2), intracomparmental site (T2), and no metastasis (M0).", + "Stage III": "A stage for malignant musculoskeletal tumors characterized by any grade, any site, and regional or distant metastasis (M1).", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "enneking_msts_tumor_site": { + "column_description": "Text term and code that represents the tumor site of the musculoskeletal sarcoma, using the Enneking staging system approved by the Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS).", + "value_data": { + "Extracompartmental (T2)": "Bone tumors extend beyond the bone cortex.", + "Intracompartmental (T1)": "Bone tumors are confined within the cortex of the bone.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "ensat_clinical_m": { + "column_description": "A clinical finding about one or more characteristics of adrenal cancer, following the rules of the ENSAT staging v7 classification system as they pertain to distant metastases.", + "value_data": { + "M0": "Adrenal cancer with no involvement of distant organs or tissues. (7th Ed, 2009)", + "M1": "Adrenal cancer with involvement of distant organs or tissues such as liver, bone or brain. (7th Ed, 2009)" + } + }, + "ensat_pathologic_n": { + "column_description": "A pathologic finding about one or more characteristics of adrenal cancer, following the rules of the ENSAT staging v7 classification system as they pertain to staging of the lymph nodes.", + "value_data": { + "N0": "Adrenal cancer with no involvement of regional lymph nodes. (7th Ed, 2009)", + "N1": "Adrenal cancer with involvement of regional lymph nodes. (7th Ed, 2009)" + } + }, + "ensat_pathologic_stage": { + "column_description": "An adrenal cancer stage defined according to the European Network for the Study of Adrenal Tumors (ENSAT) criteria.", + "value_data": { + "Stage I": "Stage I includes: T1, N0, M0. Tumor 5 cm or less in greatest dimension. The tumor has not invaded the surrounding tissues or organs and has not spread to lymph nodes or distant organs or tissues.", + "Stage II": "Stage II includes: T2, N0, M0. Tumor greater than 5 cm. The tumor has not invaded surrounding tissues or organs and has not spread to lymph nodes or distant organs or tissues.", + "Stage III": "Stage III includes: T3/T4, N0/N1, M0. Tumor of any size that has spread to the fat outside the adrenal gland or into nearby organs or tissues and/or has spread to the regional lymph nodes.", + "Stage IV": "Stage IV includes: Any T, Any N, M1. Tumor of any size that involves distant organs such as liver, bone or brain. The tumor may or may not involve nearby organs, tissues or lymph nodes." + } + }, + "ensat_pathologic_t": { + "column_description": "A pathologic finding about one or more characteristics of adrenal cancer, following the rules of the ENSAT staging v7 classification system as they pertain to staging of the primary tumor.", + "value_data": { + "T1": "Adrenal cancer with tumor size equal or less than 5.0 cm. There is no invasion of tissues outside the adrenal gland. (7th Ed, 2009)", + "T2": "Adrenal cancer with tumor size more than 5.0 cm. There is no invasion of tissues outside the adrenal gland. (7th Ed, 2009)", + "T3": "Adrenal cancer with tumor of any size. There is invasion of the fat that surrounds the adrenal gland. (7th Ed, 2009)", + "T4": "Adrenal cancer with tumor of any size. There is invasion of nearby organs such as the kidney, pancreas, spleen or liver. (7th Ed, 2009)" + } + }, + "esophageal_columnar_dysplasia_degree": { + "column_description": "Text term to describe the amount of dysplasia found within the benign esophageal columnar mucosa.", + "value_data": { + "High Grade Dysplasia": "A subjective characterization of the phenomenon of dysplasia, based on microscopic examination of the architectural and/or cytological changes in a tissue sample, that is determined to be high.", + "Indefinite for Dysplasia": "An indication that there is an ambiguous morphological pattern in a tissue sample such that the presence or absence of dysplasia cannot be determined.", + "Low Grade Dysplasia": "A subjective characterization of the phenomenon of dysplasia, based on microscopic examination of the architectural and/or cytological changes in a tissue sample, that is determined to be low.", + "Negative/ No Dysplasia": "An indication that signs of dysplasia were not found in a sample.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "esophageal_columnar_metaplasia_present": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether esophageal columnar metaplasia was determined to be present.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "fab_morphology_code": { + "column_description": "A classification system for acute myeloid leukemias, acute lymphoblastic leukemias, and myelodysplastic syndromes. It is based on the morphologic and cytochemical evaluation of bone marrow and peripheral blood smears.", + "value_data": { + "M0": "", + "M1": "", + "M2": "", + "M3": "", + "M4": "", + "M5": "", + "M6": "", + "M7": "", + "Not Classified": "" + } + }, + "figo_stage": { + "column_description": "The extent of a cervical or endometrial cancer within the body, especially whether the disease has spread from the original site to other parts of the body, as described by the International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stages.", + "value_data": { + "Stage 0": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers and refers to carcinoma in situ. For cervical cancer, it used to refer to cancer that is confined to the cervical epithelium without stromal invasion; for endometrial cancer, it used to refer to cancer that is confined to the endometrium without myometrial invasion. FIGO no longer includes stage 0 cervical or endometrial cancer.", + "Stage I": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to invasive cancer that is confined to the cervix; for endometrial cancer, it refers to cancer confined to the corpus uteri with no or less than one-half myometrial invasion (IA) or invasion of one-half or more of the myometrium (IB).", + "Stage IA": "Invasive cancer confined to the original anatomic site of growth without lymph node involvement. The definition of stage IA depends on the particular type of cancer that it refers to; for example, for breast cancer, stage IA is defined as follows: T1, N0, M0. T1: Tumor 20 mm or less in greatest dimension. T1 includes T1mi. T1mi: Tumor 1 mm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis. M0 includes M0(i+); for bone cancer, stage IA is defined as follows: T1, N0, M0, G1, GX. T1: Tumor 8 cm or less in greatest dimension. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. G1: Well differentiated-low grade. GX: Grade cannot be assessed. (partially adapted from AJCC 8th ed.)", + "Stage IA1": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to invasive cancer that is diagnosed microscopically only. The stromal invasion has a maximum depth of 3.00 mm and a horizontal spread of 7.00 mm or less; there is no FIGO stage IA1 for endometrial cancer.", + "Stage IA2": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to invasive cancer that is diagnosed microscopically only. The stromal invasion is more than 3.00 mm but no more than 5.00 mm with a horizontal spread of 7.00 mm or less; there is no FIGO stage A2 for endometrial cancer.", + "Stage IB": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to invasive cancer that is clinically visible and is confined to the cervix or it is diagnosed microscopically and the stromal invasion is more than 5.00 mm and the horizontal spread is more than 7.00 mm; for endometrial cancer, it refers to cancer that is confined to the uterine body and invades one-half or more of the myometrium.", + "Stage IB1": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to clinically visible lesions that measure 4.0 cm or less in diameter; there is no FIGO stage IB1 for endometrial cancer.", + "Stage IB2": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to clinically visible lesions that measure more than 4.0 cm in diameter; there is no FIGO stage IB2 for endometrial cancer.", + "Stage IC": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, there is no FIGO stage IC; for endometrial cancer, in the older FIGO classification stage scheme, it referred to invasion of more than a half of the myometrium. Stage IC for endometrial cancer has been eliminated in the most recent (2010) FIGO classification stage scheme.", + "Stage IC1": "A FIGO stage term that applies to ovarian cancer, fallopian tube cancer, and primary peritoneal cancer. It refers to cancer with surgical spill.", + "Stage IC2": "A FIGO stage term that applies to ovarian cancer, fallopian tube cancer, and primary peritoneal cancer. It refers to cancer with capsule rupture before surgery or tumor on ovarian surface.", + "Stage IC3": "A FIGO stage term that applies to ovarian cancer, fallopian tube cancer, and primary peritoneal cancer. It refers to cancer with malignant cells in the ascites or peritoneal washings.", + "Stage II": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer that invades beyond the cervix, but not to the pelvic wall or lower third of the vagina; for endometrial cancer, it refers to cancer that invades the stromal connective tissue of the cervix, but it does not extend beyond the uterus.", + "Stage IIA": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer that invades beyond the cervix, but not to the pelvic wall or lower third of the vagina and there is no parametrial invasion; for endometrial cancer, in the older FIGO classification stage scheme, it referred to endocervical glandular involvement only. Stage IIA for endometrial cancer has been eliminated in the most recent (2010) FIGO classification stage scheme.", + "Stage IIA1": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina without parametrial involvement, less than 4 cm in greatest dimension.", + "Stage IIA2": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina without parametrial involvement, equal or more than 4 cm in greatest dimension.", + "Stage IIB": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer that invades beyond the cervix, but not to the pelvic wall or lower third of the vagina and there is parametrial invasion; for endometrial cancer, in the older FIGO classification stage scheme, it referred to cervical stromal invasion. Stage IIB for endometrial cancer has been eliminated in the most recent (2010) FIGO classification stage scheme.", + "Stage IIC": "A cancer stage generally indicating the invasion of adjacent structures by cancer without distant metastases.", + "Stage III": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer that extends to the pelvic wall, and/or involves the lower third of vagina, and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney; for endometrial cancer, FIGO stage III is subdivided into stages IIIA and IIIB; in FIGO stage IIIA, there is involvement of the serosa and/or the adnexa; for FIGO stage IIIB, there is vaginal or parametrial involvement.", + "Stage IIIA": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer that involves the lower third of vagina and there is no extension to the pelvic wall; for endometrial cancer, it refers to cancer with involvement of the serosa and/or the adnexa.", + "Stage IIIA1": "A FIGO stage term that applies to ovarian cancer, fallopian tube cancer, and primary peritoneal cancer. It refers to cancer with positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only.", + "Stage IIIA2": "A FIGO stage term that applies to ovarian cancer, fallopian tube cancer, and primary peritoneal cancer. It refers to cancer with microscopic, extrapelvic (above the brim) peritoneal involvement +/- positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes.", + "Stage IIIAi": "A FIGO stage term that applies to ovarian cancer, fallopian tube cancer, and primary peritoneal cancer. It refers to cancer with positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only. Metastasis equal or less than 10 mm.", + "Stage IIIAii": "A FIGO stage term that applies to ovarian cancer, fallopian tube cancer, and primary peritoneal cancer. It refers to cancer with positive retroperitoneal lymph nodes only. Metastasis greater than 10 mm.", + "Stage IIIB": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer that extends to the pelvic wall, and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney; for endometrial cancer, it refers to cancer with vaginal or parametrial involvement.", + "Stage IIIC": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. There is no FIGO stage IIIC for cervical cancer; for endometrial cancer, FIGO stage IIIC is subdivided into stages IIIC1 and IIIC2; in FIGO stage IIIC1, there is regional metastasis to pelvic lymph nodes; for FIGO stage IIIC2, there is regional metastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes with or without metastasis to pelvic lymph nodes.", + "Stage IIIC1": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. There is no FIGO stage IIIC1 for cervical cancer; for endometrial cancer, it refers to regional metastasis to pelvic lymph nodes.", + "Stage IIIC2": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. There is no FIGO stage IIIC2 for cervical cancer; for endometrial cancer, it refers to regional metastasis to para-aortic lymph nodes with or without metastasis to pelvic lymph nodes.", + "Stage IV": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer that invades the mucosa of bladder or rectum, and/or extends beyond the true pelvis (FIGO stage IVA), or to cancer with distant metastases (FIGO stage IVB); for endometrial cancer, it refers to cancer that invades the bladder mucosa and/or the bowel mucosa (FIGO stage IVA), or to cancer with distant metastases (FIGO stage IVB).", + "Stage IVA": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer that invades the mucosa of bladder or rectum, and/or extends beyond the true pelvis; for endometrial cancer, it refers to cancer that invades the bladder mucosa and/or the bowel mucosa.", + "Stage IVB": "A FIGO stage term that applies to gynecologic cancers. For cervical cancer, it refers to cancer with distant metastases, including peritoneal involvement, involvement of the supraclavicular or mediastinal lymph nodes, and metastases to the lung, bone, or liver; for endometrial cancer, it refers to cancer with distant metastases, including metastases to the inguinal lymph nodes, intraperitoneal involvement, or metastases to the lung, bone, or liver. Endometrial cancer metastases to the para-aortic lymph nodes, vagina, adnexa, or pelvic serosa are excluded from this stage.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "figo_staging_edition_year": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the edition year of the FIGO staging system used to stage the patient's gynecologic tumor.", + "value_data": { + "1988": "", + "1995": "", + "2009": "" + } + }, + "first_symptom_longest_duration": { + "column_description": "The length of time the first presenting symptom occurred that related to the diagnosis of the patient with cancer.", + "value_data": { + "0-30 Days": "", + "31-90 Days": "", + "91-180 Days": "", + ">=181 Days": "" + } + }, + "first_symptom_prior_to_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the patient's first symptom experienced prior to diagnosis and thought to be related to the disease.", + "value_data": { + "Altered Mental Status": "A change to an individual's judgment, orientation (to place, time, and self), intellectual functioning, or mood from their baseline.", + "Headaches": "Pain in various parts of the head, not confined to the area of distribution of any nerve.", + "Motor or Movement Changes": "An alteration in the motor/movement of an individual.", + "Seizures": "Sudden, involuntary skeletal muscular contractions of cerebral or brain stem origin.", + "Sensory Changes": "An alteration in the perceptual senses an individual.", + "Visual Changes": "An alteration in the visual system of an individual.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "gastric_esophageal_junction_involvement": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown/not reported indicator used to describe whether the tumor is located across the gastroesophageal junction.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "gleason_grade_group": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the overall grouping of grades defined by the Gleason grading classification, which is used to determine the aggressiveness of prostate cancer. Note that this grade describes the entire prostatectomy specimen and is not specific to the sample used for sequencing.", + "value_data": { + "Group 1": "Only individual discrete well-formed glands.", + "Group 2": "Predominantly well-formed glands with lesser component of poorly-formed/fused/cribriform glands.", + "Group 3": "Predominantly poorly-formed/fused/cribriform glands with a lesser component of well-formed glands.", + "Group 4": "Only poorly-formed/fused/cribriform glands or Predominantly well-formed glands and lesser component lacking glands or Predominantly lacking glands and lesser component of well-formed gland. Poorly-formed/fused/cribriform glands can be a more minor component.", + "Group 5": "Lacks gland formation (or with necrosis) with or without poorly formed/fused/cribriform glands. For cases with greater than 95% poorly formed/fused/cribriform glands or lack of glands on a core or at RP, the component of less than 5% well-formed glands is not factored into the grade.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "gleason_grade_tertiary": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the tertiary pattern as described by the Gleason Grading System.", + "value_data": { + "Pattern 4": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of fused, cribriform, or poorly defined glands. There is partial loss of normal epithelial polarity.", + "Pattern 5": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by almost complete loss of epithelial polarity and luminal differentiation." + } + }, + "gleason_patterns_percent": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the percentage of Patterns 4 and 5, which is used when the Gleason score is greater than 7 to predict prognosis.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "gleason_score": { + "column_description": "The score derived from universally embraced prostate cancer grading system developed by Dr. Donald F. Gleason in 1977. The system provides a reproducible description of the glandular architecture of prostate tissue to which a pathologist assigns a score depending primarily on the microscopic patterns of cancerous glands and cell morphology", + "value_data": {} + }, + "goblet_cells_columnar_mucosa_present": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether goblet cells were determined to be present in the esophageal columnar mucosa.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "icd_10_code": { + "column_description": "Alphanumeric value used to describe the disease code from the tenth version of the International Classification of Disease (ICD-10).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "igcccg_stage": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the International Germ Cell Cancer Collaborative Group (IGCCCG), a grouping used to further classify metastatic testicular tumors.", + "value_data": { + "Good Prognosis": "", + "Intermediate Prognosis": "", + "Poor Prognosis": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "inpc_grade": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the classification of neuroblastic differentiation within neuroblastoma tumors, as defined by the International Neuroblastoma Pathology Classification (INPC).", + "value_data": { + "Differentiating": "A neuroblastoma in which the differentiating neuroblasts constitute more than five-percent of the tumor cells.", + "Poorly Differentiated": "A neuroblastoma in which the differentiating neuroblasts constitute less than five-percent of the tumor cells.", + "Undifferentiated": "A neuroblastoma characterized by the absence of differentiating neuroblasts.", + "Undifferentiated or Poorly Differentiated": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "inpc_histologic_group": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the classification of neuroblastomas distinguishing between favorable and unfavorable histologic groups. The histologic score, defined by the International Neuroblastoma Pathology Classification (INPC), is based on age, mitosis-karyorrhexis index (MKI), stromal content and degree of tumor cell differentiation.", + "value_data": { + "Favorable": "Expressing something as positive, advantageous or desired.", + "Unfavorable": "Expressing something as negative, undesired or adverse.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "inrg_stage": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the staging classification of neuroblastic tumors, as defined by the International Neuroblastoma Risk Group (INRG).", + "value_data": { + "L1": "Locoregional neuroblastoma without image defined risk factors (IDRFs).", + "L2": "Locoregional neuroblastoma with one or more image defined risk factors (IDRFs).", + "M": "Neuroblastoma with distant metastatic disease (except MS).", + "Ms": "INRG stage L1 or L2 neuroblastoma with metastatic disease confined to the skin and/or liver and/or bone marrow.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "inss_stage": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the staging classification of neuroblastic tumors, as defined by the International Neuroblastoma Staging System (INSS).", + "value_data": { + "Stage 1": "The tumor is confined to the original site of growth; no metastasis.", + "Stage 2A": "The tumor is unilateral and the resection is grossly incomplete; no evidence of lymph node involvement.", + "Stage 2B": "The tumor is unilateral and the resection is complete or incomplete; ipsilateral lymph nodes are involved by tumor.", + "Stage 3": "The tumor extends across the midline and the regional lymph nodes may or may not be involved by tumor; or the tumor is unilateral and the contralateral lymph nodes are involved by tumor; or the tumor is in midline and there is bilateral lymph node involvement by tumor.", + "Stage 4": "Tumor spread to distant lymph nodes, bone marrow, bones, and liver.", + "Stage 4S": "Patients are less than one year old with localized primary tumor and dissemination limited to the following specific anatomic sites: liver, skin, or bone marrow.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "international_prognostic_index": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the International Prognostic Index, which classifies the prognosis of patients with aggressive non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.", + "value_data": { + "High Risk": "A risk group associated with a total score of 4 or 5 on the International Prognostic Index indicating that an individual has a 5 year survival prognosis of 32%.", + "High-Intermediate Risk": "A risk group associated with a total score of 3 on the International Prognostic Index indicating that an individual has a 5 year survival prognosis of 46%.", + "Low Risk": "A risk group associated with a total score of 0 or 1 on the International Prognostic Index indicating that an individual has a 5 year survival prognosis of 73%.", + "Low-Intermediate Risk": "A risk group associated with a total score of 2 on the International Prognostic Index indicating that an individual has a 5 year survival prognosis of 69%." + } + }, + "irs_group": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the classification of rhabdomyosarcoma tumors, as defined by the Intergroup Rhabdomyosarcoma Study (IRS).", + "value_data": { + "Group I": "Localized disease, excised.", + "Group Ia": "Confined to site of origin.", + "Group Ib": "Infiltrative, beyond site of origin; negative lymph nodes.", + "Group II": "Total gross resection with regional disease spread.", + "Group IIa": "Localized tumor with microscopic residual disease.", + "Group IIb": "Regional disease with positive lymph nodes, excised.", + "Group IIc": "Regional disease with positive lymph nodes.", + "Group III": "Gross residual disease.", + "Group IIIa": "Localized or regional disease; biopsy.", + "Group IIIb": "Localized or regional disease; resection (debulking of more than 50% of tumor).", + "Group IV": "Distant metastasis.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "irs_stage": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the classification of rhabdomyosarcoma tumors, as defined by the Intergroup Rhabdomyosarcoma Study (IRS).", + "value_data": { + "1": "", + "2": "", + "3": "", + "4": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "ishak_fibrosis_score": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the classification of the histopathologic degree of liver damage.", + "value_data": { + "0 - No Fibrosis": "No evidence of fibrosis.", + "1,2 - Portal Fibrosis": "Portal fibrosis is present.", + "3,4 - Fibrous Septa": "Fibrosis extends beyond the portal areas and bridging fibrosis is present.", + "5 - Nodular Formation and Incomplete Cirrhosis": "Marked bridging fibrosis with formation of occasional hepatic nodules is present.", + "6 - Established Cirrhosis": "Marked fibrosis with cirrhosis is present.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "iss_stage": { + "column_description": "The multiple myeloma disease stage at diagnosis.", + "value_data": { + "I": "Plasma cell myeloma with beta-2-microglobulin less than 3.5 and albumin greater than or equal to 3.5 (median survival of 62 months). Note that the older Durie/Salmon staging system defines stage I quite differently. (PDQ)", + "II": "Plasma cell myeloma with blood levels of beta-2-microglobulin between 3.5 and 5.5 mg/L.", + "III": "Plasma cell myeloma with beta-2-microglobulin greater than or equal to 5.5 (median survival of 29 months). Note that the older Durie/Salmon staging system defines stage III quite differently. (PDQ)", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "last_known_disease_status": { + "column_description": "Text term that describes the last known state or condition of an individual's neoplasm.", + "value_data": { + "Biochemical evidence of disease without structural correlate": "An indication that biochemical markers of a disease are present but morphological markers are absent.", + "Distant met recurrence/progression": "", + "Loco-regional recurrence/progression": "", + "Tumor free": "There is no evidence of a tumor in the individual.", + "Unknown tumor status": "The tumor status is unknown.", + "With tumor": "There is evidence of a tumor in an individual.", + "not reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "laterality": { + "column_description": "For tumors in paired organs, designates the side on which the cancer originates.", + "value_data": { + "Bilateral": "Affecting both sides of the body or a matched pair of organs.", + "Left": "Being or located on or directed toward the side of the body to the west when facing north.", + "Midline": "A medial line, especially the medial line or medial plane of the body (or some part of the body).", + "Right": "Being or located on or directed toward the side of the body to the east when facing north.", + "Unilateral": "Being or located on or directed toward the side of the body to the east when facing north.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "margin_distance": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the distance between the tumor and the surgical margin", + "value_data": {} + }, + "margins_involved_site": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the anatomic sites that were involved in the survival margins.", + "value_data": { + "Gerota Fascia": "", + "Parenchyma": "", + "Perinephric Fat": "", + "Renal": "", + "Renal Capsule": "", + "Renal Sinus": "", + "Renal Vein": "", + "Ureter": "The thick-walled tube that carries urine from each kidney to the bladder." + } + }, + "masaoka_stage": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the Masaoka staging system, a classification that defines prognostic indicators for thymic malignancies and predicts tumor recurrence.", + "value_data": { + "Stage I": "The tumor is completely encapsulated.", + "Stage IIa": "The tumor shows microscopic invasion into the capsule.", + "Stage IIb": "The tumor shows invasion through the capsule and into the surrounding fatty tissue.", + "Stage III": "The tumor shows invasion into the neighboring tissues and organs of the lower neck or upper chest.", + "Stage IVa": "The tumor shows metastasis throughout the pleural and/or pericardial spaces.", + "Stage IVb": "The tumor shows lymphogenous or hematogenous metastasis to distant sites." + } + }, + "max_tumor_bulk_site": { + "column_description": "The site of the tumor where the dimension or diameter is larger than any other part of the tumor.", + "value_data": { + "Adrenal": "", + "Appendix": "", + "Ascites/peritoneum": "", + "Axillary lymph nodes": "", + "Bone marrow": "", + "Brain": "", + "Breast": "", + "Cervical lymph nodes": "", + "Colon": "", + "Iliac": "", + "Iliac-external": "", + "Inguinal": "", + "Kidney": "", + "Liver": "", + "Lung": "", + "Mandible": "", + "Maxilla": "", + "Mediastinal lymph nodes": "", + "Mediastinal soft tissue": "", + "Mesenteric lymph nodes": "", + "Neck": "", + "No known nodal involvement": "", + "Oropharynx": "", + "Ovary": "", + "Pancreas": "", + "Paraaortic lymph nodes": "", + "Parotid gland": "", + "Peri-orbital soft tissue": "", + "Pericardium": "", + "Retroperitoneal lymph nodes": "", + "Small intestine": "", + "Soft tissue (muscle, ligaments, subcutaneous)": "", + "Splenic lymph nodes": "", + "Stomach": "", + "Submandibular lymph nodes": "", + "Supraclavicular lymph nodes": "", + "Thyroid": "", + "Other": "" + } + }, + "medulloblastoma_molecular_classification": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the classification of medulloblastoma tumors based on molecular features.", + "value_data": { + "Non-WNT/non-SHH Activated": "Medulloblastoma not associated with activation of the WNT pathway or sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. TP53 mutations are absent. This molecular subtype includes medulloblastomas numerically designated as \"group 3\" and \"group 4\".", + "Not Determined": "A medulloblastoma which has not been further characterized.", + "SHH-Activated": "A molecular subtype of medulloblastoma associated with activation of the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. TP53 mutations may be present or absent. Patients in this group are young children and adults. Overall survival is variable and depends on the presence or absence of metastatic disease, histology, and the age at diagnosis.", + "WNT-Activated": "A molecular subtype of medulloblastoma associated with activation of the WNT pathway. TP53 mutations may be present or absent. WNT pathway activation in medulloblastomas is associated with good outcome.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "melanoma_known_primary": { + "column_description": "A melanoma which has metastasized from a known primary anatomic site.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "metastasis_at_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the extent of metastatic disease present at diagnosis.", + "value_data": { + "Distant Metastasis": "A biological process that involves the transfer and growth of cancer cells from the site of the primary tumor. Relocation of malignant cells during metastasis can be restricted to movement within a specific tissue/organ or may entail migration to a distal locus within the body. This phenotype is a characteristic of all malignant tumors.", + "Metastasis, NOS": "The spread or migration of cancer cells from one part of the body (the organ in which it first appeared) to another. The secondary tumor contains cells that are like those in the original (primary) tumor.", + "No Metastasis": "An indication that signs of metastasis were not found in a sample.", + "Regional Metastasis": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "metastasis_at_diagnosis_site": { + "column_description": "Text term to identify an anatomic site in which metastatic disease involvement is found.", + "value_data": { + "Abdomen": "The portion of the body that lies between the thorax and the pelvis.", + "Adrenal Gland": "A flattened, roughly triangular body resting upon the upper end of each kidney; it is one of the ductless glands furnishing internal secretions (epinephrine and norepinephrine from the medulla and steroid hormones from the cortex).", + "Ascites": "The accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, which may be serous, hemorrhagic, or the result of tumor metastasis to the peritoneum.", + "Bladder": "", + "Bone": "Connective tissue that forms the skeletal components of the body.", + "Bone Marrow": "The tissue occupying the spaces of bone. It consists of blood vessel sinuses and a network of hematopoietic cells which give rise to the red cells, white cells, and megakaryocytes.", + "Brain": "An organ composed of grey and white matter containing billions of neurons that is the center for intelligence and reasoning. It is protected by the bony cranium.", + "Bronchus": "", + "Central Nervous System": "The part of the nervous system that consists of the brain, spinal cord, and meninges.", + "Cerebrospinal Fluid": "The fluid that is contained within the brain ventricles, the subarachnoid space and the central canal of the spinal cord.", + "Colon": "The part of the large intestine measured from the cecum to the rectum consisting of ascending, transverse, descending and sigmoid portions. The purpose of the colon is to remove water from digested food prior to excretion.", + "Distant Nodes": "", + "Distant Organ": "", + "Esophagus": "", + "Gastrointestinal Tract": "", + "Groin": "The lower region of the anterior abdominal wall located laterally to the pubic region.", + "Head, Face or Neck, NOS": "", + "Heart": "", + "Kidney": "One of the two bean-shaped organs located on each side of the spine in the retroperitoneum. The right kidney is located below the liver and the left kidney below the diaphragm. The kidneys filter and secret the metabolic products and minerals from the blood, thus maintaining the homeostasis. On the superior pole of each kidney there is an adrenal gland. Each kidney and adrenal gland is surrounded by fat.", + "Liver": "A triangular-shaped organ located under the diaphragm in the right hypochondrium. It is the largest internal organ of the body, weighting up to 2 kg. Metabolism and bile secretion are its main functions. It is composed of cells which have the ability to regenerate.", + "Lung": "One of a pair of viscera occupying the pulmonary cavities of the thorax, the organs of respiration in which aeration of the blood takes place. As a rule, the right lung is slightly larger than the left and is divided into three lobes (an upper, a middle, and a lower or basal), while the left has two lobes (an upper and a lower or basal). Each lung is irregularly conical in shape, presenting a blunt upper extremity (the apex), a concave base following the curve of the diaphragm, an outer convex surface (costal surface), an inner or mediastinal surface (mediastinal surface), a thin and sharp anterior border, and a thick and rounded posterior border.", + "Lymph Node, Axillary": "One of approximately 20-30 lymph nodes in chain formation that traverse the concavity of the underarm to the clavicle.", + "Lymph Node, Inguinal": "A superficial or deep lymph node located in the inguinal area.", + "Lymph Node, NOS": "A bean-shaped organ surrounded by a connective tissue capsule. It is part of the lymphatic system and is found throughout the body. It is composed predominantly of lymphocytes and its main function is immune protection.", + "Lymph Node, Regional": "", + "Lymph Node, Subcarinal": "", + "Mediastinum": "A group of organs surrounded by loose connective tissue, separating the two pleural sacs, between the sternum anteriorly and the vertebral column posteriorly as well as from the thoracic inlet superiorly to the diaphragm inferiorly. The mediastinum contains the heart and pericardium, the bases of the great vessels, the trachea and bronchi, esophagus, thymus, lymph nodes, thoracic duct, phrenic and vagus nerves, and other structures and tissues.", + "Neck": "The region that connects the head to the rest of the body.", + "Omentum": "A fold of peritoneum originating at the stomach and supporting the viscera.", + "Ovary": "One of the paired female reproductive glands containing the ova or germ cells; the ovary's stroma is a vascular connective tissue containing numbers of ovarian follicles enclosing the ova.", + "Pancreas": "An organ behind the lower part of the stomach that is the shape of a fish and about the size of a hand. It is a compound gland composed of both exocrine and endocrine tissues. The endocrine pancreas makes insulin so that the body can use glucose (sugar) for energy. The exocrine pancreas makes enzymes that help the body digest food. Spread all over the pancreas are areas called the Islets of Langerhans. The cells in these areas each have a special purpose. The alpha cells make glucagon, which raises the level of glucose in the blood; the beta cells make insulin; the delta cells make somatostatin. There are also PP cells and D1 cells, about which little is known.", + "Pelvis": "The bony, basin-shaped structure formed by the hipbones and the base of the backbone supporting the lower limbs in humans.", + "Peritoneal Cavity": "The lower part of the abdomen that contains the intestines (the last part of the digestive tract), the stomach, and the liver. It is bound by thin membranes.", + "Peritoneum": "The tissue that lines the wall of the abdominal cavity, intestine, mesentery, and pelvic organs. It consists of the parietal peritoneum and the visceral peritoneum.", + "Pleura": "The tissue that lines the wall of the thoracic cavity and the surface of the lungs.", + "Retroperitoneum": "", + "Scalp": "The skin which covers the top of the head and which is usually covered by hair.", + "Skin": "An organ that constitutes the external surface of the body. It consists of the epidermis, dermis, and skin appendages.", + "Small Intestine": "The section of the intestines between the pylorus and cecum. The small intestine is approximately 20 feet long and consists of the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. Its main function is to absorb nutrients from food as the food is transported to the large intestine.", + "Soft Tissue": "A general term comprising tissue that is not hardened or calcified; including muscle, fat, blood vessels, nerves, tendons, ligaments and fascia.", + "Spinal Cord": "The elongated, approximately cylindrical part of the central nervous system of vertebrates that lies in the vertebral canal and from which the spinal nerves emerge.", + "Spleen": "", + "Stomach": "", + "Urethra": "", + "Uterine Adnexa": "The accessory structures of the uterus, including the ovaries, fallopian tubes, broad ligament, and the ovarian and uterine ligaments.", + "Vertebral Canal": "The space formed by the series of vertebral foramina that courses the length of the vertebral column, and which houses the spinal cord and meninges.", + "Vulva, NOS": "The external, visible part of the female genitalia surrounding the urethral and vaginal opening. The vulva includes the clitoris and inner as well as outer labia.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "method_of_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the method used to confirm the patients malignant diagnosis.", + "value_data": { + "Autopsy": "A postmortem examination of the body that includes an examination of the internal organs and structures after dissection to determine the cause of death and the nature of pathological changes.", + "Biopsy": "The removal of tissue specimens or fluid from the living body for microscopic examination, performed to establish a diagnosis.", + "Blood Draw": "A small volume of blood removed for testing or storage.", + "Bone Marrow Aspirate": "Aspirate from bone marrow.", + "Core Biopsy": "The removal of a tissue sample using a needle with a relatively large diameter, for microscopic examination.", + "Cystoscopy": "Endoscopic examination of the urinary bladder or urethra.", + "Cytology": "The light microscopic study of normal and abnormal cells in fine needle aspirates (FNAs), body cavity fluids, and smears.", + "Debulking": "The surgical removal of as much of a malignant tumor as is reasonably possible. This procedure increases the effectiveness of the subsequent administration of chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy.", + "Diagnostic Imaging": "Any method that uses a visual display of structural or functional patterns of organs or tissues for diagnostic evaluation.", + "Dilation and Curettage Procedure": "A surgical scraping and removal of the inner lining of the uterus through direct dilation of the uterine cervix.", + "Enucleation": "A surgical procedure by which tissue or an organ (usually containing a tumor) is removed without rupture from a specific anatomic site.", + "Excisional Biopsy": "A surgical procedure in which an entire lesion is removed for microscopic examination.", + "Exoresection": "", + "Fine Needle Aspiration": "A surgical procedure in which an entire lesion is removed for microscopic examination.", + "Imaging": "Any technology or method that aids in the visualization of any biological process, cell, tissue or organ for use in screening, diagnosis, surgical procedures or therapy.", + "Incisional Biopsy": "A surgical procedure in which part of a lesion is removed for microscopic examination.", + "Laparoscopy": "A surgical procedure during which a laparoscope is inserted into the abdomen to view the abdominopelvic contents for diagnostic and/or therapeutic purposes.", + "Laparotomy": "Creation of a surgical opening into the abdominal cavity.", + "Pap Smear": "A biospecimen collection and staining procedure in which secretions and superficial cells of the cervix are collected and stained with the Papanicolaou stain followed by microscopic examination to identify the presence of abnormal cells.", + "Pathologic Review": "An assessment of disease process to include cause, development, and/or structural and functional changes associated with the disease.", + "Physical Exam": "A systemic evaluation of the body and its functions using visual inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation. The purpose is to determine the presence or absence of physical signs of disease or abnormality for an individual's health assessment.", + "Surgical Resection": "The act of cutting out; the surgical removal of part or all of a structure or organ.", + "Thoracentesis": "The removal of excess fluid via needle puncture from the thoracic cavity.", + "Ultrasound Guided Biopsy": "Biopsy of tissue using ultrasound imaging as an aid in directing a biopsy needle into the area of interest.", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "micropapillary_features": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether micropapillary features were determined to be present.", + "value_data": { + "Absent": "Not existing in a specified place at a specified time.", + "Present": "Being or existing in a specified place or at the specified time.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "mitosis_karyorrhexis_index": { + "column_description": "Text term that represents the component of the International Neuroblastoma Pathology Classification (INPC) for mitosis-karyorrhexis index (MKI).", + "value_data": { + "High": "An elevated level or position or degree; greater than normal in degree or intensity or amount.", + "Intermediate": "Lying between two extremes in time or space or degree.", + "Low": "A minimum level or position or degree; less than normal in degree, intensity or amount.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "morphology": { + "column_description": "The third edition of the International Classification of Diseases for Oncology, published in 2000 used principally in tumor and cancer registries for coding the site (topography) and the histology (morphology) of neoplasms. The study of the structure of the cells and their arrangement to constitute tissues and, finally, the association among these to form organs. In pathology, the microscopic process of identifying normal and abnormal morphologic characteristics in tissues, by employing various cytochemical and immunocytochemical stains. A system of numbered categories for representation of data.", + "value_data": { + "8000/0": "A neoplasm which is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (severe cytologic atypia, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic rate). Benign neoplasms remain confined to the original site of growth and do not metastasize to other anatomic sites.", + "8000/1": "A neoplasm which, on morphologic grounds, can not be classified with certainty as benign or malignant.", + "8000/3": "A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.", + "8000/6": "A tumor that has spread from its original (primary) site of growth to another site, close to or distant from the primary site. Metastasis is characteristic of advanced malignancies, but in rare instances can be seen in neoplasms lacking malignant morphology.", + "8000/9": "A malignant neoplasm in which the examined tissue can not be determined with certainty if it represents the primary site of tumor growth or tumor spread from another anatomic site.", + "8001/0": "", + "8001/1": "Cells of, or derived from, a tumor.", + "8001/3": "Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.", + "8002/3": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of small atypical cells.", + "8003/3": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by then presence of atypical giant cells.", + "8004/3": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical spindle cells.", + "8005/0": "A purely morphologic term that describes a neoplasm in which all or the majority of the neoplastic cells have a clear cytoplasm, when examined under light microscopy, using the conventional staining method (H-E). This term does not provide any information about the nature of the neoplasm (benign or malignant), cell of origin (e.g. epithelial versus mesenchymal versus hematopoietic), or prognosis. Further examination using special stains and/or immunohistochemistry is required to appropriately classify this tumor.", + "8005/3": "", + "8010/0": "A neoplasm arising from the epithelial cells. It is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (severe cytologic atypia, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic rate). Benign epithelial neoplasms remain confined to the original site of growth and only rarely metastasize to other anatomic sites.", + "8010/2": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm which is confined to the epithelial layer without evidence of further tissue invasion.", + "8010/3": "A malignant tumor arising from epithelial cells. Carcinomas that arise from glandular epithelium are called adenocarcinomas, those that arise from squamous epithelium are called squamous cell carcinomas, and those that arise from transitional epithelium are called transitional cell carcinomas. Morphologically, the malignant epithelial cells may display abnormal mitotic figures, anaplasia, and necrosis. Carcinomas are graded by the degree of cellular differentiation as well, moderately, or poorly differentiated. Carcinomas invade the surrounding tissues and tend to metastasize to other anatomic sites. Lung carcinoma, skin carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma, and prostate carcinoma are the most frequently seen carcinomas.", + "8010/6": "A carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites.", + "8010/9": "Carcinoma that has spread diffusely to an anatomic site or throughout the body.", + "8011/0": "A neoplasm arising from the epithelial cells. It is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (severe cytologic atypia, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic rate). Benign epithelial neoplasms remain confined to the original site of growth and only rarely metastasize to other anatomic sites.", + "8011/3": "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from and is composed of epithelial cells. This category include adenomas, papillomas, and carcinomas.", + "8012/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of large, atypical cells.", + "8013/3": "A usually aggressive carcinoma composed of large malignant cells which display neuroendocrine characteristics. It is characterized by the presence of high mitotic activity and necrotic changes. The vast majority of cases are positive for neuron-specific enolase. Representative examples include lung, breast, cervical, and thymic neuroendocrine carcinomas.", + "8014/3": "A large cell lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of rhabdoid cells.", + "8015/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical cells with glassy cytoplasm.", + "8020/3": "A usually aggressive malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical cells which do not display evidence of glandular, squamous, or transitional cell differentiation.", + "8020/6": "", + "8021/3": "A usually aggressive malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical cells which do not display evidence of glandular, squamous, or transitional cell differentiation.", + "8022/3": "A usually aggressive malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of cells with significant cytologic atypia and nuclear pleomorphism.", + "8023/3": "A rare, highly aggressive and lethal carcinoma that affects children and young adults. It arises from midline epithelial structures, most commonly the head, neck, and mediastinum. It is a poorly differentiated carcinoma and is characterized by mutations and rearrangement of the NUT gene. A balanced translocation t(15;19) is present that results in the creation of a fusion gene involving the NUT gene, most commonly BRD4-NUT fusion gene.", + "8030/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of giant, pleomorphic cells and spindle cells.", + "8031/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of giant, pleomorphic cells.", + "8032/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle cells and anaplastic morphologic features. Giant cells and a sarcomatous component may also be present.", + "8033/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle cells and anaplastic morphologic features. Giant cells and a sarcomatous component may also be present.", + "8034/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical polygonal cells with a large amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm. A representative example is the fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma.", + "8035/3": "", + "8040/0": "A tiny localized pulmonary nodule characterized by neuroendocrine cell proliferation. It is usually discovered as an incidental finding during routine histologic examination of tissue sections or during radiologic examination.", + "8040/1": "", + "8040/3": "", + "8041/3": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of small malignant cells which are often said to resemble \"oat cells\" under the microscope. Small cell carcinoma most often affects the lungs. Clinically, this is often a rapidly growing cancer that spreads to distant sites early.", + "8041/6": "", + "8041/34": "", + "8042/3": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of small malignant cells which are often said to resemble \"oat cells\" under the microscope. Small cell carcinoma most often affects the lungs. Clinically, this is often a rapidly growing cancer that spreads to distant sites early.", + "8043/3": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of malignant fusiform small cells.", + "8044/3": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of malignant small cells of intermediate shape.", + "8045/3": "A morphologic variant of small cell lung carcinoma in combination with a non-small cell carcinoma.", + "8046/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the absence of neoplastic small epithelial cells. A representative example is the lung non-small cell carcinoma.", + "8046/6": "", + "8050/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm that projects above the surrounding epithelial surface and consists of villous or arborescent outgrowths of fibrovascular stroma.", + "8050/2": "An epithelial neoplasm with a papillary growth pattern in which the malignant cells are confined to the epithelium, without evidence of invasion.", + "8050/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern. A papillary carcinoma may be composed of glandular cells (papillary adenocarcinoma), squamous cells (papillary squamous cell carcinoma), or transitional cells (papillary transitional cell carcinoma). Bladder carcinoma is a representative example of papillary transitional cell carcinoma.", + "8051/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern, lack of significant cytologic atypia, and a wart-like appearance.", + "8051/3": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern, acanthosis, mild cytologic atypia, and pushing tumor margins. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the oral cavity, nasal cavity, larynx, esophagus, anus, vagina, vulva, and the plantar region of the foot.", + "8052/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern and a proliferation of neoplastic squamous cells without morphologic evidence of malignancy. Most frequently it arises in the oral cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, esophagus, vagina, and vulva.", + "8052/2": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary, exophytic growth pattern, hyperkeratosis, and absence of invasion of adjacent tissues.", + "8052/3": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary, exophytic growth pattern and hyperkeratosis. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the larynx, penis, cervix, vagina, and vulva.", + "8053/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by an endophytic growth, papillary pattern, and proliferation of neoplastic squamous cells without morphologic evidence of malignancy.", + "8060/0": "A benign squamous neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern, diffusely involving a specific anatomic site.", + "8070/2": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm confined to the squamous epithelium, without invasion of the underlying tissues.", + "8070/3": "A carcinoma arising from squamous epithelial cells. Morphologically, it is characterized by the proliferation of atypical, often pleomorphic squamous cells. Squamous cell carcinomas are graded by the degree of cellular differentiation as well, moderately, or poorly differentiated. Well differentiated carcinomas are usually associated with keratin production and the presence of intercellular bridges between adjacent cells. Representative examples are lung squamous cell carcinoma, skin squamous cell carcinoma, and cervical squamous cell carcinoma.", + "8070/6": "A carcinoma that arises from squamous cells and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.", + "8070/33": "", + "8071/2": "Squamous cell carcinomas with morphologically prominent production of keratin.", + "8071/3": "Squamous cell carcinomas with morphologically prominent production of keratin.", + "8072/3": "A squamous cell carcinoma composed of large atypical cells, without morphologic evidence of keratin production.", + "8073/3": "A squamous cell carcinoma composed of small atypical cells, without morphologic evidence of keratin production.", + "8074/3": "A poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with spindle cell features.", + "8075/3": "A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the formation of gland-like structures.", + "8076/2": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm involving all the layers of the squamous epithelium, but it is not certain if it is confined to the squamous epithelium or it has invaded the basement membrane and the underlying stroma.", + "8076/3": "A squamous cell carcinoma with minimal stromal invasion.", + "8077/0": "A precancerous neoplastic process characterized by the presence of mild dysplastic cytological changes which are usually present in the lower part of the squamous epithelium. Representative examples include the low grade esophageal squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, and low grade vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia.", + "8077/2": "A precancerous neoplastic process characterized by the presence of moderate or severe dysplastic cytological changes which extend to the upper part of the squamous epithelium. Maturation at the surface of the squamous epithelium may or may not be present. Representative examples include the high grade esophageal squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, and high grade vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia.", + "8078/3": "A keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of horn pearls. Representative examples include squamous cell carcinomas of the face presenting as a cutaneous horn.", + "8080/2": "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. cN0: No palpable or visibly enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. pN0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)", + "8081/2": "A form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ. It is a distinct clinicopathological entity and arises from the skin or the mucocutaneous junction. It affects predominantly white males in their 6-8th decades of life. Exposed and non-exposed skin sites are equally affected. UV damage and ingestion of inorganic arsenic may play a role in the development of the disease. On the skin surface, it presents as a single or multiple erythematous, scaly, keratotic patches or plaques. The clinical entity of erythroplasia of Queyrat is regarded as Bowen disease of the penis and it presents as an asymptomatic, red, circumscribed plaque. Morphologically, Bowen disease is characterized by the presence of hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis, dyskeratosis, and acanthosis. The keratotic squamous cells are atypical and display hyperchromatism and abnormal mitotic figures. The dermoepidermal basement membrane is intact. Complete surgical removal of the lesion may be curative.", + "8082/3": "A nonkeratinizing carcinoma which occurs predominantly in the nasopharynx but also in the tonsils and rarely in other anatomic sites. It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate.", + "8083/3": "A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of cells with hyperchromatic nuclei, scant amount of cytoplasm, and peripheral nuclear palisading.", + "8084/3": "A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with clear cytoplasm.", + "8085/3": "Human Papillomavirus-Related Squamous Cell Carcinoma", + "8086/3": "", + "8090/1": "A neoplastic proliferation of basal cells in the epidermis (part of the skin) or other anatomic sites (most frequently the salivary glands). The basal cell neoplastic proliferation in the epidermis results in basal cell carcinomas. The basal cell neoplastic proliferation in the salivary glands can be benign, resulting in basal cell adenomas or malignant, resulting in basal cell adenocarcinomas.", + "8090/3": "The most frequently seen skin cancer. It arises from basal cells of the epidermis and pilosebaceous units. Clinically it is divided into the following types: nodular, ulcerative, superficial, multicentric, erythematous, and sclerosing or morphea-like. More than 95% of these carcinomas occur in patients over 40. They develop on hair-bearing skin, most commonly on sun-exposed areas. Approximately 85% are found on the head and neck and the remaining 15% on the trunk and extremities. Basal cell carcinoma usually grows in a slow and indolent fashion. However, if untreated, the tumor may invade the subcutaneous fat, skeletal muscle and bone. Distant metastases are rare. Excision, curettage and irradiation cure most basal cell carcinomas.", + "8091/3": "A superficial basal cell carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of lobules of basaloid cells which are separated by large distances and represent multifocal discrete tumors.", + "8092/3": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as a pale, indurated plaque, usually in the upper trunk or face. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of strands, cords, and columns of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Perineural invasion may be present and the basaloid cell infiltrate may extend into deeper tissues.", + "8093/3": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as an elevated or erythematous nodular lesion usually in the back. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of cords of basaloid cells extending from the epidermis into the dermis, creating a fenestrating pattern. It follows an indolent course.", + "8094/3": "A basal cell carcinoma which displays squamous differentiation. The neoplastic cells have more abundant cytoplasm with more marked keratinization than typical basal cell carcinomas. It usually has a more aggressive clinical course compared to typical basal cell carcinoma, and it may produce regional or widespread metastases.", + "8095/3": "A skin carcinoma displaying cytological characteristics intermediate to nodular basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma.", + "8096/0": "A rare cutaneous lesion presenting as a scaly verrucous plaque. Morphologically, the plaque contains nests of basaloid cells.", + "8097/3": "A basal cell carcinoma of the skin that often appears as elevated nodules which may become ulcerated.", + "8098/3": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma morphologically characterized by the presence of thin strands of basaloid cells forming a reticulate pattern.", + "8100/0": "A benign hair follicle neoplasm with trichoblastic differentiation. It usually presents as a solitary papular lesion It most often presents on the head and neck area, but it may develop in any anatomic site containing hair follicles. Because of its benign nature, treatment usually is not required, provided that the diagnosis has been established with certainty.", + "8101/0": "A skin appendage neoplasm with follicular differentiation. It usually occurs in the head and neck region, particularly the face. It presents as a solitary dome-shaped small lesion. The clinical course is benign.", + "8102/0": "A benign neoplasm arising from the outer hair sheath and infundibulum. It occurs in the head and neck, usually on the face. It usually presents as an exophytic wart-like lesion or a dome-shaped lesion with smooth surface. Multiple facial lesions are usually associated with Cowden disease.", + "8102/3": "A rare malignant tumor arising from the outer hair sheath and infundibulum on the face. It is considered the malignant counterpart of tricholemmoma. Complete surgical excision is required.", + "8103/0": "A neoplasm with tricholemmal differentiation. It affects women more frequently than men. It usually presents on the scalp as a solitary, multilobular, large, exophytic mass. Morphologically, it may display benign cytological features and appear as a circumscribed solid-cystic neoplasm or it may display malignant characteristics and invasive features. Cases without malignant characteristics usually have an indolent course. Complete surgical excision is recommended in such cases to avoid recurrences and to allow complete examination of the specimen. Cases with malignant characteristics may have a locally aggressive clinical course, recur, or metastasize.", + "8110/0": "A benign adnexal neoplasm arising from hair-bearing skin surfaces, usually the head and neck and upper extremities. It usually presents as a solitary, slow-growing nodular mass. Morphologically, it displays differentiation towards the matrix and inner sheath of the normal hair follicle and the hair cortex. Complete surgical excision is usually curative. Occasionally, it may recur.", + "8110/3": "A very rare, locally aggressive, malignant neoplasm of the hair follicle. The majority of the cases arise de novo, however malignant transformation from a pre-existing pilomatricoma has been reported. It usually presents as a solitary nodule in the head and neck, upper extremities, or buttocks. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of aggregates of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Masses of ghost cells are present in the cellular aggregates. Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice. If it is not completely removed, it usually recurs, but it rarely metastasizes to distant anatomic sites.", + "8120/0": "A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells which show preservation of the nuclear polarity.", + "8120/1": "A rare benign condition, characterized by a papillary growth in the urinary tract with a central fibrovascular core. The latter is lined by normal urothelium.", + "8120/2": "A lesion in which the surface epithelium of the bladder or the renal pelvis and ureter contains transitional cells which display malignant cytologic characteristics. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "8120/3": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the transitional epithelium, usually affecting the urinary bladder, ureter, or renal pelvis. It may or may not have a papillary configuration. It is graded 1 to 3 or 4 according to the degree of cellular differentiation and architectural patterns. Grade 1 transitional cell carcinoma is histologically benign but it may recur. Transitional cell carcinomas may also affect the upper respiratory tract and the ovaries.", + "8121/0": "A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It is classified as inverted papilloma, oncocytic papilloma, and exophytic papilloma. Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and anosmia.", + "8121/1": "A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells and characterized by an endophytic growth pattern.", + "8121/3": "A squamous cell carcinoma of the sinonasal tract characterized by a plexiform or ribbon-like growth pattern, cytological atypia, and lack of histological evidence of keratinization.", + "8122/3": "A poorly differentiated transitional cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with spindle cell morphologic features.", + "8123/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with hyperchromatic nuclei, small amount of cytoplasm, and peripheral nuclear palisading.", + "8124/3": "An anal carcinoma arising from the transitional zone of the anal canal.", + "8130/1": "A papillary neoplasm of the urinary bladder in which the transitional cells form papillae. The papillary structures exhibit minimal architectural distortion and minimal atypia. Mitoses are infrequent. Patients are at an increased risk of developing new papillary lesions. Occasionally, the new lesions are urothelial carcinomas.", + "8130/2": "A transitional cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern and lack of stromal invasion.", + "8130/3": "A non-invasive or invasive transitional cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern. It may occur in the bladder or the renal pelvis.", + "8131/3": "A transitional cell carcinoma characterized by a micropapillary growth pattern. Typical example is the micropapillary variant of infiltrating bladder urothelial carcinoma.", + "8140/0": "A neoplasm arising from the epithelium. It may be encapsulated or non-encapsulated but non-invasive. The neoplastic epithelial cells may or may not display cellular atypia or dysplasia. In the gastrointestinal tract, when dysplasia becomes severe it is sometimes called carcinoma in situ. Representative examples are pituitary gland adenoma, follicular adenoma of the thyroid gland, and adenomas (or adenomatous polyps) of the gastrointestinal tract.", + "8140/1": "An adenoma characterized by increased cellularity and nuclear atypia without evidence of vascular or capsular invasion. A representative example is thyroid gland atypical follicular adenoma.", + "8140/2": "A lesion in which the normally situated glands are partially or completely replaced by atypical cells with malignant characteristics.", + "8140/3": "A common cancer characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells. Morphologically, adenocarcinomas are classified according to the growth pattern (e.g., papillary, alveolar) or according to the secreting product (e.g., mucinous, serous). Representative examples of adenocarcinoma are ductal and lobular breast carcinoma, lung adenocarcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma (hepatoma), colon adenocarcinoma, and prostate adenocarcinoma.", + "8140/6": "An adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.", + "8140/33": "", + "8141/3": "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of desmoplastic stromal reaction.", + "8142/3": "A cancer-related condition in which the gastric wall becomes thickened and rubbery (leather-bottle stomach). It is most often associated with diffuse gastric adenocarcinomas.", + "8143/3": "An adenocarcinoma which has spread within the mucosa without further invasion of the underlying tissues.", + "8144/3": "An adenocarcinoma arising from epithelium which has undergone intestinal metaplasia. Representative examples include gastric, gallbladder, and ampulla of Vater intestinal type adenocarcinomas.", + "8145/3": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a diffuse cellular infiltrate which is composed of poorly cohesive cells with minimal or no glandular formations. Representative example is the gastric diffuse adenocarcinoma.", + "8146/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the salivary glands. It is characterized by the presence of a monomorphic cellular infiltrate.", + "8147/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm with a uniform, monomorphic appearance that is dominated by basal cells forming trabecular structures. It is rare, and occurs mostly on the parotid gland. The average age of patients has been reported to be 58 years. Swelling is the most constant clinical finding.", + "8147/3": "A rare adenocarcinoma of the major and minor salivary glands, originating from basaloid, myoepithelial and ductal cells. While morphologically resembling basal cell carcinomas, it is a distinct entity. The tumor is not encapsulated, may invade locally, and less frequently may metastasize. It usually occurs in older patients.", + "8148/0": "Low Grade Glandular Intraepithelial Neoplasia", + "8148/2": "This lesion shows moderate or marked architectural distortion with glandular crowding and prominent cellular atypia. It includes moderate dysplasia and severe dysplasia. (WHO, 2000)", + "8149/0": "", + "8150/0": "A benign endocrine neoplasm arising from the pancreas. It is separated from the normal pancreatic tissues by a thin collagenous capsule. It may secrete a hormone (e.g. insulin, gastrin) or it may be non-functional.", + "8150/1": "A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the pancreas. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (low and intermediate grade) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (high grade).", + "8150/3": "An aggressive, high-grade and poorly differentiated carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the pancreas. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 10 HPF. According to the size of the malignant cells, the prominence of the nucleoli, and the amount of cytoplasm, it is classified either as small or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma.", + "8151/0": "An insulin-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the beta cells of the pancreas. Patients exhibit symptoms related to hypoglycemia due to inappropriate secretion of insulin.", + "8151/3": "An insulin-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the beta cells of the pancreas. Patients exhibit symptoms related to hypoglycemia due to inappropriate secretion of insulin. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "8152/1": "An endocrine neoplasm producing glucagon.", + "8152/3": "A glucagon-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the alpha cells of the pancreas. It may be associated with necrolytic erythema migrans, diarrhea, diabetes, glossitis, weight loss, malabsorption, and anemia. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "8153/1": "A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor. It is usually located in the pancreas but it is also found at other anatomic sites, including the stomach and small intestine.", + "8153/3": "A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor. It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of gastrin and associated with Zollinger Ellison syndrome. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "8154/3": "A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas showing a mixture of ductal and neuroendocrine malignant cells in both the primary tumor and in the metastatic sites.", + "8155/1": "An often clinically aggressive neuroendocrine tumor located in the pancreas or small intestine. It is composed of cells containing vasoactive intestinal peptide. It may cause intractable diarrhea and metabolic disturbances.", + "8155/3": "An aggressive neuroendocrine tumor located in the pancreas or small intestine. It is composed of cells containing vasoactive intestinal peptide. It is associated with watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "8156/1": "A rare, usually malignant neuroendocrine tumor arizing from delta cells. This neoplasm produces large amounts of somatostatin, which may result in a syndrome characterized by diarrhea, steatorrhea, weight loss, and gastric hyposecretion. Sixty percent are found in the pancreas and 40% in the duodenum or jejunum. The peak incidence occurs between 40 and 60 years of age; women are affected more than men by 2:1.", + "8156/3": "A malignant neuroendocrine tumor arising from delta cells which produce somatostatin. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "8158/1": "A hormone producing endocrine neoplasm, associated with a hormonal syndrome.", + "8160/0": "A benign, well-demarcated polypoid neoplasm arising from the bile duct epithelium. According to the growth pattern, it is classified as tubular, papillary, or tubulopapillary. Adenomas arising from the extrahepatic bile ducts usually produce symptoms related to biliary obstruction.", + "8160/3": "A carcinoma that arises from the intrahepatic bile ducts, the hepatic ducts, or the common bile duct distal to the insertion of the cystic duct. The vast majority of tumors are adenocarcinomas.", + "8161/0": "An epithelial, usually multiloculated neoplasm arising from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. It occurs predominantly in females. Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, abdominal pain, and jaundice. Morphologically, the cystic spaces are lined by columnar epithelium and contain mucinous or serous fluid.", + "8161/3": "A mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts and it is associated with an invasive carcinomatous component.", + "8162/3": "A carcinoma that arises from the junction, or adjacent to the junction, of the right and left hepatic ducts.", + "8163/0": "An ampullary noninvasive papillary neoplasm of the pancreatobiliary type characterized by the presence of low grade dysplasia.", + "8163/2": "An ampullary noninvasive papillary neoplasm of the pancreatobiliary type characterized by the presence of high grade dysplasia.", + "8163/3": "", + "8170/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the hepatocytes. Grossly, it appears as a soft, round mass which often contains areas of hemorrhage and necrosis. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells resemble normal hepatocytes and form plates separated by sinusoids. Most patients have a history of contraceptive or anabolic steroids use.", + "8170/3": "A malignant tumor that arises from hepatocytes. Hepatocellular carcinoma is relatively rare in the United States but very common in all African countries south of the Sahara and in Southeast Asia. Most cases are seen in patients over the age of 50 years, but this tumor can also occur in younger individuals and even in children. Hepatocellular carcinoma is more common in males than females and is associated with hepatitis B, hepatitis C, chronic alcohol abuse and cirrhosis. Serum elevation of alpha-fetoprotein occurs in a large percentage of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. Grossly, hepatocellular carcinoma may present as a single mass, as multiple nodules, or as diffuse liver involvement. Microscopically, there is a wide range of differentiation from tumor to tumor (well differentiated to poorly differentiated tumors). Hepatocellular carcinomas quickly metastasize to regional lymph nodes and lung. The overall median survival of untreated liver cell carcinoma is about 4 months. The most effective treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma is complete resection of the tumor. Lately, an increasing number of tumors have been treated with liver transplantation.", + "8171/3": "A distinctive type of liver cell carcinoma that arises in non-cirrhotic livers and is seen predominantly in young patients. The tumor cells are polygonal and deeply eosinophilic, and are embedded in a fibrous stroma. The prognosis is similar to classical hepatocellular carcinoma that arises in non-cirrhotic livers, and better than hepatocellular carcinoma that arises in cirrhotic livers.", + "8172/3": "An uncommon type of hepatocelluar carcinoma, morphologically characterized by significant fibrosis around the sinusoid-like spaces and atrophy of the tumor trabeculae.", + "8173/3": "", + "8174/3": "", + "8175/3": "", + "8180/3": "A rare tumor containing unequivocal elements of both hepatocellular and cholangiocarcinoma that are intimately admixed. This tumor should be distinguished from separate hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma arising in the same liver. The prognosis of this tumor is poor.", + "8190/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of a trabecular glandular architectural pattern.", + "8190/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of a trabecular glandular architectural pattern.", + "8191/0": "", + "8200/0": "A benign sweat gland neoplasm usually occurring in the scalp or the face. It may present as solitary or multiple papular or nodular lesions. It may be a sporadic lesion or part of Brooke-Spiegler syndrome. It arises from the dermis and has a multinodular, circumscribed appearance. The nodules contain basaloid cells with small, dark nuclei. Complete excision is usually curative.", + "8200/3": "A malignant tumor arising from the epithelial cells. Microscopically, the neoplastic epithelial cells form cylindrical spatial configurations (cribriform or classic type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), cordlike structures (tubular type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), or solid structures (basaloid variant of adenoid cystic carcinoma). Adenoid cystic carcinomas mostly occur in the salivary glands. Other primary sites of involvement include the lacrimal gland, the larynx, and the lungs. Adenoid cystic carcinomas spread along nerve sheaths, resulting in severe pain, and they tend to recur. Lymph node metastases are unusual; hematogenous tumor spread is characteristic.", + "8201/2": "A ductal carcinoma in situ of the breast characterized by the presence of a cribriform architectural pattern.", + "8201/3": "A carcinoma characterized by the presence of a cribriform architectural pattern. Representative examples include the intraductal cribriform breast carcinoma and invasive cribriform breast carcinoma.", + "8202/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a microcystic pattern. The cystic spaces are lined by small cuboidal cells without evidence of significant cytologic atypia.", + "8204/0": "A tubular type adenoma of the breast in which, during pregnancy and lactation, the epithelial cells show extensive secretory changes.", + "8210/0": "A polypoid neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium. There is proliferation of glandular cells which may display dysplastic cytologic features. Representative examples include the adenomatous polyps of the colon and rectum.", + "8210/2": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma arising from the neoplastic glandular cells in an adenomatous polyp.", + "8210/3": "A non-invasive or invasive adenocarcinoma arising from the neoplastic glandular cells in an adenomatous polyp.", + "8211/0": "A usually polypoid neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium. It is characterized by a tubular architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. Representative examples include the tubular adenomas of the colon and rectum.", + "8211/3": "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma in which the malignant cells form tubular structures. Representative examples include the tubular breast carcinoma and the gastric tubular adenocarcinoma.", + "8211/6": "", + "8212/0": "An adenoma of the gastrointestinal tract mucosa which grossly and morphologically does not appear as an elevated or polypoid lesion.", + "8213/0": "An adenoma that arises from the large intestine and the appendix. It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands and the presence of generalized low-grade dysplasia.", + "8213/3": "", + "8214/3": "An adenocarcinoma of the stomach arising from the parietal cells. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with eosinophilic, finely granular cytoplasm.", + "8215/3": "An anal adenocarcinoma arising from the epithelium of the anal glands. The overlying anal mucosa does not show evidence of neoplastic changes.", + "8220/0": "An autosomal dominant disorder, characterized by the presence of multiple adenomas in the colon and rectum. It is caused by a germline mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) gene which is located on the long arm of chromosome 5. The adenomas are most often tubular, and they have the tendency to progress to adenocarcinoma. They can occur throughout the colon, but they tend to concentrate in the rectum and sigmoid colon. The colorectal adenomas are detected during endoscopic examination between the age of 10 and 20 years. The adenomas increase in size and numbers with age, and there is usually progression of one or more adenomas to adenocarcinoma. The mean age of development of adenocarcinoma is about 40 years. Signs include rectal bleeding and mucousy diarrhea.", + "8220/3": "Adenocarcinomas developing in colorectal adenomas in patients with a history of adenomatous polyposis coli. The mean age of development of adenocarcinoma is about 40 years.", + "8221/0": "A condition in which multiple adenomas develop in the gastrointestinal tract.", + "8221/3": "Adenocarcinomas developing in gastrointestinal tract adenomas in patients with multiple adenomatous polyps.", + "8230/2": "", + "8230/3": "A carcinoma morphologically characterized by the presence of solid sheets of malignant epithelial cells in tissues.", + "8231/3": "An undifferentiated malignant epithelial neoplasm which tends to infiltrate the surrounding tissues and spread to other anatomic sites.", + "8240/1": "A carcinoid tumor that shows atypical characteristics and has borderline malignant potential.", + "8240/3": "A slow growing neuroendocrine tumor, composed of uniform, round, or polygonal cells having monotonous, centrally located nuclei and small nucleoli, infrequent mitoses, and no necrosis. The tumor may show a variety of patterns, such as solid, trabecular, and acinar. Electron microscopy shows small secretory granules. Immunohistochemical studies reveal NSE, as well as chromogranin immunoreactivity. Malignant histology (cellular pleomorphism, hyperchromatic nuclei, prominent nucleoli, necrosis, and mitoses) can occasionally be seen. Such cases may have an aggressive clinical course. Gastrointestinal tract and lung are common sites of involvement.", + "8240/6": "", + "8241/3": "", + "8242/1": "A well differentiated, low grade neuroendocrine tumor (carcinoid tumor) arising from the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of enterochromaffin-like type granules in the neoplastic cells.", + "8242/3": "A well differentiated, low grade neuroendocrine tumor (carcinoid tumor) arising from the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of enterochromaffin-like type granules in the neoplastic cells.", + "8243/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of a mixture of neuroendocrine cells with morphologic and immunohistochemical characteristics of carcinoid tumor and malignant glandular cells.", + "8244/3": "A carcinoma that arises from the digestive system and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component. At least 30% of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made.", + "8245/1": "", + "8245/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of a mixture of neuroendocrine cells with morphologic and immunohistochemical characteristics of carcinoid tumor and malignant glandular cells.", + "8246/3": "A malignant neuroendocrine neoplasm composed of cells containing secretory granules that stain positive for NSE and chromogranin. The neoplastic cells are often round and form clusters or trabecular sheets. Representative examples are small cell carcinoma, large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, and Merkel cell carcinoma.", + "8246/6": "", + "8247/3": "A rare malignant cutaneous tumor seen in elderly patients. Its usual location is on the head, neck and extremities. The tumor is composed of small round cells with scanty cytoplasm arranged in a trabecular pattern, or in ill-defined nodules or in a diffuse pattern. The tumor cells contain cytoplasmic membrane-bound dense core granules resembling neurosecretory granules. There is strong evidence implicating Merkel cell polyomavirus in a majority of cases of Merkel cell carcinoma.", + "8248/1": "A tumor made up of cells with APUD properties.", + "8249/3": "A carcinoid tumor characterized by a high mitotic rate, often associated with the presence of necrosis and nuclear pleomorphism.", + "8249/6": "", + "8250/1": "This is a non-human neoplastic process described in sheep.", + "8250/2": "Lung adenocarcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of type II pneumocyte and/or Clara cell differentiation. Almost all cases of lung adenocarcinoma in situ are non-mucinous.", + "8250/3": "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous.", + "8251/0": "A benign, well circumscribed lung neoplasm morphologically characterized by the presence of cystic spaces resembling alveoli, lined by a simple cuboidal epithelium. The cystic spaces are surrounded by a spindle cell stroma which may show myxoid changes. It is a solitary, usually peripheral lung lesion. Patients are usually asymptomatic and its discovery is an incidental finding during chest X-ray examination. Surgical excision is curative.", + "8251/3": "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous.", + "8252/3": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of Clara cells and/or type II cells.", + "8253/3": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by tall columnar cells and mucin production.", + "8254/3": "A rare morphologic variant of bronchiolo-alveolar lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of both mucin and non-mucin producing cells.", + "8255/3": "A lung adenocarcinoma consisting of a bronchioloalveolar component and an invasive adenocarcinomatous component.", + "8256/3": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of Clara cells and/or type II cells.", + "8257/3": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by tall columnar cells and mucin production.", + "8260/0": "Glandular Papilloma", + "8260/3": "A morphologic variant of adenocarcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth pattern. Representative examples include thyroid gland papillary carcinoma, invasive papillary breast carcinoma, and ovarian serous surface papillary adenocarcinoma.", + "8261/0": "An epithelial neoplasm morphologically characterized by the presence of a villous architectural pattern. Most often it occurs in the large intestine, small intestine, and the stomach in which the neoplastic epithelial cells show dysplastic features. It may also arise in the urinary bladder, urethra, and vagina.", + "8261/2": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma arising from a villous adenoma.", + "8261/3": "A non-invasive or invasive adenocarcinoma arising from a villous adenoma.", + "8262/3": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a villous architectural pattern. It may arise from a villous adenoma.", + "8263/0": "An epithelial neoplasm morphologically characterized by the presence of a villous and a tubular architectural pattern. Most often it occurs in the large intestine, small intestine, and the stomach in which the neoplastic epithelial cells show dysplastic features.", + "8263/2": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma arising from a tubulovillous adenoma.", + "8263/3": "A non-invasive or invasive adenocarcinoma arising from a tubulovillous adenoma.", + "8264/0": "Multifocal neoplastic proliferations of the glandular epithelium displaying a papillary pattern.", + "8265/3": "", + "8270/0": "An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells do not stain with acidic or basic dyes.", + "8270/3": "A type of carcinoma that comprises a minority of renal cell carcinomas. It is characterized by loss of chromosomes 1 and Y. Based on the cytoplasmic characteristics of the neoplastic cells, this type of carcinoma is classified as classic (typical) or eosinophilic. It has a much better prognosis than other renal cell carcinomas.", + "8271/0": "An adenoma of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that produces prolactin. It is the most common type of pituitary gland adenomas and it is associated with hyperprolactinemia. Clinical manifestations include amenorrhea, galactorrhea, impotence, headache, and visual disturbances.", + "8272/0": "A non-metastasizing tumor that arises from the adenohypophysial cells of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. The tumor can be hormonally functioning or not. The diagnosis can be based on imaging studies and/or radioimmunoassays. Due to its location in the sella turcica, expansion of the tumor mass can impinge on the optic chiasm or involve the temporal lobe, third ventricle and posterior fossa A frequently associated physical finding is bitemporal hemianopsia which may progress to further visual loss.", + "8272/3": "A rare adenocarcinoma with poor prognosis, arising from the adenohypophysial cells of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland or pre-existing adenomas. The majority are hormonally functioning neoplasms, usually producing prolactin or ACTH. The diagnosis is based on the presence of metastases. Syndromes associated with pituitary gland carcinomas include hyperprolactinemia, Cushing disease, and acromegaly.", + "8280/0": "An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic dyes.", + "8280/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic dyes.", + "8281/0": "An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic and basic dyes.", + "8281/3": "", + "8290/0": "A benign neoplasm composed of large cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm. Representative examples include oncocytic adenomas of the thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, and pituitary gland.", + "8290/3": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of large malignant epithelial cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (oncocytes). Representative examples include thyroid gland oncocytic follicular carcinoma, oncocytic breast carcinoma, and salivary gland oncocytic carcinoma.", + "8300/0": "An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with basic dyes.", + "8300/3": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with basic dyes.", + "8310/0": "A benign neoplasm composed of glands containing epithelial clear cells.", + "8310/3": "A malignant neoplasm composed of glandular epithelial clear cells. Various architectural patterns may be seen, including papillary, tubulocystic, and solid.", + "8310/6": "", + "8311/1": "", + "8311/3": "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by germline mutations in the FH gene. It is characterized by predisposition to renal cell carcinoma, leiomyomas of the skin and uterus, and leiomyosarcoma of the uterus.", + "8311/6": "", + "8312/3": "A carcinoma arising from the renal parenchyma. There is a strong correlation between cigarette smoking and the development of renal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation includes : hematuria, flank pain and a palpable lumbar mass. A high percentage of renal cell carcinomas are diagnosed when an ultrasound is performed for other purposes. Radical nephrectomy is the standard intervention procedure. Renal cell carcinoma is generally considered to be resistant to radiation treatment and chemotherapy.", + "8313/0": "A benign or borderline neoplasm characterized by the presence of glandular structures which contain clear cells and a fibrotic stroma.", + "8313/1": "", + "8313/3": "", + "8314/3": "A carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm which contains neutral lipids. A representative example is the lipid-rich breast carcinoma.", + "8315/3": "A carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with abundant clear cytoplasm which contains glycogen. A representative example is the glycogen-rich, clear cell breast carcinoma.", + "8316/3": "", + "8317/3": "A type of carcinoma that comprises a minority of renal cell carcinomas. It is characterized by loss of chromosomes 1 and Y. Based on the cytoplasmic characteristics of the neoplastic cells, this type of carcinoma is classified as classic (typical) or eosinophilic. It has a much better prognosis than other renal cell carcinomas.", + "8318/3": "A high grade carcinoma of the kidney. It is not a distinct clinicopathological entity and includes a diverse group of renal cell carcinomas which have been transformed from a lower to a higher grade.", + "8319/3": "Also known as collecting duct carcinoma, this is a rare type of renal carcinoma. It arises from the collecting ducts of the renal medulla, and most authors suggest that this is an aggressive tumor.", + "8320/3": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with granular cytoplasm.", + "8321/0": "A parathyroid gland adenoma composed predominantly of neoplastic chief cells. These cells have either slightly eosinophilic or vacuolated cytoplasm, and round nuclei.", + "8322/0": "A rare parathyroid gland adenoma composed of neoplastic cells with abundant cytoplasm. The cytoplasm of the neoplastic cells is usually not entirely clear, and is often variably vacuolated, foamy, and granular.", + "8322/3": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear, often vacuolated or foamy cytoplasm.", + "8323/0": "An adenoma characterized by the presence of a mixed epithelial cell population.", + "8323/3": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a mixed malignant glandular cell population.", + "8324/0": "An adenoma in which the neoplastic epithelial cells are admixed with adipose tissue cells.", + "8325/0": "A benign, well-circumscribed renal cortical neoplasm affecting females more often than males. Polycythemia has been reported in twelve-percent of patients.", + "8330/0": "", + "8330/1": "An encapsulated or well-circumscribed tumor composed of well-differentiated follicular cells with well-developed or partially developed nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma and with questionable capsular or vascular invasion. That is this is a tumor indeterminate between follicular adenoma and follicular carcinoma. Tumors in which vascular invasion has been excluded by all means are called non-invasive follicular thyroid neoplasms with papillary-like nuclear features. (WHO 2017)", + "8330/3": "A differentiated adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. The nuclear features which characterize the thyroid gland papillary carcinoma are absent. Radiation exposure is a risk factor and it comprises approximately 10% to 15% of thyroid cancers. Clinically, it usually presents as a solitary mass in the thyroid gland. It is generally unifocal and thickly encapsulated and shows invasion of the capsule or the vessels. Diagnostic procedures include thyroid ultrasound and fine needle biopsy.", + "8331/3": "A differentiated adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. The nuclear features which characterize the thyroid gland papillary carcinoma are absent. Radiation exposure is a risk factor and it comprises approximately 10% to 15% of thyroid cancers. Clinically, it usually presents as a solitary mass in the thyroid gland. It is generally unifocal and thickly encapsulated and shows invasion of the capsule or the vessels. Diagnostic procedures include thyroid ultrasound and fine needle biopsy.", + "8332/3": "", + "8333/0": "A thyroid gland adenoma composed of microfollicular structures.", + "8333/3": "", + "8334/0": "A thyroid gland adenoma composed of large size follicles.", + "8335/3": "", + "8336/0": "A rare, circumscribed or encapsulated tumor arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. It is characterized by a trabecular growth pattern and hyalinized stroma formation. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "8337/3": "An adenocarcinoma arising from the thyroid gland showing only limited evidence of follicular cell differentiation. Microscopically, the adenocarcinoma cells are arranged in insular, solid, and trabecular patterns. There is associated necrosis, and vascular invasion. The prognosis depends on the tumor stage, complete or partial surgical removal of the tumor, and the degree of response to radioactive iodine therapy. (adapted from WHO Tumors of Endocrine Organs, IARC Press, Lyon 2004)", + "8339/3": "An encapsulated follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland which shows angioinvasion.", + "8340/3": "An encapsulated or nonencapsulated variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the predominance of follicular structures. The malignant follicular cells display the nuclear features that characterize the papillary adenocarcinomas of the thyroid gland.", + "8341/3": "", + "8342/3": "", + "8343/2": "A non-invasive neoplasm of thyroid follicular cells with a follicular growth pattern and nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma that has an extremely low malignant potential. These tumors were formerly classified as non-invasive encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma or well-differentiated tumor of uncertain malignant potential. (WHO 2017)", + "8343/3": "", + "8344/3": "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the presence of pseudostratified malignant follicular cells.", + "8345/3": "A medullary thyroid gland carcinoma characterized by the presence of amyloid stroma. The majority of medullary carcinomas of the thyroid gland are associated with amyloid deposits. The latter are highlighted with Congo red staining method.", + "8346/3": "", + "8347/3": "", + "8350/3": "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland that more often affects young patients and commonly metastasizing to the lungs. It is characterized by a diffuse infiltration of the thyroid gland by malignant follicular cells, squamous metaplasia, stromal fibrosis, and lymphocytic infiltration.", + "8360/1": "An autosomal dominant inherited neoplastic syndrome characterized by the development of various endocrine neoplasms and abnormalities in various anatomic sites. There are four types recognized: type 1 (MEN 1), caused by inactivation of the tumor suppressor gene MEN-1, type 2A (MEN 2A), caused by mutation of the RET gene, type 2B (MEN 2B) also caused by mutation of the RET gene, and type 4 (MEN 4) caused by mutation of the CDKN1B gene. Patients with MEN 1 may develop hyperparathyroidism and parathyroid gland adenomas, pituitary gland adenomas, pancreatic islet cell neoplasms, and carcinoid tumors. Patients with MEN 2A develop medullary thyroid carcinomas and may also develop pheochromocytomas and parathyroid gland hyperplasia. Patients with MEN 2B develop medullary thyroid carcinomas and numerous neural defects including neuromas. Patients with MEN 4 develop endocrine neoplasms, particularly in the parathyroid glands, pituitary, and pancreas.", + "8361/0": "A benign, well circumscribed neoplasm arising from the cortex of the kidney. It secrets renin and the patients usually present with severe hypertension and marked hypokalemia. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of sheets of polygonal or spindle-shaped neoplastic cells forming a hemangiopericytic pattern.", + "8370/0": "A benign neoplasm that can arise from any of the adrenal cortical layers. It can be associated with the overproduction of glucocorticoids (Cushing's syndrome), androgenic or estrogenic steroids (adrenogenital syndrome), or mineralocorticoids (Conn's syndrome). (Sternberg Diagnostic Surgical Pathology, 3rd ed.)", + "8370/1": "", + "8370/3": "A rare, usually large (greater than 5cm), malignant epithelial tumor arising from the adrenal cortical cells. Symptoms are usually related to the excessive production of hormones, and include Cushing's syndrome and virilism in women. Common sites of metastasis include liver, lung, bone, and retroperitoneal lymph nodes. Advanced radiologic procedures have enabled the detection of small tumors, resulting in the improvement of the 5-year survival.", + "8371/0": "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of neoplastic compact cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "8372/0": "A usually functioning adenoma of the adrenal cortex. Grossly, it has a dark brown appearance and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells containing abundant intracytoplasmic lipofuscin. It may be associated with Cushing syndrome.", + "8373/0": "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of neoplastic clear cells containing intracytoplasmic lipid droplets.", + "8374/0": "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of neoplastic cells with cytologic features of glomerulosa cells.", + "8375/0": "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of a mixed neoplastic cellular population, including varying numbers of neoplastic clear and compact cells.", + "8380/0": "", + "8380/1": "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is often fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "8380/2": "An endometrial hyperplasia characterized by cytologic and architectural changes which may lead to endometrial carcinoma. Despite the atypical features and possible course, there is debate on whether to consider this a neoplasm. The relationship with endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia is also unclear.", + "8380/3": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. It can arise from the uterine body, ovary, fallopian tube, cervix, vagina, and uterine ligament.", + "8380/6": "", + "8381/0": "A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular structures with endometrial-type well-differentiated cells in a fibrotic stroma.", + "8381/1": "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is often fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "8381/3": "", + "8382/3": "An endometrioid adenocarcinoma arising from the endometrium. Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells containing glycogen vacuoles which are usually subnuclear and reminiscent of early secretory endometrium.", + "8383/3": "An endometrioid adenocarcinoma arising from the endometrium, in which ciliated cells line the majority of the malignant glands.", + "8384/3": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelium resembling the endocervical epithelium.", + "8390/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sebaceous or sweat glands. Representative examples include sebaceous adenoma, tubular apocrine adenoma, and hidradenoma.", + "8390/3": "A carcinoma arising from the sebaceous glands, sweat glands, or the hair follicles. Representative examples include sebaceous carcinoma, apocrine carcinoma, eccrine carcinoma, and pilomatrical carcinoma.", + "8391/0": "A rare, pilar-associated mesenchyme neoplasm with follicular differentiation. It usually occurs in the face, neck, and chest. It presents as a dome-shaped papular lesion. It is composed of epithelial and mesenchymal cells. Patients with Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome may develop follicular fibromas.", + "8392/0": "A rare, benign eccrine neoplasm usually arising on acral areas as a solitary papular or nodular lesion. Multiple lesions are referred as syringofibroadenomatosis. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial cuboidal cells forming anastomosing cords in a fibrovascular stroma.", + "8400/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. Representative examples include tubular apocrine adenoma, syringofibroadenoma, and hidradenoma.", + "8400/1": "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from the sweat glands.", + "8400/3": "A carcinoma arising from the sweat glands. Representative examples include tubular carcinoma, spiradenocarcinoma, eccrine carcinoma, hidradenocarcinoma, and apocrine carcinoma.", + "8401/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the apocrine sweat glands. Representative examples include tubular apocrine adenoma and external auditory canal ceruminous adenoma.", + "8401/3": "", + "8402/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a nodular lesion usually in the scalp, trunk, and proximal extremities. It is characterized by a nodular growth pattern. Complete excision is curative.", + "8402/3": "A carcinoma with apocrine and less often eccrine differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It usually presents as a solitary slow growing nodule in the dermis or subcutaneous tissues. It is characterized by a nodular growth pattern and it is often associated with necrotic changes.", + "8403/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm with eccrine or apocrine differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It usually presents as a solitary, well circumscribed, firm nodule in the face and upper trunk. It is characterized by the presence of basaloid cells forming nodules in the dermis. Cases of carcinoma arising from long standing spiradenomas have been reported.", + "8403/3": "A very rare, aggressive carcinoma of the sweat glands arising from malignant transformation of a long standing spiradenoma. It usually grows in the upper extremities, lower extremities, trunk, and head and neck. It has the tendency to recur and metastasize most often to the lymph nodes, bones, and lungs.", + "8404/0": "A benign cystic proliferation of the sweat glands with apocrine or eccrine differentiation. It usually presents as a dome-shaped, cystic papular or nodular lesion usually in the face and neck. It is a unilocular or mutlilocular lesion lined by an inner and an outer layer of epithelium. Complete excision is usually curative.", + "8405/0": "A benign neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a slow growing cystic nodular lesion most often in the skin of the vulva and the perianal region. It is characterized by the presence of cystic and large papillary structures. The papillary structures contain connective tissue and are covered by two layers of epithelium. Complete excision is curative.", + "8406/0": "A benign adnexal neoplasm occurring during childhood or adolescence. It usually presents as a papular lesion or a plaque on the head and neck. It may arise in an organoid nevus such as sebaceous. It is characterized by an endophytic invagination of the epithelium into the dermis. There are dermal cystic spaces present, containing villous projections. Complete excision is curative.", + "8407/0": "A benign sweat gland neoplasm usually affecting the lower eyelids and upper cheeks. The lesions are papular and are usually numerous. Morphologically, there are nests, cords, and tubules of epithelial cells present, surrounded by a dense stroma in the reticular dermis.", + "8407/3": "A low grade adenocarcinoma with ductal differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a scar usually in the face. It is characterized by the formation of small ducts and it frequently involves nerves and perineural spaces.", + "8408/0": "A benign neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. It is characterized by the presence of eccrine ducts in the dermis containing intraluminal papillary projections.", + "8408/1": "", + "8408/3": "An adenocarcinoma arising from the sweat glands. Most cases present as nodular lesions on the digits, usually in the hands. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial cells in the dermis forming nodules. Cystic structures containing papillary projections are also present. It may recur and metastasize, most commonly to the lungs.", + "8409/0": "A benign, well circumscribed sweat gland neoplasm with eccrine or apocrine differentiation. It usually presents as a solitary, dome-shaped papule, nodule, or plaque on acral sites. It is characterized by a proliferation of uniform basaloid cells in the dermis and it is associated with the presence of focal ductal and cystic structures. Complete excision is curative.", + "8409/3": "A carcinoma with eccrine differentiation arising from the sweat glands. It may arise de novo or as a malignant transformation of a pre-existing poroma. It usually grows in the legs, buttocks, feet, and trunk and usually presents as an ulcerative plaque. It is characterized by the presence of intraepidermal and dermal nests of malignant epithelial cells. It may recur after excision and metastasize to the lymph nodes and less frequently to distal anatomic sites.", + "8410/0": "A benign, well circumscribed neoplasm arising from the sebaceous glands. It usually presents as a small yellowish tumor in the sun exposed skin of head and neck. It is characterized by the presence of sebaceous cells aggregates with a peripheral rim of basaloid cells.", + "8410/3": "An adenocarcinoma with sebaceous differentiation. It presents as a painless mass and it may be multifocal. It grows in the ocular adnexae and in the skin of head and neck, trunk, genitals, and extremities. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with multivesicular and clear cytoplasm. It may recur and metastasize.", + "8413/3": "", + "8420/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm derived from ceruminous glands in the external auditory canal. It presents as a grey mass covered by skin. It is characterized by a proliferation of glands composed of cells with abundant eosinophilic and granular cytoplasm.", + "8420/3": "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma derived from ceruminous glands in the external auditory canal.", + "8430/1": "", + "8430/3": "A carcinoma morphologically characterized the presence of cuboidal mucous cells, goblet-like mucous cells, squamoid cells, cystic changes, and a fibrotic stromal formation. It can occur in several anatomic sites, including parotid gland, oral cavity, paranasal sinus, skin, breast, lung, larynx, and lacrimal ducts. It is classified as low or high grade.", + "8440/0": "A benign or borderline cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium. The epithelial cells line the cystic spaces which contain serous or mucinous fluid. Representative examples include ovarian and pancreatic cystadenomas.", + "8440/3": "A malignant cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium. The malignant epithelial cells invade the stroma. The cystic spaces contain serous or mucinous fluid. Representative examples include ovarian and pancreatic cystadenocarcinomas.", + "8441/0": "A serous neoplasm in which the cysts and papillae are lined by a single layer of cells without atypia, architectural complexity or invasion.", + "8441/2": "A non-invasive serous carcinoma arising from the fallopian tube.", + "8441/3": "A malignant serous cystic neoplasm usually involving the ovary or the pancreas. It is characterized by the presence of invasive malignant glandular epithelial cells which often form papillary structures.", + "8441/6": "", + "8442/1": "A serous cystic glandular epithelial neoplasm of low malignant potential. It is characterized by the presence of atypical or malignant glandular epithelial cells with an absence of stromal invasion.", + "8443/0": "", + "8444/1": "", + "8450/0": "A serous or mucinous benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures.", + "8450/3": "A malignant cystic serous or mucinous epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures. Stromal invasion is present.", + "8451/1": "A serous or mucinous cystic glandular epithelial neoplasm of low malignant potential. It is characterized by the presence of atypical or malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures with an absence of stromal invasion.", + "8452/1": "A benign, malignant, or borderline epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillary mucinous, serous, or clear cell structures and cystic structures.", + "8452/3": "", + "8453/0": "", + "8453/2": "A non-invasive pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that exhibit loss of polarity, nuclear stratification, hyperchromasia, and pleomorphism. There is severe architectural atypia and frequent mitotic figures present.", + "8453/3": "", + "8454/0": "A multicystic tumor arising in the inferior interatrial septum in the region of the atrioventricular node. The vast majority of patients present with complete heart block and a minority with partial heart block. Sudden death is reported in approximately 10% of the cases. It is a morphologically benign tumor composed of cuboidal, transitional, or squamoid cells. The cells may also show sebaceous differentiation and originate from the endoderm.", + "8460/0": "A serous benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures.", + "8460/2": "A non-invasive serous neoplasm that arises from the ovary and shows micropapillary and/or cribriform architectural patterns. It is composed of round epithelial cells with scant cytoplasm and moderate nuclear atypia.", + "8460/3": "A malignant cystic serous epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures. Stromal invasion is present.", + "8460/6": "", + "8461/0": "A non-invasive papillary serous epithelial neoplasm usually arising from the ovary.", + "8461/3": "An invasive serous adenocarcinoma arising from the ovary and rarely the peritoneum. Morphologically, it may be a well, moderately, or poorly differentiated neoplasm. It is characterized by a papillary growth pattern often associated with the presence of psammoma bodies.", + "8461/6": "", + "8462/1": "A low malignant potential cystic serous epithelial neoplasm arising from the ovary. Cases with identical morphology have been described arising from the peritoneum as well. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion.", + "8463/1": "", + "8470/0": "A benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung.", + "8470/2": "", + "8470/3": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by cystic changes and the presence of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung.", + "8471/0": "A usually benign and less often low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures.", + "8471/1": "", + "8471/3": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by cystic changes, papillary growth pattern, and the presence of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin.", + "8472/1": "A morphologic variant of lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of mucin pools containing islands of well differentiated adenocarcinoma cells.", + "8473/1": "A low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm usually arising from the ovary. It is composed of glandular cells with intracytoplasmic mucin. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion.", + "8474/1": "A low grade, non-invasive mixed epithelial proliferative neoplasm that arises from the ovary. It is composed predominantly of serous and endocervical-type mucinous cells.", + "8474/3": "A malignant mixed epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed predominantly of serous and endocervical-type mucinous epithelium.", + "8480/0": "A benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung.", + "8480/1": "A well differentiated mucinous adenocarcinoma that arises from the appendix. It is characterized by slow growth and it is associated with the development of pseudomyxoma peritonei. Unlike the high grade mucinous adenocarcinoma of the appendix, it usually does not spread beyond the peritoneum and it does not metastasize to distant anatomic sites.", + "8480/3": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "8480/6": "A usually well differentiated mucinous adenocarcinoma of the peritoneum. The majority of cases represent tumor spread from a primary low grade mucinous neoplasm of the appendix. Cases of pseudomyxoma peritonei associated with mucinous adenocarcinomas of the gallbladder, stomach, colon, rectum, pancreas, lung, breast, and fallopian tubes have also been reported. In the past, the ovary has been considered as a common primary site associated with pseudomyxoma peritonei. However, there is recent evidence based on immunohistochemistry and molecular genetic analysis suggesting that most cases of pseudomyxoma peritonei probably represent metastasis from an appendiceal and not ovarian primary.", + "8481/3": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which produce mucin.", + "8482/3": "A mucinous adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells which resemble the endocervical epithelium.", + "8482/6": "", + "8490/3": "A usually aggressive, poorly differentiated invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells in which the nucleus is pressed to one side by the presence of intracytoplasmic mucus. It may arise from the stomach, small and large intestine, ampulla of Vater, appendix, gallbladder, pancreas, lung, bladder, breast, and prostate gland.", + "8490/6": "A signet ring cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.", + "8500/2": "A carcinoma entirely confined to the mammary ducts. It is also known as DCIS. There is no evidence of invasion of the basement membrane. Currently, it is classified into three categories: High-grade DCIS, intermediate-grade DCIS and low-grade DCIS. In this classification the DCIS grade is defined by a combination of nuclear grade, architectural growth pattern and presence of necrosis. The size of the lesion as well as the grade and the clearance margins play a major role in dictating the most appropriate therapy for DCIS.", + "8500/3": "The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma, accounting for approximately 70% of breast carcinomas. The gross appearance is usually typical with an irregular stellate outline. Microscopically, randomly arranged epithelial elements are seen. When large sheets of malignant cells are present, necrosis may be seen. With adequate tissue sampling, in situ carcinoma can be demonstrated in association with the infiltrating carcinoma. The in situ component is nearly always ductal but occasionally may be lobular or both.", + "8500/6": "", + "8501/2": "", + "8501/3": "A high grade carcinoma characterized by the presence of comedo-type tumor cell necrosis in which the necrotic areas are surrounded by a solid proliferation of malignant pleomorphic cells.", + "8502/3": "A rare, low grade invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by the presence of cells that secrete milk-like material. Morphologically, it usually appears as a circumscribed lesion, composed of cystic spaces, tubular structures, and solid areas.", + "8503/0": "An intraluminal papillary epithelial neoplasm arising within the ducts. Representative examples are the intraductal breast papilloma and the salivary gland intraductal papilloma.", + "8503/2": "A non-invasive breast adenocarcinoma located in a distended duct. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular stalks. In the absence of ductal carcinoma in situ or invasive carcinoma in adjacent tissues, the prognosis is usually favorable.", + "8503/3": "A breast adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of an intraductal papillary carcinomatous component and an invasive carcinomatous component.", + "8504/0": "A papillary epithelial neoplasm arising in a cystically dilated breast duct.", + "8504/2": "An intraductal breast carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth within a large cystic duct. There is no evidence of invasion of the breast parenchyma.", + "8504/3": "An intraductal breast carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth within a large cystic duct. There is no evidence of invasion of the breast parenchyma.", + "8505/0": "A neoplastic process characterized by the presence of multiple intraductal papillomas.", + "8506/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the nipple. Signs and symptoms include serous or sanguineous nipple discharge and nipple erosion. It is characterized by the presence of aggregates of small tubules replacing the nipple stroma. The tubules are lined by epithelial and myoepithelial cells.", + "8507/2": "", + "8507/3": "", + "8508/3": "", + "8509/2": "A well circumscribed, low grade neoplasm that arises from the breast. It is characterized by the presence of sheets of malignant epithelial cells that are supported by fibrovascular structures. When there is an invasive component present, it is usually a mucinous carcinoma.", + "8509/3": "", + "8510/3": "A term referring to medullary carcinomas which can develop in various anatomic sites such as the thyroid gland, breast, colon, rectum, and small intestine.", + "8512/3": "", + "8513/3": "", + "8514/3": "", + "8519/2": "A recently described aggressive subtype of classic lobular breast carcinoma in situ. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic large cells with irregular nuclei and prominent single or multiple nucleoli.", + "8520/2": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by a proliferation of monomorphic cells completely filling the lumina. The overall lobular architecture is preserved. It is frequently multifocal (90% in some series) and bilateral. It seldom becomes invasive; however there is an increased risk of infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma.", + "8520/3": "An adenocarcinoma of the breast arising from the lobules. This is a relatively uncommon carcinoma, represents approximately 10% of the breast adenocarcinomas and is often bilateral or multifocal.", + "8520/6": "", + "8521/1": "", + "8521/3": "The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma, accounting for approximately 70% of breast carcinomas. The gross appearance is usually typical with an irregular stellate outline. Microscopically, randomly arranged epithelial elements are seen. When large sheets of malignant cells are present, necrosis may be seen. With adequate tissue sampling, in situ carcinoma can be demonstrated in association with the infiltrating carcinoma. The in situ component is nearly always ductal but occasionally may be lobular or both.", + "8522/1": "", + "8522/2": "The co-existence of ductal and lobular carcinoma in situ in the breast, without evidence of stromal invasion.", + "8522/3": "An invasive ductal breast carcinoma associated with a lobular carcinomatous component. The lobular carcinomatous component may be in situ or invasive.", + "8522/6": "", + "8523/3": "", + "8524/3": "", + "8525/3": "", + "8530/3": "", + "8540/3": "A malignant neoplasm in which there is infiltration of the skin overlying the breast by neoplastic large cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and large nuclei with prominent nucleoli (Paget cells). It is almost always associated with an intraductal or invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. The clinical features include focal skin reddening, and eczema. Retraction of the nipple may sometimes occur.", + "8541/3": "", + "8542/3": "A malignant neoplasm in which there is infiltration of the skin by neoplastic large cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and large nuclei with prominent nucleoli (Paget cells). It may affect the anus, penis, scrotum, and vulva.", + "8543/3": "Paget disease of the breast associated with the presence of a usually high grade ductal carcinoma in situ in the lactiferous glands.", + "8550/0": "A benign glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns.", + "8550/1": "A benign or malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. It includes the acinar cell adenoma and acinar cell carcinoma.", + "8550/3": "A malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. Representative examples include the acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas and the acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland.", + "8551/3": "A cystic adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of relatively uniform neoplastic cells which produce pancreatic enzymes and are arranged in acinar patterns. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, and diarrhea. It usually has an aggressive clinical course.", + "8552/3": "", + "8560/0": "", + "8560/3": "An invasive carcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells and malignant squamous cells.", + "8561/0": "An adenoma characterized by an oncocytic, often papillary, epithelial component, dense lymphoid stroma, and cystic spaces. It occurs primarily in the parotid gland, and is the second most common benign parotid salivary gland tumor. A strong association with smoking has been reported. It typically presents as a painless swelling in the lower portion of the parotid gland.", + "8562/3": "A malignant neoplasm which occurs mostly in the major salivary glands (most frequently in the parotid gland), but also in the minor salivary glands of the oral mucosa and the tracheobronchial tree. It is characterized by the presence of ductal structures which are lined by an inner layer of cuboidal epithelial-type cells and an outer layer of myoepithelial cells with clear or eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "8570/3": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of focal or extensive transformation of malignant glandular cells to squamous epithelial cells.", + "8571/3": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by focal or extensive cartilage and/or bone formation.", + "8572/3": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by focal or extensive transformation of the malignant glandular cells to spindle-shaped cells.", + "8573/3": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by focal or extensive transformation of the malignant glandular cells to cells with abundant, usually granular eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "8574/3": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of focal or extensive neurosecretory cell differentiation with the formation of organoid patterns.", + "8575/3": "A general term used to describe carcinomas arising from epithelial cells that have been transformed into another cells type (metaplastic epithelial cells). A representative example is the adenocarcinoma arising in Barrett esophagus. This term is also used to describe carcinomas in which the malignant epithelial cells show differentiation towards another cell type. A representative example of the latter is the metaplastic breast carcinoma in which the malignant glandular cells show squamous, spindle cell, or chondroid/osseous differentiation.", + "8576/3": "An adenocarcinoma with morphologic characteristics similar to hepatocellular carcinoma, arising from an anatomic site other than the liver.", + "8580/0": "A thymoma that is completely surrounded by a capsule, without evidence of capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues, and metastases.", + "8580/1": "A neoplasm arising from the epithelial cells of the thymus. Although thymomas are usually encapsulated tumors, they may invade the capsule and infiltrate the surrounding tissues or even metastasize to distant anatomic sites. The following morphologic subtypes are currently recognized: type A, type B, type AB, metaplastic, micronodular, microscopic, and sclerosing thymoma. Thymomas type B are further subdivided into types B1, B2, and B3. Thymoma type B3 usually has the most aggressive clinical course.", + "8580/3": "A thymoma that has an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize. Although any morphologic subtype of thymoma may eventually have a malignant clinical course, this term is most often associated with thymoma types B3 and C.", + "8581/1": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle and/or oval neoplastic epithelial cells. Lymphocytic infiltration is minimal or absent. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis or pure red cell aplasia. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. Approximately 20% of the cases occur as stage II or stage III tumors. Type A thymoma generally behaves as a benign tumor and the overall survival is reported to be 100% at 5 and 10 years.", + "8581/3": "A type A thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "8582/1": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of a lymphocyte-poor component similar to that seen in type A thymoma and a lymphocyte-rich component which contains neoplastic small polygonal epithelial cells. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis and pure red cell aplasia. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. A minority of the cases occur as stage II or stage III tumors. The overall survival is reported to be 80-100% at 5 and 10 years.", + "8582/3": "A type AB thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "8583/1": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of expanded areas which resemble the normal thymic cortex. The neoplastic epithelial cells are small and scant and there is a dense T-lymphocytic component present. Areas of medullary differentiation with or without Hassall's corpuscles are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It has a low grade malignant potential. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. A minority of the cases occur as stage II tumors.", + "8583/3": "A type B1 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "8584/1": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic large, polygonal epithelial cells with large vesicular nuclei and prominent nucleoli. The neoplastic cells are arranged around perivascular spaces and along septa. Immature T-lymphocytes are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It is a tumor of moderate malignancy. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I, stage II, or stage III tumors. Metastatic, stage IV tumors occur less frequently.", + "8584/3": "A type B2 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "8585/1": "Also known as well-differentiated thymic carcinoma, atypical thymoma, or epithelial thymoma, this type of thymoma displays morphologic characteristics of a well-differentiated carcinoma. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage II or stage III tumors. It is almost always invasive, it recurs frequently, and metastasizes in approximately 20% of the cases.", + "8585/3": "Also known as well-differentiated thymic carcinoma, atypical thymoma, or epithelial thymoma, this type of thymoma displays morphologic characteristics of a well-differentiated carcinoma. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage II or stage III tumors. It is almost always invasive, it recurs frequently, and metastasizes in approximately 20% of the cases.", + "8586/3": "A diverse group of carcinomas of the thymus gland, previously known as thymoma type C. It includes morphologic variants derived from purely epithelial cells, as well as from cells with neuroendocrine differentiation.", + "8587/0": "A benign, well-circumscribed tumor of the neck occurring in adults. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells, epithelial islands, and adipose tissue. There is no evidence of thymic origin or differentiation, despite the use of the term thymoma in the literature.", + "8588/3": "A rare, slow growing, primary malignant tumor of the thyroid gland characterized by a lobulated architectural pattern and the presence of a biphasic cellular population composed of spindle epithelial cells and glandular cells. A small number of cases are composed exclusively of spindle epithelial cells or glandular cells.", + "8589/3": "A rare primary carcinoma of the thyroid gland, composed of groups of carcinoma cells with thymic epithelial differentiation.", + "8590/1": "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed of granulosa cells, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, theca cells, and fibroblasts. Representative examples include thecoma, fibroma, Sertoli cell tumor, and granulosa cell tumor.", + "8591/1": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis in which the neoplastic cells do not show specific differentiation.", + "8592/1": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis which may contain any combination of cell types, for example Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, and granulosa cells. Symptoms include testicular swelling and gynecomastia.", + "8593/1": "A rare, benign sex cord-stromal tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of a fibrothecomatous stroma and scattered sex cord elements. Although it is usually hormonally inactive, cases associated with endometrial hyperplasia or adenocarcinoma have been reported.", + "8594/1": "", + "8600/0": "An ovarian or testicular stromal tumor characterized by the presence of lipid-rich neoplastic spindle cells. In females, uterine bleeding is the most common symptom. A minority of post-menopausal women with thecoma have an associated endometrial adenocarcinoma or rarely a malignant mixed mullerian tumor or endometrial stromal sarcoma. Rare cases with nuclear atypia and mitotic activity may metastasize. In males, thecomas are rare and they usually present as slow growing, sometimes painful masses. Metastases have not been reported.", + "8600/3": "A thecoma of the ovary which may metastasize to another anatomic site. It is usually characterized by nuclear atypia and mitotic activity. Malignant thecomas are rare.", + "8601/0": "A variant of ovarian thecoma characterized by the presence of lutein cells. It is associated with a lower frequency of estrogenic manifestations compared to typical thecomas. In a minority of cases androgenic manifestations are present.", + "8602/0": "A benign ovarian stromal tumor characterized by the presence of cellular areas which contain fibroblasts and round cells. The cellular areas are separated by sclerotic or edematous hypocellular tissue. Symptoms include abdominal discomfort and menstrual abnormalities.", + "8610/0": "A benign ovarian stromal tumor in which more than 90% of the tumor cells resemble steroid hormone-secreting cells. Crystals of Reinke are not present. It occurs in post-menopausal women and it is usually associated with estrogenic effects.", + "8620/1": "A granulosa cell tumor occurring in the ovary and rarely in the testis. It is composed of granulosa cells in an often fibrothecomatous stroma. The neoplastic cells may form various patterns including the microfollicular, which is characterized by the presence of Call-Exner bodies, macrofollicular, insular, trabecular, and diffuse pattern. In females, it affects middle aged to post-menopausal women. Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, hemoperitoneum, and ascites. Estrogenic and rarely androgenic manifestations may be present. The vast majority of cases present as stage I tumors; however, all tumors have a potential for aggressive clinical course. In males, it is reported in the age range of 16-76 years and the average age at presentation is 44 years. A minority of patients have gynecomastia. Metastases have been reported in a minority of patients.", + "8620/3": "A granulosa cell tumor which has an aggressive clinical course and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "8621/1": "A general term used to describe sex cord-stromal tumors characterized by the presence of granulosa cells in a thecomatous/fibrothecomatous background.", + "8622/1": "A granulosa cell tumor occurring in the ovary and testis. In females it occurs predominantly in the first three decades of life and presents unilaterally as stage I disease in the vast majority of cases. It is characterized by the presence of granulosa cells forming macrofollicular structures. The majority of cases have a good prognosis. In males it represents the most frequent congenital testicular neoplasm and the vast majority of cases occur in the perinatal period. It presents as a scrotal or abdominal mass and it more often affects the left testis. Approximately 20% of the patients have ambiguous external genitalia. It is characterized by the presence of cystic spaces lined by granulosa cells and cells resembling theca cells. Metastases have not been reported.", + "8623/1": "", + "8630/0": "A Sertoli cell tumor of the testis or the ovary which remains localized and does not metastasize to another anatomic site.", + "8630/1": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. In males, the presenting symptom is a slow growing testicular mass. Most cases follow a benign clinical course. In females it may present with estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "8630/3": "A Sertoli cell tumor that arises from the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by nuclear pleomorphism, increased mitotic activity and necrotic changes. Metastases may be present at diagnosis.", + "8631/0": "", + "8631/1": "A Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped gonadal stromal cells and Sertoli cells, some of which are atypical. Leydig cells are also present forming clusters at the periphery of the cellular aggregates. Metastases have been reported in a minority of patients.", + "8631/3": "", + "8632/1": "A rare neoplasm arising from the ovary. Although it may occur at any age, it is more often seen in young females. Morphologically, it is characterized by a mixture of two cellular populations: well differentiated Sertoli cells and granulosa cells, with the latter constituting at least ten percent of the neoplasm. The vast majority of cases are stage I lesions at presentation and produce either estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. Although it may present as a massive ovarian tumor, it usually follows a benign clinical course. Very rare case reports of testicular lesions morphologically resembling gynandroblastomas are in fact variants of juvenile granulose cell tumor, or Sertoli cell tumor, or a combination of both.", + "8633/1": "", + "8634/1": "", + "8634/3": "", + "8640/1": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. In males, the presenting symptom is a slow growing testicular mass. Most cases follow a benign clinical course. In females it may present with estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "8640/3": "", + "8641/0": "", + "8642/1": "", + "8650/0": "A Leydig cell tumor which does not recur or metastasize. Morphologically, there is no evidence of cellular atypia, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, or vascular invasion.", + "8650/1": "A sex cord-stromal tumor occurring in the testis and rarely in the ovary. It is predominantly or completely composed of Leydig cells which may contain crystals of Reinke. In males it usually presents as a painless testicular enlargement and it may be associated with gynecomastia and decreased libido. The majority of the cases have a benign clinical course. Approximately 10% of the cases have a malignant clinical course and metastasize. In females it may be associated with androgenic manifestations and it follows a benign clinical course.", + "8650/3": "A Leydig cell tumor characterized by large tumor size, the presence of cytologic atypia, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, and vascular invasion. Approximately 10% of the testicular Leydig cell tumors show malignant characteristics and metastasize. Leydig cell tumors of the ovary follow a benign clinical course.", + "8660/0": "A benign Leydig cell tumor which arises in the hilar area of the ovary.", + "8670/0": "An ovarian tumor in which the vast majority of the cells (more than 90% of the tumor cells) resemble steroid hormone-secreting cells. It usually presents with androgenic manifestations. Approximately one-third of the cases follow a malignant clinical course.", + "8670/3": "", + "8671/0": "A benign, testicular or ovarian tumor, derived from adrenal embryonic rest cells. It is composed of hyperplastic adrenal cortical tissue, and it is associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia.", + "8680/0": "A paraganglioma that is confined to the site of origin, without metastatic potential.", + "8680/1": "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from paraganglia located along the sympathetic or parasympathetic nerves. Infrequently, it may arise outside the usual distribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic paraganglia. Tumors arising from the adrenal gland medulla are called pheochromocytomas. Morphologically, paragangliomas usually display a nesting (Zellballen) growth pattern. There are no reliable morphologic criteria to distinguish between benign and malignant paragangliomas. The only definitive indicator of malignancy is the presence of regional or distant metastases.", + "8680/3": "A paraganglioma that metastasizes to regional or distant anatomic sites. Extraadrenal paragangliomas have a higher tendency to metastasize, as compared to pheochromocytomas. Common sites of metastasis include the lymph nodes, lungs, bones, and liver.", + "8681/1": "A benign or malignant paraganglioma arising from the chromaffin cells of the paraganglia that are located along the sympathetic nerves. It includes extra-adrenal paragangliomas and paragangliomas that arise from the adrenal medulla. The latter are commonly referred to as pheochromocytomas. Representative examples of extra-adrenal sympathetic paragangliomas include the bladder, and superior and inferior paraaortic paragangliomas. Clinical signs are related to the secretion of catecholamines resulting in hypertension.", + "8682/1": "A benign or malignant, usually non-functioning, extra-adrenal paraganglioma that arises from paraganglia located along the parasympathetic nerves. Representative examples include aorticopulmonary, carotid body, jugulotympanic, and mediastinal paragangliomas.", + "8683/0": "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from paraganglia located along the sympathetic or parasympathetic nerves. Infrequently, it may arise outside the usual distribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic paraganglia. Tumors arising from the adrenal gland medulla are called pheochromocytomas. Morphologically, paragangliomas usually display a nesting (Zellballen) growth pattern. There are no reliable morphologic criteria to distinguish between benign and malignant paragangliomas. The only definitive indicator of malignancy is the presence of regional or distant metastases.", + "8690/1": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia in the base of the skull and middle ear.", + "8691/1": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma that arises from paraganglia adjacent to the base of the heart and great vessels.", + "8692/1": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia adjacent to or in the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. Most patients present with a slow growing, painless mass in the neck.", + "8693/1": "A benign or malignant paraganglioma arising from sympathetic or parasympathetic paraganglia outside the adrenal gland.", + "8693/3": "An extra-adrenal paraganglioma that metastasizes to regional or distant anatomic sites. Common sites of metastasis include the lymph nodes, lungs, bones, and liver.", + "8700/0": "A benign or malignant neuroendocrine neoplasm of the sympathetic nervous system that secretes catecholamines. It arises from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla. Clinical presentation includes headaches, palpitations, chest and abdominal pain, hypertension, fever, and tremor. Microscopically, a characteristic nesting (zellballen) growth pattern is usually seen. Other growth patterns including trabecular pattern may also be present.", + "8700/3": "A pheochromocytoma that metastasizes to other anatomic sites. Common sites of metastasis include lymph nodes, bones, liver, and lung. Morphologic features associated with malignant pheochromocytomas include: atypical mitotic figures, capsular and vascular invasion, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic activity.", + "8710/3": "A very rare morphologic variant of glomus tumor with a size greater than 2 cm. The tumor arises in subfascial or visceral tissues. It is characterized by the presence of atypical mitotic figures, or marked nuclear atypia, or the combination of both. It has an aggressive clinical course.", + "8711/0": "A rare benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from cells that resemble the modified smooth muscle cells of the glomus body. The majority of glomus tumors occur in the distal extremities.", + "8711/3": "A very rare morphologic variant of glomus tumor with a size greater than 2 cm. The tumor arises in subfascial or visceral tissues. It is characterized by the presence of atypical mitotic figures, or marked nuclear atypia, or the combination of both. It has an aggressive clinical course.", + "8712/0": "A morphologic variant of the glomus tumor characterized by the presence of dilated veins, surrounded by small clusters of glomus cells. Glomangiomas are most often present in patients with multiple lesions.", + "8713/0": "A morphologic variant of the glomus tumor with architectural features similar to solid glomus tumor. It is characterized by the presence of elongated glomus cells which resemble mature smooth muscle.", + "8714/3": "A usually large and aggressive tumor with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation characterized by the presence of marked nuclear atypia, pleomorphism, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, and infiltrative margins. The most common metastatic sites are liver, lungs, lymph nodes, and bone.", + "8720/0": "A nevus characterised by the presence of excessive pigment.", + "8720/2": "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Melanoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastases. M0: No detectable evidence of distant metastases. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)", + "8720/3": "A malignant, usually aggressive tumor composed of atypical, neoplastic melanocytes. Most often, melanomas arise in the skin (cutaneous melanomas) and include the following histologic subtypes: superficial spreading melanoma, nodular melanoma, acral lentiginous melanoma, and lentigo maligna melanoma. Cutaneous melanomas may arise from acquired or congenital melanocytic or dysplastic nevi. Melanomas may also arise in other anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal system, eye, urinary tract, and reproductive system. Melanomas frequently metastasize to lymph nodes, liver, lungs, and brain.", + "8720/6": "", + "8721/3": "An aggressive form of melanoma, frequently metastasizing to the lymph nodes. It presents as a papular or nodular raised skin lesion. It comprises approximately 10-15% of melanomas. Morphologically, it often displays an epithelioid appearance.", + "8722/0": "An uncommon variant of melanocytic nevus. It presents as a small pigmented skin lesion. It is characterized by the presence of large melanocytes with clear, foamy or finely vacuolated cytoplasm. It may recur if it is not completely excised.", + "8722/3": "A rare variant of melanoma with a vertical growth phase. It presents as a nodular or polypoid skin lesion. It is characterized by the presence of nodules which contain large melanoma cells with clear, foamy or finely vacuolated cytoplasm. The prognosis is similar to that of other melanomas matched for depth of invasion.", + "8723/0": "A melanocytic nevus characterized by circumferential depigmentation. It is usually associated with a brisk lymphocytic infiltrate.", + "8723/3": "A skin lesion characterized by the disappearance of the melanoma cells from the primary melanoma site. The disappearance of the malignant cells is associated with fibroplasia of the papillary dermis. According to some authors, complete regression of the primary melanoma may occur in 4-8% of patients.", + "8725/0": "An intradermal nevus characterized by the presence of nests of atrophic nevus cells which are hyalinized and resemble nerve bundles.", + "8726/0": "A benign melanocytic proliferation within or adjacent to the optic disk. It presents as a pigmented, intraocular tumor.", + "8727/0": "Solitary or multiple, slightly raised pigmented melanocytic lesions with irregular borders, usually measuring more than 0.6cm in greatest dimension. Morphologically, there is melanocytic atypia and the differential diagnosis from melanoma may be difficult. Patients are at an increased risk for the development of melanoma.", + "8728/0": "A diffuse or multifocal proliferation of uniform nevoid polygonal cells in the leptomeninges. Cells may spread into the Virchow-Robin spaces without frank invasion of the brain. Diffuse melanocytosis carries a poor prognosis even in the absence of histologic malignancy. (WHO)", + "8728/1": "A usually well differentiated melanocytic neoplasm arising from the meninges. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid, fusiform, polyhedral, and spindle melanocytes without evidence of hemorrhage, necrosis, or high mitotic activity. Presenting symptoms include headache, vomiting, and neurological manifestations. Complete excision is usually curative.", + "8728/3": "A meningeal melanoma with secondary diffuse meningeal spread. (WHO)", + "8730/0": "A benign nevus characterized by the absence of melanin pigment in the melanocytes.", + "8730/3": "A melanoma characterized by the complete absence of melanin pigment in the melanoma cells. It occurs more frequently on the face and it is often associated with desmoplastic reaction.", + "8740/0": "A nevus characterized by the presence of an intraepidermal proliferation of nevus cells. The nevus cells form multiple nests in the dermal-epidermal junction. It presents as a small, slightly raised, pigmented skin lesion.", + "8740/3": "A melanoma arising from a melanocytic nevus which involves the dermal-epidermal junction of the skin.", + "8741/2": "Precancerous Melanosis", + "8741/3": "A melanoma arising from an atypical intraepithelial melanocytic hyperplasia.", + "8742/2": "An atypical proliferation of atypical melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction, without infiltration of the papillary or reticular dermis. The melanocytic proliferation is associated with actinic damage and epidermal atrophy. It usually occurs in the sun-exposed skin of elderly people. It is a form of melanoma in situ.", + "8742/3": "A melanoma of the skin characterized by single cell infiltration of the papillary dermis by atypical melanocytes, in a background of lentigo maligna changes.", + "8743/3": "A type of melanoma that typically occurs in light-skinned individuals ranging in age from young adults to the elderly. Risk factors include extensive sun exposure during childhood, a family history of melanoma, and the presence of dysplastic nevi.", + "8744/3": "A form of melanoma occurring most often on the plantar, palmar, subungual, and periungual skin. It presents as a pigmented macular lesion with irregular borders. Morphologically, it consists of atypical spindled and dendritic melanocytes. The epidermis is often hyperplastic and there is pagetoid infiltration of the epidermis by anaplastic cells.", + "8745/3": "A melanoma of the skin characterized by a proliferation of atypical spindled melanocytes in the dermis, in a background of abundant collagen. It usually presents as an amelanotic raised nodular lesion.", + "8746/3": "An acral lentiginous melanoma affecting mucosal surfaces.", + "8750/0": "A nevus characterized by the proliferation of nevus cells in the dermis without involvement of the dermal-epidermal junction.", + "8760/0": "A nevus composed of neoplastic melanocytes that infiltrate both the epidermis and the dermis.", + "8761/0": "", + "8761/1": "A rare melanocytic lesion occurring at birth, comprising at least 5% of the body surface area. It usually presents as a dark brown to black hairy lesion. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of a compound or intradermal nevus. There is an increased risk of malignant transformation to melanoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and poorly differentiated malignant tumors.", + "8761/3": "", + "8762/1": "A benign proliferation of epithelioid or spindled melanocytes usually in the upper or mid dermis in a background of congenital melanocytic nevus. The congenital melanocytic nevus is usually of the deep type, involving the dermis and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. It presents as a dark plaque or nodule above a giant congenital melanocytic nevus.", + "8770/0": "A benign, acquired or congenital, usually single skin lesion. It can occur on any area of the body, but most commonly occurs on the face of children and the thighs of young females. It is characterized by a proliferation of large spindle, oval, or large epithelioid melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction. The melanocytic proliferation subsequently extends into the dermis.", + "8770/3": "A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes and malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes.", + "8771/0": "A nevus characterized by the presence of large epithelioid melanocytes.", + "8771/3": "A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes.", + "8772/0": "A benign, acquired or congenital, usually single skin lesion. It can occur on any area of the body, but most commonly occurs on the face of children and the thighs of young females. It is characterized by a proliferation of large spindle, oval, or large epithelioid melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction. The melanocytic proliferation subsequently extends into the dermis.", + "8772/3": "A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes.", + "8773/3": "A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with slender nuclei and no visible nucleoli. Representative example is the type A spindle cell uveal melanoma.", + "8774/3": "A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with larger nuclei and distinct nucleoli. Representative example is the type B spindle cell uveal melanoma.", + "8780/0": "An intradermal nevus characterized by the presence of benign pigmented dendritic spindle-shaped melanocytes. It most frequently occurs in the skin of the distal upper extremities, followed by the lower extremities, scalp, face, and buttocks. It usually presents as a single blue or blue-black papular lesion less than 1cm in diameter. Simple excision is usually curative.", + "8780/3": "A rare melanoma which develops in a pre-existing blue nevus. It occurs more frequently on the scalp, face, orbit, back, buttocks, extremities, hands, and feet.", + "8790/0": "A blue nevus characterized by a multinodular cellular infiltrate with a dumb-bell architecture occupying the reticular dermis. The cellular infiltrate often extends into the subcutaneous tissue. The cellular infiltrate is composed of spindle-shaped melanocytes with pale cytoplasm alternating with bundles of pigmented spindle-shaped melanocytes. In occasional cases an increased mitotic activity, focal necrosis, and nuclear pleomorphism may be seen. Such cases with atypical features may have an uncertain malignant potential.", + "8800/0": "A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the soft tissue.", + "8800/3": "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm of the soft tissue or bone. It arises from muscle, fat, fibrous tissue, bone, cartilage, and blood vessels. Sarcomas occur in both children and adults. The prognosis depends largely on the degree of differentiation (grade) of the neoplasm. Representative subtypes are liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, osteosarcoma, and chondrosarcoma.", + "8800/6": "", + "8800/9": "The occurrence of several sarcomas in different anatomic locations.", + "8801/3": "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm composed of spindle-shaped cells. This is a morphologic term which can be applied to a wide range of sarcomas.", + "8801/6": "", + "8802/3": "A sarcoma characterized by the presence of large, anaplastic malignant cells.", + "8803/3": "A sarcoma characterized by the presence of small round or elongated malignant cells with a small amount of cytoplasm.", + "8804/3": "An aggressive malignant neoplasm of uncertain differentiation, characterized by the presence of epithelioid cells forming nodular patterns. The nodules often undergo central necrosis, resulting in a pseudogranulomatous growth pattern. It usually occurs in young adults. The most common sites of involvement are the extremities (distal-type epithelioid sarcoma), and less frequently the pelvis, perineum, and genital organs (proximal-type epithelioid sarcoma).", + "8804/6": "", + "8805/3": "An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma which cannot be further characterized.", + "8806/3": "An aggressive malignant soft tissue neoplasm of uncertain differentiation. It is characterized by a recurrent chromosomal translocation t(11;22)(p13;q12) and the presence of small round cells in a desmoplastic stroma. It usually affects children and young adults. The most common site of involvement is the abdomen. Patients usually present with abdominal distention, pain, ascites, and a palpable abdominal mass. The prognosis is usually poor.", + "8806/6": "", + "8810/0": "A non-metastasizing neoplasm arising from the fibrous tissue. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts.", + "8810/1": "A morphologic variant of fibroma characterized by increased cellularity.", + "8810/3": "A malignant mesenchymal fibroblastic neoplasm affecting the soft tissue and bone.", + "8811/0": "A soft tissue tumor of uncertain lineage characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle-shaped to round cells in a fibromyxoid stroma. Metaplastic bone formation may or may not be present.", + "8811/1": "A low grade, locally aggressive, fibroblastic neoplasm that occurs primarily in the distal extremities. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts, multivacuolated lipoblast-like cells, bizarre ganglion-like cells with inclusion-like nuclei, myxoid stroma formation, and a mixture of acute and chronic inflammatory cells. Distant metastases are very rare.", + "8811/3": "A malignant fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped cells, cellular pleomorphism, thin-walled blood vessels, fibrous septa, and myxoid stroma.", + "8812/0": "A benign fibrous neoplasm arising from the periosteal connective tissue that surrounds a bone.", + "8812/3": "A malignant fibroblastic tumor arising from the periosteal connective tissue that surrounds a bone.", + "8813/0": "A benign fibrous tumor arising from the fascial connective tissue.", + "8813/3": "A malignant fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the fascial connective tissue.", + "8814/3": "A fibrosarcoma that occurs in infants. It shares identical morphologic features with adult fibrosarcoma but carries the t(12;15)(p13;q25) translocation that results in ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusion. It usually affects the superficial and deep soft tissues of the extremities. The prognosis is generally much more favorable than for adult fibrosarcoma, and it rarely metastasizes.", + "8815/0": "A localized neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation. It is characterized by the presence of round to spindle-shaped cells, hylanized stroma formation, thin-walled branching blood vessels, and thin bands of collagen.", + "8815/1": "A solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma that arises from the central nervous system. It corresponds to the more cellular, less collagenous tumor with plump cells and staghorn vasculature which was diagnosed as central nervous system hemangiopericytoma in the past.", + "8815/3": "A malignant neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation. It is characterized by the presence of atypical round to spindle-shaped cells, increased cellularity, necrotic change and high mitotic activity.", + "8820/0": "A benign, slow-growing tumor arising from the soft tissues usually in the mid-thoracic region of the elderly. It is characterized by the presence of paucicellular collagenous tissue, adipocytes and a predominance of large coarse elastic fibers arranged in globules.", + "8821/1": "An insidious, locally aggressive, poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern. It lacks metastatic potential.", + "8822/1": "An insidious poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues of the abdomen. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern.", + "8823/0": "A rare, benign, locally aggressive, osteolytic neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of a rich collagenous stroma and spindle cells with minimal cellular atypia.", + "8824/0": "A benign, localized, nodular and well-circumscribed neoplasm usually seen as a congenital neoplasm or in the first year of life. It is characterized by a biphasic growth pattern and is composed of small, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells associated with branching thin-walled vessels and more mature neoplastic spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm in a collagenous stroma.", + "8824/1": "A benign, multifocal, nodular and well-circumscribed neoplasm usually seen as a congenital neoplasm or in the first year of life. It is characterized by a biphasic growth pattern and is composed of small, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells associated with branching thin-walled vessels and more mature neoplastic spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm in a collagenous stroma.", + "8825/0": "A benign, well circumscribed soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle shaped myofibroblasts and mast cells in a collagenous stroma.", + "8825/1": "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm that arises from soft tissue or viscera, in children and young adults. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes, and plasma cells.", + "8825/3": "", + "8826/0": "A benign myofibroblastic neoplasm, usually arising in the pelviperineal region. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle to round cells, dilated thin walled vessels, and stromal edema. Most patients present with painless circumscribed masses.", + "8827/1": "", + "8830/0": "A benign neoplasm composed of fibroblastic spindle cells in a whorled storiform pattern. It is characterized by the presence of foam cells, inflammatory cells, hemosiderin deposition and stromal hemorrhage.", + "8830/1": "An intermediate cutaneous mesenchymal neoplasm of uncertain differentiation, usually affecting the actinic-damaged skin of the elderly. The tumor presents as a single cutaneous nodule which is often ulcerated. Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of highly atypical cytologic features, pleomorphism and abundant mitotic figures. The vast majority of patients have an excellent prognosis following conservative therapy. Recurrences are infrequent, and metastasis is rare.", + "8830/3": "An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of a pleomorphic malignant cellular infiltrate. It is also known as malignant fibrous histiocytoma.", + "8831/0": "A mesenchymal tumor composed of fibroblastic and histiocytic cells.", + "8832/0": "A solitary, slowly growing, nodular tumor most often affecting the extremities. It is composed of fibrous and histiocytic cells which infiltrate the dermis and occasionally the underlying subcutaneous tissue. Usually local excision is curative. Recurrences are reported only in a small minority of cases.", + "8832/3": "A low grade fibroblastic neoplasm presenting as a nodular cutaneous mass, most often on the trunk and the proximal extremities. The tumor diffusely infiltrates the dermis and the subcutaneous tissues. It is considered a locally aggressive neoplasm, which often recurs but rarely metastasizes.", + "8833/3": "A morphologic variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans characterized by the presence of melanin-pigmented dendritic cells.", + "8834/1": "A rare, locally aggressive fibroblastic neoplasm typically affecting young patients (predominantly boys). It manifests with painless nodules in the dermis or subcutaneous tissues. Morphologically, it contains giant cells and wide vessel-like spaces. This tumor can recur but metastases have not been reported.", + "8835/1": "An intermediate fibrohistiocytic neoplasm of the skin that usually affects children and young adults. It is a multinodular, poorly circumscribed tumor characterized by the presence of multinucleated giant cells, mononuclear histiocyte-like cells, and spindle fibroblast-like cells arranged in a plexiform pattern.", + "8836/1": "A low malignant potential soft tissue neoplasm of uncertain differentiation. It typically affects young patients, presenting as a slowly growing nodular or cystic tumor mass, most often in the subcutaneous tissues of the extremities. Occasionally, patients have systemic symptoms (anemia, fever, and weight loss). This tumor has a relatively good prognosis. A minority of patients develop local recurrences. Metastases are rare.", + "8840/0": "A benign soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle and stellate cells, lobulated growth pattern, and myxoid stroma formation.", + "8840/3": "An infiltrating malignant soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of immature undifferentiated cells and abundant myxoid stroma formation.", + "8841/1": "A benign soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle and stellate cells in a myxoid stroma.", + "8842/0": "A rare soft tissue tumor of uncertain lineage characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle to round cells forming cords in a fibromyxoid stroma. The lesions are associated with the formation of metaplastic bone. Most patients present with painless subcutaneous masses. Recurrences have been reported in a minority of patients.", + "8842/3": "A sarcoma that arises from the lung. It is related to a bronchus and is often predominantly endobronchial. It is characterized by the proliferation of round and spindle cells within a myxoid stroma. It is associated with the presence of an EWSR1-CREB1 fusion gene.", + "8850/0": "A benign, usually painless, well-circumscribed lipomatous tumor composed of adipose tissue.", + "8850/1": "An intermediate, locally aggressive lipomatous neoplasm. Microscopically, the adipose tissue contains large and pleomorphic lipoblasts, and is dissected by fibrous septa containing spindle cells. It requires a wide local excision, may recur locally, but never metastasizes.", + "8850/3": "A usually painless malignant tumor that arises from adipose tissue. Microscopically, it may contain a spectrum of neoplastic adipocytes ranging from lipoblasts to pleomorphic malignant adipocytes. Morphologic variants include: well differentiated, dedifferentiated, pleomorphic, and myxoid liposarcoma. The metastatic potential is higher in less differentiated tumors.", + "8851/0": "A benign well-circumscribed tumor composed of mature adipocytes, characterized by areas of abundant fibrous tissue.", + "8851/3": "A locally aggressive malignant neoplasm composed of mature adipocytes showing cell size variation and nuclear atypia. It is often associated with the presence of hyperchromatic multinucleated stromal cells, and varying numbers of lipoblasts. There are three histologic subtypes, sclerosing, inflammatory, and spindle cell liposarcoma. These tumors do not usually metastasize unless they undergo dedifferentiation.", + "8852/0": "A benign well-circumscribed tumor composed of mature adipocytes, characterized by areas of abundant fibrous tissue and extensive myxoid change.", + "8852/3": "A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of round non-lipogenic primitive mesenchymal cells and small signet ring lipoblasts within a myxoid stoma with a branching vascular pattern. This category includes hypercellular lesions with round cell morphology, formerly known as round cell liposarcoma.", + "8853/3": "A poorly differentiated liposarcoma, characterized by the presence of solid sheets of primitive round mesenchymal cells and the absence of myxoid stroma.", + "8854/0": "A benign circumscribed tumor characterized by small spindle cells, rounded hyperchromatic cells and multinucleated giant cells with radially arranged nuclei.", + "8854/3": "A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of varying proportions of pleomorphic lipoblasts in a background that resembles undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma. It is the rarest liposarcoma variant and usually has an aggressive clinical course.", + "8855/3": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of a combination of liposarcomatous morphologic subtypes: myxoid/round cell and well differentiated/dedifferentiated liposarcoma or myxoid/round cell and pleomorphic liposarcoma.", + "8856/0": "A benign tumor, composed of mature adipocytes, that arises within skeletal muscle fibers.", + "8857/0": "A benign circumscribed tumor composed of spindled cells, adipocytes, and collagen bundles. There is no evidence of nuclear hyperchromasia or mitotic activity.", + "8857/3": "A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of a fibroblastic component.", + "8858/3": "An atypical lipomatous tumor/well differentiated liposarcoma that shows progression to a usually non-lipomatous, high grade sarcoma. The non-lipomatous sarcoma component may be present in the primary lesion or at the site of recurrence.", + "8860/0": "A neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation often associated with tuberous sclerosis. It is characterized by a mixture of epithelioid cells, smooth muscle, vessels, and mature adipose tissue. The kidney is the most common site of involvement. Other sites of involvement include the liver, lung, lymph nodes, and retroperitoneum. The vast majority of cases follow a benign clinical course. However, cases of metastatic angiomyolipomas with sarcomatoid features have been described.", + "8861/0": "A lipoma with prominent vascularity. The vascular tissue is more abundant at the periphery of the tumor and contains fibrin thrombi. It occurs more frequently in younger individuals as a painful subcutaneous nodule, often on the arms.", + "8862/0": "A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm characterized by nests and cord of abundant univacuolated and multivacuolated lipoblasts and mature adipocytes in a prominent myxoid to hyalinized chondroid matrix admix. It predominantly affects females.", + "8870/0": "A benign soft tissue lesion arising from the adrenal gland. It is composed of mature adipose and hematopoietic/lymphoid tissues.", + "8880/0": "A rare benign slow growing adipose tissue tumor, characterized by the presence of polygonal brown fat cells with multivacuolated and/or granular cytoplasm. The tumor is usually painless and is most often seen in young adults.", + "8881/0": "A benign disorder characterized by the presence of multiple lipoblastomas.", + "8890/0": "A well-circumscribed benign smooth muscle neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern.", + "8890/1": "A condition characterized by the presence of numerous small benign smooth muscle neoplasms located throughout the body.", + "8890/3": "An uncommon, aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, usually occurring in post-menopausal women. It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells. Morphologic variants include epithelioid, granular cell, inflammatory and myxoid leimyosarcomas.", + "8891/0": "A benign or malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumor with epithelioid morphology.", + "8891/3": "A morphologic variant of leiomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of epithelioid round cells with eosinophilic to clear cytoplasm.", + "8892/0": "A morphologic variant of classic leiomyoma characterized by a dense cellular infiltrate composed of spindle or round cells with scant cytoplasm and a less obvious interlacing fascicle pattern.", + "8893/0": "A morphologic variant of leiomyoma characterized by the presence of pleomorphic muscle cells with bizarre hyperchromatic nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "8894/0": "A benign, slow-growing neoplasm that arises from the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. It is characterized by the presence of well-differentiated smooth muscle cells which are arranged around numerous vessels.", + "8894/3": "A malignant smooth muscle neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical spindle cells and formation of vascular channels.", + "8895/0": "A benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from smooth, skeletal, or cardiac muscle tissue.", + "8895/3": "A malignant neoplasm affecting the skeletal or smooth muscles. Malignant neoplasms arising from the skeletal muscles are called rhabdomyosarcomas. Malignant neoplasms arising from the smooth muscles are called leiomyosarcomas.", + "8896/3": "A morphologic variant of leiomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of cellular pleomorphism, malignant cells with large nuclei, and a myxoid stroma.", + "8897/1": "A benign or malignant myomatous neoplasm arising from smooth muscle.", + "8898/1": "", + "8900/0": "A benign mesenchymal tumor arising from skeletal or cardiac muscle.", + "8900/3": "A rare aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. It usually occurs in children and young adults. Only a small percentage of tumors arise in the skeletal muscle of the extremities. The majority arise in other anatomic sites.", + "8901/3": "An aggressive rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in adults. The neoplasm is characterized by the presence of bizarre round, spindle, and polygonal cells. Clinical presentation includes a rapidly enlarging painful mass usually in the lower extremities.", + "8902/3": "", + "8903/0": "A rare benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. It is characterized by the presence of immature spindle and polygonal cells within a scant myxoid stroma. It usually develops in the head and neck region of young children.", + "8904/0": "", + "8905/0": "A rare benign skeletal muscle neoplasm arising from the female genital tract. It is characterized by the presence of small nucleated rhabdomyoblasts within a fibrous and myxoid stroma.", + "8910/3": "A poorly circumscribed morphologic variant of rhabdomyosarcoma. It is characterized by the presence of primitive skeletal muscle differentiation in any stage of myogenesis.", + "8912/3": "An uncommon variant of rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of whorls of spindle cells forming a storiform pattern. In children it usually arises in the paratesticular region. In adults it usually arises from the deep soft tissues in the head and neck.", + "8920/3": "A rapidly growing malignant mesenchymal neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of round cells with myoblastic differentiation and a fibrovascular stroma resembling an alveolar growth pattern. The tumor usually presents in the extremities.", + "8920/6": "", + "8921/3": "An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the nervous system or soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a sarcomatous component (most often rhabdomyosarcoma) and a ganglionic or a neuroectodermal component.", + "8930/0": "A non-infiltrating, benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the uterine corpus. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells that resemble the cells of the proliferative phase of endometrial stroma and numerous thin-walled small vessels. It usually presents with abnormal uterine bleeding and menorrhagia.", + "8930/3": "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that affects the uterine corpus, and rarely, the ovaries, cervix, and vagina. In the uterine corpus it is classified as low grade or high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma. In the remainder of the anatomic sites it is classified as low grade endometrioid stromal sarcoma.", + "8931/3": "An infiltrating mesenchymal tumor arising from the uterine corpus, cervix, vagina, and the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of oval to spindle-shape cells that resemble the cells of the endometrial stroma, without evidence of significant atypia and pleomorphism. Numerous small vessels are also present. It is usually characterized by indolent growth and late recurrences.", + "8932/0": "A benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of a glandular and a mesenchymal (fibromyomatous) component. It occurs in the uterine corpus and the cervix. A variant of adenomyoma associated with glandular architectural complexity is called atypical polypoid adenomyoma. Simple polypectomy is usually curative. Atypical polypoid adenomyoma may recur following polypectomy.", + "8933/3": "A low grade malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of a benign epithelial component (tubular and cleft-like glands) and a low grade sarcomatous component that contains varying amounts of fibrous and smooth muscle tissues. In a minority of cases, the sarcomatous component contains heterologous elements including striated muscle, cartilage, and fat. It occurs in the uterine corpus, ovary, fallopian tube, cervix, and vagina. It may recur and in a minority of cases may metastasize to distant anatomic sites.", + "8934/3": "", + "8935/0": "A benign neoplasm composed of mesenchymal stromal cells without evidence of cellular atypia.", + "8935/1": "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm composed of stromal cells. Representative examples include gastrointestinal stromal tumor, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and prostate stromal sarcoma.", + "8935/3": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical mesenchymal-stromal cells. Representative examples include endometrial stromal sarcoma and prostate stromal sarcoma.", + "8936/0": "Low Risk Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor", + "8936/1": "A stromal tumor most commonly seen in the gastrointestinal tract. Rare cases of solitary masses in the omentum or the mesentery have also been reported (extragastrointestinal gastrointestinal stromal tumor). It is a tumor that differentiates along the lines of interstitial cells of Cajal. Most cases contain KIT- or PDGFRA-activating mutations. Until recently, surgery has been the only effective therapy for this tumor. However, many patients still experience recurrence. Conventional chemotherapy and radiation therapy have been of limited value. A KIT tyrosine kinase inhibitor, imatinib mesylate (also known as STI-571 or Gleevec), is now effective in the treatment of relapsed and unresectable cases.", + "8936/3": "High Risk Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor", + "8940/0": "A neoplasm characterized by the presence of benign epithelial and myoepithelial cells and a mesenchymal component that may contain mucoid, myxoid, cartilaginous, or osseous areas. It may be completely or partially encapsulated. It occurs in the parotid gland, submandibular gland, minor salivary glands in the oral cavity, upper respiratory tract, and nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It usually presents as a slow growing painless mass. Infrequently, patients may present with pain and facial palsy. It may recur after excision or transform to a malignant neoplasm (carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma).", + "8940/3": "A malignant tumor arising from the salivary gland. It includes carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, a malignant epithelial tumor arising from a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma and carcinosarcoma which is characterized by a mixture of malignant epithelial and sarcomatous elements.", + "8941/3": "A carcinoma arising in a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma. It most often occurs in the parotid gland and less often in the submandibular gland and minor salivary gland. Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing mass which recently had undergone rapid growth. The prognosis depends on the invasiveness of the malignant component. Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive tumors usually have a good prognosis following surgical resection. Invasive tumors are usually aggressive and are associated with recurrences and metastases.", + "8950/3": "A group of tumors affecting the female reproductive system, characterized by the presence of epithelial and stromal elements. It includes the following clinicopathological entities: adenofibroma, adenomyoma, Mullerian adenosarcoma, and malignant mixed mesodermal (Mullerian) tumor.", + "8950/6": "", + "8951/3": "A group of tumors affecting the female reproductive system, characterized by the presence of epithelial and stromal elements. It includes the following clinicopathological entities: adenofibroma, adenomyoma, Mullerian adenosarcoma, and malignant mixed mesodermal (Mullerian) tumor.", + "8959/0": "A localized, well-circumscribed multilocular tumor lined by hobnail epithelium. It was previously classified along with pediatric cystic nephroma, as a separate entity from mixed epithelial and stromal tumors. Now it is classified within the spectrum of the mixed epithelial and stromal tumor family. Most of these tumors are benign. (WHO 2016).", + "8959/1": "A variant of Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the presence of cystic spaces separated by septa. The septa contain immature epithelial cells, immature stromal cells, and blastema cells. Surgical resection is usually curative.", + "8959/3": "A variant of Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the presence of cystic spaces separated by septa. The septa contain immature epithelial cells, immature stromal cells, and blastema cells. Surgical resection is usually curative.", + "8960/1": "", + "8960/3": "An embryonal pediatric tumor of the kidney which may also be seen rarely in adults. The peak incidence of Wilms tumor is between the second and fifth year of life. Microscopically, it is composed of a mixture of cellular elements (blastemal, stromal, and epithelial). The most common sites of metastasis include the regional lymph nodes, lungs, and liver.", + "8963/3": "An aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm usually occurring during childhood. It is characterized by the presence of large cells with abundant cytoplasm, large eccentric nucleus, and a prominent nucleolus and it is associated with abnormalities of chromosome 22. It can arise from the central nervous system, kidney, and the soft tissues. The prognosis is poor.", + "8964/3": "A rare pediatric sarcoma affecting the kidney. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid or spindle cells forming cords or nests, separated by fibrovascular septa. It is associated with internal tandem duplications in the BCOR gene. It metastasizes to lung, bone, brain and soft tissue.", + "8965/0": "A benign, solitary, and partially cystic neoplasm arising from the kidney. It occurs in children and adults. Presenting symptoms include hematuria and polycythemia. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial nodules embedded in a stroma containing spindle cells.", + "8966/0": "", + "8967/0": "", + "8970/3": "A malignant liver neoplasm that occurs almost exclusively in infants, although isolated cases in older children and adults have been reported. Grossly, hepatoblastoma is solid, well circumscribed, and more often solitary than multiple. Microscopically, most of the tumors are composed exclusively of immature hepatocytic elements. About a fourth of hepatoblastomas contain a stromal component that may be undifferentiated or develop into bone or cartilage. The treatment of choice for hepatoblastoma is surgical excision with adjuvant therapy. Liver transplantation is being increasingly used as well.", + "8971/3": "A rare malignant epithelial neoplasm arising from the pancreas. The vast majority of cases occur during childhood. It is characterized by acinar differentiation, the formation of squamoid corpuscles, and the formation of stromal bands. Patients may present with an abdominal mass. Symptoms include pain, weight loss, and diarrhea. It may metastasize to lymph nodes, liver, and distant anatomic sites. Children who do not have metastatic disease at the time of diagnosis usually have a favorable clinical outcome when treated with a combination of surgery and chemotherapy. However, children with metastatic disease at presentation or adult patients usually have a poor prognosis.", + "8972/3": "A biphasic tumor that consists of fetal adenocarcinoma (typically low-grade) and primitive mesenchymal stroma. Foci of specific mesenchymal differentiation (osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, or rhabdomyosarcoma) may also be present, but are not required for the diagnosis. Most patients are smokers. The prognosis is very poor. (WHO 2015)", + "8973/3": "A malignant neoplasm affecting the lungs and/or the pleura. Pleuropulmonary blastoma is seen in children. Microscopically, the tumor may show features of chondrosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, or undifferentiated sarcoma. In approximately 25% of patients with pleuropulmonary blastoma, there are other lesions or neoplasms that may affect patients or their families, including lung or kidney cysts, and ovarian or testicular neoplasms. Heterozygous germline mutations in DICER1 gene have been identified in families harboring pleuropulmonary blastomas.", + "8974/1": "", + "8975/1": "", + "8980/3": "A malignant tumor composed of a mixture of carcinomatous and sarcomatous elements.", + "8980/6": "", + "8981/3": "", + "8982/0": "A benign or malignant tumor characterized by the presence of cells that show myoepithelial differentiation. Based on its morphologic features, it is classified as benign or malignant. A representative example of benign myoepithelioma is benign salivary gland myoepithelioma. Representative examples of malignant myoepithelioma or myoepithelial carcinoma are malignant breast myoepithelioma and salivary gland myoepithelial carcinoma.", + "8982/3": "An infiltrating malignant tumor characterized by the presence of atypical cells with myoepithelial differentiation. Representative examples include malignant breast myoepithelioma and salivary gland myoepithelial carcinoma.", + "8983/0": "", + "8983/3": "", + "8990/0": "A term describing a benign soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation.", + "8990/1": "A term describing a soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation.", + "8990/3": "A term describing a malignant soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation.", + "8991/3": "An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the liver and usually occurs in older children. It is composed of immature spindle, stellate, polymorphous, and giant cells.", + "9000/0": "A usually benign tumor composed of solid and cystic nests of epithelial cells resembling transitional epithelium; it is surrounded by an abundant stromal component that is dense and fibroblastic in nature.", + "9000/1": "A transitional cell neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic transitional cells with atypical or malignant features without evidence of stromal invasion.", + "9000/3": "A malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of an invasive malignant transitional cell component and nests of benign transitional cells in a fibrotic stroma. When the neoplasm is confined to the ovary, the prognosis is good.", + "9010/0": "A benign tumor of the breast characterized by the presence of stromal and epithelial elements. It presents as a painless, solitary, slow growing, firm, and mobile mass. It is the most common benign breast lesion. It usually occurs in women of childbearing age. The majority of fibroadenomas do not recur after complete excision. A slightly increased risk of developing cancer within fibroadenomas or in the breast tissue of patients previously treated for fibroadenomas has been reported.", + "9011/0": "A morphologic variant of breast fibroadenoma without clinical significance. It is characterized by distortion and compression of the ducts by proliferating stromal cells.", + "9012/0": "A morphologic variant of breast fibroadenoma without clinical significance. It is characterized by circumferential proliferation of stromal cells around the ducts. This results in the formation of rounded ductal-epithelial structures.", + "9013/0": "A benign or borderline neoplasm characterized by the presence of connective tissue stroma and epithelial structures. It occurs in the ovary, fallopian tube, uterine corpus, and cervix.", + "9014/0": "A benign or borderline adenofibroma characterized by the presence of serous secretory cells and minute cystic spaces filled with watery fluid. A representative example is the ovarian serous adenofibroma.", + "9014/1": "", + "9014/3": "", + "9015/0": "A benign or borderline adenofibroma characterized by the presence of epithelial cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin and a fibrotic stroma. A representative example is the ovarian mucinous adenofibroma.", + "9015/1": "", + "9015/3": "", + "9016/0": "A breast fibroadenoma characterized by a very large size. This term has also been used as a synonym for juvenile fibroadenoma by some authors. The latter is characterized by epithelial hyperplasia and an increased stromal cellularity.", + "9020/0": "A benign, circumscribed fibroepithelial neoplasm arising from the breast and rarely the prostate gland. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial structures which are arranged in clefts and by a hypercellular mesenchymal stroma which is organized in leaf-like structures. There is no evidence of cellular atypia or sarcomatous features.", + "9020/1": "A phyllodes tumor with morphologic characteristics which are intermediate between a benign and a malignant phyllodes tumor. The stromal sarcomatous changes are of low grade and are often reminiscent of low grade fibrosarcomas.", + "9020/3": "A phyllodes tumor with sarcomatous stroma. The sarcomatous component is usually of the fibrosarcomatous type. Liposarcomatous, chondrosarcomatous, osteosarcomatous, or rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation may also occur in the stroma. It may recur and metastasize following surgical resection. The lung and skeleton are the anatomic sites most frequently involved by metastases.", + "9030/0": "A breast fibroadenoma characterized by epithelial hyperplasia and an increased stromal cellularity.", + "9040/0": "A benign neoplasm arising from the synovial membrane. Examples include the diffuse giant cell tumor of tendon sheath and localized giant cell tumor of tendon sheath.", + "9040/3": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the chromosomal translocation t(X;18)(p11;q11). It can occur at any age, but mainly affects young adults, more commonly males. Although any site can be affected, the vast majority of the cases arise in the deep soft tissues of extremities, especially around the knee. Microscopically, synovial sarcoma is classified as monophasic (with a spindle or epithelial cell component) or biphasic (with both spindle and epithelial cell components). Synovial sarcomas can recur or metastasize to the lungs, bones, and lymph nodes.", + "9041/3": "A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of a spindle cell component only.", + "9042/3": "A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of an epithelial cell component only. The epithelial cells are arranged in glandular or papillary structures.", + "9043/3": "A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of both an epithelial and a spindle cell component.", + "9044/3": "A rare malignant neoplasm with melanocytic differentiation characterized by the presence of polygonal or spindle shaped clear cells. This sarcoma usually affects the tendons and aponeuroses and is associated with a poor prognosis due to recurrences and metastases.", + "9045/3": "", + "9050/0": "A benign neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the formation of glandular and tubular patterns. It can occur in several anatomic sites including the pleura, peritoneum, and epididymis.", + "9050/3": "A malignant neoplasm that arises from mesothelial cells. It is associated with exposure to asbestos.", + "9051/0": "A localized neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation, that arises from the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of round to spindle-shaped cells, hylanized stroma formation, thin-walled branching blood vessels, and thin bands of collagen.", + "9051/3": "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells. Anaplastic morphologic features and multinucleated malignant cells may also be seen.", + "9052/0": "A benign neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the formation of glandular and tubular patterns. It can occur in several anatomic sites including the pleura, peritoneum, and epididymis.", + "9052/3": "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of cells with epithelioid morphology. The epithelioid cells usually have eosinophilic cytoplasm, bland nuclei, and form tubulopapillary, microglandular, or sheet-like patterns.", + "9053/3": "A malignant mesothelioma characterized by the presence of epithelioid and sarcomatoid components, with each component representing at least 10% of the tumor.", + "9054/0": "A benign neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the formation of glandular and tubular patterns. It can occur in several anatomic sites including the pleura, peritoneum, and epididymis.", + "9055/0": "", + "9055/1": "An intermediate grade neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It occurs in the peritoneum, extraperitoneal space, omentum, or pelvic or abdominal viscera. It is characterized by the presence of multiple cysts lined by flattened or cuboidal mesothelial cells. There is no evidence of significant cytologic atypia or increased mitotic activity. It usually occurs in young to middle-aged women. Patients present with abdominal or pelvic mass and pain. Approximately half of the cases recur. The recurrences may appear several years after the initial diagnosis. Rare cases of transformation to malignant mesothelioma have also been described.", + "9060/3": "A malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of a monotonous primitive germ cell population. The neoplastic cells form aggregates and have an abundant pale cytoplasm and uniform nuclei. The aggregates of the germ cells are separated by fibrous septa which contain inflammatory cells, mostly T-lymphocytes. It arises primarily in the ovaries, but can occur both primarily and secondarily at other sites, particularly the central nervous system. It responds to chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Its prognosis is related to the tumor stage.", + "9061/3": "A radiosensitive malignant germ cell tumor found in the testis (especially undescended), and extragonadal sites (anterior mediastinum and pineal gland). It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells with clear or dense cytoplasm which contains glycogen, and by a large nucleus which contains one or more nucleoli. The neoplastic germ cells form aggregates separated by fibrous septa. The fibrous septa contain chronic inflammatory cells, mainly lymphocytes.", + "9062/3": "A seminoma of the testis characterized by increased cellular pleomorphism, high mitotic activity, and a non-prominent stromal lymphocytic infiltrate.", + "9063/3": "A testicular germ cell tumor derived from postpubertal-type germ cells. It is characterized by the presence of three cell types: round cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, small cells with dark nucleus and a small amount of cytoplasm, and mono-or multinucleated giant cells. The neoplastic cells are not cohesive. There is an edematous stroma present; lymphocytic infiltrates are rarely seen. Most patients are older males.", + "9064/2": "", + "9064/3": "A malignant germ cell tumor arising in the central nervous system. It is characterized by the presence of primitive, large malignant germ cells and lymphocytes.", + "9065/3": "A term that refers to teratoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, or mixed forms of these tumors.", + "9070/3": "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of large germ cells with abundant cytoplasm resembling epithelial cells, geographic necrosis, high mitotic activity, and pseudoglandular and pseudopapillary structures formation. It can arise from the testis, ovary, and extragonadal sites (central nervous system and mediastinum).", + "9071/3": "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor composed of primitive germ cells. It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in the pediatric population. It occurs in the infant testis, ovary, sacrococcygeal region, vagina, uterus, prostate, abdomen, liver, retroperitoneum, thorax, and pineal/third ventricle. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Treatment includes: surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. This tumor is very responsive to chemotherapy regimens that include cisplatinum.", + "9072/3": "", + "9073/1": "A mixed germ cell/sex cord-stromal tumor characterized by the presence of large germ cells which resemble seminoma cells and small cells which resemble Sertoli or granulosa cells. It occurs in the testis and the ovary and is identified in children and adults. It is often associated with gonadal dysgenesis and abnormal karyotype.", + "9080/0": "A teratoma which may be cystic; it is composed entirely of well differentiated, adult-type mature tissues, without evidence of fetal-type immature tissues (grade 0 teratoma).", + "9080/1": "A non-seminomatous germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of various tissues which correspond to the different germinal layers (endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm). It occurs in the testis, ovary, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system, mediastinum, lung, and stomach. According to the level of differentiation of the tissues which comprise the tumor, teratomas are classified as benign (grade 0 or 1), immature (grade 2), and malignant (grade 3). Grade 0 teratomas contain only mature elements; grade 1 teratomas have a limited degree of immaturity; grade 2 teratomas have a more extensive degree of immaturity; grade 3 teratomas are composed exclusively of immature tissues. The prognosis depends on patient age, tumor size and grade, and stage.", + "9080/3": "A teratoma characterized by the presence of an extensive component of immature, fetal-type tissues.", + "9081/3": "A germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of an embryonal carcinoma component and a teratoma component.", + "9082/3": "A teratoma composed exclusively of immature tissues.", + "9083/3": "An immature teratoma characterized by the presence of an intermediate amount of undifferentiated tissues.", + "9084/0": "A mature teratoma characterized by the presence of a cyst which is lined by mature tissue resembling the epidermis and the epidermal appendages. It occurs in the ovary, testis, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system and skin.", + "9084/3": "A teratoma which is characterized by morphologic transformation to malignancy and an aggressive clinical course. The malignant component most often is sarcomatous or carcinomatous.", + "9085/3": "A malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of at least two different germ cell tumor components. The different germ cell tumor components include choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, and seminoma. It occurs in the ovary, testis, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system and mediastinum.", + "9086/3": "An extragonadal non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum and is associated with a hematologic malignancy. The hematologic malignancies are clonally related to the malignant germ cell tumor and include acute leukemias, myelodysplastic syndromes, myeloproliferative neoplasms, and mastocytosis.", + "9090/0": "An ovarian mature teratoma characterized by the presence of aberrant thyroid tissue. The aberrant thyroid tissue shows morphologic changes identical to thyroid adenoma or carcinoma. Patients may present with abdominal mass and unusual symptoms due to thyrotoxicosis, or Meigs syndrome (ascites and pleural effusion).", + "9090/3": "An ovarian mature teratoma characterized by the presence of aberrant thyroid tissue with morphologic changes identical to thyroid carcinoma. Patients may present with abdominal mass and unusual symptoms due to thyrotoxicosis, or with Meigs syndrome (ascites and pleural effusion).", + "9091/1": "An ovarian neoplasm characterized by the presence of aberrant thyroid tissue and a carcinoid tumor. A minority of patients develop symptoms of functioning thyroid tissue. The neuroendocrine carcinoid cells infiltrate the aberrant thyroid tissue and progressively replace the follicular lining cells.", + "9100/0": "A gestational trophoblastic disorder characterized by marked enlargement of the chorionic villi, hyperplasia of the villous trophoblastic cells and hydropic changes.", + "9100/1": "A complete hydatidiform mole or very rarely a partial mole that invades the myometrium.", + "9100/3": "An aggressive malignant tumor arising from trophoblastic cells. The vast majority of cases arise in the uterus and represent gestational choriocarcinomas that derive from placental trophoblastic cells. Approximately half of the cases develop from a complete hydatidiform mole. A minority of cases arise in the testis or the ovaries. There is often marked elevation of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Choriocarcinomas disseminate rapidly through the hematogenous route; the lungs are most frequently affected.", + "9101/3": "A malignant mixed germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of a choriocarcinomatous component admixed with another germ cell component (e.g. embryonal carcinoma, teratoma, or seminoma).", + "9102/3": "A malignant germ cell tumor which metastasizes widely and produces high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin.", + "9103/0": "A gestational trophoblastic disorder characterized by the presence of an abnormal fetus and two populations of chorionic villi: one population which is unremarkable and a second one which shows hydropic changes.", + "9104/1": "A rare gestational trophoblastic tumor characterized by the presence of a diffuse cellular infiltrate composed of intermediate trophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts and by the absense of a significant population of syncytiotrophoblasts.", + "9105/3": "A gestational trophoblastic tumor characterized by the presence of a monomorphous cellular population of intermediate trophoblastic cells infiltrating in a nodular pattern.", + "9110/0": "A benign epithelial neoplasm of the female reproductive system arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "9110/1": "An epithelial neoplasm of the female reproductive system arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "9110/3": "An adenocarcinoma of the cervix or the vagina arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "9120/0": "A benign vascular lesion characterized by the formation of capillary-sized or cavernous vascular channels.", + "9120/3": "A malignant tumor arising from the endothelial cells of the blood vessels. Microscopically, it is characterized by frequently open vascular anastomosing and branching channels. The malignant cells that line the vascular channels are spindle or epithelioid and often display hyperchromatic nuclei. Angiosarcomas most frequently occur in the skin and breast. Patients with long-standing lymphedema are at increased risk of developing angiosarcoma.", + "9121/0": "A hemangioma characterized by the presence of cavernous vascular spaces.", + "9122/0": "A hemangioma composed of veins.", + "9123/0": "", + "9124/3": "", + "9125/0": "A hemangioma characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells.", + "9130/0": "A benign vascular proliferation characterized by the presence of prominent endothelial cells and the formation of vascular channels.", + "9130/1": "A vascular proliferation characterized by the presence of prominent endothelial cells and the formation of vascular channels. Hemangioendotheliomas may display borderline or low grade characteristics.", + "9130/3": "A malignant tumor arising from the endothelial cells of the blood vessels. Microscopically, it is characterized by frequently open vascular anastomosing and branching channels. The malignant cells that line the vascular channels are spindle or epithelioid and often display hyperchromatic nuclei. Angiosarcomas most frequently occur in the skin and breast. Patients with long-standing lymphedema are at increased risk of developing angiosarcoma.", + "9131/0": "A common hemangioma characterized by the presence of capillary-sized vascular channels without prominent epithelioid endothelial cells.", + "9132/0": "A hemangioma arising from skeletal muscle.", + "9133/1": "A low-grade malignant blood vessel neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells. The neoplastic cells are arranged in cords and nests, which are embedded in a myxoid to hyalinized stroma.", + "9133/3": "", + "9135/1": "An intermediate, rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of lymphatic-like vascular channels and papillary endothelial proliferation.", + "9136/1": "A hemangioma characterized by the presence of spindle endothelial cells.", + "9137/3": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the large blood vessels. It is characterized by the presence of tumor cells that grow within the lumen of the blood vessels. The intraluminal tumor growth may result in vascular obstruction and spread of tumor emboli to peripheral organs. The prognosis is usually poor.", + "9140/3": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by a vascular proliferation which usually contains blunt endothelial cells. Erythrocyte extravasation and hemosiderin deposition are frequently present. The most frequent site of involvement is the skin; however it may also occur internally. It generally develops in people with compromised immune systems including those with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS).", + "9141/0": "A vascular lesion in the papillary dermis resulting from ectasia of pre-existing vessels. It is associated with secondary proliferative changes in the overlying epidermis (hyperkeratosis). It can present with widespread lesions (angiokeratoma corporis diffusum, often associated with inborn errors of metabolism) or as a localized lesion (angiokeratoma of Fordyce, angiokeratoma circumscriptum, and angiokeratoma of Mibelli).", + "9142/0": "A skin hemangioma characterized by the presence of epidermal hyperplasia.", + "9150/0": "A hemangiopericytoma without malignant morphologic or clinical characteristics.", + "9150/1": "An antiquated term that refers to benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasms characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle-shaped to round cells arranged around thin-walled branching vascular spaces.", + "9150/3": "An uncommon malignant neoplasm arising from pericytes. Distinction between benign and malignant hemangiopericytoma may be difficult or even impossible on morphologic grounds alone.", + "9160/0": "A morphologic variant of fibroma characterized by the presence of numerous dilated vascular channels.", + "9161/0": "", + "9161/1": "A WHO grade I tumor of uncertain histogenesis which is composed of stromal cells and abundant capillaries. Approximately 25% of hemangioblastomas are associated with Von Hippel-Lindau disease, a disease inherited through an autosomal dominant trait and characterized by the development of hemangioblastomas of the central nervous system and retina, clear cell renal carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, and pancreatic and inner ear tumors. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9170/0": "A benign lesion composed of dilated lymphatic channels. Painless swelling is the usual clinical manifestation.", + "9170/3": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the endothelial cells of the lymphatic vessels.", + "9171/0": "", + "9172/0": "A lymphangioma characterized by the presence of thin-walled cavernous lymphatic spaces.", + "9173/0": "A benign lymphatic neoplasm usually arising from the neck and characterized by cystic dilation of the lymphatic vessels.", + "9174/0": "A neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation, often associated with tuberous sclerosis. It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle and epithelioid cells and by the proliferation of lymphatic vessels. Sites of involvement include the lymph nodes, lung, mediastinum, and retroperitoneum.", + "9174/1": "A multifocal neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation affecting almost exclusively females of child-bearing age. It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle and epithelioid cells and by the proliferation of lymphatic vessels. Sites of involvement include the lungs, mediastinum, and the retroperitoneum. It usually presents with chylous pleural effusion or ascites.", + "9175/0": "A hemorrhagic lymphatic lesion characterized by the presence of dilated lymphatic spaces, extravasation of red blood cells, hemosiderin deposition, and fibrosis.", + "9180/0": "A benign, well-circumscribed, bone-forming neoplasm predominantly composed of lamellar bone. It usually arises from the calvarial, facial, or jaw bones. It is usually asymptomatic but it may cause local swelling or obstruction of the paranasal sinuses. Asymptomatic cases have an indolent clinical course.", + "9180/3": "A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm, predominantly affecting adolescents and young adults. It usually involves bones and less frequently extraosseous sites. It often involves the long bones (particularly distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus). Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most frequent clinical symptom. It may spread to other anatomic sites, particularly the lungs.", + "9180/6": "", + "9181/3": "An osteosarcoma characterised by the presence of atypical cartilage of variable cellularity. It may or may not be associated with the presence of myxoid areas or focal bone formation.", + "9182/3": "A conventional osteosarcoma characterized by the presence of spindle shaped cells.", + "9183/3": "An osteosarcoma usually arising from the metaphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of a cystic architecture with blood-filled spaces. The prognosis is similar to that of conventional osteosarcoma.", + "9184/3": "", + "9185/3": "An osteosarcoma usually arising from the metaphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of small cells and osteoid production. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "9186/3": "A high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm producing osteoid. The tumor arises from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and most commonly, the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most common clinical presentation. It usually has an aggressive growth and may metastasize through the hematogenous route. The lung is the most frequent site of metastasis.", + "9187/3": "A low grade osteosarcoma arising from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and is characterized by the presence of fibroblastic stroma and osteoid production. Pain and swelling are the usual sign and symptom. The prognosis is more favorable than conventional osteosarcoma.", + "9191/0": "A small, benign, bone-forming neoplasm that can arise from any bone but more frequently affects the long bones. The central portion of the neoplasm (nidus) contains differentiated osteoblasts which produce osteoid and sometimes bone. The lesion is usually surrounded by hypervascular sclerotic bone and has limited growth potential. Clinical signs and symptoms include pain and localized tenderness, at the site of the lesion. The pain may be intense but in the majority of cases it is completely alleviated by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Prognosis is excellent and recurrences are rare.", + "9192/3": "A low grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the surface of the bone. It usually affects the distal posterior femur, the proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Painless swelling is the usual clinical sign. Most patients are young adults and the prognosis is usually excellent.", + "9193/3": "An intermediate grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm with chondroblastic differentiation. It arises from the surface of the bone and affects the diaphysis or diaphyseal- metaphyseal portion of the long bones. A painless mass or swelling is the most common clinical sign. It is associated with a better prognosis than conventional osteosarcoma.", + "9194/3": "A usually aggressive high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the surface of the bone.", + "9195/3": "A high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm producing osteoid. The tumor arises from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and most commonly, the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most common clinical presentation. It usually has an aggressive growth and may metastasize through the hematogenous route. The lung is the most frequent site of metastasis.", + "9200/0": "A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the spine. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The tumor is composed of woven bone trabeculae and shares similar histologic characteristics with the osteoid osteoma. Surgical curettage is the treatment of choice. The prognosis is excellent.", + "9200/1": "An osteoblastoma characterized by the presence of prominent epithelioid osteoblasts and recurrences.", + "9210/0": "A common, benign cartiliginous neoplasm arising from the metaphysis of bone. The tumor grows on the surface of the bone; it may be pedunculated or sessile. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a cartilage cap, and a fibrous perichondrium that extends to the periosteum of the bone. In some cases, there is deletion of 8q24.1 chromosome locus.", + "9210/1": "An autosomal dominant neoplastic chondrogenic process affecting multiple sites. It is caused by mutations in the EXT1 or EXT2 genes. Grossly and microscopically, the lesions resemble an osteochondroma.", + "9220/0": "A benign well circumscribed neoplasm of hyaline cartilage arising from bone or soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes.", + "9220/1": "A multifocal benign neoplasm arising from bone or soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes and is composed of hyaline cartilage.", + "9220/3": "A malignant cartilaginous matrix-producing mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the bone and soft tissue. It usually affects middle-aged to elderly adults. The pelvic bones, ribs, shoulder girdle, and long bones are the most common sites of involvement. Most chondrosarcomas arise de novo, but some may develop in a preexisting benign cartilaginous lesion.", + "9221/0": "A benign neoplasm of bone surface composed of hyaline cartilage. It arises beneath the periosteum and is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, and calcification.", + "9221/3": "A chondrosarcoma arising from the surface of bone. It is characterized by a lobulated growth pattern, high mitotic activity, myxoid stroma formation, and necrotic changes. It occurs in adults. Clinical presentation includes pain, and sometimes swelling.", + "9230/0": "A benign, chondroid-producing, well-circumscribed, lytic neoplasm usually arising from the epiphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of chondroblasts, osteoclast-like giant cells, chondroid formation, calcification, and mitotic activity. In aggressive cases, there is rearrangement of the 8q21 chromosome band. It occurs most frequently in children and young adults and rarely metastasizes.", + "9230/3": "", + "9231/3": "A chondrosarcoma characterized by the presence of myxoid changes.", + "9240/3": "A morphologic variant of chondrosarcoma arising from bone and soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of malignant small round cells, biphasic growth pattern, and well differentiated hyaline cartilage. Clinical presentation includes pain and swelling. The clinical course is aggressive, with local recurrences and distant metastases.", + "9241/0": "An uncommon benign cartilaginous neoplasm arising from the bone. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped or stellate chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, and sometimes multinucleated giant cells. It has been associated with chromosomal rearrangement of 6q13 and 6q25 bands. The most common clinical symptom is mild, localized pain.", + "9242/3": "A rare, usually low grade chondrosarcoma characterized by the presence of tumor cells with clear cytoplasm. It usually arises in the epiphyseal ends of long bones.", + "9243/3": "An aggressive morphologic variant of chondrosarcoma. It is composed of a low grade chondrosarcoma and a high grade non-cartilagenous sarcomatous component. Due to the aggressive nature of the disease, its prognosis is poor.", + "9250/1": "A benign but locally aggressive tumor that arises from the bone and is composed of mononuclear cells admixed with macrophages and osteoclast-like giant cells. It usually arises from the ends of long bones or the vertebrae. Clinical presentation includes pain, edema, and decreased range of motion in the affected joint.", + "9250/3": "A malignant tumor that arises from the bone. It is characterized by the presence of an area of high grade sarcoma in an otherwise typical giant cell tumor (primary malignancy in giant cell tumor), or the presence of sarcoma in which the pre-existing giant cell tumor may or may not be apparent (secondary malignancy in giant cell tumor).", + "9251/1": "A painless, well circumscribed tumor arising in soft tissue, usually of the upper and lower extremities. Morphologically, it is characterized by a multinodular growth pattern. The cellular infiltrate is composed of mononuclear round or oval cells and multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, in a rich vascular stroma. It rarely metastasizes.", + "9251/3": "An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma characterized by the presence of osteoclast-like giant cells and cellular pleomorphism.", + "9252/0": "A tumor usually arising in the synovium of joints, bursa or tendon sheath. It is characterized by the presence of mononuclear cells, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, hemosiderin-laden macrophages, foam cells, and an inflammatory infiltrate. According to the growth pattern, it is classified as localized or diffuse.", + "9252/3": "An uncommon malignant tumor arising from the tendon sheath. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of a cellular infiltrate reminiscent of a giant cell tumor with prominent malignant characteristics. Recurrent giant cell tumors with a sarcomatous dedifferentiation are included in this category as well.", + "9260/3": "A small round cell tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation. It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor. It affects mostly males under age 20, and it can occur in soft tissue or bone. Pain and the presence of a mass are the most common clinical symptoms.", + "9261/3": "A low grade malignant neoplasm arising from the long bones. The tibia is the most frequently affected bone site. Patients present with swelling which may or may not be associated with pain. Morphologically, it is characterized by a biphasic pattern consisting of an epithelial and an osteofibrous component. The vast majority of cases recur if they are not treated with radical surgery. In a minority of cases the tumor may metastasize to other anatomic sites including lymph nodes, lungs, liver, brain, and skeleton.", + "9262/0": "A well circumscribed lesion of the bone, most frequently arising from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of fibrous tissue and a mineralized component which may be woven bone, lamellar bone, or cementum-like material. Complete removal is recommended, since it continues to enlarge if left untreated.", + "9270/0": "A benign, slow growing neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Representative examples include adenomatoid odontogenic tumor, calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor, and squamous odontogenic tumor.", + "9270/1": "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Benign tumors are slow growing and are not associated with specific clinical symptoms. Pain is absent or slight. Malignant tumors are usually associated with rapid swelling and pain.", + "9270/3": "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Symptoms include swelling, pain, bleeding, mobility of affected teeth, and oral mucosa ulcerations. It may metastasize to lymph nodes and distant anatomic sites early.", + "9271/0": "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually arises from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of an epithelial component, fibromyxoid stroma, and dentin formation. It is treated with enucleation and curettage. Recurrences may occur.", + "9272/0": "A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the jaw. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The cell of origin is the cementoblast.", + "9273/0": "A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the jaw. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The cell of origin is the cementoblast.", + "9274/0": "A well circumscribed lesion of the bone, most frequently arising from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of fibrous tissue and a mineralized component which may be woven bone, lamellar bone, or cementum-like material. Complete removal is recommended, since it continues to enlarge if left untreated.", + "9275/0": "A rare, benign, slow growing, multifocal, and expansile lesion of the jaws. Both familiar and sporadic cases have been reported. It is characterized by a fibroblastic proliferation, cementum, and limited bone formation.", + "9280/0": "A benign, slow growing, and painless hamartomatous tumor occurring in tooth-bearing areas of the jaws. According to the presence or absence of tooth-like structures, it is classified as complex type or compound type. Odontoma of complex type is characterized by the presence of enamel and dentin and the absence of tooth-like structures. It is treated with local excision. If it is incompletely removed, it may recur. Odontoma of compound type is characterized by the presence of tooth-like structures. It is treated by local excision. Recurrences have not been reported.", + "9281/0": "A benign, slow growing, and painless hamartomatous tumor occurring in tooth-bearing areas of the jaws. It usually affects children and adolescents. It is characterized by the presence of tooth-like structures. Treatment consists of local excision. Recurrences have not been reported.", + "9282/0": "A benign, slow growing, and painless hamartomatous tumor occurring in tooth-bearing areas of the jaws. It is one of the most common odontogenic tumors and it usually affects children, adolescents, and young adults. It is characterized by the presence of enamel and dentin and the absence of tooth-like structures. It is treated with local excision. If it is incompletely removed, it may recur.", + "9290/0": "A rare benign neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a fibromyxoid stroma, epithelial component, dentin, and enamel. Recurrences are rare.", + "9290/3": "", + "9300/0": "A benign, slow growing neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. The vast majority of cases are intraosseous and most often grow in the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium which is embedded in a connective tissue stroma. Local excision is curative and recurrences are very rare.", + "9301/0": "A benign, intraosseous or extraosseous cystic neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a cyst lined by an ameloblastoma-like epithelium and ghost cells formation. The ghost cells may undergo calcification. It is treated with enucleation. Few recurrences have been reported for intraosseous neoplasms whereas no recurrences have been reported for extraosseous neoplasms.", + "9302/0": "A carcinoma usually arising from the maxilla and less often the mandible. Symptoms include swelling and paresthesia. It is characterized by the presence of rounded islands of malignant epithelial cells in a fibrous stroma and the benign features of calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor. The clinical course varies from slow growing and locally invasive to rapidly growing and highly aggressive with metastases.", + "9302/3": "A carcinoma usually arising from the maxilla and less often the mandible. Symptoms include swelling and paresthesia. It is characterized by the presence of rounded islands of malignant epithelial cells in a fibrous stroma and the benign features of calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor. The clinical course varies from slow growing and locally invasive to rapidly growing and highly aggressive with metastases.", + "9310/0": "The most common odontogenic tumor, arising from the epithelial component of the embryonic tooth and usually affecting the molar-ramus region of the mandible or maxilla. Although most ameloblastomas are morphologically and clinically benign, they may cause extensive local destruction, recur, or metastasize.", + "9310/3": "A rare, well differentiated, cytologically benign ameloblastoma which paradoxically metastasizes.", + "9311/0": "A rare, locally aggressive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the mandible and maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium and adjacent myxoid tissue, fibrous stroma, and mineralized dental tissues.", + "9312/0": "A rare, locally invasive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually grows intraosseously in the mandible. The maxilla is less frequently involved. It is characterized by the presence of well differentiated squamous cells which form islands. Recurrences may rarely occur and probably are related to incomplete excision of the tumor.", + "9320/0": "An intraosseous odontogenic neoplasm with good prognosis, arising from the mandible and less frequently from the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of stellate cells and abundant myxoid stroma formation. Small tumors may be cured with enucleation. Complete excision may be required for larger tumors.", + "9321/0": "A rare, benign, intraosseous neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues in the mandible and maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium which is embedded in a fibrous stroma. Local enucleation of the tumor is curative.", + "9322/0": "A rare, benign, extraosseous neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually presents as a slow growing exophytic mass in the gingiva. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium which is embedded in a fibrous stroma.", + "9330/0": "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually arises from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of an epithelial component and fibromyxoid stroma. It may recur and rarely shows malignant transformation to ameloblastic fibrosarcoma. It is treated with enucleation and curettage.", + "9330/3": "A locally aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from odontogenic tissue. It occurs in the mandible and less often in the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant connective tissue component and a benign epithelial component. The frequency of distal metastases is low.", + "9340/0": "A slow growing, locally invasive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It most often grows intraosseously in the mandible and less frequently in the maxilla. In a minority of cases it grows extraosseously in the gingiva. It is characterized by the presence of a fibrous stroma, epithelial cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, and amyloid material which is often calcified. Small tumors may be successfully treated with enucleation. Local resection is usually required for larger tumors. Recurrences have been reported in a minority of cases.", + "9341/1": "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It more often affects older females and more frequently occurs in the mandible. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm and a fibrotic stroma formation. It may recur and metastasize. Metastases may occur in the lymph nodes, lungs, and bones. Treatment of choice is resection with clean margins.", + "9341/3": "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It more often affects older females and more frequently occurs in the mandible. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm and a fibrotic stroma formation. It may recur and metastasize. Metastases may occur in the lymph nodes, lungs, and bones. Treatment of choice is resection with clean margins.", + "9342/3": "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Symptoms include swelling, pain, bleeding, mobility of affected teeth, and oral mucosa ulcerations. It may metastasize to lymph nodes and distant anatomic sites early.", + "9350/1": "A benign, partly cystic, epithelial tumor of the sellar region, presumably derived from Rathke pouch epithelium. It affects mainly children and young adults. There are two clinicopathological forms: adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma and papillary craniopharyngioma. The most significant factor associated with recurrence is the extent of surgical resection, with lesions greater than 5 cm in diameter carrying a markedly worse prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9351/1": "A craniopharyngioma consisting of broad strands, cords and bridges of a multistratified squamous epithelium with peripheral palisading of nuclei. Diagnostic features include nodules of compact 'wet' keratin and dystrophic calcification. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9352/1": "A craniopharyngioma composed of sheets of squamous epithelium which separate to form pseudopapillae. This variant typically lacks nuclear palisading, wet keratin, calcification, and cholesterol deposits. Clinically, endocrine deficiencies are more often associated with papillary craniopharyngioma than with the adamantinomatous type. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9360/1": "A neoplasm arising from the pineocyte, a cell with photosensory and neuroendocrine functions. It may be composed of mature elements or primitive, immature cells. The cellular composition determines the biological behavior and clinical outcome. Three types are recognized: pineoblastoma, pineocytoma, and pineal parenchymal tumor of intermediate differentiation (Adapted from WHO.)", + "9361/1": "A WHO grade I slow growing tumor, more frequently affecting young adults. It is composed of small, uniform, mature cells resembling pineocytes with occasional large pineocytomatous rosettes. It may show a wide range of divergent phenotypes, including neuronal, glial, melanocytic, photoreceptor and mesenchymal differentiation. Pineocytoma generally has a relatively favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9362/3": "A poorly differentiated malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the pineal region. It usually occurs in children and it is characterized by the presence of small immature neuroepithelial cells. It may follow an aggressive clinical course.", + "9363/0": "A rare neoplasm usually occurring in infants. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of melanin-containing epithelial cells and smaller neuroblast-like cells. It may involve the skull and facial bones, or the epididymis. It usually has a benign clinical course.", + "9364/3": "A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation arising from the soft tissues or bone.", + "9365/3": "A primitive neuroectodermal tumor (small round blue cell tumor) of the thorax which can involve the periosteum, thoracic wall and/or pleura though it spares the lung parenchyma.", + "9370/3": "A malignant bone tumor arising from the remnants of the fetal notochord. Although it can occur at all ages, it is more frequently seen in middle-aged adults. The most frequent sites of involvement are the sacrococcygeal area, spheno-occipital area, and cervico-thoraco-lumbar spine. Microscopically, chordomas are composed of cells that form cords and lobules, separated by mucoid intercellular tissue. Some of the cells are large (physaliphorous) and have vacuolated cytoplasm and prominent vesicular nuclei. Other tumor cells are small with small nuclei without visible nucleoli. Chordomas tend to recur and may metastasize. The most common sites of metastasis are the skin and bone.", + "9371/3": "A slow-growing malignant bone tumor arising from the remnants of the notochord and occurring in the base of the skull. The tumor is characterized by a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, and the presence of physaliphorous cells and cartilage.", + "9372/3": "A high-grade malignant bone tumor arising from the remnants of the notochord. It is characterized by a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, the presence of physaliphorous cells, and a sarcomatous component.", + "9373/0": "A rare, usually benign myoepithelial tumor characterized by the presence of epithelioid, often vacuolated neoplastic cells. Most patients present with painless swelling in the subcutaneous or subfascial soft tissues of the extremities.", + "9380/3": "A grade III or grade IV glioma arising from the central nervous system. This category includes glioblastoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic ependymoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, and anaplastic oligoastrocytoma.", + "9381/3": "A diffuse glial tumor which infiltrates the brain extensively, involving more than two lobes. It is frequently bilateral and often extends to the infratentorial structures, even to the spinal cord. It is probably of astrocytic origin, although GFAP expression may be scant or absent. (Adapted from WHO.)", + "9382/3": "A tumor composed of two or more glial cell types (astrocytes, ependymal cells, and oligodendrocytes).", + "9383/1": "A benign, slow growing neoplasm which is typically attached to a ventricular wall. It is composed of glial tumor cell clusters embedded in an abundant fibrillary matrix with frequent microcystic change. Some lesions have the histological features of both subependymoma and ependymoma. It is often detected incidentally and has a very favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO.)", + "9384/1": "A benign, slowly growing tumor (WHO grade I) typically arising in the wall of the lateral ventricles and composed of large ganglioid astrocytes. It is the most common CNS neoplasm in patients with tuberous sclerosis complex and typically occurs during the first two decades of life. (WHO)", + "9385/3": "A childhood diffuse midline glioma characterized by the presence of histone H3 K27M mutation.", + "9390/0": "A benign, slow growing tumor which may cause symptoms by blocking cerebrospinal fluid pathways. It is characterized by the presence of delicate fibrovascular connective tissue fronds covered by a single layer of epithelial cells. Mitotic activity is extremely low. Surgical resection is usually curative. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9390/1": "A choroid plexus papilloma characterized by increased mitotic activity.", + "9390/3": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the choroid plexus. It shows anaplastic features and usually invades neighboring brain structures. Cerebrospinal fluid metastases are frequent. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9391/3": "A WHO grade II, slow growing tumor of children and young adults, usually located intraventricularly. It is the most common ependymal neoplasm. It often causes clinical symptoms by blocking cerebrospinal fluid pathways. Key histological features include perivascular pseudorosettes and ependymal rosettes. (WHO)", + "9392/3": "A WHO grade III malignant glioma of ependymal origin with accelerated growth and an unfavorable clinical outcome, particularly in children. It is characterized by high mitotic activity, often accompanied by microvascular proliferation and pseudo-palisading necrosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9393/3": "A rare variant of ependymoma characterized by well formed papillae. Tumor cell processes abutting capillaries are usually GFAP-positive. Differential diagnoses include choroid plexus papilloma, papillary meningioma and metastatic papillary carcinoma. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9394/1": "A slow growing, WHO grade I glioma which generally occurs in young adults. It arises almost exclusively in the conus medullaris, cauda equina, and filum terminale of the spinal cord. It generally has a favorable prognosis and is characterized histologically by tumor cells arranged in a papillary manner around vascularized mucoid stromal cores. (Adapted from WHO).", + "9395/3": "A rare tumor that arises from the pineal region and affects adults. It is characterized by the presence of neuroepithelial cells and a papillary architecture. Electron microscopic studies suggest ependymal differentiation. The clinical course is variable.", + "9396/3": "", + "9400/3": "A tumor of the brain or spinal cord showing astrocytic differentiation. It includes the following clinicopathological entities: pilocytic astrocytoma, diffuse astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, and subependymal giant cell astrocytoma.", + "9401/3": "A diffusely infiltrating, WHO grade III astrocytoma with focal or dispersed anaplasia, and a marked proliferative potential. It may arise from a low-grade astrocytoma, but it can also be diagnosed at first biopsy, without indication of a less malignant precursor lesion. It has an intrinsic tendency for malignant progression to glioblastoma. (WHO)", + "9410/3": "A rare variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is predominantly composed of neoplastic astrocytes showing a small cell body with few, flaccid processes with a low content of glial filaments and scant GFAP expression. This lesion is not well defined and is considered by some authors as an occasional histopathological feature rather than a reproducibly identifiable variant. When occurring in children, this neoplasm may be difficult to separate from pilocytic juvenile astrocytoma. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9411/3": "A rare variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is characterized by the presence of a conspicuous, though variable, fraction of gemistocytic neoplastic astrocytes. Gemistocytes are round to oval astrocytes with abundant, glassy, non-fibrillary cytoplasm which appears to displace the dark, angulated nucleus to the periphery of the cell. To make the diagnosis of gemistocytic astrocytoma, gemistocytes should amount to more than approximately 20% of all tumor cells. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9412/1": "A WHO grade I large cystic tumor that occurs almost exclusively in infants, with a prominent desmoplastic stroma having a neuroepithelial population consisting mainly of neoplastic astrocytes. It involves the superficial cerebral cortex and leptomeninges, and often attaches to the dura. Although clinically it presents as large tumor, it generally has a good prognosis following surgical resection. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9413/0": "A benign glial-neuronal neoplasm. It is usually supratentorial, located in the cortex. It occurs in children and young adults with a long-standing history of partial seizures. A histologic hallmark of this tumor is the 'specific glioneuronal element', characterized by columns, made up of bundles of axons, oriented perpendicularly to the cortical surface. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9420/3": "The most frequent histological variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is predominantly composed of fibrillary neoplastic astrocytes. Nuclear atypia is a diagnostic criterion but mitotic activity, necrosis and microvascular proliferation are absent. The occasional or regional occurrence of gemistocytic neoplastic cells is compatible with the diagnosis of fibrillary astrocytoma. (WHO)", + "9421/1": "A WHO grade I, relatively circumscribed, slowly growing, often cystic astrocytoma occurring in children and young adults. Histologically it is characterized by a biphasic pattern with compacted bipolar cells associated with Rosenthal fibers and multipolar cells associated with microcysts and eosinophilic bodies/hyaline droplets. (WHO)", + "9423/3": "A lesion characterized by the presence of neoplastic neuroepithelial cells with palisading nuclei. This lesion implies a morphologic growth pattern and it is not considered a clinicopathological entity.", + "9424/3": "A WHO grade ll astrocytic tumor with a relatively favorable prognosis. It is characterized by pleomorphic and lipidized cells expressing GFAP often surrounded by a reticulin network and eosinophilic granular bodies. It presents in the superficial cerebral hemispheres and involves the meninges. It typically affects children and young adults.", + "9425/3": "An astrocytic tumor of uncertain relation to pilocytic astrocytoma. It occurs predominantly in infants and young children. It is characterized by a monomorphic architectural pattern, usually associated with the absence of Rosenthal fibers and eosinophilic granular bodies. The clinical course is usually aggressive.", + "9430/3": "A rare glial neoplasm more commonly found in young adults. It is characterized by tumor cells with characteristics suggestive of an astrocytic origin (positive for GFAP), arranged perivascularly. The cells have broad, non-tapering processes radiating towards a central blood vessel. The biologic behavior of astroblastomas is variable, so no WHO grade has been established, yet. (Adapted from WHO.)", + "9431/1": "A WHO grade I, slow-growing brain neoplasm of children and young adults, associated with epilepsy. Morphologically it is characterized by an angiocentric pattern, monomorphic cellular infiltrate, and ependymal differentiation.", + "9432/1": "An extremely rare, WHO grade I, circumscribed and slow-growing tumor that arises from the neurohypophysis or infundibulum and described in adults. It is characterized by the presence of elongated, spindle-shaped neoplastic glial cells that form storiform patterns or interlacing fascicular arrangements. Signs and symptoms include visual disturbances, headache, amenorrhea, and decreased libido.", + "9440/3": "The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade IV). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and it is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. It may develop from diffuse astrocytoma WHO grade II or anaplastic astrocytoma (secondary glioblastoma, IDH-mutant), but more frequently, it manifests after a short clinical history de novo, without evidence of a less malignant precursor lesion (primary glioblastoma, IDH- wildtype). (Adapted from WHO)", + "9440/6": "", + "9441/3": "A rare histological variant of glioblastoma (WHO grade IV) with a predominance of bizarre, multinucleated giant cells, an occasionally abundant stromal reticulin network, and a high frequency of TP53 mutations. (WHO)", + "9442/1": "An astrocytic tumor affecting young people. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of collagenous tissue surrounding neoplastic astrocytes. In some cases the collagen is produced by the tumor cells (desmoplastic astrocytoma), whereas in others it is produced by mesenchymal cells (mixed glioma/fibroma).", + "9442/3": "A rare histological variant of glioblastoma (WHO grade IV) characterized by a biphasic tissue pattern with alternating areas displaying glial and mesenchymal differentiation (WHO).", + "9444/1": "A rare, slow-growing neuroepithelial neoplasm of uncertain origin affecting adults. It is located in the third ventricle. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid cells which express GFAP, and mucinous stroma which contains lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates.", + "9445/3": "A glioblastoma associated with IDH1 or IDH2 gene mutations.", + "9450/3": "A well-differentiated (WHO grade II), diffusely infiltrating neuroglial tumor, typically located in the cerebral hemispheres. It is composed predominantly of cells which morphologically resemble oligodendroglia. The neoplastic cells have rounded homogeneous nuclei and, on paraffin sections, a swollen, clear cytoplasm ('honeycomb' appearance). (Adapted from WHO)", + "9451/3": "A WHO grade III oligodendroglioma with focal or diffuse malignant morphologic features (prominent nuclear pleomorphism, mitoses, and increased cellularity).", + "9460/3": "An obsolete term referring to neoplasms arising from oligodendrocytes.", + "9470/3": "A malignant, invasive embryonal neoplasm arising from the cerebellum or posterior fossa. It occurs predominantly in children and has the tendency to metastasize via the cerebrospinal fluid pathways. Signs and symptoms include truncal ataxia, disturbed gait, lethargy, headache, and vomiting. There are four histologic variants: classic medulloblastoma, large cell/anaplastic medulloblastoma, desmoplastic/nodular medulloblastoma, and medulloblastoma with extensive nodularity.", + "9471/3": "A medulloblastoma characterized by the presence of nodular, collagenous areas which do not contain reticulin, surrounded by hypercellular areas which contain an intercellular reticulin fiber network.", + "9472/3": "A rare malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the cerebellum. It is characterized by the morphologic features of a medulloblastoma and the presence of a striated muscle component. Its clinical behavior is similar to medulloblastoma.", + "9473/3": "A malignant neoplasm that originates in the neuroectoderm. The neuroectoderm constitutes the portion of the ectoderm of the early embryo that gives rise to the central and peripheral nervous systems and includes some glial cell precursors.", + "9474/3": "A medulloblastoma composed of large cells with prominent nucleoli and a larger amount of cytoplasm in contrast with the cells of the classic medulloblastoma.", + "9475/3": "A molecular subtype of medulloblastoma associated with activation of the WNT pathway. TP53 mutations may be present or absent. WNT pathway activation in medulloblastomas is associated with good outcome.", + "9476/3": "Medulloblastoma not associated with activation of the WNT pathway or sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. TP53 mutations are absent. This molecular subtype includes medulloblastomas numerically designated as \"group 3\" and \"group 4\".", + "9477/3": "Medulloblastoma not associated with activation of the WNT pathway or sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. TP53 mutations are absent. This molecular subtype includes medulloblastomas numerically designated as \"group 3\" and \"group 4\".", + "9478/3": "A central nervous system embryonal neoplasm characterized by the presence of histological features consistent with embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes and absence of C19MC amplification.", + "9480/3": "An obsolete term referring to desmoplastic medulloblastoma.", + "9490/0": "A benign neuroblastic tumor of the sympathetic nervous system that occurs in childhood. Ganglioneuroma typically arises from the sympathetic trunk in the mediastinum. Histologic features include spindle cell proliferation (resembling a neurofibroma) and the presence of large ganglion cells. Common presenting features include a palpable abdominal mass, hepatomegaly, and a thoracic mass detected on routine chest X-ray.", + "9490/3": "A neuroblastic tumor characterized by the presence of neuroblastic cells, ganglion cells, and a stroma with Schwannian differentiation constituting more than fifty-percent of the tumor volume. There are two histologic subtypes identified: ganglioneuroblastoma, intermixed and ganglioneuroblastoma, nodular.", + "9491/0": "Extensive and diffuse infiltration of tissues by ganglioneuroma.", + "9492/0": "A well differentiated, slow growing neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells.", + "9493/0": "A benign, WHO grade I cerebellar mass, which occurs in young adults and is composed of dysplastic ganglion cells. It is the major CNS manifestation of Cowden disease, an autosomal dominant condition that causes a variety of hamartomas and neoplasms.", + "9500/3": "A neuroblastic tumor characterized by the presence of neuroblastic cells, the absence of ganglion cells, and the absence of a prominent Schwannian stroma formation.", + "9501/0": "", + "9501/3": "A rare, usually aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm of the central nervous system occurring in children. It is characterized by the presence of neuroepithelial cells which form papillary, trabecular, or tubular structures and absence of C19MC amplification. Symptoms include headache, nausea, and vomiting.", + "9502/0": "", + "9502/3": "", + "9503/3": "A malignant neoplasm that originates in the neuroectoderm. The neuroectoderm constitutes the portion of the ectoderm of the early embryo that gives rise to the central and peripheral nervous systems and includes some glial cell precursors.", + "9504/3": "A neuroectodermal tumor composed of neoplastic neural elements.", + "9505/1": "A well differentiated, slow growing neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells and neoplastic glial cells. Some gangliogliomas show anaplastic features in their glial component and are considered to be WHO grade III. Rare cases of newly diagnosed gangliogliomas with grade IV (glioblastoma) changes in the glial component have also been reported. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9505/3": "A WHO grade III neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells and anaplastic glial cells. The anaplastic changes in the glial component and high MIB-1 and TP53 labeling indices may indicate aggressive behavior. However, the correlation of histological anaplasia with clinical outcome is inconsistent. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9506/1": "An intraventricular neuronal neoplasm composed of uniform round cells with neuronal differentiation. It is typically located in the lateral ventricles in the region of the foramen of Monro. It generally affects young adults and has a favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9507/0": "A neurofibroma characterized by the presence of structures which resemble Vater-Pacini corpuscles.", + "9508/3": "An aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the central nervous system. It is composed of cells with a large eccentric nucleus, prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm. Mutations of the INI1 gene or very rarely SMARCA4 (BRG1) gene are present. The vast majority of cases occur in childhood. Symptoms include lethargy, vomiting, cranial nerve palsy, headache, and hemiplegia.", + "9509/1": "A WHO grade I, indolent and relatively circumscribed brain tumor. Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of astrocytes that line vascular and hyalinized pseudopapillae. In between the pseudopapillae aggregates of neurocytes, large neurons, and ganglioid cells are present.", + "9510/0": "A rare, unilateral or bilateral benign retinal neoplasm. Since there is a risk of malignant transformation to retinoblastoma, patients should be closely observed.", + "9510/3": "A malignant tumor that originates in the nuclear layer of the retina. As the most common primary tumor of the eye in children, retinoblastoma is still relatively uncommon, accounting for only 1% of all malignant tumors in pediatric patients. Approximately 95% of cases are diagnosed before age 5. These tumors may be multifocal, bilateral, congenital, inherited, or acquired. Seventy-five percent of retinoblastomas are unilateral; 60% occur sporadically. A predisposition to retinoblastoma has been associated with 13q14 cytogenetic abnormalities. Patients with the inherited form also appear to be at increased risk for secondary nonocular malignancies such as osteosarcoma, malignant fibrous histiocytoma, and fibrosarcoma.", + "9511/3": "A retinoblastoma with well differentiated features. It often produces Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes or Homer-Wright rosettes. In some cases the tumor cells form fleurettes.", + "9512/3": "A retinoblastoma composed of small, undifferentiated cells. It is often associated with necrotic changes.", + "9513/3": "A retinoblastoma characterized by the absence of a distinct retinal mass and the presence of malignant cells diffusely infiltrating the retina. It is often confused with uveitis and endophthalmitis, resulting in delayed diagnosis of the malignancy.", + "9514/1": "This term applies to a retinoblastoma which has regressed spontaneously. Histologic examination of the tumor reveals benign-appearing tumor cells, with no evidence of nuclear atypia, pleomorphism, or rosettes formation. There is a well-vascularized stroma which contains calcifications.", + "9520/3": "A rare, benign (olfactory neurocytoma) or malignant (olfactory neuroblastoma) neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity.", + "9521/3": "A rare benign neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity. Microscopically, it is characterized by the absence of malignant characteristics and the absence of rosettes formation.", + "9522/3": "A rare neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. Microscopically, it is characterized by neuroblastic differentiation with occasional formation of rosettes. If the tumor is not resected at an early stage, the prognosis is usually poor.", + "9523/3": "A rare neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. Microscopically, it is characterized by neuroblastic differentiation with occasional formation of rosettes. If the tumor is not resected at an early stage, the prognosis is usually poor.", + "9530/0": "A generally slow growing tumor attached to the dura mater. It is composed of neoplastic meningothelial (arachnoidal) cells. It typically occurs in adults, often women and it has a wide range of histopathological appearances. Of the various subtypes, meningothelial, fibrous and transitional meningiomas are the most common. Most meningiomas are WHO grade I tumors, and some are WHO grade II or III tumors. Most subtypes share a common clinical behavior, although some subtypes are more likely to recur and follow a more aggressive clinical course. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9530/1": "The presence of multiple meningiomas in the leptomeninges.", + "9530/3": "A WHO grade III meningioma characterized by the presence of malignant morphologic features, including malignant cytology and a very high mitotic index (20 or more mitoses per ten high power fields).", + "9531/0": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of tumor cells that form lobules. The tumor cells are generally uniform. Whorls and psammoma bodies are usually not present.", + "9532/0": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of spindle cells that form bundles in a collagen matrix.", + "9533/0": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of psammoma bodies that predominate over the meningeal cells.", + "9534/0": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of small and medium sized vessels that predominate over the meningioma cells.", + "9535/0": "An obsolete term referring to hemangiopericytoma of the central nervous system.", + "9537/0": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the coexistence of meningothelial cells and fibrous architectural patterns.", + "9538/1": "A WHO grade II morphologic variant of meningioma characterized by the presence of clear glycogen-rich polygonal cells.", + "9538/3": "A WHO grade III meningioma characterized by the predominance of a perivascular pseudopapillary pattern.", + "9539/1": "A WHO grade II meningioma characterized by the presence of brain invasion and an increased mitotic activity, or at least three of the following morphologic features: small cells, high cellularity, prominent nucleoli, lack of architectural pattern, and necrosis.", + "9539/3": "A rare condition characterized by diffuse spread of sarcoma cells throughout the meninges. The neoplastic cells are derived from meningeal connective tissue. Clinically, this disorder may present as a fulminant pachymeningitis and/or encephalitis.", + "9540/0": "An intraneural or extraneural neoplasm arising from nerve tissues and neural sheaths. It is composed of perineurial-like fibroblasts and Schwann cells. It usually presents as a localized cutaneous lesion and less often as a circumscribed peripheral nerve mass. Patients with neurofibromatosis type 1 present with multiple masses. Neurofibromas which arise from major nerves and plexiform neurofibromas are precursor lesions to malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors.", + "9540/1": "An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome. Two distinct clinicopathological entities are recognized: neurofibromatosis type 1 and neurofibromatosis type 2. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is associated with the presence of cafe-au-lait cutaneous lesions, multiple neurofibromas, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors, optic nerve gliomas, and bone lesions. Neurofibromatosis type 2 is associated with the presence of schwannomas, meningiomas, and gliomas.", + "9540/3": "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life. It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region. It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1).", + "9541/0": "A rare neurofibroma characterized by the presence of melanin-laden cells and the absence of atypia.", + "9542/3": "A rare variant of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor composed predominantly or exclusively of epithelioid cells.", + "9550/0": "An elongated and multinodular neurofibroma, formed when the tumor involves either multiple trunks of a plexus or multiple fascicles of a large nerve, such as the sciatic. Some plexiform neurofibromas resemble a bag of worms, others produce a massive ropy enlargement of the nerve. (Adapted from WHO)", + "9560/0": "A benign, usually encapsulated slow growing tumor composed of Schwann cells. It affects peripheral and cranial nerves. It recurs infrequently and only rare cases associated with malignant transformation have been reported.", + "9560/1": "A rare genetic disorder characterized by the presence of multiple schwannomas.", + "9560/3": "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life. It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region. It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1).", + "9561/3": "A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor which shows rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation. More than half of the patients have neurofibromatosis type 1. The prognosis is usually poor.", + "9562/0": "A benign neoplasm arising from nerve sheaths. It is characterized by the presence of a myxoid stroma.", + "9570/0": "A tumor that grows from a nerve or is composed of nerve cells and nerve fibers.", + "9571/0": "A rare benign tumor composed entirely of neoplastic perineurial cells. It may occur in the soft tissues, intraneurally or in mucosal sites.", + "9571/3": "A very rare malignant tumor with morphologic features similar to those of benign perineurioma of soft tissue along with hypercellularity, nuclear atypia, hyperchromasia, and a high mitotic rate.", + "9580/0": "An unusual benign or malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic large polygonal cells with granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm which contains abundant lysosomes. It was originally thought to be a tumor originating from muscle cells and was named granular cell myoblastoma. Subsequent studies have suggested a derivation from Schwann cells. It affects females more often than males and it usually presents as a solitary mass. A minority of patients have multiple tumors. It can arise from many anatomic sites including the posterior pituitary gland, skin, oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, heart, mediastinum, and breast.", + "9580/3": "An uncommon granular cell tumor which may metastasize to other anatomic sites. Morphologic characteristics include the presence of spindling neoplastic cells, necrosis, extensive pleomorphism, prominent nucleoli, and increased mitiotic activity.", + "9581/3": "A rare malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of large epithelioid cells with abundant cytoplasm forming nests and pseudoalveolar structures. The groups of the epithelioid cells are separated by thin-walled sinusoidal spaces. It occurs most often in adolescents and young adults. In adults the most common sites of involvement are the extremities, and in infants and children, the head and neck. It usually presents as a slowly growing mass and it frequently metastasizes to other anatomic sites. The most common sites of metastasis are the lungs, bone, and brain.", + "9582/0": "", + "9590/3": "A malignant (clonal) proliferation of B- lymphocytes or T- lymphocytes which involves the lymph nodes, bone marrow and/or extranodal sites. This category includes Non-Hodgkin lymphomas and Hodgkin lymphomas.", + "9591/3": "Distinct from Hodgkin lymphoma both morphologically and biologically, non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) is characterized by the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells, can occur at any age, and usually presents as a localized or generalized lymphadenopathy associated with fever and weight loss. The clinical course varies according to the morphologic type. NHL is clinically classified as indolent, aggressive, or having a variable clinical course. NHL can be of B-or T-/NK-cell lineage.", + "9596/3": "Coexistence of Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma in the same anatomic site.", + "9597/3": "A primary lymphoma of the skin composed of various numbers of small and large irregular neoplastic follicle center cells. Its morphologic pattern can be nodular, diffuse, or nodular and diffuse. It presents with solitary or grouped plaques and tumors, and it usually involves the scalp, forehead, or trunk. It rarely involves the legs. This type of cutaneous lymphoma tends to remain localized to the skin.", + "9650/3": "A lymphoma, previously known as Hodgkin's disease, characterized by the presence of large tumor cells in an abundant admixture of nonneoplastic cells. There are two distinct subtypes: nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma and classical Hodgkin lymphoma. Hodgkin lymphoma involves primarily lymph nodes.", + "9651/3": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma with scattered Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells and a nodular or less often diffuse cellular background consisting of small lymphocytes and with an absence of neutrophils and eosinophils. (WHO, 2008)", + "9652/3": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma with scattered Reed-Sternberg and Hodgkin cells in a diffuse or vaguely nodular mixed inflammatory background without nodular sclerosing fibrosis. (WHO, 2008)", + "9653/3": "A diffuse subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma which is rich in Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells and/or depleted in non-neoplastic lymphocytes. (WHO, 2008)", + "9654/3": "", + "9655/3": "", + "9659/3": "A monoclonal B-cell neoplasm characterized by a nodular, or a nodular and diffuse proliferation of scattered large neoplastic cells known as popcorn or lymphocyte predominant cells (LP cells)- formerly called L&H cells for lymphocytic and/or histiocytic Reed-Sternberg cell variants. The LP cells lack CD15 and CD30 in nearly all instances. Patients are predominantly male, frequently in the 30-50 year age group. Most patients present with limited stage disease (localized peripheral lymphadenopathy, stage I or II). (WHO 2008)", + "9661/3": "An obsolete term that refers to cases of Hodgkin lymphoma excluding cases that were classified as Hodgkin's paragranuloma and Hodgkin's sarcoma.", + "9662/3": "A lymphoma, previously known as Hodgkin's disease, characterized by the presence of large tumor cells in an abundant admixture of nonneoplastic cells. There are two distinct subtypes: nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma and classical Hodgkin lymphoma. Hodgkin lymphoma involves primarily lymph nodes.", + "9663/3": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by collagen bands that surround at least one nodule, and Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells with lacunar type morphology. (WHO, 2008)", + "9664/3": "A nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by the presence of lacunar cells, nodular growth, and the absence of fibrosis.", + "9665/3": "Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma in which at least 75% of the tumor nodules contain scattered Reed-Sternberg cells. The background cellular infiltrate is lymphocytic, mixed, or fibrohistiocytic.", + "9667/3": "Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma in which at least 25% of the tumor nodules contain increased numbers of Reed-Sternberg cells.", + "9670/3": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of monomorphic small, round B-lymphocytes in the lymph nodes. When the lymphoid process predominantly involves the bone marrow and the peripheral blood it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "9671/3": "A clonal neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes, lymphoplasmacytoid cells, and plasma cells involving the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and the spleen. The majority of patients have a serum IgM paraprotein.", + "9673/3": "An aggressive, usually diffuse non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small to medium sized B-lymphocytes (centrocytes). Most patients present with advanced stage disease with lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and bone marrow involvement. The gastrointestinal tract is the most commonly affected extranodal site by this type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The vast majority of cases express the t(11;14)(q13;q32) resulting in the rearrangement of the BCL-1 gene and the overexpression of cyclin D1 mRNA.", + "9675/3": "Diffuse Centroblastic-Centrocytic Lymphoma", + "9678/3": "A large B-cell lymphoma usually presenting as a serous effusion without detectable tumor masses. It is universally associated with human herpes virus 8 (HHV8), also called Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus. It mostly occurs in the setting of immunodeficiency. The most common sites of involvement are the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities. Rare HHV8-positive lymphomas indistinguishable from primary effusion lymphomas (PEL) present as solid tumor masses, and have been termed extracavitary PEL. The prognosis is extremely unfavorable. (WHO 2017)", + "9679/3": "A large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising in the mediastinum. Morphologically it is characterized by a massive diffuse lymphocytic proliferation associated with compartmentalizing fibrosis. Response to intensive chemotherapy, with or without radiotherapy, is usually good. (WHO, 2001)", + "9680/3": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by a diffuse proliferation of predominantly large neoplastic B lymphocytes. It is the most frequently seen type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, representing 30%-40% of the cases. Morphologic variants include centroblastic lymphoma, immunoblastic lymphoma, and anaplastic lymphoma. Subtypes/entities include T-cell/histiocyte rich large B-cell lymphoma, primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system, plasmablastic lymphoma, primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type, and ALK-positive large B-cell lymphoma.", + "9684/3": "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of immunoblasts with uniformly round-to-oval nuclei, a prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm.", + "9687/3": "A highly aggressive lymphoma composed of monomorphic medium-sized B-cells with basophilic cytoplasm and numerous mitotic figures. It is often associated with the presence of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and is commonly seen in AIDS patients. Three morphologic variants are recognized: classical Burkitt lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma with plasmacytoid differentiation, and atypical Burkitt/Burkitt-like lymphoma. All cases express the MYC translocation [t(8;14)]. (WHO, 2001)", + "9688/3": "A large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of a limited number of scattered neoplastic large B-lymphocytes which are admixed with numerous non-neoplastic T-lymphocytes and frequently histiocytes.", + "9689/3": "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small lymphocytes which surround and replace the splenic white pulp germinal centers. It involves the spleen and splenic hilar lymph nodes, bone marrow, and often the peripheral blood. When lymphoma cells are present in the peripheral blood, they are usually, but not always, characterized by the presence of short polar villi. (WHO)", + "9690/3": "A neoplasm of follicle centre B cells which has at least a partial follicular pattern. Follicular lymphomas comprise about 35% of adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas in the U.S. and 22% worldwide. Most patients have widespread disease at diagnosis. Morphologically, follicular lymphomas are classified as Grade 1, Grade 2, and Grade 3, depending on the percentage of the large lymphocytes present. The vast majority of cases (70-95%) express the BCL-2 rearrangement [t(14;18)]. Histological grade correlates with prognosis. Grades 1 and 2 follicular lymphomas are indolent and grade 3 is more aggressive (adapted from WHO, 2001).", + "9691/3": "A follicular lymphoma which contains 6-15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "9695/3": "A follicular lymphoma which contains up to 5 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "9698/3": "A follicular lymphoma which contains more than 15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "9699/3": "A usually indolent mature B-cell lymphoma, arising from the marginal zone of lymphoid tissues. It is characterized by the presence of small to medium sized atypical lymphocytes. It comprises three entities, according to the anatomic sites involved: extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, which affects extranodal sites (most often stomach, lung, skin, and ocular adnexa); nodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, which affects lymph nodes without evidence of extranodal disease; and splenic marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, which affects the spleen and splenic hilar lymph nodes, bone marrow, and often the peripheral blood.", + "9700/3": "A peripheral (mature) T-cell lymphoma presenting in the skin with patches/plaques. It is characterized by epidermal and dermal infiltration of small to medium-sized T-cells with cerebriform nuclei. Patients with limited disease generally have an excellent prognosis. In the more advanced stages, the prognosis is poor. (WHO, 2001)", + "9701/3": "A generalized peripheral (mature) T-cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, and neoplastic, cerebriform T-lymphocytes in the blood. Sezary syndrome is an aggressive disease. (WHO, 2001)", + "9702/3": "A heterogenous category of nodal and extranodal mature T-cell lymphomas that do not correspond to any of the specifically defined entities of mature T-cell lymphoma in the 2017 WHO classification. Excluded from this category are tumors with a T follicular helper (TFH) cell phenotype. Variants include lymphoepithelioid lymphoma (Lennert lymphoma) and primary EBV-positive nodal T-cell or NK-cell lymphoma. The follicular variant included in the peripheral T-cell lymphomas, not otherwise specified, in the 2008 edition of the WHO classification has been moved to the category of angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma and other nodal lymphomas of T follicular helper cell origin in the 2017 WHO update. The same is true for a proportion of cases previously designated as the T-zone variant, because they usually have a TFH-cell phenotype. (WHO 2017)", + "9705/3": "A peripheral T-cell lymphoma of mature T follicular helper (TFH) cells characterized by systemic disease and a polymorphous infiltrate involving lymph nodes, with a prominent proliferation of high endothelial venules and follicular dendritic cells. EBV-positive cells are nearly always present. It is a clinically aggressive lymphoma and seen mainly in older adults. (WHO 2017)", + "9708/3": "A cytotoxic primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Recent studies suggest there are at least two groups of subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphomas, each with distinct histologic features, immunophenotypic profile, and prognosis. One group has an alpha/beta, CD8 positive phenotype, involves only subcutaneous tissues, and usually has an indolent clinical course. The second group has a gamma/delta phenotype, is CD8 negative, often co-expresses CD56, is not confined to the subcutaneous tissues, and usually has a poor prognosis. In the recent WHO-EORTC classification, the term subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma is reserved for cases with an alpha/beta, CD8 positive phenotype. Cases with a gamma/delta phenotype are included in the group of cutaneous gamma/delta T-cell lymphomas.", + "9709/3": "A T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising from the skin. Representative examples include mycosis fungoides and primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma.", + "9712/3": "A rare extranodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, characterized by the presence of lymphoma cells exclusively in the lumina of small vessels, particularly capillaries. This is an extremely aggressive lymphoma which responds poorly to chemotherapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "9714/3": "A T-cell peripheral lymphoma composed of usually large, pleomorphic, CD30 positive T-lymphocytes with abundant cytoplasm characterized by the presence of a translocation involving the ALK gene and expression of ALK fusion protein. Most patients present with peripheral and/or abdominal lymphadenopathy, and often have advanced disease and extranodal involvement.", + "9715/3": "", + "9716/3": "An extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that originates from cytotoxic T-cells, usually of gamma/delta T-cell type. It is characterized by the presence of medium-size neoplastic lymphocytes infiltrating the hepatic sinusoids. A similar infiltrating pattern is also present in the spleen and bone marrow that are usually involved at the time of the diagnosis.", + "9717/3": "A mature T-cell and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma of intraepithelial T-lymphocytes. It usually arises from the small intestine, most commonly the jejunum or ileum. Other less frequent primary anatomic sites include the duodenum, stomach, colon, or outside the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of pleomorphic medium-sized to large T-lymphocytes with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and moderate to abundant pale cytoplasm. It is associated with celiac disease.", + "9718/3": "This entity represents a spectrum of lymphoproliferative disorders characterized by CD30 (Ki-1)-positive cutaneous T-cell infiltrates. The two ends of the spectrum include lymphomatoid papulosis (benign end) and primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma (malignant end). Borderline lesions are also included in this spectrum. (WHO, 2001)", + "9719/3": "An aggressive, predominantly extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. It is characterized by an often angiocentric and angiodestructive cellular infiltrate composed of EBV positive NK/T cells. The nasal cavity is the most common site of involvement. Patients often present with midfacial destructive lesions (lethal midline granuloma). The disease may disseminate rapidly to various anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal tract, skin, testis, and cervical lymph nodes. It is also known as angiocentric T-cell lymphoma. The term \"polymorphic reticulosis\" has been widely used to describe the morphologic changes seen in this type of lymphoma. However, the latter term may also apply to lymphomatoid granulomatosis, which is an angiocentric and angiodestructive EBV positive B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder.", + "9724/3": "An aggressive and life-threatening, EBV-positive T-cell lymphoma affecting children. It is more prevalent in Taiwan and Japan. Clinically, it presents with acute onset of fever and generalized malaise, followed by hepatosplenomegaly and liver failure. Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of infiltrating T-lymphocytes which are usually small and erythrophagocytosis. Most patients have a fulminant clinical course.", + "9725/3": "A rare, EBV-positive cutaneous T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder, composed of CD8 positive cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. It affects children, almost exclusively in Latin America and Asia. Patients present with papulovesicular skin lesions, clinically resembling hydroa vacciniforme, in areas of sun-exposed skin.", + "9726/3": "An aggressive cutaneous lymphoma of mature, activated gamma/delta T-lymphocytes. It usually presents with disseminated plaques and nodules. Involvement of mucosal sites is frequent. However, involvement of lymph nodes, spleen, or bone marrow is uncommon. Morphologically, there are three patterns of cutaneous involvement: epidermotropic, dermal, and subcutaneous. Often, more than one pattern may co-exist in a single biopsy specimen, or may be present in different biopsy specimens from the same patient. The lymphocytic infiltrate is composed of medium- to large-sized lymphocytes expressing CD56. Most cases lack both CD4 and CD8, although CD8 may be present in some cases. This group of lymphomas includes cases previously known as subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma with a gamma/delta phenotype.", + "9727/3": "A lymphoma composed of immature small to medium-sized precursor lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts). It includes the B- and T-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma.", + "9728/3": "", + "9729/3": "The most frequent type of lymphoblastic lymphoma. It comprises approximately 85-90% of cases. It is more frequently seen in adolescent males. It frequently presents with a mass lesion in the mediastinum. Pleural effusions are common. (WHO, 2001)", + "9731/3": "A malignant (clonal) proliferation of plasma cells that are cytologically and immunophenotypically identical to those of plasma cell myeloma, but manifest a localized osseous or extraosseous growth pattern. (WHO, 2001)", + "9732/3": "A bone marrow-based plasma cell neoplasm characterized by a serum monoclonal protein and skeletal destruction with osteolytic lesions, pathological fractures, bone pain, hypercalcemia, and anemia. Clinical variants include non-secretory myeloma, smoldering myeloma, indolent myeloma, and plasma cell leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "9733/3": "An aggressive plasma cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic plasma cells in the peripheral blood. It is characterized by the presence of a circulating clonal plasma cell count that exceeds 2x10^9/L or is 20% of the leukocyte differential count.", + "9734/3": "A plasma cell neoplasm arising at an extraosseous site. There is no involvement of the bone marrow. It most frequently involves the oropharynx, nasopharynx, sinuses, and larynx. Other sites of involvement include the gastrointestinal tract, central nervous system, breast, skin, lymph nodes, and bladder. A minority of patients have a monoclonal gammopathy. Treatment includes radiation therapy. Progression to plasma cell myeloma occurs in a minority of patients.", + "9735/3": "An aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma frequently arising in the setting of HIV infection and characterized by the presence of large neoplastic cells resembling B-immunoblasts which have the immunophenotypic profile of plasma cells. Sites of involvement include the oral cavity, sinonasal cavity, skin, soft tissues, gastrointestinal tract, and bone.", + "9737/3": "A usually aggressive large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of monomorphic immunoblast-like neoplastic B-lymphocytes in a sinusoidal growth pattern. The neoplastic B-lymphocytes express the ALK kinase but they lack the 2;5 translocation.", + "9738/3": "An aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma occurring in patients with HHV8-positive multicentric Castleman disease. It is characterized by the presence of human herpesvirus 8-infected large B-lymphocytes that resemble plasmablasts. It is usually seen in patients with HIV infection.", + "9740/1": "A localized tumor composed of sheets of mast cells without atypia. It includes the cutaneous mastocytoma which involves the dermis and subcutaneous tissue, and the extracutaneous mastocytoma. Most cases of extracutaneous mastocytoma have been reported in the lung.", + "9740/3": "A rare malignant neoplasm characterized by localized but destructive growth of a tumor consisting of highly atypical, immature mast cells.(WHO, 2001)", + "9741/1": "An indolent mast cell neoplasm characterized by systemic infiltration of skin and internal organs by aggregates of neoplastic mast cells. There is no evidence of mast cell leukemia or clonal hematologic malignancy. Clinically, there is no evidence of palpable hepatomegaly and splenomegaly, malabsorption syndrome, or pathologic fractures.", + "9741/3": "Malignant neoplasm originating from mast cells.", + "9742/3": "A variant of systemic mastocytosis with involvement of the bone marrow (20% or more mast cells) and the peripheral blood (mast cells account for 10% or more of peripheral blood white cells). (WHO, 2001)", + "9750/3": "An antiquated term referring to cases of systemic non-Hodgkin lymphomas which are composed of large, atypical neoplastic lymphoid cells and cases of hemophagocytic syndromes. In the past, cases of anaplastic large cells lymphoma were called malignant histiocytosis.", + "9751/1": "", + "9751/3": "A neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells which contain Birbeck granules by ultrastructural examination. Three major overlapping syndromes are recognized: eosinophilic granuloma, Letterer-Siwe disease, and Hand-Schuller-Christian disease. The clinical course is generally related to the number of organs affected at presentation. (WHO, 2001)", + "9752/1": "", + "9753/1": "", + "9754/3": "", + "9755/3": "An aggressive malignant neoplasm with a poor response to therapy, usually presenting as stage III/IV disease. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with morphologic and immunophenotypic characteristics similar to those seen in mature histiocytes.", + "9756/3": "A neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells with overtly malignant cytologic features. It can be considered a higher grade variant of Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) and it can present de novo or progress from antecedent LCH. (WHO, 2001)", + "9757/3": "A neoplastic proliferation of spindle to ovoid cells which show phenotypic features similar to those of interdigitating dendritic cells. The clinical course is generally aggressive. (WHO, 2008)", + "9758/3": "A neoplasm composed of spindle to ovoid cells which have morphologic and immunophenotypic characteristics of follicular dendritic cells. It affects lymph nodes and other sites including the tonsils, gastrointestinal tract, spleen, liver, soft tissues, skin, and oral cavity. It usually behaves as a low grade sarcoma. Treatment options include complete surgical removal of the tumor with or without adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy. Recurrences have been reported in up to half of the cases.", + "9759/3": "A very rare dendritic cell tumor affecting the lymph nodes, spleen, and soft tissues. Morphologically it is similar to the interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma or follicular dendritic cell sarcoma. The tumor cells are positive for cytokeratin and CD68. Clinical outcome is variable.", + "9760/3": "", + "9761/3": "Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma associated with bone marrow involvement and IgM monoclonal gammopathy.", + "9762/3": "A group of rare disorders of immunoglobulin synthesis associated with B-cell proliferative disorders.", + "9764/3": "A clonal disorder, also known as immunoproliferative small intestinal disease or Mediterranean lymphoma, characterised by the secretion of a defective alpha heavy chain. It predominantly affects young people in the Mediterranean region. It involves the small intestine, and patients usually present with malabsorption syndrome, abdominal pain, weight loss, and fever. There is extensive villous atrophy of the small intestinal mucosa, which is heavily infiltrated by small lymphocytes and plasma cells. The small intestinal morphologic changes are consistent with a mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma (MALT lymphoma).", + "9765/1": "A condition in which an abnormal amount of a single immunoglobulin is present in the serum. This category includes IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance and non-IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Up to 25% of cases of monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance progress to a B-cell malignancy or myeloma.", + "9766/1": "A neoplastic lymphoproliferative process characterized by an angiocentric arrangement of the tumor cells which is associated with angiodestruction. It includes lymphomatoid granulomatosis which is a lymphoproliferative lesion derived from mature B-lymphocytes and cases of extranodal NK/T-cell lymphomas of nasal type.", + "9767/1": "A peripheral T-cell lymphoma of mature T follicular helper (TFH) cells characterized by systemic disease and a polymorphous infiltrate involving lymph nodes, with a prominent proliferation of high endothelial venules and follicular dendritic cells. EBV-positive cells are nearly always present. It is a clinically aggressive lymphoma and seen mainly in older adults. (WHO 2017)", + "9768/1": "A T-cell peripheral neoplasm characterized by a persistent (>6 months) increase in the number of peripheral blood large granular lymphocytes, without a clearly identified cause. (WHO, 2001)", + "9769/1": "A plasma cell neoplasm that secretes an abnormal immunoglobulin, which deposits in tissues and forms a beta-pleated sheet structure that binds Congo red dye with characteristic birefringence. (WHO, 2001)", + "9800/3": "A malignant (clonal) hematologic disorder, involving hematopoietic stem cells and characterized by the presence of primitive or atypical myeloid or lymphoid cells in the bone marrow and the blood. Leukemias are classified as acute or chronic based on the degree of cellular differentiation and the predominant cell type present. Leukemia is usually associated with anemia, fever, hemorrhagic episodes, and splenomegaly. Common leukemias include acute myeloid leukemia, chronic myelogenous leukemia, acute lymphoblastic or precursor lymphoblastic leukemia, and chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Treatment is vital to patient survival; untreated, the natural course of acute leukemias is normally measured in weeks or months, while that of chronic leukemias is more often measured in months or years.", + "9801/3": "A clonal (malignant) hematopoietic disorder with an acute onset, affecting the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. The malignant cells show minimal differentiation and are called blasts, either myeloid blasts (myeloblasts) or lymphoid blasts (lymphoblasts).", + "9805/3": "An acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage characterized by blasts which coexpress myeloid and T or B lineage antigens or concurrent B and T lineage antigens. (WHO, 2001)", + "9806/3": "A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts also carry the translocation t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2) by karyotypic analysis or the BCR-ABL1 translocation by FISH or PCR. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "9807/3": "A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts also carry a translocation (v; 11q23.3) involving the KMT2A gene. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "9808/3": "A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts express B-lymphoid and myeloid lineage markers but are negative for MLL translocation and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "9809/3": "A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts express T-lymphoid and myeloid lineage markers but are negative for MLL translocation and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "9811/3": "The term refers to precursor lymphoid neoplasms which are composed of B-lymphoblasts and characterized by the absence of recurrent genetic abnormalities.", + "9812/3": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B-lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the BCR gene on chromosome 22 and the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9. It results in the production of the p190 kd or p210 kd fusion protein. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome.", + "9813/3": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B-lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the KMT2A gene at 11q23.3 and another gene partner resulting in the production of a KMT2A related fusion protein.", + "9814/3": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B-lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the TEL gene on chromosome 12 and the AML1 gene on chromosome 21, (p13.2;q22.1). It results in the production of the TEL-AML1 (ETV6-RUNX1) fusion protein. It has a favorable clinical outcome.", + "9815/3": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm composed of B-lymphoblasts which contain more than 50 and usually less than 66 chromosomes. It has a favorable clinical outcome.", + "9816/3": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm composed of B-lymphoblasts which contain less than 46 chromosomes. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome.", + "9817/3": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B-lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the IL3 gene on chromosome 5 and the IGH locus on chromosome 14, (q31.1;q32.3). It results in eosinophilia.", + "9818/3": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B-lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the E2A gene on chromosome 19 and the PBX1 gene on chromosome 1.", + "9820/3": "A malignant lymphocytic neoplasm of B-cell or T-cell lineage involving primarily the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This category includes precursor or acute lymphoblastic leukemias and chronic leukemias.", + "9823/3": "The most common type of chronic lymphoid leukemia. It comprises 90% of chronic lymphoid leukemias in the United States. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells are small, round B-lymphocytes. This type of leukemia is not considered to be curable with available therapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "9826/3": "The leukemic counterpart of Burkitt's lymphoma. The characteristic Burkitt cells are seen in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This is an aggressive leukemia.", + "9827/3": "A peripheral (mature) T-cell neoplasm linked to the human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1). Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is endemic in several regions of the world, in particular Japan, the Caribbean, and parts of Central Africa.", + "9831/3": "A T-cell peripheral neoplasm characterized by a persistent (>6 months) increase in the number of peripheral blood large granular lymphocytes, without a clearly identified cause. (WHO, 2001)", + "9832/3": "A mature B- or T- cell leukemia with progressive clinical course. It is characterized by the presence of medium-sized lymphocytes with visible nucleoli (prolymphocytes) in the peripheral blood, bone marrow, and spleen.", + "9833/3": "A malignant B-cell lymphoproliferative process affecting the blood, bone marrow, and spleen. The B-prolymphocytes are medium-sized, round lymphoid cells with prominent nucleoli. The B-prolymphocytes must exceed 55% of lymphoid cells in the blood. Cases of transformed chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and CLL with increased prolymphocytes are excluded. The prognosis is poor. (WHO, 2001)", + "9834/3": "An aggressive T-cell leukemia, characterized by the proliferation of small to medium sized prolymphocytes with a mature T-cell phenotype, involving the blood, bone marrow, lymph nodes, liver, spleen, and skin. (WHO, 2001)", + "9835/3": "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "9836/3": "The most frequent type of acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Approximately 75% of cases occur in children under six years of age. This is a good prognosis leukemia. In the pediatric age group the complete remission rate is approximately 95% and the disease free survival rate is 70%. Approximately 80% of children appear to be cured. In the adult age group the complete remission rate is 60-85%. (WHO, 2001)", + "9837/3": "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia of T-cell origin. It comprises about 15% of childhood cases and 25% of adult cases. It is more common in males than females. (WHO, 2001)", + "9840/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by a predominant immature erythroid population. There are two subtypes recognized: erythroleukemia and pure erythroid leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "9860/3": "A clonal proliferation of myeloid cells and their precursors in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and spleen. When the proliferating cells are immature myeloid cells and myeloblasts, it is called acute myeloid leukemia. When the proliferating myeloid cells are neutrophils, it is called chronic myelogenous leukemia.", + "9861/3": "Acute myeloid leukemias that do not fulfill the criteria for inclusion in the group of acute myeloid leukemias which have recurrent genetic abnormalities or myelodysplastic changes, or are therapy-related. This category includes entities classified according to the French-American-British classification scheme.", + "9863/3": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the expression of the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene. It presents with neutrophilic leukocytosis. It can appear at any age, but it mostly affects middle aged and older individuals. Patients usually present with fatigue, weight loss, anemia, night sweats, and splenomegaly. If untreated, it follows a biphasic or triphasic natural course; an initial indolent chronic phase which is followed by an accelerated phase, a blast phase, or both. Allogeneic stem cell transplantation and tyrosine kinase inhibitors delay disease progression and prolong overall survival.", + "9865/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(6;9)(p23;q34.1) resulting in DEK-NUP214(CAN) fusion protein expression. It is often associated with multilineage dysplasia and basophilia. It affects both children and adults and it usually has an unfavorable clinical outcome.", + "9866/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in which abnormal promyelocytes predominate. It is characterized by the PML-RARA fusion. There are two variants: the typical and microgranular variant. This AML is particularly sensitive to treatment with all trans-retinoic acid and has a favorable prognosis. (WHO)", + "9867/3": "An acute leukemia characterized by the proliferation of both neutrophil and monocyte precursors. (WHO, 2001)", + "9869/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia associated with inv(3)(q21.3q26.2) or t(3;3)(q21.3;q26.2) resulting in the reposition of a distal GATA2 enhancer to activate MECOM expression. It may present de novo or follow a myelodysplastic syndrome. The clinical course is aggressive.", + "9870/3": "A rare acute myeloid leukemia in which the immature cells differentiate towards basophils.", + "9871/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia with monocytic and granulocytic differentiation and the presence of a characteristically abnormal eosinophil component in the bone marrow. This type of acute myeloid leukemia has a favorable prognosis. (WHO, 2001)", + "9872/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in which the blasts do not show evidence of myeloid differentiation by morphology and conventional cytochemistry. (WHO, 2001)", + "9873/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) characterized by blasts without evidence of maturation to more mature neutrophils. (WHO, 2001)", + "9874/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) characterized by blasts with evidence of maturation to more mature neutrophils. (WHO, 2001)", + "9875/3": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the expression of the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene. It presents with neutrophilic leukocytosis. It can appear at any age, but it mostly affects middle aged and older individuals. Patients usually present with fatigue, weight loss, anemia, night sweats, and splenomegaly. If untreated, it follows a biphasic or triphasic natural course; an initial indolent chronic phase which is followed by an accelerated phase, a blast phase, or both. Allogeneic stem cell transplantation and tyrosine kinase inhibitors delay disease progression and prolong overall survival.", + "9876/3": "Myelogenous leukemia that is negative for Philadelphia chromosome.", + "9891/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia in which the majority of monocytic cells are promonocytes. (WHO, 2001)", + "9895/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia with at least 20% blasts in the bone marrow or blood, and either a previous history of myelodysplastic syndrome, multilineage dysplasia or myelodysplastic syndrome-related cytogenetic abnormalities. There is no history of prior cytotoxic therapy for an unrelated disorder, and there is absence of the cytogenetic abnormalities that are present in acute myeloid leukemia with recurrent genetic abnormalities.", + "9896/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22; q22.1) giving rise to RUNX1/RUNX1T1 fusion transcript and showing maturation in the neutrophil lineage. The bone marrow and the peripheral blood show large myeloblasts with abundant basophilic cytoplasm, often containing azurophilic granules. This type of AML is associated with good response to chemotherapy and high complete remission rate.", + "9897/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(9;11)(p21.3;q23.3) and MLLT3-KMT2A fusion protein expression. Morphologically it usually has monocytic features. It may present at any age but it is more commonly seen in children. Patients may present with disseminated intravascular coagulation.", + "9898/1": "A myeloid proliferation occurring in newborns with Down syndrome. It is clinically and morphologically indistinguishable from acute myeloid leukemia and is associated with GATA1 mutations. The blasts display morphologic and immunophenotypic features of megakaryocytic lineage. In the majority of patients the myeloid proliferation undergoes spontaneous remission.", + "9898/3": "Acute myeloid leukemia or myelodysplastic syndrome occurring in children with Down syndrome. The acute myeloid leukemia is usually an acute megakaryoblastic leukemia, and is associated with GATA1 gene mutation.", + "9910/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia in which at least 50% of the blasts are of megakaryocytic lineage. (WHO, 2001)", + "9911/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(1;22)(p13.3;q13.1) resulting in the expression of RBM15-MKL1 fusion protein. It affects infants and children and usually shows megakaryocytic maturation.", + "9920/3": "Acute myeloid leukemias, myelodysplastic syndromes, and myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasms arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of chemotherapy agents and/or radiation that are used for the treatment of neoplastic or non-neoplastic disorders.", + "9930/3": "A tumor mass composed of myeloblasts or immature myeloid cells. It occurs in extramedullary sites or the bone. (WHO, 2001)", + "9931/3": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by bone marrow fibrosis without preexisting primary myelofibrosis.", + "9940/3": "A neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes with \"hairy\" projections in bone marrow, spleen, and peripheral blood. Most patients present with splenomegaly and pancytopenia. (WHO, 2001)", + "9945/3": "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm which is characterized by persistent monocytosis, absence of a Philadelphia chromosome and BCR/ABL fusion gene, fewer than 20 percent blasts in the bone marrow and blood, myelodysplasia, and absence of PDGFRA or PDGFRB rearrangement.", + "9946/3": "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm of childhood that is characterized by proliferation principally of the granulocytic and monocytic lineages. Myelomonocytic proliferation is seen in the bone marrow and the blood. The leukemic cells may infiltrate any tissue, however liver, spleen, lymph nodes, skin, and respiratory tract are the most common sites of involvement. (WHO, 2001)", + "9948/3": "A rare, highly aggressive, Epstein-Barr virus-associated leukemia, also known as aggressive NK-cell leukemia/lymphoma; it may represent the leukemic counterpart of nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphomas. It affects primarily teenagers and young adults. It is characterized by the systemic proliferation of NK cells in the peripheral blood, bone marrow, liver, and spleen.", + "9950/3": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by an increased red blood cell production. The bone marrow is hypercellular due to a panmyelotic proliferation typically characterized by pleomorphic megakaryocytes. The major symptoms are related to hypertension, splenomegaly or to episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage.", + "9960/3": "A clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder, characterized by proliferation in the bone marrow of one or more of the myeloid (i.e., granulocytic, erythroid, megakaryocytic, and mast cell) lineages. It is primarily a neoplasm of adults. (WHO 2008)", + "9961/3": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, proliferation of atypical megakaryocytes and granulocytes in the bone marrow, anemia, splenomegaly, and extramedullary hematopoiesis. (WHO, 2001)", + "9962/3": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm that involves primarily the megakaryocytic lineage. It is characterized by sustained thrombocytosis in the blood, increased numbers of large, mature megakaryocytes in the bone marrow, and episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage. (WHO, 2008)", + "9963/3": "A rare chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by neutrophilic leukocytosis. There is no detectable Philadelphia chromosome or BCR/ABL fusion gene.", + "9964/3": "A rare myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by a clonal proliferation of eosinophilic precursors resulting in persistently increased numbers of eosinophils in the blood, marrow and peripheral tissues. Since acute eosinophilic leukemia is at best exceedingly rare, the term eosinophilic leukemia is normally used as a synonym for chronic eosinophilic leukemia. In cases in which it is impossible to prove clonality and there is no increase in blast cells, the diagnosis of \"idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome\" is preferred. (WHO, 2001)", + "9965/3": "Hematologic neoplasms characterized by the rearrangement of the PDGFRA gene, most often resulting in the formation of FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion transcripts. Patients usually present with chronic eosinophilic leukemia, and less often with acute myeloid leukemia or T-lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "9966/3": "Myeloid and rarely lymphoid neoplasms characterized by the rearrangement of the PDGFRB gene, most often resulting in the formation of ETV6-PDGFRB fusion transcripts. Patients usually present with chronic myelomonocytic leukemia and less often with atypical chronic myeloid leukemia, or chronic eosinophilic leukemia.", + "9967/3": "", + "9970/1": "A disorder characterized by proliferation of lymphocytes at various stages of differentiation. Lymphoproliferative disorders can be neoplastic (clonal, as in lymphomas and leukemias) or reactive (polyclonal, as in infectious mononucleosis).", + "9971/1": "Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) is a polyclonal (benign) or clonal (malignant) proliferation of lymphoid cells that develops as a consequence of immunosuppression in a recipient of a solid organ or bone marrow allograft. PTLDs comprise a spectrum ranging from early, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-driven polyclonal lymphoid proliferations to EBV-positive or EBV- negative lymphomas of predominantly B-cell or less often T-cell type. (WHO, 2001)", + "9971/3": "A clonal B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder arising as a result of post-transplant immunosuppression therapy. It is characterized by destructive infiltration of lymph nodes and extranodal sites by a polymorphic B-cell infiltrate composed of small and medium sized lymphocytes, immunoblasts, and plasma cells. In some cases, reduction of the immunosuppression therapy may lead to regression of the lesions. In other cases the lesions may progress to lymphoma.", + "9975/3": "This entity includes cases that have clinical, laboratory, and morphologic features that support the diagnosis of both a myelodysplastic syndrome and a myeloproliferative neoplasm, but do not meet the criteria for any of the other entities included in the myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm category. (WHO, 2001)", + "9980/3": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized mainly by dysplasia of the erythroid series. Refractory anemia is uncommon. It is primarily a disease of older adults. The median survival exceeds 5 years. (WHO, 2001)", + "9982/3": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by an anemia in which 15% or more of the erythroid precursors are ring sideroblasts. The ring sideroblast is an erythroid precursor in which one third or more of the nucleus is encircled by granules which are positive for iron stain. (WHO, 2001)", + "9983/3": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of 5-19% myeloblasts in the bone marrow or 2-19% blasts in the peripheral blood. It includes two categories: myelodysplastic syndrome with excess blasts-1 and myelodysplastic syndrome with excess blasts-2.", + "9984/3": "Refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation (RAEB-T) is characterised by dysplastic features of the myeloid and usually erythroid progenitor cells in the bone marrow and an increased number of myeloblasts in the peripheral blood. The peripheral blood blast count ranges from 20% to 30%. RAEB-T used to be a subcategory of myelodysplastic syndromes in the past. Recently, the term has been eliminated from the WHO based classification of myelodysplastic syndromes. The reason is that the percentage of peripheral blood blasts required for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia has been reduced to 20%. The elimination of the RAEB-T term by the WHO experts has created confusion and ongoing arguments. Currently, according to WHO classification, the vast majority of RAEB-T cases are best classified as acute leukemias (acute leukemias with multilineage dysplasia following myelodysplastic syndrome). A minority of cases are part of RAEB-2.", + "9985/3": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by bi-cytopenia or pancytopenia and dysplastic changes in 10% or more of the cells in two or more of the myeloid cell lines. (WHO, 2001)", + "9986/3": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by a deletion between bands q31 and 33 on chromosome 5. The number of blasts in the bone marrow and blood is <5%. The bone marrow is usually hypercellular or normocellular with increased number of often hypolobated megakaryocytes. The peripheral blood shows macrocytic anemia. This syndrome occurs predominantly but not exclusively in middle age to older women. The prognosis is good and transformation to acute leukemia is rare. (WHO, 2001)", + "9987/3": "A myelodysplastic syndrome caused by chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy.", + "9989/3": "A clonal hematopoietic disorder characterized by dysplasia and ineffective hematopoiesis in one or more of the hematopoietic cell lines. The dysplasia may be accompanied by an increase in myeloblasts, but the number is less than 20%, which, according to the WHO guidelines, is the requisite threshold for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia. It may occur de novo or as a result of exposure to alkylating agents and/or radiotherapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "9991/3": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of at least 10% dysplastic neutrophils in the bone marrow or the peripheral blood.", + "9992/3": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of at least 10% dysplastic megakaryocytes, found within at least 30 megakaryocytes examined in the bone marrow.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "ovarian_specimen_status": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the physical condition of the involved ovary.", + "value_data": { + "Ovarian Capsule Fragmented": "A microscopy finding indicating that a portion of the ovarian capsule in a biopsy was fragmented.", + "Ovarian Capsule Intact": "A microscopy finding indicating that the ovarian capsule in a biopsy is intact.", + "Ovarian Capsule Ruptured": "A microscopy finding indicating that a portion of the ovarian capsule in a biopsy has ruptured.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "ovarian_surface_involvement": { + "column_description": "The text term that describes whether the surface tissue (outer boundary) of the ovary shows evidence of involvement or presence of cancer.", + "value_data": { + "Absent": "Not existing in a specified place at a specified time.", + "Indeterminate": "Cannot distinguish between two or more possible values in the current context.", + "Present": "Being or existing in a specified place or at the specified time.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "papillary_renal_cell_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of papillary renal cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of papillae covered by small cells with scant amount of cytoplasm.", + "value_data": { + "Type 1": "A papillary renal cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of papillae covered by small cells with scant amount of cytoplasm. The cells are arranged in a single layer on the basement membrane of the papillae.", + "Type 2": "A papillary renal cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of papillae covered by cells of a higher nuclear grade as compared to type 1 papillary renal cell carcinoma. The cells have eosinophilic cytoplasm and pseudostratified nuclei." + } + }, + "pediatric_kidney_staging": { + "column_description": "A modified version of the Children's Oncology Group (COG) National Wilms Tumor Study Group (NWTS) staging system.", + "value_data": { + "Nephrectomy specimen with tumor confined to the kidney; distant metastasis identified at diagnosis": "", + "Nephrectomy specimen with tumor confined to the kidney; no distant metastasis": "", + "Nephrectomy specimen with tumor that is present at the surgical margin of resection or within regional lymph nodes; distant metastasis identified at diagnosis": "", + "Nephrectomy specimen with tumor that is present at the surgical margin of resection or within regional lymph nodes; no distant metastasis": "", + "Nephrectomy specimen with tumor that penetrates the renal capsule or involves the renal sinus with negative margins and negative lymph nodes; distant metastasis identified at diagnosis": "", + "Nephrectomy specimen with tumor that penetrates the renal capsule or involves the renal sinus with negative margins and negative lymph nodes; no distant metastasis": "", + "Tumor biopsied only at diagnosis; distant metastasis identified at diagnosis": "", + "Tumor biopsied only at diagnosis; no distant metastasis": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "peritoneal_fluid_cytological_status": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the malignant status of the peritoneal fluid determined by cytologic testing.", + "value_data": { + "Atypical": "Cytologic Atypia", + "Malignant": "Refers to abnormal cell activity manifested by decreased control over growth and function, causing tumor growth or spread into surrounding tissue and adverse effects to the host.", + "Non-Malignant": "For neoplasms, a neoplastic process that, at the time of the pathologic diagnosis, does not show evidence of tissue infiltration and may or may not show evidence of atypical morphologic features (e.g., cellular atypia, formation of complex structures, cellular pseudostratification, and increased mitotic activity). This term encompasses benign neoplastic processes, neoplastic processes with dysplastic features, and borderline processes. The former do not metastasize and the latter two are associated with a future risk of stromal invasion and metastasis. For other conditions, a process that is not seriously resistant to treatment or dangerous to health.", + "Unsatisfactory": "Failing to meet the quantitative or qualitative measures for the needs of a situation.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "primary_diagnosis": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the patient's histologic diagnosis, as described by the World Health Organization's (WHO) International Classification of Diseases for Oncology (ICD-O).", + "value_data": { + "Abdominal desmoid": "An insidious poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues of the abdomen. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern.", + "Abdominal fibromatosis": "An insidious poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues of the abdomen. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern.", + "Achromic nevus": "A benign nevus characterized by the absence of melanin pigment in the melanocytes.", + "Acidophil adenocarcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic dyes.", + "Acidophil adenoma": "An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic dyes.", + "Acidophil carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic dyes.", + "Acinar adenocarcinoma": "A malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. Representative examples include the acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas and the acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland.", + "Acinar adenocarcinoma, sarcomatoid": "A rare morphologic variant of acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland with unfavorable prognosis, composed of both malignant glandular and sarcomatous components. The sarcomatous component contains a malignant spindle cell proliferation or specific mesenchymal elements including osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma.", + "Acinar adenoma": "A benign glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns.", + "Acinar carcinoma": "A malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. Representative examples include the acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas and the acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland.", + "Acinar cell adenoma": "A benign glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns.", + "Acinar cell carcinoma": "A malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. Representative examples include the acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas and the acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland.", + "Acinar cell cystadenocarcinoma": "A cystic adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of relatively uniform neoplastic cells which produce pancreatic enzymes and are arranged in acinar patterns. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, and diarrhea. It usually has an aggressive clinical course.", + "Acinar cell tumor": "A benign or malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. It includes the acinar cell adenoma and acinar cell carcinoma.", + "Acinic cell adenocarcinoma": "A malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. Representative examples include the acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas and the acinar adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland.", + "Acinic cell adenoma": "A benign glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns.", + "Acinic cell tumor": "A benign or malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm consisting of secretory cells forming acinar patterns. It includes the acinar cell adenoma and acinar cell carcinoma.", + "Acoustic neuroma": "A type of benign brain tumor that begins in the Schwann cells, which produce the myelin that protects the acoustic nerve - the nerve of hearing.", + "Acquired cystic disease-associated renal cell carcinoma (RCC)": "The most common renal cell carcinoma that develops in patients with end-stage renal disease and acquired cystic disease.", + "Acquired tufted hemangioma": "", + "Acral lentiginous melanoma, malignant": "A form of melanoma occurring most often on the plantar, palmar, subungual, and periungual skin. It presents as a pigmented macular lesion with irregular borders. Morphologically, it consists of atypical spindled and dendritic melanocytes. The epidermis is often hyperplastic and there is pagetoid infiltration of the epidermis by anaplastic cells.", + "ACTH-producing tumor": "", + "Acute basophilic leukaemia": "A rare acute myeloid leukemia in which the immature cells differentiate towards basophils.", + "Acute bilineal leukemia": "An acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage in which there is a dual population of blasts with each population expressing markers of a distinct lineage (myeloid and lymphoid or B-and T-lymphocyte). (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute biphenotypic leukemia": "An acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage characterized by blasts which coexpress myeloid and T or B lineage antigens or concurrent B and T lineage antigens. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute erythremia": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by a predominant immature erythroid population. There are two subtypes recognized: erythroleukemia and pure erythroid leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute erythremic myelosis": "Acute erythroid leukemia characterised by the presence of immature erythroid cells in the bone marrow (at least 80% of the cellular component), without evidence of a significant myeloblastic cell population present.", + "Acute erythroid leukaemia": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by a predominant immature erythroid population. There are two subtypes recognized: erythroleukemia and pure erythroid leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute granulocytic leukemia": "A clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in the bone marrow, blood or other tissues. The classification of acute myeloid leukemias (AMLs) encompasses four major categories: 1) AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities; 2) AML with multilineage dysplasia; 3) Therapy-related AML; 4) AML not otherwise specified. The required bone marrow or peripheral blood blast percentage for the diagnosis of AML is 20% (WHO classification).", + "Acute leukemia, Burkitt type": "The leukemic counterpart of Burkitt's lymphoma. The characteristic Burkitt cells are seen in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This is an aggressive leukemia.", + "Acute leukemia, NOS": "A rare acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage in which the blasts do not express markers specific to myeloid or lymphoid lineage.", + "Acute lymphatic leukemia": "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia, L2 type, NOS": "An antiquated term that refers to acute lymphoblastic leukemia with large and irregular lymphoblasts.", + "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia, mature B-cell type": "The leukemic counterpart of Burkitt's lymphoma. The characteristic Burkitt cells are seen in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This is an aggressive leukemia.", + "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia, NOS": "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia, precursor cell type": "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia-lymphoma, NOS": "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "Acute lymphocytic leukemia": "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "Acute lymphoid leukemia": "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "Acute megakaryoblastic leukaemia": "An acute myeloid leukemia in which at least 50% of the blasts are of megakaryocytic lineage. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute mixed lineage leukemia": "An acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage in which there is a dual population of blasts with each population expressing markers of a distinct lineage (myeloid and lymphoid or B-and T-lymphocyte). (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute monoblastic and monocytic leukemia": "Acute myeloid leukemia in which 80% or more of the leukemic cells are of monocytic lineage, including monoblasts, promonocytes, and monocytes. Bleeding disorders are common presenting features.", + "Acute monoblastic leukemia": "An acute myeloid leukemia in which the monoblasts represent 80% or more of the total cellular population. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute monocytic leukemia": "An acute myeloid leukemia in which the majority of monocytic cells are promonocytes. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute myeloblastic leukemia": "A clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in the bone marrow, blood or other tissues. The classification of acute myeloid leukemias (AMLs) encompasses four major categories: 1) AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities; 2) AML with multilineage dysplasia; 3) Therapy-related AML; 4) AML not otherwise specified. The required bone marrow or peripheral blood blast percentage for the diagnosis of AML is 20% (WHO classification).", + "Acute myelocytic leukemia": "A clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in the bone marrow, blood or other tissues. The classification of acute myeloid leukemias (AMLs) encompasses four major categories: 1) AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities; 2) AML with multilineage dysplasia; 3) Therapy-related AML; 4) AML not otherwise specified. The required bone marrow or peripheral blood blast percentage for the diagnosis of AML is 20% (WHO classification).", + "Acute myelofibrosis": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by bone marrow fibrosis without preexisting primary myelofibrosis.", + "Acute myelogenous leukemia": "A clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in the bone marrow, blood or other tissues. The classification of acute myeloid leukemias (AMLs) encompasses four major categories: 1) AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities; 2) AML with multilineage dysplasia; 3) Therapy-related AML; 4) AML not otherwise specified. The required bone marrow or peripheral blood blast percentage for the diagnosis of AML is 20% (WHO classification).", + "Acute myeloid leukaemia, t(8;21)(q22;q22)": "An acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22; q22.1) giving rise to RUNX1/RUNX1T1 fusion transcript and showing maturation in the neutrophil lineage. The bone marrow and the peripheral blood show large myeloblasts with abundant basophilic cytoplasm, often containing azurophilic granules. This type of AML is associated with good response to chemotherapy and high complete remission rate.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia (megakaryoblastic) with t(1;22)(p13;q13); RBM15-MKL1": "An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(1;22)(p13.3;q13.1) resulting in the expression of RBM15-MKL1 fusion protein. It affects infants and children and usually shows megakaryocytic maturation.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with abnormal marrow eosinophils (includes all variants)": "An acute myeloid leukemia with monocytic and granulocytic differentiation and the presence of a characteristically abnormal eosinophil component in the bone marrow. This type of acute myeloid leukemia has a favorable prognosis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with inv(3)(q21q26.2) or t(3;3)(q21;q26.2); RPN1-EVI1": "An acute myeloid leukemia associated with inv(3)(q21.3q26.2) or t(3;3)(q21.3;q26.2) resulting in the reposition of a distal GATA2 enhancer to activate MECOM expression. It may present de novo or follow a myelodysplastic syndrome. The clinical course is aggressive.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with maturation": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) characterized by blasts with evidence of maturation to more mature neutrophils. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with multilineage dysplasia": "An acute myeloid leukemia arising de novo and not as a result of treatment. It is characterized by the presence of myelodysplastic features in at least 50% of the cells of at least two hematopoietic cell lines. Patients often present with severe cytopenia.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with mutated CEBPA": "An acute myeloid leukemia with non-germline mutations of the CEBPA gene.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with mutated NPM1": "An acute myeloid leukemia with mutation of the nucleophosmin gene. It is usually associated with normal karyotype and frequently has myelomonocytic or monocytic features. It usually responds to induction therapy.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with myelodysplasia-related changes": "An acute myeloid leukemia with at least 20% blasts in the bone marrow or blood, and either a previous history of myelodysplastic syndrome, multilineage dysplasia or myelodysplastic syndrome-related cytogenetic abnormalities. There is no history of prior cytotoxic therapy for an unrelated disorder, and there is absence of the cytogenetic abnormalities that are present in acute myeloid leukemia with recurrent genetic abnormalities.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with prior myelodysplastic syndrome": "An acute myeloid leukemia developing in patients with a prior history of myelodysplastic syndrome.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with t(6;9)(p23;q34); DEK-NUP214": "An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(6;9)(p23;q34.1) resulting in DEK-NUP214(CAN) fusion protein expression. It is often associated with multilineage dysplasia and basophilia. It affects both children and adults and it usually has an unfavorable clinical outcome.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22;q22); RUNX1-RUNX1T1": "An acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22; q22.1) giving rise to RUNX1/RUNX1T1 fusion transcript and showing maturation in the neutrophil lineage. The bone marrow and the peripheral blood show large myeloblasts with abundant basophilic cytoplasm, often containing azurophilic granules. This type of AML is associated with good response to chemotherapy and high complete remission rate.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia with t(9;11)(p22;q23); MLLT3-MLL": "An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(9;11)(p21.3;q23.3) and MLLT3-KMT2A fusion protein expression. Morphologically it usually has monocytic features. It may present at any age but it is more commonly seen in children. Patients may present with disseminated intravascular coagulation.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) characterized by blasts without evidence of maturation to more mature neutrophils. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute myeloid leukemia without prior myelodysplastic syndrome": "An acute myeloid leukemia developing in patients with a prior history of myelodysplastic syndrome.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia, AML1(CBF-alpha)/ETO": "An acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22; q22.1) giving rise to RUNX1/RUNX1T1 fusion transcript and showing maturation in the neutrophil lineage. The bone marrow and the peripheral blood show large myeloblasts with abundant basophilic cytoplasm, often containing azurophilic granules. This type of AML is associated with good response to chemotherapy and high complete remission rate.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia, CBF-beta/MYH11": "An acute myeloid leukemia with monocytic and granulocytic differentiation and the presence of a characteristically abnormal eosinophil component in the bone marrow. This type of acute myeloid leukemia has a favorable prognosis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute myeloid leukemia, inv(16)(p13;q22)": "Acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of abnormal bone marrow eosinophils and the characteristic cytogenetic abnormality inv(16)(p13.1q22) which results in the expression of the fusion protein CBFB-MYH11.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia, M6 type": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by a predominant immature erythroid population. There are two subtypes recognized: erythroleukemia and pure erythroid leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute myeloid leukemia, minimal differentiation": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in which the blasts do not show evidence of myeloid differentiation by morphology and conventional cytochemistry. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute myeloid leukemia, MLL": "An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(9;11)(p21.3;q23.3) and MLLT3-KMT2A fusion protein expression. Morphologically it usually has monocytic features. It may present at any age but it is more commonly seen in children. Patients may present with disseminated intravascular coagulation.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia, NOS": "Acute myeloid leukemias that do not fulfill the criteria for inclusion in the group of acute myeloid leukemias which have recurrent genetic abnormalities or myelodysplastic changes, or are therapy-related. This category includes entities classified according to the French-American-British classification scheme.", + "Acute myeloid leukemia, PML/RAR-alpha": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in which abnormal promyelocytes predominate. It is characterized by the PML-RARA fusion. There are two variants: the typical and microgranular variant. This AML is particularly sensitive to treatment with all trans-retinoic acid and has a favorable prognosis. (WHO)", + "Acute myeloid leukemia, t(15:17)(g22;q11-12)": "", + "Acute myeloid leukemia, t(16;16)(p 13;q 11)": "Acute myeloid leukemia characterized by the presence of abnormal bone marrow eosinophils and the characteristic cytogenetic abnormality t(16;16)(p13.1;q22) which results in the expression of the fusion protein CBFB-MYH11.", + "Acute myelomonocytic leukemia": "An acute leukemia characterized by the proliferation of both neutrophil and monocyte precursors. (WHO, 2001)", + "Acute myelomonocytic leukemia with abnormal eosinophils": "Acute myelomonocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of abnormal bone marrow eosinophils. It is associated with inv(16)(p13.1;q22) or t(16;16)(p13.1;q22). It has a favorable prognosis.", + "Acute myelosclerosis, NOS": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by bone marrow fibrosis without preexisting primary myelofibrosis.", + "Acute myloid leukemia, 11q23 abnormalities": "An acute myeloid leukemia associated with t(9;11)(p21.3;q23.3) and MLLT3-KMT2A fusion protein expression. Morphologically it usually has monocytic features. It may present at any age but it is more commonly seen in children. Patients may present with disseminated intravascular coagulation.", + "Acute non-lymphocytic leukemia": "A clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in the bone marrow, blood or other tissues. The classification of acute myeloid leukemias (AMLs) encompasses four major categories: 1) AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities; 2) AML with multilineage dysplasia; 3) Therapy-related AML; 4) AML not otherwise specified. The required bone marrow or peripheral blood blast percentage for the diagnosis of AML is 20% (WHO classification).", + "Acute panmyelosis with myelofibrosis": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by bone marrow fibrosis without preexisting primary myelofibrosis.", + "Acute panmyelosis, NOS": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by bone marrow fibrosis without preexisting primary myelofibrosis.", + "Acute progressive histiocytosis X": "", + "Acute promyelocytic leukaemia, PML-RAR-alpha": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in which abnormal promyelocytes predominate. It is characterized by the PML-RARA fusion. There are two variants: the typical and microgranular variant. This AML is particularly sensitive to treatment with all trans-retinoic acid and has a favorable prognosis. (WHO)", + "Acute promyelocytic leukaemia, t(15;17)(q22;q11-12)": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in which abnormal promyelocytes predominate. It is characterized by the PML-RARA fusion. There are two variants: the typical and microgranular variant. This AML is particularly sensitive to treatment with all trans-retinoic acid and has a favorable prognosis. (WHO)", + "Acute promyelocytic leukemia, NOS": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in which abnormal promyelocytes predominate. It is characterized by the PML-RARA fusion. There are two variants: the typical and microgranular variant. This AML is particularly sensitive to treatment with all trans-retinoic acid and has a favorable prognosis. (WHO)", + "Adamantinoma of long bones": "A low grade malignant neoplasm arising from the long bones. The tibia is the most frequently affected bone site. Patients present with swelling which may or may not be associated with pain. Morphologically, it is characterized by a biphasic pattern consisting of an epithelial and an osteofibrous component. The vast majority of cases recur if they are not treated with radical surgery. In a minority of cases the tumor may metastasize to other anatomic sites including lymph nodes, lungs, liver, brain, and skeleton.", + "Adamantinoma, malignant": "A low grade malignant neoplasm arising from the long bones. The tibia is the most frequently affected bone site. Patients present with swelling which may or may not be associated with pain. Morphologically, it is characterized by a biphasic pattern consisting of an epithelial and an osteofibrous component. The vast majority of cases recur if they are not treated with radical surgery. In a minority of cases the tumor may metastasize to other anatomic sites including lymph nodes, lungs, liver, brain, and skeleton.", + "Adamantinoma, NOS": "A low grade malignant neoplasm arising from the long bones. The tibia is the most frequently affected bone site. Patients present with swelling which may or may not be associated with pain. Morphologically, it is characterized by a biphasic pattern consisting of an epithelial and an osteofibrous component. The vast majority of cases recur if they are not treated with radical surgery. In a minority of cases the tumor may metastasize to other anatomic sites including lymph nodes, lungs, liver, brain, and skeleton.", + "Adenoacanthoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of focal or extensive transformation of malignant glandular cells to squamous epithelial cells.", + "Adenoameloblastoma": "A benign, slow growing neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. The vast majority of cases are intraosseous and most often grow in the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium which is embedded in a connective tissue stroma. Local excision is curative and recurrences are very rare.", + "Adenocarcinoid tumor": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of a mixture of neuroendocrine cells with morphologic and immunohistochemical characteristics of carcinoid tumor and malignant glandular cells.", + "Adenocarcinoma admixed with neuroendocrine carcinoma": "A carcinoma that arises from the cervix and is characterized by the presence of a cervical adenocarcinoma variant and a neuroendocrine carcinoma component.", + "Adenocarcinoma combined with other types of carcinoma": "A lung adenocarcinoma consisting of a bronchioloalveolar component and an invasive adenocarcinomatous component.", + "Adenocarcinoma in a polyp, NOS": "A non-invasive or invasive adenocarcinoma arising from the neoplastic glandular cells in an adenomatous polyp.", + "Adenocarcinoma in adenomatous polyp": "A non-invasive or invasive adenocarcinoma arising from the neoplastic glandular cells in an adenomatous polyp.", + "Adenocarcinoma in adenomatous polyposis coli": "Adenocarcinomas developing in colorectal adenomas in patients with a history of adenomatous polyposis coli. The mean age of development of adenocarcinoma is about 40 years.", + "Adenocarcinoma in multiple adenomatous polyps": "Adenocarcinomas developing in gastrointestinal tract adenomas in patients with multiple adenomatous polyps.", + "Adenocarcinoma in polypoid adenoma": "A non-invasive or invasive adenocarcinoma arising from the neoplastic glandular cells in an adenomatous polyp.", + "Adenocarcinoma in situ in a polyp, NOS": "An adenocarcinoma arising in a polyp.", + "Adenocarcinoma in situ in adenomatous polyp": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma arising from the neoplastic glandular cells in an adenomatous polyp.", + "Adenocarcinoma in situ in polypoid adenoma": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma arising from the neoplastic glandular cells in an adenomatous polyp.", + "Adenocarcinoma in situ in tubular adenoma": "An intraepithelial adenocarcinoma arising from a tubular adenoma.", + "Adenocarcinoma in situ in tubulovillous adenoma": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma arising from a tubulovillous adenoma.", + "Adenocarcinoma in situ in villous adenoma": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma arising from a villous adenoma.", + "Adenocarcinoma in situ, mucinous": "A very rare lung adenocarcinoma in situ variant characterized by the presence of tall columnar cells with basal nuclei and abundant cytoplasmic mucin.", + "Adenocarcinoma in situ, non-mucinous": "Lung adenocarcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of type II pneumocyte and/or Clara cell differentiation. Almost all cases of lung adenocarcinoma in situ are non-mucinous.", + "Adenocarcinoma in situ, NOS": "A lesion in which the normally situated glands are partially or completely replaced by atypical cells with malignant characteristics.", + "Adenocarcinoma in tubolovillous adenoma": "A non-invasive or invasive adenocarcinoma arising from a tubulovillous adenoma.", + "Adenocarcinoma in tubular adenoma": "An adenocarcinoma arising from a tubular adenoma.", + "Adenocarcinoma in villous adenoma": "A non-invasive or invasive adenocarcinoma arising from a villous adenoma.", + "Adenocarcinoma of anal ducts": "An anal adenocarcinoma arising from the epithelium of the anal glands. The overlying anal mucosa does not show evidence of neoplastic changes.", + "Adenocarcinoma of anal glands": "An anal adenocarcinoma arising from the epithelium of the anal glands. The overlying anal mucosa does not show evidence of neoplastic changes.", + "Adenocarcinoma of rete ovarii": "An exceptionally rare adenocarcinoma that arises from the rete ovarii.", + "Adenocarcinoma with apocrine metaplasia": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by focal or extensive transformation of the malignant glandular cells to cells with abundant, usually granular eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Adenocarcinoma with cartilaginous and osseous metaplasia": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by focal or extensive cartilage and/or bone formation.", + "Adenocarcinoma with cartilaginous metaplasia": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of cartilaginous metaplasia.", + "Adenocarcinoma with mixed subtypes": "A lung adenocarcinoma consisting of a bronchioloalveolar component and an invasive adenocarcinomatous component.", + "Adenocarcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of focal or extensive neurosecretory cell differentiation with the formation of organoid patterns.", + "Adenocarcinoma with osseous metaplasia": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of osseous metaplasia.", + "Adenocarcinoma with spindle cell metaplasia": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by focal or extensive transformation of the malignant glandular cells to spindle-shaped cells.", + "Adenocarcinoma with squamous metaplasia": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of focal or extensive transformation of malignant glandular cells to squamous epithelial cells.", + "Adenocarcinoma, cribriform comedo-type": "", + "Adenocarcinoma, cylindroid": "A malignant tumor arising from the epithelial cells. Microscopically, the neoplastic epithelial cells form cylindrical spatial configurations (cribriform or classic type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), cordlike structures (tubular type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), or solid structures (basaloid variant of adenoid cystic carcinoma). Adenoid cystic carcinomas mostly occur in the salivary glands. Other primary sites of involvement include the lacrimal gland, the larynx, and the lungs. Adenoid cystic carcinomas spread along nerve sheaths, resulting in severe pain, and they tend to recur. Lymph node metastases are unusual; hematogenous tumor spread is characteristic.", + "Adenocarcinoma, diffuse type": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a diffuse cellular infiltrate which is composed of poorly cohesive cells with minimal or no glandular formations. Representative example is the gastric diffuse adenocarcinoma.", + "Adenocarcinoma, endocervical type": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelium resembling the endocervical epithelium.", + "Adenocarcinoma, intestinal type": "An adenocarcinoma arising from epithelium which has undergone intestinal metaplasia. Representative examples include gastric, gallbladder, and ampulla of Vater intestinal type adenocarcinomas.", + "Adenocarcinoma, metastatic, NOS": "An adenocarcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.", + "Adenocarcinoma, NOS": "A common cancer characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells. Morphologically, adenocarcinomas are classified according to the growth pattern (e.g., papillary, alveolar) or according to the secreting product (e.g., mucinous, serous). Representative examples of adenocarcinoma are ductal and lobular breast carcinoma, lung adenocarcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma (hepatoma), colon adenocarcinoma, and prostate adenocarcinoma.", + "Adenocarcinoma, pancreatobiliary type": "", + "Adenocystic carcinoma": "A malignant tumor arising from the epithelial cells. Microscopically, the neoplastic epithelial cells form cylindrical spatial configurations (cribriform or classic type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), cordlike structures (tubular type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), or solid structures (basaloid variant of adenoid cystic carcinoma). Adenoid cystic carcinomas mostly occur in the salivary glands. Other primary sites of involvement include the lacrimal gland, the larynx, and the lungs. Adenoid cystic carcinomas spread along nerve sheaths, resulting in severe pain, and they tend to recur. Lymph node metastases are unusual; hematogenous tumor spread is characteristic.", + "Adenofibroma, NOS": "A benign or borderline neoplasm characterized by the presence of connective tissue stroma and epithelial structures. It occurs in the ovary, fallopian tube, uterine corpus, and cervix.", + "Adenoid basal carcinoma": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma morphologically characterized by the presence of thin strands of basaloid cells forming a reticulate pattern.", + "Adenoid cystic carcinoma": "A malignant tumor arising from the epithelial cells. Microscopically, the neoplastic epithelial cells form cylindrical spatial configurations (cribriform or classic type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), cordlike structures (tubular type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), or solid structures (basaloid variant of adenoid cystic carcinoma). Adenoid cystic carcinomas mostly occur in the salivary glands. Other primary sites of involvement include the lacrimal gland, the larynx, and the lungs. Adenoid cystic carcinomas spread along nerve sheaths, resulting in severe pain, and they tend to recur. Lymph node metastases are unusual; hematogenous tumor spread is characteristic.", + "Adenolipoma": "An adenoma in which the neoplastic epithelial cells are admixed with adipose tissue cells.", + "Adenolymphoma": "An adenoma characterized by an oncocytic, often papillary, epithelial component, dense lymphoid stroma, and cystic spaces. It occurs primarily in the parotid gland, and is the second most common benign parotid salivary gland tumor. A strong association with smoking has been reported. It typically presents as a painless swelling in the lower portion of the parotid gland.", + "Adenoma of nipple": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the nipple. Signs and symptoms include serous or sanguineous nipple discharge and nipple erosion. It is characterized by the presence of aggregates of small tubules replacing the nipple stroma. The tubules are lined by epithelial and myoepithelial cells.", + "Adenoma, NOS": "A neoplasm arising from the epithelium. It may be encapsulated or non-encapsulated but non-invasive. The neoplastic epithelial cells may or may not display cellular atypia or dysplasia. In the gastrointestinal tract, when dysplasia becomes severe it is sometimes called carcinoma in situ. Representative examples are pituitary gland adenoma, follicular adenoma of the thyroid gland, and adenomas (or adenomatous polyps) of the gastrointestinal tract.", + "Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor": "A benign, slow growing neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. The vast majority of cases are intraosseous and most often grow in the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium which is embedded in a connective tissue stroma. Local excision is curative and recurrences are very rare.", + "Adenomatoid tumor, NOS": "A benign neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the formation of glandular and tubular patterns. It can occur in several anatomic sites including the pleura, peritoneum, and epididymis.", + "Adenomatosis, NOS": "", + "Adenomatous polyp, NOS": "A polypoid neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium. There is proliferation of glandular cells which may display dysplastic cytologic features. Representative examples include the adenomatous polyps of the colon and rectum.", + "Adenomatous polyposis coli": "An autosomal dominant disorder, characterized by the presence of multiple adenomas in the colon and rectum. It is caused by a germline mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) gene which is located on the long arm of chromosome 5. The adenomas are most often tubular, and they have the tendency to progress to adenocarcinoma. They can occur throughout the colon, but they tend to concentrate in the rectum and sigmoid colon. The colorectal adenomas are detected during endoscopic examination between the age of 10 and 20 years. The adenomas increase in size and numbers with age, and there is usually progression of one or more adenomas to adenocarcinoma. The mean age of development of adenocarcinoma is about 40 years. Signs include rectal bleeding and mucousy diarrhea.", + "Adenomyoepithelioma": "", + "Adenomyoepithelioma with carcinoma": "", + "Adenomyoma": "A benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of a glandular and a mesenchymal (fibromyomatous) component. It occurs in the uterine corpus and the cervix. A variant of adenomyoma associated with glandular architectural complexity is called atypical polypoid adenomyoma. Simple polypectomy is usually curative. Atypical polypoid adenomyoma may recur following polypectomy.", + "Adenosarcoma": "A low grade malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of a benign epithelial component (tubular and cleft-like glands) and a low grade sarcomatous component that contains varying amounts of fibrous and smooth muscle tissues. In a minority of cases, the sarcomatous component contains heterologous elements including striated muscle, cartilage, and fat. It occurs in the uterine corpus, ovary, fallopian tube, cervix, and vagina. It may recur and in a minority of cases may metastasize to distant anatomic sites.", + "Adenosquamous carcinoma": "An invasive carcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells and malignant squamous cells.", + "Adnexal carcinoma": "A carcinoma arising from the sebaceous glands, sweat glands, or the hair follicles. Representative examples include sebaceous carcinoma, apocrine carcinoma, eccrine carcinoma, and pilomatrical carcinoma.", + "Adnexal tumor, benign": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sebaceous or sweat glands. Representative examples include sebaceous adenoma, tubular apocrine adenoma, and hidradenoma.", + "Adrenal cortical adenocarcinoma": "A rare, usually large (greater than 5cm), malignant epithelial tumor arising from the adrenal cortical cells. Symptoms are usually related to the excessive production of hormones, and include Cushing's syndrome and virilism in women. Common sites of metastasis include liver, lung, bone, and retroperitoneal lymph nodes. Advanced radiologic procedures have enabled the detection of small tumors, resulting in the improvement of the 5-year survival.", + "Adrenal cortical adenoma, clear cell": "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of neoplastic clear cells containing intracytoplasmic lipid droplets.", + "Adrenal cortical adenoma, compact cell": "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of neoplastic compact cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Adrenal cortical adenoma, glomerulosa cell": "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of neoplastic cells with cytologic features of glomerulosa cells.", + "Adrenal cortical adenoma, mixed cell": "An adenoma of the adrenal cortex composed of a mixed neoplastic cellular population, including varying numbers of neoplastic clear and compact cells.", + "Adrenal cortical adenoma, NOS": "A benign neoplasm that can arise from any of the adrenal cortical layers. It can be associated with the overproduction of glucocorticoids (Cushing's syndrome), androgenic or estrogenic steroids (adrenogenital syndrome), or mineralocorticoids (Conn's syndrome). (Sternberg Diagnostic Surgical Pathology, 3rd ed.)", + "Adrenal cortical adenoma, pigmented": "A usually functioning adenoma of the adrenal cortex. Grossly, it has a dark brown appearance and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells containing abundant intracytoplasmic lipofuscin. It may be associated with Cushing syndrome.", + "Adrenal cortical carcinoma": "A rare, usually large (greater than 5cm), malignant epithelial tumor arising from the adrenal cortical cells. Symptoms are usually related to the excessive production of hormones, and include Cushing's syndrome and virilism in women. Common sites of metastasis include liver, lung, bone, and retroperitoneal lymph nodes. Advanced radiologic procedures have enabled the detection of small tumors, resulting in the improvement of the 5-year survival.", + "Adrenal cortical tumor, benign": "A non-metastasizing neoplasm arising from the adrenal cortex.", + "Adrenal cortical tumor, malignant": "A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the adrenal cortex.", + "Adrenal cortical tumor, NOS": "A benign or malignant (primary or metastatic) neoplasm affecting the adrenal cortex.", + "Adrenal medullary paraganglioma": "A benign or malignant neuroendocrine neoplasm of the sympathetic nervous system that secretes catecholamines. It arises from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla. Clinical presentation includes headaches, palpitations, chest and abdominal pain, hypertension, fever, and tremor. Microscopically, a characteristic nesting (zellballen) growth pattern is usually seen. Other growth patterns including trabecular pattern may also be present.", + "Adrenal medullary paraganglioma, malignant": "A pheochromocytoma that metastasizes to other anatomic sites. Common sites of metastasis include lymph nodes, bones, liver, and lung. Morphologic features associated with malignant pheochromocytomas include: atypical mitotic figures, capsular and vascular invasion, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic activity.", + "Adrenal rest tumor": "A benign, testicular or ovarian tumor, derived from adrenal embryonic rest cells. It is composed of hyperplastic adrenal cortical tissue, and it is associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia.", + "Adult cystic teratoma": "Adult Cystic Teratoma", + "Adult granulosa cell tumor": "A granulosa cell tumor occurring in the ovary and rarely in the testis. It is composed of granulosa cells in an often fibrothecomatous stroma. The neoplastic cells may form various patterns including the microfollicular, which is characterized by the presence of Call-Exner bodies, macrofollicular, insular, trabecular, and diffuse pattern. In females, it affects middle aged to post-menopausal women. Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, hemoperitoneum, and ascites. Estrogenic and rarely androgenic manifestations may be present. The vast majority of cases present as stage I tumors; however, all tumors have a potential for aggressive clinical course. In males, it is reported in the age range of 16-76 years and the average age at presentation is 44 years. A minority of patients have gynecomastia. Metastases have been reported in a minority of patients.", + "Adult rhabdomyoma": "", + "Adult T-cell leukemia": "A peripheral (mature) T-cell neoplasm linked to the human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1). Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is endemic in several regions of the world, in particular Japan, the Caribbean, and parts of Central Africa.", + "Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (HTLV-1 positive) (includes all variants)": "A peripheral (mature) T-cell neoplasm linked to the human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1). Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is endemic in several regions of the world, in particular Japan, the Caribbean, and parts of Central Africa.", + "Adult T-cell lymphoma": "A peripheral (mature) T-cell neoplasm linked to the human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1). Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is endemic in several regions of the world, in particular Japan, the Caribbean, and parts of Central Africa.", + "Adult T-cell lymphoma/leukemia": "A peripheral (mature) T-cell neoplasm linked to the human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1). Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is endemic in several regions of the world, in particular Japan, the Caribbean, and parts of Central Africa.", + "Adult teratoma, NOS": "Adult Teratoma", + "Aggressive angiomyxoma": "A locally infiltrating, non-metastasizing angiomyxoma arising from the pelviperineal region. It may recur following resection", + "Aggressive digital papillary adenoma": "", + "Aggressive fibromatosis": "An insidious, locally aggressive, poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern. It lacks metastatic potential.", + "Aggressive NK-cell leukaemia": "A rare, highly aggressive, Epstein-Barr virus-associated leukemia, also known as aggressive NK-cell leukemia/lymphoma; it may represent the leukemic counterpart of nasal type extranodal NK/T-cell lymphomas. It affects primarily teenagers and young adults. It is characterized by the systemic proliferation of NK cells in the peripheral blood, bone marrow, liver, and spleen.", + "Aggressive osteoblastoma": "An osteoblastoma characterized by the presence of prominent epithelioid osteoblasts and recurrences.", + "Aggressive systemic mastocytosis": "An aggressive and progressive mast cell neoplasm characterized by systemic infiltration of internal organs by aggregates of neoplastic mast cells. There is no evidence of mast cell leukemia or clonal hematologic malignancy. Clinical symptoms include hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, portal hypertension, malabsorption syndrome, and pathologic fractures.", + "Agnogenic myeloid metaplasia": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, proliferation of atypical megakaryocytes and granulocytes in the bone marrow, anemia, splenomegaly, and extramedullary hematopoiesis. (WHO, 2001)", + "AIN III": "Anal canal or perianal skin intraepithelial neoplasia with severe dysplasia.", + "Aleukemic granulocytic leukemia": "", + "Aleukemic leukemia, NOS": "A leukemia characterized by the absence of leukemic cells in the peripheral blood.", + "Aleukemic lymphatic leukemia": "Aleukemic Lymphoid Leukemia", + "Aleukemic lymphocytic leukemia": "Aleukemic Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia", + "Aleukemic lymphoid leukemia": "Aleukemic Lymphoid Leukemia", + "Aleukemic monocytic leukemia": "", + "Aleukemic myelogenous leukemia": "", + "Aleukemic myeloid leukemia": "", + "ALK positive large B-cell lymphoma": "A usually aggressive large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of monomorphic immunoblast-like neoplastic B-lymphocytes in a sinusoidal growth pattern. The neoplastic B-lymphocytes express the ALK kinase but they lack the 2;5 translocation.", + "Alpha cell tumor, malignant": "A glucagon-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the alpha cells of the pancreas. It may be associated with necrolytic erythema migrans, diarrhea, diabetes, glossitis, weight loss, malabsorption, and anemia. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Alpha cell tumor, NOS": "", + "Alpha heavy chain disease": "A clonal disorder, also known as immunoproliferative small intestinal disease or Mediterranean lymphoma, characterised by the secretion of a defective alpha heavy chain. It predominantly affects young people in the Mediterranean region. It involves the small intestine, and patients usually present with malabsorption syndrome, abdominal pain, weight loss, and fever. There is extensive villous atrophy of the small intestinal mucosa, which is heavily infiltrated by small lymphocytes and plasma cells. The small intestinal morphologic changes are consistent with a mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma (MALT lymphoma).", + "Alveolar adenocarcinoma": "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous.", + "Alveolar adenoma": "A benign, well circumscribed lung neoplasm morphologically characterized by the presence of cystic spaces resembling alveoli, lined by a simple cuboidal epithelium. The cystic spaces are surrounded by a spindle cell stroma which may show myxoid changes. It is a solitary, usually peripheral lung lesion. Patients are usually asymptomatic and its discovery is an incidental finding during chest X-ray examination. Surgical excision is curative.", + "Alveolar carcinoma": "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous.", + "Alveolar cell carcinoma": "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous.", + "Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma": "A rapidly growing malignant mesenchymal neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of round cells with myoblastic differentiation and a fibrovascular stroma resembling an alveolar growth pattern. The tumor usually presents in the extremities.", + "Alveolar soft part sarcoma": "A rare malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of large epithelioid cells with abundant cytoplasm forming nests and pseudoalveolar structures. The groups of the epithelioid cells are separated by thin-walled sinusoidal spaces. It occurs most often in adolescents and young adults. In adults the most common sites of involvement are the extremities, and in infants and children, the head and neck. It usually presents as a slowly growing mass and it frequently metastasizes to other anatomic sites. The most common sites of metastasis are the lungs, bone, and brain.", + "Amelanotic melanoma": "A melanoma characterized by the complete absence of melanin pigment in the melanoma cells. It occurs more frequently on the face and it is often associated with desmoplastic reaction.", + "Ameloblastic carcinoma": "A rare, cytologically malignant ameloblastoma that may metastasize.", + "Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma": "A rare benign neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a fibromyxoid stroma, epithelial component, dentin, and enamel. Recurrences are rare.", + "Ameloblastic fibro-odontosarcoma": "", + "Ameloblastic fibrodentinoma": "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually arises from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of an epithelial component, fibromyxoid stroma, and dentin formation. It is treated with enucleation and curettage. Recurrences may occur.", + "Ameloblastic fibrodentinosarcoma": "", + "Ameloblastic fibroma": "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually arises from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of an epithelial component and fibromyxoid stroma. It may recur and rarely shows malignant transformation to ameloblastic fibrosarcoma. It is treated with enucleation and curettage.", + "Ameloblastic fibrosarcoma": "A locally aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from odontogenic tissue. It occurs in the mandible and less often in the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant connective tissue component and a benign epithelial component. The frequency of distal metastases is low.", + "Ameloblastic odontosarcoma": "", + "Ameloblastic sarcoma": "A locally aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from odontogenic tissue. It occurs in the mandible and less often in the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant connective tissue component and a benign epithelial component. The frequency of distal metastases is low.", + "Ameloblastoma, malignant": "A rare, well differentiated, cytologically benign ameloblastoma which paradoxically metastasizes.", + "Ameloblastoma, NOS": "The most common odontogenic tumor, arising from the epithelial component of the embryonic tooth and usually affecting the molar-ramus region of the mandible or maxilla. Although most ameloblastomas are morphologically and clinically benign, they may cause extensive local destruction, recur, or metastasize.", + "AML M6": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by a predominant immature erythroid population. There are two subtypes recognized: erythroleukemia and pure erythroid leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Anal intraepithelial neoplasia, grade III": "Anal canal or perianal skin intraepithelial neoplasia with severe dysplasia.", + "Anal intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade": "", + "Anaplastic astrocytoma, IDH-mutant": "Anaplastic astrocytoma carrying IDH mutations.", + "Anaplastic astrocytoma, IDH-wildtype": "Anaplastic astrocytoma lacking mutations in IDH1 or IDH2 genes.", + "Anaplastic large B-cell lymphoma": "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma variant characterized by the presence of large round, oval, or polygonal cells with bizarre pleomorphic nuclei resembling Hodgkin or Reed-Sternberg cells. It is unrelated to anaplastic large cell lymphoma which is a T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma.", + "Anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK negative": "A T-cell peripheral lymphoma morphologically indistinguishable from anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK-positive. It is characterized by the absence of the translocation involving the ALK gene and lacks expression of ALK fusion protein.", + "Anaplastic large cell lymphoma, ALK positive": "A T-cell peripheral lymphoma composed of usually large, pleomorphic, CD30 positive T-lymphocytes with abundant cytoplasm characterized by the presence of a translocation involving the ALK gene and expression of ALK fusion protein. Most patients present with peripheral and/or abdominal lymphadenopathy, and often have advanced disease and extranodal involvement.", + "Anaplastic large cell lymphoma, CD30+": "A peripheral (mature) T-cell lymphoma, consisting of usually large anaplastic, CD30 positive cells. The majority of cases are positive for the anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALK) protein. The most frequently seen genetic alteration is a t(2;5) translocation. Majority of patients present with advanced disease. The most important prognostic indicator is ALK positivity, which has been associated with a favorable prognosis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Anaplastic large cell lymphoma, NOS": "A peripheral (mature) T-cell lymphoma, consisting of usually large anaplastic, CD30 positive cells. The majority of cases are positive for the anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALK) protein. The most frequently seen genetic alteration is a t(2;5) translocation. Majority of patients present with advanced disease. The most important prognostic indicator is ALK positivity, which has been associated with a favorable prognosis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Anaplastic large cell lymphoma, T cell and Null cell type": "", + "Anaplastic medulloblastoma": "A medulloblastoma characterized by marked nuclear pleomorphism, and high mitotic activity.", + "Anaplastic oligoastrocytoma": "An oligoastrocytoma characterized by the presence of increased cellularity, nuclear atypia, pleomorphism, and high mitotic activity.", + "Anaplastic oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant and 1p/19q-codeleted": "An anaplastic oligodendroglioma carrying IDH gene family mutation and combined whole-arm losses of 1p and 19q (1p/19q codeletion).", + "Anaplastic pleomorphic xanthroastrocytoma": "A WHO grade III pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma characterized by the presence of five or more mitoses per 10 high-power fields. Necrosis may be present. Patients have shorter survival rates when compared to those with WHO grade II pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma.", + "Ancient schwannoma": "A schwannoma that is characterized by degenerative changes such as hyalinization, hemorrhage, calcification and cystic change.", + "Androblastoma, benign": "A Sertoli cell tumor of the testis or the ovary which remains localized and does not metastasize to another anatomic site.", + "Androblastoma, malignant": "A Sertoli cell tumor that arises from the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by nuclear pleomorphism, increased mitotic activity and necrotic changes. Metastases may be present at diagnosis.", + "Androblastoma, NOS": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. In males, the presenting symptom is a slow growing testicular mass. Most cases follow a benign clinical course. In females it may present with estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "Angioblastic meningioma": "", + "Angioblastoma": "A WHO grade I tumor of uncertain histogenesis which is composed of stromal cells and abundant capillaries. Approximately 25% of hemangioblastomas are associated with Von Hippel-Lindau disease, a disease inherited through an autosomal dominant trait and characterized by the development of hemangioblastomas of the central nervous system and retina, clear cell renal carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, and pancreatic and inner ear tumors. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Angiocentric glioma": "A WHO grade I, slow-growing brain neoplasm of children and young adults, associated with epilepsy. Morphologically it is characterized by an angiocentric pattern, monomorphic cellular infiltrate, and ependymal differentiation.", + "Angiocentric immunoproliferative lesion": "A neoplastic lymphoproliferative process characterized by an angiocentric arrangement of the tumor cells which is associated with angiodestruction. It includes lymphomatoid granulomatosis which is a lymphoproliferative lesion derived from mature B-lymphocytes and cases of extranodal NK/T-cell lymphomas of nasal type.", + "Angiocentric T-cell lymphoma": "An aggressive, predominantly extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. It is characterized by an often angiocentric and angiodestructive cellular infiltrate composed of EBV positive NK/T cells. The nasal cavity is the most common site of involvement. Patients often present with midfacial destructive lesions (lethal midline granuloma). The disease may disseminate rapidly to various anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal tract, skin, testis, and cervical lymph nodes. It is also known as angiocentric T-cell lymphoma. The term \"polymorphic reticulosis\" has been widely used to describe the morphologic changes seen in this type of lymphoma. However, the latter term may also apply to lymphomatoid granulomatosis, which is an angiocentric and angiodestructive EBV positive B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder.", + "Angioendothelioma": "A vascular proliferation characterized by the presence of prominent endothelial cells and the formation of vascular channels. Hemangioendotheliomas may display borderline or low grade characteristics.", + "Angioendotheliomatosis": "A rare extranodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, characterized by the presence of lymphoma cells exclusively in the lumina of small vessels, particularly capillaries. This is an extremely aggressive lymphoma which responds poorly to chemotherapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Angiofibroma, NOS": "A morphologic variant of fibroma characterized by the presence of numerous dilated vascular channels.", + "Angioimmunoblastic lymphadenopathy": "A peripheral T-cell lymphoma of mature T follicular helper (TFH) cells characterized by systemic disease and a polymorphous infiltrate involving lymph nodes, with a prominent proliferation of high endothelial venules and follicular dendritic cells. EBV-positive cells are nearly always present. It is a clinically aggressive lymphoma and seen mainly in older adults. (WHO 2017)", + "Angioimmunoblastic lymphoma": "A peripheral T-cell lymphoma of mature T follicular helper (TFH) cells characterized by systemic disease and a polymorphous infiltrate involving lymph nodes, with a prominent proliferation of high endothelial venules and follicular dendritic cells. EBV-positive cells are nearly always present. It is a clinically aggressive lymphoma and seen mainly in older adults. (WHO 2017)", + "Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma": "A peripheral T-cell lymphoma of mature T follicular helper (TFH) cells characterized by systemic disease and a polymorphous infiltrate involving lymph nodes, with a prominent proliferation of high endothelial venules and follicular dendritic cells. EBV-positive cells are nearly always present. It is a clinically aggressive lymphoma and seen mainly in older adults. (WHO 2017)", + "Angiokeratoma": "A vascular lesion in the papillary dermis resulting from ectasia of pre-existing vessels. It is associated with secondary proliferative changes in the overlying epidermis (hyperkeratosis). It can present with widespread lesions (angiokeratoma corporis diffusum, often associated with inborn errors of metabolism) or as a localized lesion (angiokeratoma of Fordyce, angiokeratoma circumscriptum, and angiokeratoma of Mibelli).", + "Angioleiomyoma": "A benign, slow-growing neoplasm that arises from the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. It is characterized by the presence of well-differentiated smooth muscle cells which are arranged around numerous vessels.", + "Angiolipoma, NOS": "A lipoma with prominent vascularity. The vascular tissue is more abundant at the periphery of the tumor and contains fibrin thrombi. It occurs more frequently in younger individuals as a painful subcutaneous nodule, often on the arms.", + "Angioma, NOS": "A benign vascular lesion characterized by the formation of capillary-sized or cavernous vascular channels.", + "Angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma": "A low malignant potential soft tissue neoplasm of uncertain differentiation. It typically affects young patients, presenting as a slowly growing nodular or cystic tumor mass, most often in the subcutaneous tissues of the extremities. Occasionally, patients have systemic symptoms (anemia, fever, and weight loss). This tumor has a relatively good prognosis. A minority of patients develop local recurrences. Metastases are rare.", + "Angiomatous meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of small and medium sized vessels that predominate over the meningioma cells.", + "Angiomyofibroblastoma": "A benign myofibroblastic neoplasm, usually arising in the pelviperineal region. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle to round cells, dilated thin walled vessels, and stromal edema. Most patients present with painless circumscribed masses.", + "Angiomyolipoma": "A neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation often associated with tuberous sclerosis. It is characterized by a mixture of epithelioid cells, smooth muscle, vessels, and mature adipose tissue. The kidney is the most common site of involvement. Other sites of involvement include the liver, lung, lymph nodes, and retroperitoneum. The vast majority of cases follow a benign clinical course. However, cases of metastatic angiomyolipomas with sarcomatoid features have been described.", + "Angiomyoma": "A benign, slow-growing neoplasm that arises from the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. It is characterized by the presence of well-differentiated smooth muscle cells which are arranged around numerous vessels.", + "Angiomyosarcoma": "A malignant smooth muscle neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical spindle cells and formation of vascular channels.", + "Angiomyxoma": "A benign soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle and stellate cells in a myxoid stroma.", + "Angiosarcoma": "A malignant tumor arising from the endothelial cells of the blood vessels. Microscopically, it is characterized by frequently open vascular anastomosing and branching channels. The malignant cells that line the vascular channels are spindle or epithelioid and often display hyperchromatic nuclei. Angiosarcomas most frequently occur in the skin and breast. Patients with long-standing lymphedema are at increased risk of developing angiosarcoma.", + "Angiotropic lymphoma": "A rare extranodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, characterized by the presence of lymphoma cells exclusively in the lumina of small vessels, particularly capillaries. This is an extremely aggressive lymphoma which responds poorly to chemotherapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Aortic body paraganglioma": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma that arises from paraganglia adjacent to the base of the heart and great vessels.", + "Aortic body tumor": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma that arises from paraganglia adjacent to the base of the heart and great vessels.", + "Aorticopulmonary paraganglioma": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma that arises from paraganglia adjacent to the base of the heart and great vessels.", + "Apocrine adenocarcinoma": "", + "Apocrine adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the apocrine sweat glands. Representative examples include tubular apocrine adenoma and external auditory canal ceruminous adenoma.", + "Apocrine cystadenoma": "A slow-growing, usually solitary, dome-shaped benign sweat gland adenoma, most frequently located on the eyelid. It is characterized by a cystic proliferation of apocrine glands. Surgical excision is curative.", + "Apudoma": "A tumor made up of cells with APUD properties.", + "Argentaffinoma, malignant": "", + "Argentaffinoma, NOS": "", + "Arrhenoblastoma, benign": "A Sertoli cell tumor of the testis or the ovary which remains localized and does not metastasize to another anatomic site.", + "Arrhenoblastoma, malignant": "A Sertoli cell tumor that arises from the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by nuclear pleomorphism, increased mitotic activity and necrotic changes. Metastases may be present at diagnosis.", + "Arrhenoblastoma, NOS": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. In males, the presenting symptom is a slow growing testicular mass. Most cases follow a benign clinical course. In females it may present with estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "Arteriovenous hemangioma": "A benign vascular lesion characterized by the presence of a complex network of communicating arterial and venous vascular structures.", + "Askin tumor": "A primitive neuroectodermal tumor (small round blue cell tumor) of the thorax which can involve the periosteum, thoracic wall and/or pleura though it spares the lung parenchyma.", + "Astroblastoma": "A rare glial neoplasm more commonly found in young adults. It is characterized by tumor cells with characteristics suggestive of an astrocytic origin (positive for GFAP), arranged perivascularly. The cells have broad, non-tapering processes radiating towards a central blood vessel. The biologic behavior of astroblastomas is variable, so no WHO grade has been established, yet. (Adapted from WHO.)", + "Astrocytic glioma": "A glial tumor of the brain or spinal cord showing astrocytic differentiation. It includes the following clinicopathological entities: pilocytic astrocytoma, diffuse astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, and glioblastoma.", + "Astrocytoma, anaplastic": "A diffusely infiltrating, WHO grade III astrocytoma with focal or dispersed anaplasia, and a marked proliferative potential. It may arise from a low-grade astrocytoma, but it can also be diagnosed at first biopsy, without indication of a less malignant precursor lesion. It has an intrinsic tendency for malignant progression to glioblastoma. (WHO)", + "Astrocytoma, low grade": "A low-grade (WHO grade II) astrocytic neoplasm. It is characterized by diffuse infiltration of neighboring central nervous system structures. These lesions typically affect young adults and have a tendency for progression to anaplastic astrocytoma and glioblastoma. Based on the IDH genes mutation status, diffuse astrocytomas are classified as IDH-mutant, IDH-wildtype, and not otherwise specified.", + "Astrocytoma, NOS": "A tumor of the brain or spinal cord showing astrocytic differentiation. It includes the following clinicopathological entities: pilocytic astrocytoma, diffuse astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, and subependymal giant cell astrocytoma.", + "Astroglioma": "A glial tumor of the brain or spinal cord showing astrocytic differentiation. It includes the following clinicopathological entities: pilocytic astrocytoma, diffuse astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, and glioblastoma.", + "Atypical adenoma": "An adenoma characterized by increased cellularity and nuclear atypia without evidence of vascular or capsular invasion. A representative example is thyroid gland atypical follicular adenoma.", + "Atypical carcinoid tumor": "A carcinoid tumor characterized by a high mitotic rate, often associated with the presence of necrosis and nuclear pleomorphism.", + "Atypical choroid plexus papilloma": "A choroid plexus papilloma characterized by increased mitotic activity.", + "Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia, BCR/ABL negative": "Myelogenous leukemia that is negative for Philadelphia chromosome.", + "Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia, Philadelphia chromosome (Ph1) negative": "Myelogenous leukemia that is negative for Philadelphia chromosome.", + "Atypical fibrous histiocytoma": "An intermediate cutaneous mesenchymal neoplasm of uncertain differentiation, usually affecting the actinic-damaged skin of the elderly. The tumor presents as a single cutaneous nodule which is often ulcerated. Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of highly atypical cytologic features, pleomorphism and abundant mitotic figures. The vast majority of patients have an excellent prognosis following conservative therapy. Recurrences are infrequent, and metastasis is rare.", + "Atypical fibroxanthoma": "An intermediate cutaneous mesenchymal neoplasm of uncertain differentiation, usually affecting the actinic-damaged skin of the elderly. The tumor presents as a single cutaneous nodule which is often ulcerated. Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of highly atypical cytologic features, pleomorphism and abundant mitotic figures. The vast majority of patients have an excellent prognosis following conservative therapy. Recurrences are infrequent, and metastasis is rare.", + "Atypical follicular adenoma": "An encapsulated or well-circumscribed tumor composed of well-differentiated follicular cells with well-developed or partially developed nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma and with questionable capsular or vascular invasion. That is this is a tumor indeterminate between follicular adenoma and follicular carcinoma. Tumors in which vascular invasion has been excluded by all means are called non-invasive follicular thyroid neoplasms with papillary-like nuclear features. (WHO 2017)", + "Atypical hyperplasia/Endometrioid intraepithelial neoplasm": "", + "Atypical leiomyoma": "A morphologic variant of leiomyoma characterized by the presence of pleomorphic muscle cells with bizarre hyperchromatic nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Atypical lipoma": "An intermediate, locally aggressive lipomatous neoplasm. Microscopically, the adipose tissue contains large and pleomorphic lipoblasts, and is dissected by fibrous septa containing spindle cells. It requires a wide local excision, may recur locally, but never metastasizes.", + "Atypical medullary carcinoma": "", + "Atypical meningioma": "A WHO grade II meningioma characterized by the presence of brain invasion and an increased mitotic activity, or at least three of the following morphologic features: small cells, high cellularity, prominent nucleoli, lack of architectural pattern, and necrosis.", + "Atypical polypoid adenomyoma": "An adenomyoma characterized by the presence of marked glandular architectural complexity.", + "Atypical proliferating clear cell tumor": "", + "Atypical proliferating serous tumor": "A serous cystic glandular epithelial neoplasm of low malignant potential. It is characterized by the presence of atypical or malignant glandular epithelial cells with an absence of stromal invasion.", + "Atypical proliferative endometrioid tumor": "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is often fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Atypical proliferative mucinous tumor": "", + "Atypical proliferative papillary serous tumor": "A low malignant potential cystic serous epithelial neoplasm arising from the ovary. Cases with identical morphology have been described arising from the peritoneum as well. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion.", + "Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor": "An aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the central nervous system. It is composed of cells with a large eccentric nucleus, prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm. Mutations of the INI1 gene or very rarely SMARCA4 (BRG1) gene are present. The vast majority of cases occur in childhood. Symptoms include lethargy, vomiting, cranial nerve palsy, headache, and hemiplegia.", + "B cell lymphoma, NOS": "", + "B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with hyperdiploidy": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm composed of B-lymphoblasts which contain more than 50 and usually less than 66 chromosomes. It has a favorable clinical outcome.", + "B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with hypodiploidy (Hypodiploid ALL)": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm composed of B-lymphoblasts which contain less than 46 chromosomes. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome.", + "B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with t(1;19)(q23;p13.3); E2A-PBX1 (TCF3-PBX1)": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B-lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the E2A gene on chromosome 19 and the PBX1 gene on chromosome 1.", + "B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with t(5;14)(q31;q32); IL3-IGH": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B-lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the IL3 gene on chromosome 5 and the IGH locus on chromosome 14, (q31.1;q32.3). It results in eosinophilia.", + "B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with t(9;22)(q34;q11.2); BCR-ABL1": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B-lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the BCR gene on chromosome 22 and the ABL1 gene on chromosome 9. It results in the production of the p190 kd or p210 kd fusion protein. It has an unfavorable clinical outcome.", + "B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with t(12;21)(p13;q22); TEL-AML1 (ETV6-RUNX1)": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B-lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the TEL gene on chromosome 12 and the AML1 gene on chromosome 21, (p13.2;q22.1). It results in the production of the TEL-AML1 (ETV6-RUNX1) fusion protein. It has a favorable clinical outcome.", + "B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with t(v;11q23); MLL rearranged": "A precursor lymphoid neoplasm which is composed of B-lymphoblasts and carries a translocation between the KMT2A gene at 11q23.3 and another gene partner resulting in the production of a KMT2A related fusion protein.", + "B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma, NOS": "The term refers to precursor lymphoid neoplasms which are composed of B-lymphoblasts and characterized by the absence of recurrent genetic abnormalities.", + "B-ALL": "The most frequent type of acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Approximately 75% of cases occur in children under six years of age. This is a good prognosis leukemia. In the pediatric age group the complete remission rate is approximately 95% and the disease free survival rate is 70%. Approximately 80% of children appear to be cured. In the adult age group the complete remission rate is 60-85%. (WHO, 2001)", + "B-cell lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma": "The most common type of chronic lymphoid leukemia. It comprises 90% of chronic lymphoid leukemias in the United States. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells are small, round B-lymphocytes. This type of leukemia is not considered to be curable with available therapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "B-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable, with features intermediate between diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and Burkitt lymphoma": "A high grade B-cell lymphoma with blastoid features or features between diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and Burkitt lymphoma which lacks MYC, BCL2, and BCL6 rearrangements.", + "B-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable, with features intermediate between diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and classical Hodgkin lymphoma": "A group of lymphomas displaying molecular, morphologic, immunophenotypic, and clinical overlap between classic Hodgkin lymphoma and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. This term particularly applies to mediastinal lymphomas with overlapping features of mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma and classic Hodgkin lymphoma.", + "Balloon cell melanoma": "A rare variant of melanoma with a vertical growth phase. It presents as a nodular or polypoid skin lesion. It is characterized by the presence of nodules which contain large melanoma cells with clear, foamy or finely vacuolated cytoplasm. The prognosis is similar to that of other melanomas matched for depth of invasion.", + "Balloon cell nevus": "An uncommon variant of melanocytic nevus. It presents as a small pigmented skin lesion. It is characterized by the presence of large melanocytes with clear, foamy or finely vacuolated cytoplasm. It may recur if it is not completely excised.", + "BALT lymphoma": "An extranodal marginal zone lymphoma that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the neoplastic proliferation of small B-lymphocytes, monocytoid cells and cells with plasma cell differentiation in the marginal zones of reactive lymphoid follicles. The neoplastic cells infiltrate the interfollicular areas and the bronchial epithelium forming lymphoepithelial lesions. The neoplasm is usually discovered as a mass in a chest x-ray in asymptomatic patients. When symptoms occur, they include cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain. If the lung lesions are resectable, surgery can result in prolonged remission.", + "Basal cell adenocarcinoma": "A rare adenocarcinoma of the major and minor salivary glands, originating from basaloid, myoepithelial and ductal cells. While morphologically resembling basal cell carcinomas, it is a distinct entity. The tumor is not encapsulated, may invade locally, and less frequently may metastasize. It usually occurs in older patients.", + "Basal cell adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm with a uniform, monomorphic appearance that is dominated by basal cells forming trabecular structures. It is rare, and occurs mostly on the parotid gland. The average age of patients has been reported to be 58 years. Swelling is the most constant clinical finding.", + "Basal cell carcinoma, desmoplastic type": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as a pale, indurated plaque, usually in the upper trunk or face. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of strands, cords, and columns of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Perineural invasion may be present and the basaloid cell infiltrate may extend into deeper tissues.", + "Basal cell carcinoma, fibroepithelial": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as an elevated or erythematous nodular lesion usually in the back. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of cords of basaloid cells extending from the epidermis into the dermis, creating a fenestrating pattern. It follows an indolent course.", + "Basal cell carcinoma, micronodular": "A basal cell carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of small nodules that permeate the dermis. It presents as an elevated or flat infiltrating tumor, usually in the back.", + "Basal cell carcinoma, morpheic": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as a pale, indurated plaque, usually in the upper trunk or face. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of strands, cords, and columns of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Perineural invasion may be present and the basaloid cell infiltrate may extend into deeper tissues.", + "Basal cell carcinoma, nodular": "A basal cell carcinoma of the skin that often appears as elevated nodules which may become ulcerated.", + "Basal cell carcinoma, NOS": "The most frequently seen skin cancer. It arises from basal cells of the epidermis and pilosebaceous units. Clinically it is divided into the following types: nodular, ulcerative, superficial, multicentric, erythematous, and sclerosing or morphea-like. More than 95% of these carcinomas occur in patients over 40. They develop on hair-bearing skin, most commonly on sun-exposed areas. Approximately 85% are found on the head and neck and the remaining 15% on the trunk and extremities. Basal cell carcinoma usually grows in a slow and indolent fashion. However, if untreated, the tumor may invade the subcutaneous fat, skeletal muscle and bone. Distant metastases are rare. Excision, curettage and irradiation cure most basal cell carcinomas.", + "Basal cell epithelioma": "The most frequently seen skin cancer. It arises from basal cells of the epidermis and pilosebaceous units. Clinically it is divided into the following types: nodular, ulcerative, superficial, multicentric, erythematous, and sclerosing or morphea-like. More than 95% of these carcinomas occur in patients over 40. They develop on hair-bearing skin, most commonly on sun-exposed areas. Approximately 85% are found on the head and neck and the remaining 15% on the trunk and extremities. Basal cell carcinoma usually grows in a slow and indolent fashion. However, if untreated, the tumor may invade the subcutaneous fat, skeletal muscle and bone. Distant metastases are rare. Excision, curettage and irradiation cure most basal cell carcinomas.", + "Basal cell tumor": "A neoplastic proliferation of basal cells in the epidermis (part of the skin) or other anatomic sites (most frequently the salivary glands). The basal cell neoplastic proliferation in the epidermis results in basal cell carcinomas. The basal cell neoplastic proliferation in the salivary glands can be benign, resulting in basal cell adenomas or malignant, resulting in basal cell adenocarcinomas.", + "Basaloid carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with hyperchromatic nuclei, small amount of cytoplasm, and peripheral nuclear palisading.", + "Basaloid squamous cell carcinoma": "A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of cells with hyperchromatic nuclei, scant amount of cytoplasm, and peripheral nuclear palisading.", + "Basophil adenocarcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with basic dyes.", + "Basophil adenoma": "An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with basic dyes.", + "Basophil carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with basic dyes.", + "Basosquamous carcinoma": "A basal cell carcinoma which displays squamous differentiation. The neoplastic cells have more abundant cytoplasm with more marked keratinization than typical basal cell carcinomas. It usually has a more aggressive clinical course compared to typical basal cell carcinoma, and it may produce regional or widespread metastases.", + "Bednar tumor": "A morphologic variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans characterized by the presence of melanin-pigmented dendritic cells.", + "Bellini duct carcinoma": "Also known as collecting duct carcinoma, this is a rare type of renal carcinoma. It arises from the collecting ducts of the renal medulla, and most authors suggest that this is an aggressive tumor.", + "Benign cystic nephroma": "A localized, well-circumscribed multilocular tumor lined by hobnail epithelium. It was previously classified along with pediatric cystic nephroma, as a separate entity from mixed epithelial and stromal tumors. Now it is classified within the spectrum of the mixed epithelial and stromal tumor family. Most of these tumors are benign. (WHO 2016).", + "Benign fibrous histiocytoma": "A benign neoplasm composed of fibroblastic spindle cells in a whorled storiform pattern. It is characterized by the presence of foam cells, inflammatory cells, hemosiderin deposition and stromal hemorrhage.", + "Beta cell adenoma": "An adenoma arising from the beta cells of the pancreas. It produces insulin.", + "Beta cell tumor, malignant": "An insulin-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the beta cells of the pancreas. Patients exhibit symptoms related to hypoglycemia due to inappropriate secretion of insulin. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Bile duct adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma arising from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts.", + "Bile duct adenoma": "A benign, well-demarcated polypoid neoplasm arising from the bile duct epithelium. According to the growth pattern, it is classified as tubular, papillary, or tubulopapillary. Adenomas arising from the extrahepatic bile ducts usually produce symptoms related to biliary obstruction.", + "Bile duct carcinoma": "A carcinoma arising from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts.", + "Bile duct cystadenocarcinoma": "A mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts and it is associated with an invasive carcinomatous component.", + "Bile duct cystadenoma": "An epithelial, usually multiloculated neoplasm arising from the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. It occurs predominantly in females. Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, abdominal pain, and jaundice. Morphologically, the cystic spaces are lined by columnar epithelium and contain mucinous or serous fluid.", + "Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia, grade 3": "Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of severe epithelial atypia.", + "Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade": "", + "Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade": "", + "Biliary papillomatosis": "A non-invasive, papillary epithelial neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts.", + "Biphenotypic sinonasal sarcoma": "", + "Bizarre leiomyoma": "A morphologic variant of leiomyoma characterized by the presence of pleomorphic muscle cells with bizarre hyperchromatic nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Black adenoma": "A usually functioning adenoma of the adrenal cortex. Grossly, it has a dark brown appearance and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells containing abundant intracytoplasmic lipofuscin. It may be associated with Cushing syndrome.", + "Blast cell leukemia": "A clonal (malignant) hematopoietic disorder with an acute onset, affecting the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. The malignant cells show minimal differentiation and are called blasts, either myeloid blasts (myeloblasts) or lymphoid blasts (lymphoblasts).", + "Blastic NK cell lymphoma": "A clinically aggressive neoplasm derived from the precursors of plasmacytoid dendritic cells (also called professional type I interferon-producing cells or plasmacytoid monocytes), with a high frequency of cutaneous and bone marrow involvement and leukemic dissemination. (WHO 2017)", + "Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm": "A clinically aggressive neoplasm derived from the precursors of plasmacytoid dendritic cells (also called professional type I interferon-producing cells or plasmacytoid monocytes), with a high frequency of cutaneous and bone marrow involvement and leukemic dissemination. (WHO 2017)", + "Blastoma, NOS": "A rare embryonal neoplasm affecting children. It is associated with DICER1 gene mutation. This category includes pleuropulmonary blastoma and pituitary gland blastoma.", + "Blue nevus, malignant": "A rare melanoma which develops in a pre-existing blue nevus. It occurs more frequently on the scalp, face, orbit, back, buttocks, extremities, hands, and feet.", + "Blue nevus, NOS": "An intradermal nevus characterized by the presence of benign pigmented dendritic spindle-shaped melanocytes. It most frequently occurs in the skin of the distal upper extremities, followed by the lower extremities, scalp, face, and buttocks. It usually presents as a single blue or blue-black papular lesion less than 1cm in diameter. Simple excision is usually curative.", + "Botryoid sarcoma": "A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from organs with a mucosal epithelial surface. It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules within an abundant myxoid stroma.", + "Bowen disease": "A form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ. It is a distinct clinicopathological entity and arises from the skin or the mucocutaneous junction. It affects predominantly white males in their 6-8th decades of life. Exposed and non-exposed skin sites are equally affected. UV damage and ingestion of inorganic arsenic may play a role in the development of the disease. On the skin surface, it presents as a single or multiple erythematous, scaly, keratotic patches or plaques. The clinical entity of erythroplasia of Queyrat is regarded as Bowen disease of the penis and it presents as an asymptomatic, red, circumscribed plaque. Morphologically, Bowen disease is characterized by the presence of hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis, dyskeratosis, and acanthosis. The keratotic squamous cells are atypical and display hyperchromatism and abnormal mitotic figures. The dermoepidermal basement membrane is intact. Complete surgical removal of the lesion may be curative.", + "Breast implant-associated anaplastic large cell lymphoma": "", + "Brenner tumor, borderline malignancy": "A transitional cell neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic transitional cells with atypical or malignant features without evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Brenner tumor, malignant": "A malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of an invasive malignant transitional cell component and nests of benign transitional cells in a fibrotic stroma. When the neoplasm is confined to the ovary, the prognosis is good.", + "Brenner tumor, NOS": "A usually benign tumor composed of solid and cystic nests of epithelial cells resembling transitional epithelium; it is surrounded by an abundant stromal component that is dense and fibroblastic in nature.", + "Brenner tumor, proliferating": "A transitional cell neoplasm of low malignant potential arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic transitional cells with atypical or malignant features without evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Bronchial adenoma, carcinoid": "", + "Bronchial adenoma, cylindroid": "", + "Bronchial adenoma, NOS": "A benign lung neoplasm characterized by the presence of a fibrovascular stroma lined by cuboidal to columnar cells. Patients are usually asymptomatic and it is incidentally discovered as a pulmonary nodule during chest X-ray examination. Surgical excision is curative.", + "Bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma": "An extranodal marginal zone lymphoma that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the neoplastic proliferation of small B-lymphocytes, monocytoid cells and cells with plasma cell differentiation in the marginal zones of reactive lymphoid follicles. The neoplastic cells infiltrate the interfollicular areas and the bronchial epithelium forming lymphoepithelial lesions. The neoplasm is usually discovered as a mass in a chest x-ray in asymptomatic patients. When symptoms occur, they include cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain. If the lung lesions are resectable, surgery can result in prolonged remission.", + "Bronchio-alveolar carcinoma, mixed mucinous and non-mucinous": "A rare morphologic variant of bronchiolo-alveolar lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of both mucin and non-mucin producing cells.", + "Bronchio-alveolar carcinoma, mucinous": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by tall columnar cells and mucin production.", + "Bronchiolar adenocarcinoma": "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous.", + "Bronchiolar carcinoma": "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous.", + "Bronchiolo-alveolar adenocarcinoma, NOS": "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous.", + "Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma, Clara cell": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of Clara cells and/or type II cells.", + "Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma, Clara cell and goblet cell type": "A rare morphologic variant of bronchiolo-alveolar lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of both mucin and non-mucin producing cells.", + "Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma, goblet cell type": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by tall columnar cells and mucin production.", + "Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma, indeterminate type": "A rare morphologic variant of bronchiolo-alveolar lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of both mucin and non-mucin producing cells.", + "Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma, non-mucinous": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of Clara cells and/or type II cells.", + "Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma, NOS": "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous.", + "Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma, type II pneumocyte and goblet cell type": "A rare morphologic variant of bronchiolo-alveolar lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of both mucin and non-mucin producing cells.", + "Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma; type II pneumocyte": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of Clara cells and/or type II cells.", + "Brooke tumor": "A benign hair follicle neoplasm with trichoblastic differentiation. It usually presents as a solitary papular lesion It most often presents on the head and neck area, but it may develop in any anatomic site containing hair follicles. Because of its benign nature, treatment usually is not required, provided that the diagnosis has been established with certainty.", + "Brown fat tumor": "A rare benign slow growing adipose tissue tumor, characterized by the presence of polygonal brown fat cells with multivacuolated and/or granular cytoplasm. The tumor is usually painless and is most often seen in young adults.", + "Burkitt cell leukemia": "The leukemic counterpart of Burkitt's lymphoma. The characteristic Burkitt cells are seen in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This is an aggressive leukemia.", + "Burkitt lymphoma, NOS (Includes all variants)": "A highly aggressive lymphoma composed of monomorphic medium-sized B-cells with basophilic cytoplasm and numerous mitotic figures. It is often associated with the presence of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and is commonly seen in AIDS patients. Three morphologic variants are recognized: classical Burkitt lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma with plasmacytoid differentiation, and atypical Burkitt/Burkitt-like lymphoma. All cases express the MYC translocation [t(8;14)]. (WHO, 2001)", + "Burkitt tumor": "A highly aggressive lymphoma composed of monomorphic medium-sized B-cells with basophilic cytoplasm and numerous mitotic figures. It is often associated with the presence of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and is commonly seen in AIDS patients. Three morphologic variants are recognized: classical Burkitt lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma with plasmacytoid differentiation, and atypical Burkitt/Burkitt-like lymphoma. All cases express the MYC translocation [t(8;14)]. (WHO, 2001)", + "Burkitt-like lymphoma": "A morphologic variant of Burkitt lymphoma characterized by marked nuclear pleomorphism, abundant apoptotic debris, and the presence of tangible body macrophages.", + "C cell carcinoma": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from the C-cells of the thyroid gland. It is closely associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. Approximately 10% to 20% of medullary thyroid carcinomas are familial. Patients usually present with a thyroid nodule that is painless and firm. In the majority of cases nodal involvement is present at diagnosis. Surgery is the preferred treatment for both primary lesions and recurrences. This carcinoma is generally not very sensitive to radiation and almost unresponsive to chemotherapy.", + "c-ALL": "Common Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia", + "Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor": "A slow growing, locally invasive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It most often grows intraosseously in the mandible and less frequently in the maxilla. In a minority of cases it grows extraosseously in the gingiva. It is characterized by the presence of a fibrous stroma, epithelial cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, and amyloid material which is often calcified. Small tumors may be successfully treated with enucleation. Local resection is usually required for larger tumors. Recurrences have been reported in a minority of cases.", + "Calcifying epithelioma of Malherbe": "A benign adnexal neoplasm arising from hair-bearing skin surfaces, usually the head and neck and upper extremities. It usually presents as a solitary, slow-growing nodular mass. Morphologically, it displays differentiation towards the matrix and inner sheath of the normal hair follicle and the hair cortex. Complete surgical excision is usually curative. Occasionally, it may recur.", + "Calcifying nested epithelial stromal tumor": "", + "Calcifying odontogenic cyst": "A benign, intraosseous or extraosseous cystic neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a cyst lined by an ameloblastoma-like epithelium and ghost cells formation. The ghost cells may undergo calcification. It is treated with enucleation. Few recurrences have been reported for intraosseous neoplasms whereas no recurrences have been reported for extraosseous neoplasms.", + "Canalicular adenoma": "", + "Cancer": "A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.", + "Capillary hemangioma": "A common hemangioma characterized by the presence of capillary-sized vascular channels without prominent epithelioid endothelial cells.", + "Capillary lymphangioma": "", + "Carcinofibroma": "", + "Carcinoid tumor of uncertain malignant potential": "A carcinoid tumor that shows atypical characteristics and has borderline malignant potential.", + "Carcinoid tumor, argentaffin, malignant": "", + "Carcinoid tumor, argentaffin, NOS": "", + "Carcinoid tumor, NOS": "A slow growing neuroendocrine tumor, composed of uniform, round, or polygonal cells having monotonous, centrally located nuclei and small nucleoli, infrequent mitoses, and no necrosis. The tumor may show a variety of patterns, such as solid, trabecular, and acinar. Electron microscopy shows small secretory granules. Immunohistochemical studies reveal NSE, as well as chromogranin immunoreactivity. Malignant histology (cellular pleomorphism, hyperchromatic nuclei, prominent nucleoli, necrosis, and mitoses) can occasionally be seen. Such cases may have an aggressive clinical course. Gastrointestinal tract and lung are common sites of involvement.", + "Carcinoid tumor, NOS, of appendix": "", + "Carcinoid, NOS": "A slow growing neuroendocrine tumor, composed of uniform, round, or polygonal cells having monotonous, centrally located nuclei and small nucleoli, infrequent mitoses, and no necrosis. The tumor may show a variety of patterns, such as solid, trabecular, and acinar. Electron microscopy shows small secretory granules. Immunohistochemical studies reveal NSE, as well as chromogranin immunoreactivity. Malignant histology (cellular pleomorphism, hyperchromatic nuclei, prominent nucleoli, necrosis, and mitoses) can occasionally be seen. Such cases may have an aggressive clinical course. Gastrointestinal tract and lung are common sites of involvement.", + "Carcinoid, NOS, of appendix": "", + "Carcinoma in a polyp, NOS": "Carcinoma arising in a polyp.", + "Carcinoma in adenomatous polyp": "A non-invasive or invasive adenocarcinoma arising from the neoplastic glandular cells in an adenomatous polyp.", + "Carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma": "A carcinoma arising in a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma. It most often occurs in the parotid gland and less often in the submandibular gland and minor salivary gland. Patients usually present with a history of a long-standing mass which recently had undergone rapid growth. The prognosis depends on the invasiveness of the malignant component. Patients with non-invasive or minimally invasive tumors usually have a good prognosis following surgical resection. Invasive tumors are usually aggressive and are associated with recurrences and metastases.", + "Carcinoma in situ in a polyp, NOS": "An intraepithelial adenocarcinoma arising in a polyp.", + "Carcinoma in situ in adenomatous polyp": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma arising from the neoplastic glandular cells in an adenomatous polyp.", + "Carcinoma in situ, NOS": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm which is confined to the epithelial layer without evidence of further tissue invasion.", + "Carcinoma showing thymus-like differentiation": "A rare primary carcinoma of the thyroid gland, composed of groups of carcinoma cells with thymic epithelial differentiation.", + "Carcinoma showing thymus-like element": "A rare primary carcinoma of the thyroid gland, composed of groups of carcinoma cells with thymic epithelial differentiation.", + "Carcinoma simplex": "An undifferentiated malignant epithelial neoplasm which tends to infiltrate the surrounding tissues and spread to other anatomic sites.", + "Carcinoma with apocrine metaplasia": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by focal or extensive transformation of the malignant glandular cells to cells with abundant, usually granular eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Carcinoma with chondroid differentiation": "An invasive carcinoma of the breast showing differentiation towards cartilaginous structures.", + "Carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of focal or extensive neurosecretory cell differentiation with the formation of organoid patterns.", + "Carcinoma with osseous differentiation": "An invasive breast carcinoma showing differentiation towards bone structures.", + "Carcinoma with osteoclast-like giant cells": "", + "Carcinoma with other types mesenchymal differentiation": "", + "Carcinoma with productive fibrosis": "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of desmoplastic stromal reaction.", + "Carcinoma, anaplastic, NOS": "A usually aggressive malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical cells which do not display evidence of glandular, squamous, or transitional cell differentiation.", + "Carcinoma, diffuse type": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a diffuse cellular infiltrate which is composed of poorly cohesive cells with minimal or no glandular formations. Representative example is the gastric diffuse adenocarcinoma.", + "Carcinoma, intestinal type": "An adenocarcinoma arising from epithelium which has undergone intestinal metaplasia. Representative examples include gastric, gallbladder, and ampulla of Vater intestinal type adenocarcinomas.", + "Carcinoma, metastatic, NOS": "A carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites.", + "Carcinoma, NOS": "A malignant tumor arising from epithelial cells. Carcinomas that arise from glandular epithelium are called adenocarcinomas, those that arise from squamous epithelium are called squamous cell carcinomas, and those that arise from transitional epithelium are called transitional cell carcinomas. Morphologically, the malignant epithelial cells may display abnormal mitotic figures, anaplasia, and necrosis. Carcinomas are graded by the degree of cellular differentiation as well, moderately, or poorly differentiated. Carcinomas invade the surrounding tissues and tend to metastasize to other anatomic sites. Lung carcinoma, skin carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma, and prostate carcinoma are the most frequently seen carcinomas.", + "Carcinoma, undifferentiated, NOS": "A usually aggressive malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical cells which do not display evidence of glandular, squamous, or transitional cell differentiation.", + "Carcinomatosis": "Carcinoma that has spread diffusely to an anatomic site or throughout the body.", + "Carcinosarcoma, embryonal": "", + "Carcinosarcoma, NOS": "A malignant tumor composed of a mixture of carcinomatous and sarcomatous elements.", + "Carotid body paraganglioma": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia adjacent to or in the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. Most patients present with a slow growing, painless mass in the neck.", + "Carotid body tumor": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia adjacent to or in the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. Most patients present with a slow growing, painless mass in the neck.", + "Cartilaginous exostosis": "A common, benign cartiliginous neoplasm arising from the metaphysis of bone. The tumor grows on the surface of the bone; it may be pedunculated or sessile. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a cartilage cap, and a fibrous perichondrium that extends to the periosteum of the bone. In some cases, there is deletion of 8q24.1 chromosome locus.", + "CASTLE": "A rare primary carcinoma of the thyroid gland, composed of groups of carcinoma cells with thymic epithelial differentiation.", + "Cavernous hemangioma": "A hemangioma characterized by the presence of cavernous vascular spaces.", + "Cavernous lymphangioma": "A lymphangioma characterized by the presence of thin-walled cavernous lymphatic spaces.", + "Cellular angiofibroma": "A benign mesenchymal neoplasm that usually arises in the superficial soft tissues of the vulva or inguinal and scrotal regions. It is characterized by the presence of a cellular fibroblastic proliferation in an edematous to fibrous stroma containing numerous vessels.", + "Cellular blue nevus": "A blue nevus characterized by a multinodular cellular infiltrate with a dumb-bell architecture occupying the reticular dermis. The cellular infiltrate often extends into the subcutaneous tissue. The cellular infiltrate is composed of spindle-shaped melanocytes with pale cytoplasm alternating with bundles of pigmented spindle-shaped melanocytes. In occasional cases an increased mitotic activity, focal necrosis, and nuclear pleomorphism may be seen. Such cases with atypical features may have an uncertain malignant potential.", + "Cellular ependymoma": "An ependymoma which shows conspicuous cellularity without a significant increase in mitotic rate. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Cellular fibroma": "A morphologic variant of fibroma characterized by increased cellularity.", + "Cellular leiomyoma": "A morphologic variant of classic leiomyoma characterized by a dense cellular infiltrate composed of spindle or round cells with scant cytoplasm and a less obvious interlacing fascicle pattern.", + "Cellular schwannoma": "A morphologic variant of schwannoma characterized by hypercellularity, Antoni A pattern, and the absence of well-formed Verocay bodies.", + "Cementifying fibroma": "A well circumscribed lesion of the bone, most frequently arising from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of fibrous tissue and a mineralized component which may be woven bone, lamellar bone, or cementum-like material. Complete removal is recommended, since it continues to enlarge if left untreated.", + "Cemento-ossifying fibroma": "A well circumscribed lesion of the bone, most frequently arising from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of fibrous tissue and a mineralized component which may be woven bone, lamellar bone, or cementum-like material. Complete removal is recommended, since it continues to enlarge if left untreated.", + "Cementoblastoma, benign": "A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the jaw. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The cell of origin is the cementoblast.", + "Cementoma, NOS": "A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the jaw. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The cell of origin is the cementoblast.", + "Central neuroblastoma": "A neuroblastic tumor characterized by the presence of neuroblastic cells, the absence of ganglion cells, and the absence of a prominent Schwannian stroma formation.", + "Central neurocytoma": "An intraventricular neuronal neoplasm composed of uniform round cells with neuronal differentiation. It is typically located in the lateral ventricles in the region of the foramen of Monro. It generally affects young adults and has a favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Central odontogenic fibroma": "A rare, benign, intraosseous neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues in the mandible and maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium which is embedded in a fibrous stroma. Local enucleation of the tumor is curative.", + "Central osteosarcoma": "A high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm producing osteoid. The tumor arises from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and most commonly, the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most common clinical presentation. It usually has an aggressive growth and may metastasize through the hematogenous route. The lung is the most frequent site of metastasis.", + "Central primitive neuroectodermal tumor, NOS": "A term that refers to central nervous system embryonal tumors which are not fully characterized. This category includes tumors previously designated as central nervous system primitive neuroectodermal tumors.", + "Cerebellar liponeurocytoma": "A rare, WHO grade II cerebellar neoplasm which shows consistent neuronal, variable astrocytic and focal lipomatous differentiation. It occurs in adults, has a low proliferative potential and usually has a favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Cerebellar sarcoma, NOS": "An obsolete term referring to desmoplastic medulloblastoma.", + "Ceruminous adenocarcinoma": "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma derived from ceruminous glands in the external auditory canal.", + "Ceruminous adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm derived from ceruminous glands in the external auditory canal. It presents as a grey mass covered by skin. It is characterized by a proliferation of glands composed of cells with abundant eosinophilic and granular cytoplasm.", + "Ceruminous carcinoma": "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma derived from ceruminous glands in the external auditory canal.", + "Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, grade III": "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0). Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)", + "Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade": "Squamous or glandular cervical intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of mild dysplastic changes.", + "Chemodectoma": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia adjacent to or in the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. Most patients present with a slow growing, painless mass in the neck.", + "Chief cell adenoma": "A parathyroid gland adenoma composed predominantly of neoplastic chief cells. These cells have either slightly eosinophilic or vacuolated cytoplasm, and round nuclei.", + "Chloroma": "A tumor mass composed of myeloblasts or immature myeloid cells. It occurs in extramedullary sites or the bone. (WHO, 2001)", + "Cholangiocarcinoma": "A carcinoma that arises from the intrahepatic bile ducts, the hepatic ducts, or the common bile duct distal to the insertion of the cystic duct. The vast majority of tumors are adenocarcinomas.", + "Cholangioma": "A benign, well-demarcated polypoid neoplasm arising from the bile duct epithelium. According to the growth pattern, it is classified as tubular, papillary, or tubulopapillary. Adenomas arising from the extrahepatic bile ducts usually produce symptoms related to biliary obstruction.", + "Chondroblastic osteosarcoma": "An osteosarcoma characterised by the presence of atypical cartilage of variable cellularity. It may or may not be associated with the presence of myxoid areas or focal bone formation.", + "Chondroblastoma, malignant": "", + "Chondroblastoma, NOS": "A benign, chondroid-producing, well-circumscribed, lytic neoplasm usually arising from the epiphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of chondroblasts, osteoclast-like giant cells, chondroid formation, calcification, and mitotic activity. In aggressive cases, there is rearrangement of the 8q21 chromosome band. It occurs most frequently in children and young adults and rarely metastasizes.", + "Chondroid chordoma": "A slow-growing malignant bone tumor arising from the remnants of the notochord and occurring in the base of the skull. The tumor is characterized by a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, and the presence of physaliphorous cells and cartilage.", + "Chondroid lipoma": "A rare benign adipose tissue neoplasm characterized by nests and cord of abundant univacuolated and multivacuolated lipoblasts and mature adipocytes in a prominent myxoid to hyalinized chondroid matrix admix. It predominantly affects females.", + "Chondroid syringoma": "A rare, benign, slow-growing and painless neoplasm of sweat glands. It usually arises in the head and neck. It is characterized by the presence of a mesenchymal chondroid stroma, fibrosis, and epithelial structures.", + "Chondroma, NOS": "A benign well circumscribed neoplasm of hyaline cartilage arising from bone or soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes.", + "Chondromatosis, NOS": "A multifocal benign neoplasm arising from bone or soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes and is composed of hyaline cartilage.", + "Chondromatous giant cell tumor": "A benign, chondroid-producing, well-circumscribed, lytic neoplasm usually arising from the epiphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of chondroblasts, osteoclast-like giant cells, chondroid formation, calcification, and mitotic activity. In aggressive cases, there is rearrangement of the 8q21 chromosome band. It occurs most frequently in children and young adults and rarely metastasizes.", + "Chondromyxoid fibroma": "An uncommon benign cartilaginous neoplasm arising from the bone. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped or stellate chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, and sometimes multinucleated giant cells. It has been associated with chromosomal rearrangement of 6q13 and 6q25 bands. The most common clinical symptom is mild, localized pain.", + "Chondrosarcoma grade 2/3": "", + "Chondrosarcoma, NOS": "A malignant cartilaginous matrix-producing mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the bone and soft tissue. It usually affects middle-aged to elderly adults. The pelvic bones, ribs, shoulder girdle, and long bones are the most common sites of involvement. Most chondrosarcomas arise de novo, but some may develop in a preexisting benign cartilaginous lesion.", + "Chordoid glioma": "A rare, slow-growing neuroepithelial neoplasm of uncertain origin affecting adults. It is located in the third ventricle. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid cells which express GFAP, and mucinous stroma which contains lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates.", + "Chordoid glioma of third ventricle": "A rare, slow-growing neuroepithelial neoplasm of uncertain origin affecting adults. It is located in the third ventricle. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid cells which express GFAP, and mucinous stroma which contains lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates.", + "Chordoid meningioma": "A WHO grade II, usually recurring meningioma characterized by the predominance of tissues that are histologically similar to chordoma.", + "Chordoma, NOS": "A malignant bone tumor arising from the remnants of the fetal notochord. Although it can occur at all ages, it is more frequently seen in middle-aged adults. The most frequent sites of involvement are the sacrococcygeal area, spheno-occipital area, and cervico-thoraco-lumbar spine. Microscopically, chordomas are composed of cells that form cords and lobules, separated by mucoid intercellular tissue. Some of the cells are large (physaliphorous) and have vacuolated cytoplasm and prominent vesicular nuclei. Other tumor cells are small with small nuclei without visible nucleoli. Chordomas tend to recur and may metastasize. The most common sites of metastasis are the skin and bone.", + "Chorioadenoma": "A complete hydatidiform mole or very rarely a partial mole that invades the myometrium.", + "Chorioadenoma destruens": "A complete hydatidiform mole or very rarely a partial mole that invades the myometrium.", + "Chorioangioma": "A hemangioma arising from the fetal blood vessels in the placental villi.", + "Choriocarcinoma combined with embryonal carcinoma": "A malignant mixed germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of a choriocarcinomatous component admixed with another germ cell component (e.g. embryonal carcinoma, teratoma, or seminoma).", + "Choriocarcinoma combined with other germ cell elements": "A malignant mixed germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of a choriocarcinomatous component admixed with another germ cell component (e.g. embryonal carcinoma, teratoma, or seminoma).", + "Choriocarcinoma combined with teratorna": "", + "Choriocarcinoma, NOS": "An aggressive malignant tumor arising from trophoblastic cells. The vast majority of cases arise in the uterus and represent gestational choriocarcinomas that derive from placental trophoblastic cells. Approximately half of the cases develop from a complete hydatidiform mole. A minority of cases arise in the testis or the ovaries. There is often marked elevation of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Choriocarcinomas disseminate rapidly through the hematogenous route; the lungs are most frequently affected.", + "Chorioepithelioma": "An aggressive malignant tumor arising from trophoblastic cells. The vast majority of cases arise in the uterus and represent gestational choriocarcinomas that derive from placental trophoblastic cells. Approximately half of the cases develop from a complete hydatidiform mole. A minority of cases arise in the testis or the ovaries. There is often marked elevation of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Choriocarcinomas disseminate rapidly through the hematogenous route; the lungs are most frequently affected.", + "Chorionepithelioma": "An aggressive malignant tumor arising from trophoblastic cells. The vast majority of cases arise in the uterus and represent gestational choriocarcinomas that derive from placental trophoblastic cells. Approximately half of the cases develop from a complete hydatidiform mole. A minority of cases arise in the testis or the ovaries. There is often marked elevation of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Choriocarcinomas disseminate rapidly through the hematogenous route; the lungs are most frequently affected.", + "Choroid plexus carcinoma": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the choroid plexus. It shows anaplastic features and usually invades neighboring brain structures. Cerebrospinal fluid metastases are frequent. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Choroid plexus papilloma, anaplastic": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the choroid plexus. It shows anaplastic features and usually invades neighboring brain structures. Cerebrospinal fluid metastases are frequent. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Choroid plexus papilloma, malignant": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the choroid plexus. It shows anaplastic features and usually invades neighboring brain structures. Cerebrospinal fluid metastases are frequent. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Choroid plexus papilloma, NOS": "A benign, slow growing tumor which may cause symptoms by blocking cerebrospinal fluid pathways. It is characterized by the presence of delicate fibrovascular connective tissue fronds covered by a single layer of epithelial cells. Mitotic activity is extremely low. Surgical resection is usually curative. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Chromaffin paraganglioma": "A benign or malignant neuroendocrine neoplasm of the sympathetic nervous system that secretes catecholamines. It arises from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla. Clinical presentation includes headaches, palpitations, chest and abdominal pain, hypertension, fever, and tremor. Microscopically, a characteristic nesting (zellballen) growth pattern is usually seen. Other growth patterns including trabecular pattern may also be present.", + "Chromaffin tumor": "A benign or malignant paraganglioma arising from the chromaffin cells of the paraganglia that are located along the sympathetic nerves. It includes extra-adrenal paragangliomas and paragangliomas that arise from the adrenal medulla. The latter are commonly referred to as pheochromocytomas. Representative examples of extra-adrenal sympathetic paragangliomas include the bladder, and superior and inferior paraaortic paragangliomas. Clinical signs are related to the secretion of catecholamines resulting in hypertension.", + "Chromaffinoma": "A benign or malignant paraganglioma arising from the chromaffin cells of the paraganglia that are located along the sympathetic nerves. It includes extra-adrenal paragangliomas and paragangliomas that arise from the adrenal medulla. The latter are commonly referred to as pheochromocytomas. Representative examples of extra-adrenal sympathetic paragangliomas include the bladder, and superior and inferior paraaortic paragangliomas. Clinical signs are related to the secretion of catecholamines resulting in hypertension.", + "Chromophobe adenocarcinoma": "A type of carcinoma that comprises a minority of renal cell carcinomas. It is characterized by loss of chromosomes 1 and Y. Based on the cytoplasmic characteristics of the neoplastic cells, this type of carcinoma is classified as classic (typical) or eosinophilic. It has a much better prognosis than other renal cell carcinomas.", + "Chromophobe adenoma": "An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells do not stain with acidic or basic dyes.", + "Chromophobe carcinoma": "A type of carcinoma that comprises a minority of renal cell carcinomas. It is characterized by loss of chromosomes 1 and Y. Based on the cytoplasmic characteristics of the neoplastic cells, this type of carcinoma is classified as classic (typical) or eosinophilic. It has a much better prognosis than other renal cell carcinomas.", + "Chromophobe cell renal carcinoma": "A type of carcinoma that comprises a minority of renal cell carcinomas. It is characterized by loss of chromosomes 1 and Y. Based on the cytoplasmic characteristics of the neoplastic cells, this type of carcinoma is classified as classic (typical) or eosinophilic. It has a much better prognosis than other renal cell carcinomas.", + "Chronic eosinophilic leukemia, NOS": "A rare myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by a clonal proliferation of eosinophilic precursors resulting in persistently increased numbers of eosinophils in the blood, marrow and peripheral tissues. Since acute eosinophilic leukemia is at best exceedingly rare, the term eosinophilic leukemia is normally used as a synonym for chronic eosinophilic leukemia. In cases in which it is impossible to prove clonality and there is no increase in blast cells, the diagnosis of \"idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome\" is preferred. (WHO, 2001)", + "Chronic erythremia": "", + "Chronic granulocytic leukemia, BCR/ABL": "A chronic myelogenous leukemia characterised by the t(9;22)(q34;q11) chromosomal translocation, resulting in the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome and the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene.", + "Chronic granulocytic leukemia, NOS": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the expression of the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene. It presents with neutrophilic leukocytosis. It can appear at any age, but it mostly affects middle aged and older individuals. Patients usually present with fatigue, weight loss, anemia, night sweats, and splenomegaly. If untreated, it follows a biphasic or triphasic natural course; an initial indolent chronic phase which is followed by an accelerated phase, a blast phase, or both. Allogeneic stem cell transplantation and tyrosine kinase inhibitors delay disease progression and prolong overall survival.", + "Chronic granulocytic leukemia, Philadelphia chromosome (Ph1) positive": "A chronic myelogenous leukemia characterised by the t(9;22)(q34;q11) chromosomal translocation, resulting in the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome and the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene.", + "Chronic granulocytic leukemia, t(9;22)(q34;q11)": "A chronic myelogenous leukemia characterised by the t(9;22)(q34;q11) chromosomal translocation, resulting in the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome and the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene.", + "Chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, proliferation of atypical megakaryocytes and granulocytes in the bone marrow, anemia, splenomegaly, and extramedullary hematopoiesis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Chronic leukemia, NOS": "A slowly progressing leukemia characterized by a clonal (malignant) proliferation of maturing and mature myeloid cells or mature lymphocytes. When the clonal cellular population is composed of myeloid cells, the process is called chronic myelogenous leukemia. When the clonal cellular population is composed of lymphocytes, it is classified as chronic lymphocytic leukemia, hairy cell leukemia, or T-cell large granular lymphocyte leukemia.", + "Chronic lymphatic leukemia": "The most common type of chronic lymphoid leukemia. It comprises 90% of chronic lymphoid leukemias in the United States. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells are small, round B-lymphocytes. This type of leukemia is not considered to be curable with available therapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Chronic lymphocytic leukemia": "The most common type of chronic lymphoid leukemia. It comprises 90% of chronic lymphoid leukemias in the United States. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells are small, round B-lymphocytes. This type of leukemia is not considered to be curable with available therapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, B-cell type (includes all variants of BCLL)": "The most common type of chronic lymphoid leukemia. It comprises 90% of chronic lymphoid leukemias in the United States. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells are small, round B-lymphocytes. This type of leukemia is not considered to be curable with available therapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Chronic lymphoid leukemia": "The most common type of chronic lymphoid leukemia. It comprises 90% of chronic lymphoid leukemias in the United States. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells are small, round B-lymphocytes. This type of leukemia is not considered to be curable with available therapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Chronic lymphoproliferative disorder of NK cells": "An Epstein-Barr virus negative disorder with a chronic clinical course affecting predominantly adults and characterized by the proliferation of large granular lymphocytes with natural killer cell immunophenotype. The T-cell receptor genes are not rearranged.", + "Chronic monocytic leukemia": "Chronic Monocytic Leukemia", + "Chronic myelocytic leukemia, NOS": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the expression of the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene. It presents with neutrophilic leukocytosis. It can appear at any age, but it mostly affects middle aged and older individuals. Patients usually present with fatigue, weight loss, anemia, night sweats, and splenomegaly. If untreated, it follows a biphasic or triphasic natural course; an initial indolent chronic phase which is followed by an accelerated phase, a blast phase, or both. Allogeneic stem cell transplantation and tyrosine kinase inhibitors delay disease progression and prolong overall survival.", + "Chronic myelogenous leukemia, BCR-ABL positive": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the expression of the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene. It presents with neutrophilic leukocytosis. It can appear at any age, but it mostly affects middle aged and older individuals. Patients usually present with fatigue, weight loss, anemia, night sweats, and splenomegaly. If untreated, it follows a biphasic or triphasic natural course; an initial indolent chronic phase which is followed by an accelerated phase, a blast phase, or both. Allogeneic stem cell transplantation and tyrosine kinase inhibitors delay disease progression and prolong overall survival.", + "Chronic myelogenous leukemia, Philadelphia chromosome (Ph 1) positive": "A chronic myelogenous leukemia characterised by the t(9;22)(q34;q11) chromosomal translocation, resulting in the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome and the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene.", + "Chronic myelogenous leukemia, t(9;22)(q34;q11)": "A chronic myelogenous leukemia characterised by the t(9;22)(q34;q11) chromosomal translocation, resulting in the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome and the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene.", + "Chronic myeloid leukemia, NOS": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the expression of the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene. It presents with neutrophilic leukocytosis. It can appear at any age, but it mostly affects middle aged and older individuals. Patients usually present with fatigue, weight loss, anemia, night sweats, and splenomegaly. If untreated, it follows a biphasic or triphasic natural course; an initial indolent chronic phase which is followed by an accelerated phase, a blast phase, or both. Allogeneic stem cell transplantation and tyrosine kinase inhibitors delay disease progression and prolong overall survival.", + "Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia in transformation": "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm which is characterized by persistent monocytosis, absence of a Philadelphia chromosome and BCR/ABL fusion gene, fewer than 20 percent blasts in the bone marrow and blood, myelodysplasia, and absence of PDGFRA or PDGFRB rearrangement.", + "Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia, NOS": "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm which is characterized by persistent monocytosis, absence of a Philadelphia chromosome and BCR/ABL fusion gene, fewer than 20 percent blasts in the bone marrow and blood, myelodysplasia, and absence of PDGFRA or PDGFRB rearrangement.", + "Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia, Type 1": "", + "Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia, Type II": "", + "Chronic myeloproliferative disease, NOS": "A clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder, characterized by proliferation in the bone marrow of one or more of the myeloid (i.e., granulocytic, erythroid, megakaryocytic, and mast cell) lineages. It is primarily a neoplasm of adults. (WHO 2008)", + "Chronic myeloproliferative disorder": "A clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder, characterized by proliferation in the bone marrow of one or more of the myeloid (i.e., granulocytic, erythroid, megakaryocytic, and mast cell) lineages. It is primarily a neoplasm of adults. (WHO 2008)", + "Chronic neutrophilic leukemia": "A rare chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by neutrophilic leukocytosis. There is no detectable Philadelphia chromosome or BCR/ABL fusion gene.", + "CIN III with severe dysplasia": "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0). Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)", + "Cin III, NOS": "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0). Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)", + "Circumscribed arachnoidal cerebellar sarcoma": "A medulloblastoma characterized by the presence of nodular, collagenous areas which do not contain reticulin, surrounded by hypercellular areas which contain an intercellular reticulin fiber network.", + "Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte depletion, diffuse fibrosis": "", + "Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte depletion, NOS": "A diffuse subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma which is rich in Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells and/or depleted in non-neoplastic lymphocytes. (WHO, 2008)", + "Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte depletion, reticular": "", + "Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte-rich": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma with scattered Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells and a nodular or less often diffuse cellular background consisting of small lymphocytes and with an absence of neutrophils and eosinophils. (WHO, 2008)", + "Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, mixed cellularity, NOS": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma with scattered Reed-Sternberg and Hodgkin cells in a diffuse or vaguely nodular mixed inflammatory background without nodular sclerosing fibrosis. (WHO, 2008)", + "Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis, cellular phase": "A nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by the presence of lacunar cells, nodular growth, and the absence of fibrosis.", + "Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis, grade 1": "Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma in which at least 75% of the tumor nodules contain scattered Reed-Sternberg cells. The background cellular infiltrate is lymphocytic, mixed, or fibrohistiocytic.", + "Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis, grade 2": "Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma in which at least 25% of the tumor nodules contain increased numbers of Reed-Sternberg cells.", + "Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis, NOS": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by collagen bands that surround at least one nodule, and Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells with lacunar type morphology. (WHO, 2008)", + "Clear cell (glycogen-rich) urothelial carcinoma": "An invasive transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder characterized by the presence of clear cells.", + "Clear cell adenocarcinofibroma": "", + "Clear cell adenocarcinoma, mesonephroid": "A malignant neoplasm composed of glandular epithelial clear cells. Various architectural patterns may be seen, including papillary, tubulocystic, and solid.", + "Clear cell adenocarcinoma, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm composed of glandular epithelial clear cells. Various architectural patterns may be seen, including papillary, tubulocystic, and solid.", + "Clear cell adenofibroma": "A benign or borderline neoplasm characterized by the presence of glandular structures which contain clear cells and a fibrotic stroma.", + "Clear cell adenofibroma of borderline malignancy": "", + "Clear cell adenoma": "A benign neoplasm composed of glands containing epithelial clear cells.", + "Clear cell carcinoma": "A malignant neoplasm composed of glandular epithelial clear cells. Various architectural patterns may be seen, including papillary, tubulocystic, and solid.", + "Clear cell chondrosarcoma": "A rare, usually low grade chondrosarcoma characterized by the presence of tumor cells with clear cytoplasm. It usually arises in the epiphyseal ends of long bones.", + "Clear cell cystadenocarcinofibroma": "", + "Clear cell cystadenofibroma": "A benign or borderline neoplasm characterized by the presence of cystic glandular and fibrous tissues and clear cells.", + "Clear cell cystadenofibroma of borderline malignancy": "", + "Clear cell cystadenoma": "", + "Clear cell cystic tumor of borderline malignancy": "", + "Clear cell ependymoma": "An ependymoma, often supratentorial in location, characterized by the presence of ependymal cells with a perinuclear halo.", + "Clear cell hidradenoma": "An uncommon benign neoplasm of the sweat glands characterized by the presence of clear cells.", + "Clear cell meningioma": "A WHO grade II morphologic variant of meningioma characterized by the presence of clear glycogen-rich polygonal cells.", + "Clear cell odontogenic carcinoma": "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It more often affects older females and more frequently occurs in the mandible. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm and a fibrotic stroma formation. It may recur and metastasize. Metastases may occur in the lymph nodes, lungs, and bones. Treatment of choice is resection with clean margins.", + "Clear cell odontogenic tumor": "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It more often affects older females and more frequently occurs in the mandible. It is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm and a fibrotic stroma formation. It may recur and metastasize. Metastases may occur in the lymph nodes, lungs, and bones. Treatment of choice is resection with clean margins.", + "Clear cell sarcoma of kidney": "A rare pediatric sarcoma affecting the kidney. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid or spindle cells forming cords or nests, separated by fibrovascular septa. It is associated with internal tandem duplications in the BCOR gene. It metastasizes to lung, bone, brain and soft tissue.", + "Clear cell sarcoma, NOS": "A rare malignant neoplasm with melanocytic differentiation characterized by the presence of polygonal or spindle shaped clear cells. This sarcoma usually affects the tendons and aponeuroses and is associated with a poor prognosis due to recurrences and metastases.", + "Clear cell sarcoma, of tendons and aponeuroses": "", + "Clear cell tumor, NOS": "A purely morphologic term that describes a neoplasm in which all or the majority of the neoplastic cells have a clear cytoplasm, when examined under light microscopy, using the conventional staining method (H-E). This term does not provide any information about the nature of the neoplasm (benign or malignant), cell of origin (e.g. epithelial versus mesenchymal versus hematopoietic), or prognosis. Further examination using special stains and/or immunohistochemistry is required to appropriately classify this tumor.", + "Cloacogenic carcinoma": "An anal carcinoma arising from the transitional zone of the anal canal.", + "CNS Embryonal tumor with rhabdoid features": "A central nervous system embryonal neoplasm characterized by the presence of histological features consistent with atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor and absence of mutations of the INI1 gene or SMARCA4 (BRG1) gene.", + "Codman tumor": "A benign, chondroid-producing, well-circumscribed, lytic neoplasm usually arising from the epiphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of chondroblasts, osteoclast-like giant cells, chondroid formation, calcification, and mitotic activity. In aggressive cases, there is rearrangement of the 8q21 chromosome band. It occurs most frequently in children and young adults and rarely metastasizes.", + "Collecting duct carcinoma": "Also known as collecting duct carcinoma, this is a rare type of renal carcinoma. It arises from the collecting ducts of the renal medulla, and most authors suggest that this is an aggressive tumor.", + "Colloid adenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "Colloid adenoma": "A thyroid gland adenoma composed of large size follicles.", + "Colloid carcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "Columnar cell papilloma": "", + "Combined carcinoid and adenocarcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of a mixture of neuroendocrine cells with morphologic and immunohistochemical characteristics of carcinoid tumor and malignant glandular cells.", + "Combined hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma": "A rare tumor containing unequivocal elements of both hepatocellular and cholangiocarcinoma that are intimately admixed. This tumor should be distinguished from separate hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma arising in the same liver. The prognosis of this tumor is poor.", + "Combined large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma": "A subtype of large cell neuroendocrine lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of large neuroendocrine cells in combination with adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, giant cell carcinoma and/ or spindle cell carcinoma.", + "Combined small cell carcinoma": "A morphologic variant of small cell lung carcinoma in combination with a non-small cell carcinoma.", + "Combined small cell-adenocarcinoma": "A lung carcinoma characterized by a combination of small cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma.", + "Combined small cell-large carcinoma": "", + "Combined small cell-squamous cell carcinoma": "A morphologic variant of small cell lung carcinoma in combination with a non-small cell carcinoma.", + "Combined/mixed carcinoid and adenocarcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of a mixture of neuroendocrine cells with morphologic and immunohistochemical characteristics of carcinoid tumor and malignant glandular cells.", + "Comedocarcinoma, noninfiltrating": "", + "Comedocarcinoma, NOS": "A high grade carcinoma characterized by the presence of comedo-type tumor cell necrosis in which the necrotic areas are surrounded by a solid proliferation of malignant pleomorphic cells.", + "Common ALL": "Common Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia", + "Common precursor B ALL": "Common Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia", + "Complete hydatidiform mole": "A gestational trophoblastic disorder in which there is no embryo or normal placental tissue and the chorionic villi are hydropic.", + "Complex odontoma": "A benign, slow growing, and painless hamartomatous tumor occurring in tooth-bearing areas of the jaws. It is one of the most common odontogenic tumors and it usually affects children, adolescents, and young adults. It is characterized by the presence of enamel and dentin and the absence of tooth-like structures. It is treated with local excision. If it is incompletely removed, it may recur.", + "Composite carcinoid": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of a mixture of neuroendocrine cells with morphologic and immunohistochemical characteristics of carcinoid tumor and malignant glandular cells.", + "Composite Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma": "", + "Compound nevus": "A nevus composed of neoplastic melanocytes that infiltrate both the epidermis and the dermis.", + "Compound odontoma": "A benign, slow growing, and painless hamartomatous tumor occurring in tooth-bearing areas of the jaws. It usually affects children and adolescents. It is characterized by the presence of tooth-like structures. Treatment consists of local excision. Recurrences have not been reported.", + "Condylomatous carcinoma": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern, acanthosis, mild cytologic atypia, and pushing tumor margins. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the oral cavity, nasal cavity, larynx, esophagus, anus, vagina, vulva, and the plantar region of the foot.", + "Congenital fibrosarcoma": "A fibrosarcoma that occurs in infants. It shares identical morphologic features with adult fibrosarcoma but carries the t(12;15)(p13;q25) translocation that results in ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusion. It usually affects the superficial and deep soft tissues of the extremities. The prognosis is generally much more favorable than for adult fibrosarcoma, and it rarely metastasizes.", + "Congenital generalized fibromatosis": "", + "Congenital peribronchial myofibroblastic tumor": "", + "Conventional central osteosarcoma": "A high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm producing osteoid. The tumor arises from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and most commonly, the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most common clinical presentation. It usually has an aggressive growth and may metastasize through the hematogenous route. The lung is the most frequent site of metastasis.", + "Cortical T ALL": "Mature T-ALL", + "CPNET": "A term that refers to central nervous system embryonal tumors which are not fully characterized. This category includes tumors previously designated as central nervous system primitive neuroectodermal tumors.", + "Craniopharyngioma": "A benign, partly cystic, epithelial tumor of the sellar region, presumably derived from Rathke pouch epithelium. It affects mainly children and young adults. There are two clinicopathological forms: adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma and papillary craniopharyngioma. The most significant factor associated with recurrence is the extent of surgical resection, with lesions greater than 5 cm in diameter carrying a markedly worse prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Craniopharyngioma, adamantinomatous": "A craniopharyngioma consisting of broad strands, cords and bridges of a multistratified squamous epithelium with peripheral palisading of nuclei. Diagnostic features include nodules of compact 'wet' keratin and dystrophic calcification. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Craniopharyngioma, papillary": "A craniopharyngioma composed of sheets of squamous epithelium which separate to form pseudopapillae. This variant typically lacks nuclear palisading, wet keratin, calcification, and cholesterol deposits. Clinically, endocrine deficiencies are more often associated with papillary craniopharyngioma than with the adamantinomatous type. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Cribriform carcinoma in situ": "", + "Cribriform carcinoma, NOS": "A carcinoma characterized by the presence of a cribriform architectural pattern. Representative examples include the intraductal cribriform breast carcinoma and invasive cribriform breast carcinoma.", + "Cribriform comedo-type carcinoma": "", + "Cutaneous histiocytoma, NOS": "A solitary, slowly growing, nodular tumor most often affecting the extremities. It is composed of fibrous and histiocytic cells which infiltrate the dermis and occasionally the underlying subcutaneous tissue. Usually local excision is curative. Recurrences are reported only in a small minority of cases.", + "Cutaneous lymphoma, NOS": "Primary Cutaneous Lymphoma", + "Cutaneous mastocytosis": "A form of mastocytosis characterized by mast cell infiltration of the skin. (WHO, 2001)", + "Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, NOS": "A T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising from the skin. Representative examples include mycosis fungoides and primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma.", + "Cylindrical cell carcinoma": "A squamous cell carcinoma of the sinonasal tract characterized by a plexiform or ribbon-like growth pattern, cytological atypia, and lack of histological evidence of keratinization.", + "Cylindrical cell papilloma": "", + "Cylindroma of skin": "A benign sweat gland neoplasm usually occurring in the scalp or the face. It may present as solitary or multiple papular or nodular lesions. It may be a sporadic lesion or part of Brooke-Spiegler syndrome. It arises from the dermis and has a multinodular, circumscribed appearance. The nodules contain basaloid cells with small, dark nuclei. Complete excision is usually curative.", + "Cylindroma, NOS": "A malignant tumor arising from the epithelial cells. Microscopically, the neoplastic epithelial cells form cylindrical spatial configurations (cribriform or classic type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), cordlike structures (tubular type of adenoid cystic carcinoma), or solid structures (basaloid variant of adenoid cystic carcinoma). Adenoid cystic carcinomas mostly occur in the salivary glands. Other primary sites of involvement include the lacrimal gland, the larynx, and the lungs. Adenoid cystic carcinomas spread along nerve sheaths, resulting in severe pain, and they tend to recur. Lymph node metastases are unusual; hematogenous tumor spread is characteristic.", + "Cyst-associated renal cell carcinoma": "", + "Cystadenocarcinoma, NOS": "A malignant cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium. The malignant epithelial cells invade the stroma. The cystic spaces contain serous or mucinous fluid. Representative examples include ovarian and pancreatic cystadenocarcinomas.", + "Cystadenofibroma, NOS": "A benign or borderline neoplasm that arises from the ovaries and the fallopian tubes. It is characterized by the presence of cystic glandular structures and fibrous tissue.", + "Cystadenoma, NOS": "A benign or borderline cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium. The epithelial cells line the cystic spaces which contain serous or mucinous fluid. Representative examples include ovarian and pancreatic cystadenomas.", + "Cystic astrocytoma": "A low-grade (WHO grade II) astrocytic neoplasm. It is characterized by diffuse infiltration of neighboring central nervous system structures. These lesions typically affect young adults and have a tendency for progression to anaplastic astrocytoma and glioblastoma. Based on the IDH genes mutation status, diffuse astrocytomas are classified as IDH-mutant, IDH-wildtype, and not otherwise specified.", + "Cystic hygroma": "A benign lymphatic neoplasm usually arising from the neck and characterized by cystic dilation of the lymphatic vessels.", + "Cystic hypersecretory carcinoma": "", + "Cystic lymphangioma": "A benign lymphatic neoplasm usually arising from the neck and characterized by cystic dilation of the lymphatic vessels.", + "Cystic mesothelioma, benign": "", + "Cystic mesothelioma, NOS": "An intermediate grade neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It occurs in the peritoneum, extraperitoneal space, omentum, or pelvic or abdominal viscera. It is characterized by the presence of multiple cysts lined by flattened or cuboidal mesothelial cells. There is no evidence of significant cytologic atypia or increased mitotic activity. It usually occurs in young to middle-aged women. Patients present with abdominal or pelvic mass and pain. Approximately half of the cases recur. The recurrences may appear several years after the initial diagnosis. Rare cases of transformation to malignant mesothelioma have also been described.", + "Cystic partially differentiated nephroblastoma": "A variant of Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the presence of cystic spaces separated by septa. The septa contain immature epithelial cells, immature stromal cells, and blastema cells. Surgical resection is usually curative.", + "Cystic teratoma, NOS": "Cystic Teratoma", + "Cystic tumor of atrio-ventricular node": "A multicystic tumor arising in the inferior interatrial septum in the region of the atrioventricular node. The vast majority of patients present with complete heart block and a minority with partial heart block. Sudden death is reported in approximately 10% of the cases. It is a morphologically benign tumor composed of cuboidal, transitional, or squamoid cells. The cells may also show sebaceous differentiation and originate from the endoderm.", + "Cystoma, NOS": "A benign or borderline cystic epithelial neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium. The epithelial cells line the cystic spaces which contain serous or mucinous fluid. Representative examples include ovarian and pancreatic cystadenomas.", + "Cystosarcoma phyllodes, benign": "A benign, circumscribed fibroepithelial neoplasm arising from the breast and rarely the prostate gland. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial structures which are arranged in clefts and by a hypercellular mesenchymal stroma which is organized in leaf-like structures. There is no evidence of cellular atypia or sarcomatous features.", + "Cystosarcoma phyllodes, malignant": "A phyllodes tumor with sarcomatous stroma. The sarcomatous component is usually of the fibrosarcomatous type. Liposarcomatous, chondrosarcomatous, osteosarcomatous, or rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation may also occur in the stroma. It may recur and metastasize following surgical resection. The lung and skeleton are the anatomic sites most frequently involved by metastases.", + "Cystosarcoma phyllodes, NOS": "A benign, borderline, or malignant fibroepithelial neoplasm arising from the breast and rarely the prostate gland. It may recur following resection. The recurrence rates are higher for borderline and malignant phyllodes tumors. In borderline and malignant phyllodes tumors metastases to distant anatomic sites can occur. The incidence of metastases is higher in malignant phyllodes tumors.", + "Dabska tumor": "An intermediate, rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of lymphatic-like vascular channels and papillary endothelial proliferation.", + "DCIS, comedo type": "", + "DCIS, NOS": "A carcinoma entirely confined to the mammary ducts. It is also known as DCIS. There is no evidence of invasion of the basement membrane. Currently, it is classified into three categories: High-grade DCIS, intermediate-grade DCIS and low-grade DCIS. In this classification the DCIS grade is defined by a combination of nuclear grade, architectural growth pattern and presence of necrosis. The size of the lesion as well as the grade and the clearance margins play a major role in dictating the most appropriate therapy for DCIS.", + "DCIS, papillary": "A non-invasive breast adenocarcinoma located in a distended duct. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular stalks. In the absence of ductal carcinoma in situ or invasive carcinoma in adjacent tissues, the prognosis is usually favorable.", + "Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma": "An aggressive morphologic variant of chondrosarcoma. It is composed of a low grade chondrosarcoma and a high grade non-cartilagenous sarcomatous component. Due to the aggressive nature of the disease, its prognosis is poor.", + "Dedifferentiated chordoma": "A high-grade malignant bone tumor arising from the remnants of the notochord. It is characterized by a lobulated growth pattern, myxoid stroma formation, the presence of physaliphorous cells, and a sarcomatous component.", + "Dedifferentiated liposarcoma": "An atypical lipomatous tumor/well differentiated liposarcoma that shows progression to a usually non-lipomatous, high grade sarcoma. The non-lipomatous sarcoma component may be present in the primary lesion or at the site of recurrence.", + "Deep histiocytoma": "A rare, well-circumscribed, pseudo-encapsulated benign fibrous histiocytoma that arises entirely within the subcutaneous tissue or deep soft tissue. It usually affects the extremities or the head and neck region. It recurs locally in a minority of cases.", + "Degenerated schwannoma": "A schwannoma that is characterized by degenerative changes such as hyalinization, hemorrhage, calcification and cystic change.", + "Dendritic cell sarcoma, NOS": "A dendritic cell neoplasm that does not fall into well-defined categories or shows hybrid features.", + "Dentinoma": "A locally aggressive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It is more often intraosseous and less frequently extraosseous and occurs in the jaw. It is characterized by the presence of ameloblastoma-like epithelium, connective tissue stroma, ghost cells, and dysplastic dentin. Wide local resection is recommended for intraosseous neoplasms and enucleation for extraosseous neoplasms.", + "Dermal and epidermal nevus": "A nevus composed of neoplastic melanocytes that infiltrate both the epidermis and the dermis.", + "Dermal nevus": "A nevus characterized by the proliferation of nevus cells in the dermis without involvement of the dermal-epidermal junction.", + "Dermatofibroma lenticulare": "A solitary, slowly growing, nodular tumor most often affecting the extremities. It is composed of fibrous and histiocytic cells which infiltrate the dermis and occasionally the underlying subcutaneous tissue. Usually local excision is curative. Recurrences are reported only in a small minority of cases.", + "Dermatofibroma, NOS": "A solitary, slowly growing, nodular tumor most often affecting the extremities. It is composed of fibrous and histiocytic cells which infiltrate the dermis and occasionally the underlying subcutaneous tissue. Usually local excision is curative. Recurrences are reported only in a small minority of cases.", + "Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, NOS": "A low grade fibroblastic neoplasm presenting as a nodular cutaneous mass, most often on the trunk and the proximal extremities. The tumor diffusely infiltrates the dermis and the subcutaneous tissues. It is considered a locally aggressive neoplasm, which often recurs but rarely metastasizes.", + "Dermatofibrosarcoma, NOS": "A low grade fibroblastic neoplasm presenting as a nodular cutaneous mass, most often on the trunk and the proximal extremities. The tumor diffusely infiltrates the dermis and the subcutaneous tissues. It is considered a locally aggressive neoplasm, which often recurs but rarely metastasizes.", + "Dermoid cyst with malignant transformation": "A teratoma which is characterized by morphologic transformation to malignancy and an aggressive clinical course. The malignant component most often is sarcomatous or carcinomatous.", + "Dermoid cyst with secondary tumor": "A teratoma which is characterized by morphologic transformation to malignancy and an aggressive clinical course. The malignant component most often is sarcomatous or carcinomatous.", + "Dermoid cyst, NOS": "A mature teratoma characterized by the presence of a cyst which is lined by mature tissue resembling the epidermis and the epidermal appendages. It occurs in the ovary, testis, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system and skin.", + "Dermoid, NOS": "A mature teratoma characterized by the presence of a cyst which is lined by mature tissue resembling the epidermis and the epidermal appendages. It occurs in the ovary, testis, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system and skin.", + "Desmoid, NOS": "An insidious, locally aggressive, poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern. It lacks metastatic potential.", + "Desmoplastic fibroma": "A rare, benign, locally aggressive, osteolytic neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of a rich collagenous stroma and spindle cells with minimal cellular atypia.", + "Desmoplastic infantile astrocytoma": "A WHO grade I large cystic tumor that occurs almost exclusively in infants, with a prominent desmoplastic stroma having a neuroepithelial population consisting mainly of neoplastic astrocytes. It involves the superficial cerebral cortex and leptomeninges, and often attaches to the dura. Although clinically it presents as large tumor, it generally has a good prognosis following surgical resection. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Desmoplastic infantile ganglioglioma": "A WHO grade I large cystic tumor that occurs almost exclusively in infants, with a prominent desmoplastic stroma having a neuroepithelial population of neoplastic astrocytes together with a variable neuronal component. It involves the superficial cerebral cortex and leptomeninges, and often attaches to the dura. Although clinically it presents as a large tumor, it generally has a good prognosis following surgical resection. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Desmoplastic medulloblastoma": "A medulloblastoma characterized by the presence of nodular, collagenous areas which do not contain reticulin, surrounded by hypercellular areas which contain an intercellular reticulin fiber network.", + "Desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic": "A melanoma of the skin characterized by a proliferation of atypical spindled melanocytes in the dermis, in a background of abundant collagen. It usually presents as an amelanotic raised nodular lesion.", + "Desmoplastic melanoma, malignant": "A melanoma of the skin characterized by a proliferation of atypical spindled melanocytes in the dermis, in a background of abundant collagen. It usually presents as an amelanotic raised nodular lesion.", + "Desmoplastic mesothelioma": "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of a dense collagenous tissue and atypical neoplastic cells. Sarcomatoid features, collagenous necrosis, and infiltration of muscle and adipose tissue may be present. It occurs in the pleura and less commonly in the peritoneum.", + "Desmoplastic nodular medulloblastoma": "A medulloblastoma characterized by the presence of nodular, collagenous areas which do not contain reticulin, surrounded by hypercellular areas which contain an intercellular reticulin fiber network.", + "Desmoplastic small round cell tumor": "An aggressive malignant soft tissue neoplasm of uncertain differentiation. It is characterized by a recurrent chromosomal translocation t(11;22)(p13;q12) and the presence of small round cells in a desmoplastic stroma. It usually affects children and young adults. The most common site of involvement is the abdomen. Patients usually present with abdominal distention, pain, ascites, and a palpable abdominal mass. The prognosis is usually poor.", + "Di Guglielmo disease": "Acute erythroid leukemia characterised by the presence of immature erythroid cells in the bone marrow (at least 80% of the cellular component), without evidence of a significant myeloblastic cell population present.", + "Differentiated penile intraepithelial neoplasia": "", + "Differentiated-type vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia": "HPV-negative vulvar squamous intraepithelial proliferation with abnormal keratinocyte differentiation and basal cell atypia. These lesions are most strongly linked to cancer by association rather than outcome. Risk of progression to invasion is unclear but can be rapid, often less than six months. Management is predicated on complete removal. (WHO, 2014)", + "Diffuse astrocytoma": "A low-grade (WHO grade II) astrocytic neoplasm. It is characterized by diffuse infiltration of neighboring central nervous system structures. These lesions typically affect young adults and have a tendency for progression to anaplastic astrocytoma and glioblastoma. Based on the IDH genes mutation status, diffuse astrocytomas are classified as IDH-mutant, IDH-wildtype, and not otherwise specified.", + "Diffuse astrocytoma, IDH-mutant": "Diffuse astrocytoma carrying IDH mutations.", + "Diffuse astrocytoma, IDH-wildtype": "Diffuse astrocytoma lacking mutations in IDH1 or IDH2 genes.", + "Diffuse astrocytoma, low grade": "A low-grade (WHO grade II) astrocytic neoplasm. It is characterized by diffuse infiltration of neighboring central nervous system structures. These lesions typically affect young adults and have a tendency for progression to anaplastic astrocytoma and glioblastoma. Based on the IDH genes mutation status, diffuse astrocytomas are classified as IDH-mutant, IDH-wildtype, and not otherwise specified.", + "Diffuse cutaneous mastocytosis": "A variant of cutaneous mastocytosis which is seen almost exclusively in children. (WHO, 2001)", + "Diffuse intraductal papillomatosis": "Diffuse Intraductal Papillomatosis", + "Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma associated with chronic inflammation": "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma arising in body cavities or narrow spaces of long standing chronic inflammation. The classic example is the pyothorax-associated lymphoma that arises in the pleural cavity of patients with a history of long standing pyothorax.", + "Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by a diffuse proliferation of predominantly large neoplastic B lymphocytes. It is the most frequently seen type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, representing 30%-40% of the cases. Morphologic variants include centroblastic lymphoma, immunoblastic lymphoma, and anaplastic lymphoma. Subtypes/entities include T-cell/histiocyte rich large B-cell lymphoma, primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system, plasmablastic lymphoma, primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type, and ALK-positive large B-cell lymphoma.", + "Diffuse leptomeningeal glioneuronal tumor": "A relatively slow growing diffuse leptomeningeal neoplasm usually affecting children and adolescents. It is characterized by the presence of clear glial neoplastic cells reminiscent of oligodendroglioma. A neuronal component may be present. The prognosis is variable.", + "Diffuse melanocytosis": "A diffuse or multifocal proliferation of uniform nevoid polygonal cells in the leptomeninges. Cells may spread into the Virchow-Robin spaces without frank invasion of the brain. Diffuse melanocytosis carries a poor prognosis even in the absence of histologic malignancy. (WHO)", + "Diffuse meningiomatosis": "The presence of multiple meningiomas in the leptomeninges.", + "Diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27M-mutant": "A childhood diffuse midline glioma characterized by the presence of histone H3 K27M mutation.", + "Diffuse Pediatric-type High Grade Glioma": "", + "Digital papillary adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma arising from the sweat glands. Most cases present as nodular lesions on the digits, usually in the hands. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial cells in the dermis forming nodules. Cystic structures containing papillary projections are also present. It may recur and metastasize, most commonly to the lungs.", + "Diktyoma, benign": "", + "Diktyoma, malignant": "A rare, usually aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm of the central nervous system occurring in children. It is characterized by the presence of neuroepithelial cells which form papillary, trabecular, or tubular structures and absence of C19MC amplification. Symptoms include headache, nausea, and vomiting.", + "DIN 3": "A ductal carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with severe dysplasia and the formation of micropapillary, cribriform, or solid patterns. The nuclei show marked pleomorphism and have prominent nucleoli. Mitotic activity is usually present. There is comedo-type of necrosis present in the ducts. The necrotic debris is surrounded by pleomorphic malignant cells.", + "Duct adenocarcinoma, NOS": "A breast carcinoma arising from the ducts. While ductal carcinomas can arise at other sites, this term is universally used to refer to carcinomas of the breast. Ductal carcinomas account for about two thirds of all breast cancers. Two types of ductal carcinomas have been described: ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) and invasive ductal carcinoma. The latter often spreads to the axillary lymph nodes and other anatomic sites. The two forms of ductal carcinoma often coexist.", + "Duct adenoma, NOS": "An intraluminal papillary epithelial neoplasm arising within the ducts. Representative examples are the intraductal breast papilloma and the salivary gland intraductal papilloma.", + "Duct carcinoma, desmoplastic type": "", + "Duct carcinoma, NOS": "A breast carcinoma arising from the ducts. While ductal carcinomas can arise at other sites, this term is universally used to refer to carcinomas of the breast. Ductal carcinomas account for about two thirds of all breast cancers. Two types of ductal carcinomas have been described: ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) and invasive ductal carcinoma. The latter often spreads to the axillary lymph nodes and other anatomic sites. The two forms of ductal carcinoma often coexist.", + "Duct cell carcinoma": "A breast carcinoma arising from the ducts. While ductal carcinomas can arise at other sites, this term is universally used to refer to carcinomas of the breast. Ductal carcinomas account for about two thirds of all breast cancers. Two types of ductal carcinomas have been described: ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) and invasive ductal carcinoma. The latter often spreads to the axillary lymph nodes and other anatomic sites. The two forms of ductal carcinoma often coexist.", + "Ductal carcinoma in situ, comedo type": "", + "Ductal carcinoma in situ, cribriform type": "A ductal carcinoma in situ of the breast characterized by the presence of a cribriform architectural pattern.", + "Ductal carcinoma in situ, micropapillary": "", + "Ductal carcinoma in situ, NOS": "A carcinoma entirely confined to the mammary ducts. It is also known as DCIS. There is no evidence of invasion of the basement membrane. Currently, it is classified into three categories: High-grade DCIS, intermediate-grade DCIS and low-grade DCIS. In this classification the DCIS grade is defined by a combination of nuclear grade, architectural growth pattern and presence of necrosis. The size of the lesion as well as the grade and the clearance margins play a major role in dictating the most appropriate therapy for DCIS.", + "Ductal carcinoma in situ, papillary": "A non-invasive breast adenocarcinoma located in a distended duct. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular stalks. In the absence of ductal carcinoma in situ or invasive carcinoma in adjacent tissues, the prognosis is usually favorable.", + "Ductal carcinoma in situ, solid type": "", + "Ductal carcinoma, cribriform type": "A carcinoma characterized by the presence of a cribriform architectural pattern. Representative examples include the intraductal cribriform breast carcinoma and invasive cribriform breast carcinoma.", + "Ductal carcinoma, NOS": "A breast carcinoma arising from the ducts. While ductal carcinomas can arise at other sites, this term is universally used to refer to carcinomas of the breast. Ductal carcinomas account for about two thirds of all breast cancers. Two types of ductal carcinomas have been described: ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) and invasive ductal carcinoma. The latter often spreads to the axillary lymph nodes and other anatomic sites. The two forms of ductal carcinoma often coexist.", + "Ductal intraepithelial neoplasia 3": "A ductal carcinoma in situ characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with severe dysplasia and the formation of micropapillary, cribriform, or solid patterns. The nuclei show marked pleomorphism and have prominent nucleoli. Mitotic activity is usually present. There is comedo-type of necrosis present in the ducts. The necrotic debris is surrounded by pleomorphic malignant cells.", + "Ductal papilloma": "An intraluminal papillary epithelial neoplasm arising within the ducts. Representative examples are the intraductal breast papilloma and the salivary gland intraductal papilloma.", + "Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor": "A benign glial-neuronal neoplasm. It is usually supratentorial, located in the cortex. It occurs in children and young adults with a long-standing history of partial seizures. A histologic hallmark of this tumor is the 'specific glioneuronal element', characterized by columns, made up of bundles of axons, oriented perpendicularly to the cortical surface. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Dysgerminoma": "A malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of a monotonous primitive germ cell population. The neoplastic cells form aggregates and have an abundant pale cytoplasm and uniform nuclei. The aggregates of the germ cells are separated by fibrous septa which contain inflammatory cells, mostly T-lymphocytes. It arises primarily in the ovaries, but can occur both primarily and secondarily at other sites, particularly the central nervous system. It responds to chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Its prognosis is related to the tumor stage.", + "Dysplastic gangliocytoma of cerebellum (Lhermitte-Duclos)": "A benign, WHO grade I cerebellar mass, which occurs in young adults and is composed of dysplastic ganglion cells. It is the major CNS manifestation of Cowden disease, an autosomal dominant condition that causes a variety of hamartomas and neoplasms.", + "Dysplastic nevus": "Solitary or multiple, slightly raised pigmented melanocytic lesions with irregular borders, usually measuring more than 0.6cm in greatest dimension. Morphologically, there is melanocytic atypia and the differential diagnosis from melanoma may be difficult. Patients are at an increased risk for the development of melanoma.", + "EBV positive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the elderly": "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma originally described in patients older than 50 years but it has been increasingly recognized in younger patients. Epstein-Barr virus is present in all cases. There is no known history of immunodeficiency or prior lymphoma.", + "EC cell carcinoid": "", + "Ecchondroma": "A common, benign cartiliginous neoplasm arising from the metaphysis of bone. The tumor grows on the surface of the bone; it may be pedunculated or sessile. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a cartilage cap, and a fibrous perichondrium that extends to the periosteum of the bone. In some cases, there is deletion of 8q24.1 chromosome locus.", + "Ecchondrosis": "An autosomal dominant neoplastic chondrogenic process affecting multiple sites. It is caused by mutations in the EXT1 or EXT2 genes. Grossly and microscopically, the lesions resemble an osteochondroma.", + "Eccrine acrospiroma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. Variants include the clear cell and nodular hidradenoma.", + "Eccrine adenocarcinoma": "", + "Eccrine cystadenoma": "A benign sweat gland cystic lesion that arises from the dermis. It is lined by a thin epithelial layer of cells with a slightly eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Eccrine dermal cylindroma": "A benign sweat gland neoplasm usually occurring in the scalp or the face. It may present as solitary or multiple papular or nodular lesions. It may be a sporadic lesion or part of Brooke-Spiegler syndrome. It arises from the dermis and has a multinodular, circumscribed appearance. The nodules contain basaloid cells with small, dark nuclei. Complete excision is usually curative.", + "Eccrine papillary adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma arising from the sweat glands. Most cases present as nodular lesions on the digits, usually in the hands. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial cells in the dermis forming nodules. Cystic structures containing papillary projections are also present. It may recur and metastasize, most commonly to the lungs.", + "Eccrine papillary adenoma": "A benign neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. It is characterized by the presence of eccrine ducts in the dermis containing intraluminal papillary projections.", + "Eccrine poroma": "A benign, well circumscribed sweat gland neoplasm with eccrine or apocrine differentiation. It usually presents as a solitary, dome-shaped papule, nodule, or plaque on acral sites. It is characterized by a proliferation of uniform basaloid cells in the dermis and it is associated with the presence of focal ductal and cystic structures. Complete excision is curative.", + "Eccrine poroma, malignant": "A carcinoma with eccrine differentiation arising from the sweat glands. It may arise de novo or as a malignant transformation of a pre-existing poroma. It usually grows in the legs, buttocks, feet, and trunk and usually presents as an ulcerative plaque. It is characterized by the presence of intraepidermal and dermal nests of malignant epithelial cells. It may recur after excision and metastasize to the lymph nodes and less frequently to distal anatomic sites.", + "Eccrine spiradenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm with eccrine or apocrine differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It usually presents as a solitary, well circumscribed, firm nodule in the face and upper trunk. It is characterized by the presence of basaloid cells forming nodules in the dermis. Cases of carcinoma arising from long standing spiradenomas have been reported.", + "ECL cell carcinoid, malignant": "A well differentiated, low grade neuroendocrine tumor (carcinoid tumor) arising from the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of enterochromaffin-like type granules in the neoplastic cells.", + "ECL cell carcinoid, NOS": "A well differentiated, low grade neuroendocrine tumor (carcinoid tumor) arising from the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of enterochromaffin-like type granules in the neoplastic cells.", + "Ectomesenchymoma": "An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the nervous system or soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a sarcomatous component (most often rhabdomyosarcoma) and a ganglionic or a neuroectodermal component.", + "Ectopic hamartomatous thymoma": "A benign, well-circumscribed tumor of the neck occurring in adults. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells, epithelial islands, and adipose tissue. There is no evidence of thymic origin or differentiation, despite the use of the term thymoma in the literature.", + "Elastofibroma": "A benign, slow-growing tumor arising from the soft tissues usually in the mid-thoracic region of the elderly. It is characterized by the presence of paucicellular collagenous tissue, adipocytes and a predominance of large coarse elastic fibers arranged in globules.", + "Embryonal adenocarcinoma": "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of large germ cells with abundant cytoplasm resembling epithelial cells, geographic necrosis, high mitotic activity, and pseudoglandular and pseudopapillary structures formation. It can arise from the testis, ovary, and extragonadal sites (central nervous system and mediastinum).", + "Embryonal adenoma": "", + "Embryonal carcinoma, infantile": "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor composed of primitive germ cells. It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in the pediatric population. It occurs in the infant testis, ovary, sacrococcygeal region, vagina, uterus, prostate, abdomen, liver, retroperitoneum, thorax, and pineal/third ventricle. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Treatment includes: surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. This tumor is very responsive to chemotherapy regimens that include cisplatinum.", + "Embryonal carcinoma, NOS": "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of large germ cells with abundant cytoplasm resembling epithelial cells, geographic necrosis, high mitotic activity, and pseudoglandular and pseudopapillary structures formation. It can arise from the testis, ovary, and extragonadal sites (central nervous system and mediastinum).", + "Embryonal carcinoma, polyembryonal type": "", + "Embryonal hepatoma": "A malignant liver neoplasm that occurs almost exclusively in infants, although isolated cases in older children and adults have been reported. Grossly, hepatoblastoma is solid, well circumscribed, and more often solitary than multiple. Microscopically, most of the tumors are composed exclusively of immature hepatocytic elements. About a fourth of hepatoblastomas contain a stromal component that may be undifferentiated or develop into bone or cartilage. The treatment of choice for hepatoblastoma is surgical excision with adjuvant therapy. Liver transplantation is being increasingly used as well.", + "Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, NOS": "A poorly circumscribed morphologic variant of rhabdomyosarcoma. It is characterized by the presence of primitive skeletal muscle differentiation in any stage of myogenesis.", + "Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, pleomorphic": "", + "Embryonal sarcoma": "An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that arises from the liver and usually occurs in older children. It is composed of immature spindle, stellate, polymorphous, and giant cells.", + "Embryonal teratoma": "A teratoma characterized by the presence of an extensive component of immature, fetal-type tissues.", + "Embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes C19MC-altered": "An aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the central nervous system. It is characterized by the presence of multilayered rosettes formation and the presence of amplification of the C19MC region on chromosome 19 (19q13.42).", + "Embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes, NOS": "A central nervous system embryonal neoplasm characterized by the presence of histological features consistent with embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes and absence of C19MC amplification.", + "Embryonal tumor with rhabdoid features": "A central nervous system embryonal neoplasm characterized by the presence of histological features consistent with atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor and absence of mutations of the INI1 gene or SMARCA4 (BRG1) gene.", + "Encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma, NOS (EFVPTC, NOS)": "", + "Encapsulated papillary carcinoma": "A typical papillary thyroid gland carcinoma that is totally surrounded by a fibrous capsule, which may be intact or only focally infiltrated by tumor growth. It accounts for about 10% of all cases of papillary thyroid gland carcinoma and has an excellent prognosis. Regional nodal metastases may be present, but bloodborne metastases are rare. The survival rate is nearly 100%. (WHO 2017)", + "Encapsulated papillary carcinoma with invasion": "A papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland which is encapsulated and resembles an encapsulated follicular neoplasm. Capsular invasion is present. The malignant follicular cells display the nuclear features that characterize the papillary adenocarcinomas of the thyroid gland.", + "Enchondroma": "A common benign hyaline cartilage neoplasm arising in the intramedullary bone. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, low mitotic activity, and in some cases, a nodular pattern and calcification. The small bones of the hands and feet are the most frequently affected sites.", + "Endocervical adenocarcinoma usual type": "An adenocarcinoma that arises from the endocervix. It is the most common type of endocervical adenocarcinoma. The neoplastic epithelium shows a pseudostratified architecture and the malignant cells have enlarged, elongated, and hyperchromatic nuclei.", + "Endocrine adenomatosis": "An autosomal dominant inherited neoplastic syndrome characterized by the development of various endocrine neoplasms and abnormalities in various anatomic sites. There are four types recognized: type 1 (MEN 1), caused by inactivation of the tumor suppressor gene MEN-1, type 2A (MEN 2A), caused by mutation of the RET gene, type 2B (MEN 2B) also caused by mutation of the RET gene, and type 4 (MEN 4) caused by mutation of the CDKN1B gene. Patients with MEN 1 may develop hyperparathyroidism and parathyroid gland adenomas, pituitary gland adenomas, pancreatic islet cell neoplasms, and carcinoid tumors. Patients with MEN 2A develop medullary thyroid carcinomas and may also develop pheochromocytomas and parathyroid gland hyperplasia. Patients with MEN 2B develop medullary thyroid carcinomas and numerous neural defects including neuromas. Patients with MEN 4 develop endocrine neoplasms, particularly in the parathyroid glands, pituitary, and pancreas.", + "Endocrine tumor, functioning, NOS": "A hormone producing endocrine neoplasm, associated with a hormonal syndrome.", + "Endodermal sinus tumor": "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor composed of primitive germ cells. It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in the pediatric population. It occurs in the infant testis, ovary, sacrococcygeal region, vagina, uterus, prostate, abdomen, liver, retroperitoneum, thorax, and pineal/third ventricle. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Treatment includes: surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. This tumor is very responsive to chemotherapy regimens that include cisplatinum.", + "Endolymphatic stromal myosis": "An infiltrating mesenchymal tumor arising from the uterine corpus, cervix, vagina, and the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of oval to spindle-shape cells that resemble the cells of the endometrial stroma, without evidence of significant atypia and pleomorphism. Numerous small vessels are also present. It is usually characterized by indolent growth and late recurrences.", + "Endometrial sarcoma, NOS": "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that affects the uterine corpus, and rarely, the ovaries, cervix, and vagina. In the uterine corpus it is classified as low grade or high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma. In the remainder of the anatomic sites it is classified as low grade endometrioid stromal sarcoma.", + "Endometrial stromal nodule": "A non-infiltrating, benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the uterine corpus. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells that resemble the cells of the proliferative phase of endometrial stroma and numerous thin-walled small vessels. It usually presents with abnormal uterine bleeding and menorrhagia.", + "Endometrial stromal sarcoma, high grade": "A rare, high grade sarcoma that arises from the endometrial stroma or myometrium without a specific type of differentiation. It was previously also known as high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma. In 2014, high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma was reclassified and is currently considered a distinct and rare neoplasm. Undifferentiated uterine sarcoma has a worse prognosis.", + "Endometrial stromal sarcoma, low grade": "An infiltrating mesenchymal tumor arising from the uterine corpus, cervix, vagina, and the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of oval to spindle-shape cells that resemble the cells of the endometrial stroma, without evidence of significant atypia and pleomorphism. Numerous small vessels are also present. It is usually characterized by indolent growth and late recurrences.", + "Endometrial stromal sarcoma, NOS": "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm that affects the uterine corpus, and rarely, the ovaries, cervix, and vagina. In the uterine corpus it is classified as low grade or high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma. In the remainder of the anatomic sites it is classified as low grade endometrioid stromal sarcoma.", + "Endometrial stromatosis": "An infiltrating mesenchymal tumor arising from the uterine corpus, cervix, vagina, and the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of oval to spindle-shape cells that resemble the cells of the endometrial stroma, without evidence of significant atypia and pleomorphism. Numerous small vessels are also present. It is usually characterized by indolent growth and late recurrences.", + "Endometrioid adenocarcinoma, ciliated cell variant": "An endometrioid adenocarcinoma arising from the endometrium, in which ciliated cells line the majority of the malignant glands.", + "Endometrioid adenocarcinoma, NOS": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. It can arise from the uterine body, ovary, fallopian tube, cervix, vagina, and uterine ligament.", + "Endometrioid adenocarcinoma, secretory variant": "An endometrioid adenocarcinoma arising from the endometrium. Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells containing glycogen vacuoles which are usually subnuclear and reminiscent of early secretory endometrium.", + "Endometrioid adenocarcinoma, villoglandular": "A primary endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium characterized by the presence of numerous finger-like villi lined by neoplastic columnar cells.", + "Endometrioid adenofibroma, borderline malignancy": "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is often fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Endometrioid adenofibroma, malignant": "", + "Endometrioid adenofibroma, NOS": "A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular structures with endometrial-type well-differentiated cells in a fibrotic stroma.", + "Endometrioid adenoma, borderline malignancy": "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is often fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Endometrioid adenoma, NOS": "", + "Endometrioid carcinoma with squamous differentiation": "An endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium showing squamous differentiation.", + "Endometrioid carcinoma, NOS": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. It can arise from the uterine body, ovary, fallopian tube, cervix, vagina, and uterine ligament.", + "Endometrioid cystadenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. It can arise from the uterine body, ovary, fallopian tube, cervix, vagina, and uterine ligament.", + "Endometrioid cystadenofibroma, borderline malignancy": "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is often fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Endometrioid cystadenofibroma, malignant": "", + "Endometrioid cystadenofibroma, NOS": "A benign neoplasm of the ovary characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by endometrial-type well-differentiated cells in a fibrotic stroma.", + "Endometrioid cystadenoma, borderline malignancy": "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is often fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Endometrioid cystadenoma, NOS": "", + "Endometrioid tumor of low malignant potential": "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary characterized by the presence of glandular or cystic spaces which contain atypical glandular epithelial cells resembling endometrial cells. The surrounding ovarian stroma is often fibrotic. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Endotheliomatous meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of tumor cells that form lobules. The tumor cells are generally uniform. Whorls and psammoma bodies are usually not present.", + "Endovascular papillary angioendothelioma": "An intermediate, rarely metastasizing blood vessel neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of lymphatic-like vascular channels and papillary endothelial proliferation.", + "Enteric adenocarcinoma": "", + "Enterochromaffin cell carcinoid": "", + "Enterochromaffin-like cell carcinoid, NOS": "A well differentiated, low grade neuroendocrine tumor (carcinoid tumor) arising from the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of enterochromaffin-like type granules in the neoplastic cells.", + "Enterochromaffin-like cell tumor, malignant": "A well differentiated, low grade neuroendocrine tumor (carcinoid tumor) arising from the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of enterochromaffin-like type granules in the neoplastic cells.", + "Enteroglucagonoma, malignant": "A glucagon-producing malignant endocrine neoplasm. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Enteroglucagonoma, NOS": "An endocrine neoplasm producing glucagon.", + "Enteropathy associated T-cell lymphoma": "A mature T-cell and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma of intraepithelial T-lymphocytes. It usually arises from the small intestine, most commonly the jejunum or ileum. Other less frequent primary anatomic sites include the duodenum, stomach, colon, or outside the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of pleomorphic medium-sized to large T-lymphocytes with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and moderate to abundant pale cytoplasm. It is associated with celiac disease.", + "Enteropathy type intestinal T-cell lymphoma": "A mature T-cell and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma of intraepithelial T-lymphocytes. It usually arises from the small intestine, most commonly the jejunum or ileum. Other less frequent primary anatomic sites include the duodenum, stomach, colon, or outside the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of pleomorphic medium-sized to large T-lymphocytes with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and moderate to abundant pale cytoplasm. It is associated with celiac disease.", + "Eosinophil adenocarcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic dyes.", + "Eosinophil adenoma": "An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic dyes.", + "Eosinophil carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic dyes.", + "Eosinophilic granuloma": "A clinical variant of Langerhans cell histiocytosis characterized by unifocal involvement of a bone (most often), skin, or lung. Patients are usually older children or adults usually presenting with a lytic bone lesion. The etiology is unknown. Morphologically, eosinophilic granuloma is characterized by the presence of Langerhans cells in a characteristic milieu which includes histiocytes, eosinophils, neutrophils, and small, mature lymphocytes.", + "Eosinophilic leukemia": "A rare myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by a clonal proliferation of eosinophilic precursors resulting in persistently increased numbers of eosinophils in the blood, marrow and peripheral tissues. Since acute eosinophilic leukemia is at best exceedingly rare, the term eosinophilic leukemia is normally used as a synonym for chronic eosinophilic leukemia. In cases in which it is impossible to prove clonality and there is no increase in blast cells, the diagnosis of \"idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome\" is preferred. (WHO, 2001)", + "Ependymoblastoma": "An aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the central nervous system. It is characterized by the presence of multilayered rosettes formation and the presence of amplification of the C19MC region on chromosome 19 (19q13.42).", + "Ependymoma, anaplastic": "A WHO grade III malignant glioma of ependymal origin with accelerated growth and an unfavorable clinical outcome, particularly in children. It is characterized by high mitotic activity, often accompanied by microvascular proliferation and pseudo-palisading necrosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Ependymoma, NOS": "A WHO grade II, slow growing tumor of children and young adults, usually located intraventricularly. It is the most common ependymal neoplasm. It often causes clinical symptoms by blocking cerebrospinal fluid pathways. Key histological features include perivascular pseudorosettes and ependymal rosettes. (WHO)", + "Ependymoma, RELA fusion-positive": "An ependymoma characterized by gene fusions involving RELA, a transcription factor involved in NK-kB pathway activity. It accounts for the majority of supratentorial ependymomas in children. It has an unfavorable outcome when compared to other ependymoma subtypes.", + "Epidermoid carcinoma in situ with questionable stromal invasion": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm involving all the layers of the squamous epithelium, but it is not certain if it is confined to the squamous epithelium or it has invaded the basement membrane and the underlying stroma.", + "Epidermoid carcinoma in situ, NOS": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm confined to the squamous epithelium, without invasion of the underlying tissues.", + "Epidermoid carcinoma, keratinizing": "Squamous cell carcinomas with morphologically prominent production of keratin.", + "Epidermoid carcinoma, large cell, nonkeratinizing": "A squamous cell carcinoma composed of large atypical cells, without morphologic evidence of keratin production.", + "Epidermoid carcinoma, NOS": "A carcinoma arising from squamous epithelial cells. Morphologically, it is characterized by the proliferation of atypical, often pleomorphic squamous cells. Squamous cell carcinomas are graded by the degree of cellular differentiation as well, moderately, or poorly differentiated. Well differentiated carcinomas are usually associated with keratin production and the presence of intercellular bridges between adjacent cells. Representative examples are lung squamous cell carcinoma, skin squamous cell carcinoma, and cervical squamous cell carcinoma.", + "Epidermoid carcinoma, small cell, nonkeratinizing": "A squamous cell carcinoma composed of small atypical cells, without morphologic evidence of keratin production.", + "Epidermoid carcinoma, spindle cell": "A poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with spindle cell features.", + "Epithelial ependymoma": "A WHO grade II, slow growing tumor of children and young adults, usually located intraventricularly. It is the most common ependymal neoplasm. It often causes clinical symptoms by blocking cerebrospinal fluid pathways. Key histological features include perivascular pseudorosettes and ependymal rosettes. (WHO)", + "Epithelial tumor, benign": "A neoplasm arising from the epithelial cells. It is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (severe cytologic atypia, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic rate). Benign epithelial neoplasms remain confined to the original site of growth and only rarely metastasize to other anatomic sites.", + "Epithelial tumor, malignant": "A malignant tumor arising from epithelial cells. Carcinomas that arise from glandular epithelium are called adenocarcinomas, those that arise from squamous epithelium are called squamous cell carcinomas, and those that arise from transitional epithelium are called transitional cell carcinomas. Morphologically, the malignant epithelial cells may display abnormal mitotic figures, anaplasia, and necrosis. Carcinomas are graded by the degree of cellular differentiation as well, moderately, or poorly differentiated. Carcinomas invade the surrounding tissues and tend to metastasize to other anatomic sites. Lung carcinoma, skin carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma, and prostate carcinoma are the most frequently seen carcinomas.", + "Epithelial-myoepithelial carcinoma": "A malignant neoplasm which occurs mostly in the major salivary glands (most frequently in the parotid gland), but also in the minor salivary glands of the oral mucosa and the tracheobronchial tree. It is characterized by the presence of ductal structures which are lined by an inner layer of cuboidal epithelial-type cells and an outer layer of myoepithelial cells with clear or eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Epithelioid and spindle cell nevus": "A benign, acquired or congenital, usually single skin lesion. It can occur on any area of the body, but most commonly occurs on the face of children and the thighs of young females. It is characterized by a proliferation of large spindle, oval, or large epithelioid melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction. The melanocytic proliferation subsequently extends into the dermis.", + "Epithelioid cell melanoma": "A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes.", + "Epithelioid cell nevus": "A nevus characterized by the presence of large epithelioid melanocytes.", + "Epithelioid cell sarcoma": "An aggressive malignant neoplasm of uncertain differentiation, characterized by the presence of epithelioid cells forming nodular patterns. The nodules often undergo central necrosis, resulting in a pseudogranulomatous growth pattern. It usually occurs in young adults. The most common sites of involvement are the extremities (distal-type epithelioid sarcoma), and less frequently the pelvis, perineum, and genital organs (proximal-type epithelioid sarcoma).", + "Epithelioid glioblastoma": "An IDH-wildtype glioblastoma characterized by the presence of large epithelioid cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, vesicular chromatin, and prominent nucleoli.", + "Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma, malignant": "", + "Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma, NOS": "A low-grade malignant blood vessel neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells. The neoplastic cells are arranged in cords and nests, which are embedded in a myxoid to hyalinized stroma.", + "Epithelioid hemangioma": "A hemangioma characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells.", + "Epithelioid leiomyoma": "A benign or malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumor with epithelioid morphology.", + "Epithelioid leiomyosarcoma": "A morphologic variant of leiomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of epithelioid round cells with eosinophilic to clear cytoplasm.", + "Epithelioid malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor": "A rare variant of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor composed predominantly or exclusively of epithelioid cells.", + "Epithelioid mesothelioma, benign": "A benign neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the formation of glandular and tubular patterns. It can occur in several anatomic sites including the pleura, peritoneum, and epididymis.", + "Epithelioid mesothelioma, malignant": "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of cells with epithelioid morphology. The epithelioid cells usually have eosinophilic cytoplasm, bland nuclei, and form tubulopapillary, microglandular, or sheet-like patterns.", + "Epithelioid mesothelioma, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of cells with epithelioid morphology. The epithelioid cells usually have eosinophilic cytoplasm, bland nuclei, and form tubulopapillary, microglandular, or sheet-like patterns.", + "Epithelioid MPNST": "A rare variant of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor composed predominantly or exclusively of epithelioid cells.", + "Epithelioid sarcoma": "An aggressive malignant neoplasm of uncertain differentiation, characterized by the presence of epithelioid cells forming nodular patterns. The nodules often undergo central necrosis, resulting in a pseudogranulomatous growth pattern. It usually occurs in young adults. The most common sites of involvement are the extremities (distal-type epithelioid sarcoma), and less frequently the pelvis, perineum, and genital organs (proximal-type epithelioid sarcoma).", + "Epithelioma adenoides cysticum": "A benign hair follicle neoplasm with trichoblastic differentiation. It usually presents as a solitary papular lesion It most often presents on the head and neck area, but it may develop in any anatomic site containing hair follicles. Because of its benign nature, treatment usually is not required, provided that the diagnosis has been established with certainty.", + "Epithelioma, benign": "A neoplasm arising from the epithelial cells. It is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (severe cytologic atypia, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic rate). Benign epithelial neoplasms remain confined to the original site of growth and only rarely metastasize to other anatomic sites.", + "Epithelioma, malignant": "", + "Epithelioma, NOS": "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from and is composed of epithelial cells. This category include adenomas, papillomas, and carcinomas.", + "Erythremic myelosis, NOS": "Acute erythroid leukemia characterised by the presence of immature erythroid cells in the bone marrow (at least 80% of the cellular component), without evidence of a significant myeloblastic cell population present.", + "Erythroleukemia": "Acute erythroid leukemia characterised by the presence of at least 50% erythroid precursors and at least 20% myeloblasts in the bone marrow.", + "Esophageal glandular dysplasia (intraepithelial neoplasia), high grade": "A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities involve both the lower and the upper half of the esophageal glandular epithelium.", + "Esophageal glandular dysplasia (intraepithelial neoplasia), low grade": "A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities are confined to the lower half of the esophageal glandular epithelium.", + "Esophageal intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade": "A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities involve both the lower and the upper half of the esophageal mucosa. It includes lesions termed moderate dysplasia, and carcinoma in situ (severe dysplasia). (WHO, 2000)", + "Esophageal squamous intraepithelial neoplasia (dysplasia), high grade": "A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities involve both the lower and the upper half of the esophageal squamous epithelium.", + "Esophageal squamous intraepithelial neoplasia (dysplasia), low grade": "A lesion in which the architectural and cytologic abnormalities are confined to the lower half of the esophageal squamous epithelium.", + "Essential hemorrhagic thrombocythaemia": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm that involves primarily the megakaryocytic lineage. It is characterized by sustained thrombocytosis in the blood, increased numbers of large, mature megakaryocytes in the bone marrow, and episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage. (WHO, 2008)", + "Essential thrombocythemia": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm that involves primarily the megakaryocytic lineage. It is characterized by sustained thrombocytosis in the blood, increased numbers of large, mature megakaryocytes in the bone marrow, and episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage. (WHO, 2008)", + "Esthesioneuroblastoma": "A rare neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. Microscopically, it is characterized by neuroblastic differentiation with occasional formation of rosettes. If the tumor is not resected at an early stage, the prognosis is usually poor.", + "Esthesioneurocytoma": "", + "Esthesioneuroepithelioma": "A rare neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. Microscopically, it is characterized by neuroblastic differentiation with occasional formation of rosettes. If the tumor is not resected at an early stage, the prognosis is usually poor.", + "Ewing sarcoma": "A small round cell tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation. It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor. It affects mostly males under age 20, and it can occur in soft tissue or bone. Pain and the presence of a mass are the most common clinical symptoms.", + "Ewing tumor": "A small round cell tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation. It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor. It affects mostly males under age 20, and it can occur in soft tissue or bone. Pain and the presence of a mass are the most common clinical symptoms.", + "Extra-abdominal desmoid": "An insidious poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the soft tissues outside the abdomen. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, vascular collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern.", + "Extra-adrenal paraganglioma, malignant": "An extra-adrenal paraganglioma that metastasizes to regional or distant anatomic sites. Common sites of metastasis include the lymph nodes, lungs, bones, and liver.", + "Extra-adrenal paraganglioma, NOS": "A benign or malignant paraganglioma arising from sympathetic or parasympathetic paraganglia outside the adrenal gland.", + "Extracutaneous mastocytoma": "A localized tumor consisting of mature mast cells. (WHO, 2001)", + "Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue": "An indolent, extranodal type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small B-lymphocytes (centrocyte-like cells). The gastrointestinal tract is the most common site of involvement. Other common sites of involvement include lung, head and neck, ocular adnexae, skin, thyroid, and breast. Gastric involvement is associated with the presence of H. pylori infection. (WHO, 2001)", + "Extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal type": "An aggressive, predominantly extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. It is characterized by an often angiocentric and angiodestructive cellular infiltrate composed of EBV positive NK/T cells. The nasal cavity is the most common site of involvement. Patients often present with midfacial destructive lesions (lethal midline granuloma). The disease may disseminate rapidly to various anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal tract, skin, testis, and cervical lymph nodes. It is also known as angiocentric T-cell lymphoma. The term \"polymorphic reticulosis\" has been widely used to describe the morphologic changes seen in this type of lymphoma. However, the latter term may also apply to lymphomatoid granulomatosis, which is an angiocentric and angiodestructive EBV positive B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder.", + "Extraosseous plasmacytoma": "A plasma cell neoplasm arising at an extraosseous site. There is no involvement of the bone marrow. It most frequently involves the oropharynx, nasopharynx, sinuses, and larynx. Other sites of involvement include the gastrointestinal tract, central nervous system, breast, skin, lymph nodes, and bladder. A minority of patients have a monoclonal gammopathy. Treatment includes radiation therapy. Progression to plasma cell myeloma occurs in a minority of patients.", + "Extraventricular neurocytoma": "A WHO grade II neoplasm that arises from the brain parenchyma. Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of neoplastic uniform, round cells with neuronal differentiation. Unlike central neurocytoma, it does not involve the lateral ventricles. It usually affects young adults and has a favorable prognosis.", + "FAB L2": "An antiquated term that refers to acute lymphoblastic leukemia with large and irregular lymphoblasts.", + "FAB L3": "The leukemic counterpart of Burkitt's lymphoma. The characteristic Burkitt cells are seen in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This is an aggressive leukemia.", + "FAB Ll": "An acute lymphoblastic leukemia (current term: precursor lymphoblastic leukemia) of B-or T-cell origin which according to the FAB classification is characterized by the presence of more mature-appearing lymphoblasts.", + "FAB M1": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) characterized by blasts without evidence of maturation to more mature neutrophils. (WHO, 2001)", + "FAB M2, AML1(CBF-alpha)/ETO": "An acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22; q22.1) giving rise to RUNX1/RUNX1T1 fusion transcript and showing maturation in the neutrophil lineage. The bone marrow and the peripheral blood show large myeloblasts with abundant basophilic cytoplasm, often containing azurophilic granules. This type of AML is associated with good response to chemotherapy and high complete remission rate.", + "FAB M2, NOS": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) characterized by blasts with evidence of maturation to more mature neutrophils. (WHO, 2001)", + "FAB M2, t(8;21)(q22;q22)": "An acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q22; q22.1) giving rise to RUNX1/RUNX1T1 fusion transcript and showing maturation in the neutrophil lineage. The bone marrow and the peripheral blood show large myeloblasts with abundant basophilic cytoplasm, often containing azurophilic granules. This type of AML is associated with good response to chemotherapy and high complete remission rate.", + "FAB M3 (includes all variants)": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in which abnormal promyelocytes predominate. It is characterized by the PML-RARA fusion. There are two variants: the typical and microgranular variant. This AML is particularly sensitive to treatment with all trans-retinoic acid and has a favorable prognosis. (WHO)", + "FAB M4": "An acute leukemia characterized by the proliferation of both neutrophil and monocyte precursors. (WHO, 2001)", + "FAB M4Eo": "Acute myelomonocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of abnormal bone marrow eosinophils. It is associated with inv(16)(p13.1;q22) or t(16;16)(p13.1;q22). It has a favorable prognosis.", + "FAB M5 (includes all variants)": "An acute myeloid leukemia in which the majority of monocytic cells are promonocytes. (WHO, 2001)", + "FAB M6": "An acute myeloid leukemia characterized by a predominant immature erythroid population. There are two subtypes recognized: erythroleukemia and pure erythroid leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "FAB M7": "An acute myeloid leukemia in which at least 50% of the blasts are of megakaryocytic lineage. (WHO, 2001)", + "FAB MO": "An acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in which the blasts do not show evidence of myeloid differentiation by morphology and conventional cytochemistry. (WHO, 2001)", + "Familial polyposis coli": "An autosomal dominant disorder, characterized by the presence of multiple adenomas in the colon and rectum. It is caused by a germline mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) gene which is located on the long arm of chromosome 5. The adenomas are most often tubular, and they have the tendency to progress to adenocarcinoma. They can occur throughout the colon, but they tend to concentrate in the rectum and sigmoid colon. The colorectal adenomas are detected during endoscopic examination between the age of 10 and 20 years. The adenomas increase in size and numbers with age, and there is usually progression of one or more adenomas to adenocarcinoma. The mean age of development of adenocarcinoma is about 40 years. Signs include rectal bleeding and mucousy diarrhea.", + "Fascial fibroma": "A benign fibrous tumor arising from the fascial connective tissue.", + "Fascial fibrosarcoma": "A malignant fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the fascial connective tissue.", + "Fetal adenocarcinoma": "A rare morphologic variant of lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of glandular structures containing glycogen-rich cells forming tubules that resemble fetal lung tubules.", + "Fetal adenoma": "A thyroid gland adenoma composed of microfollicular structures.", + "Fetal fat cell lipoma": "A rare benign slow growing adipose tissue tumor, characterized by the presence of polygonal brown fat cells with multivacuolated and/or granular cytoplasm. The tumor is usually painless and is most often seen in young adults.", + "Fetal lipoma, NOS": "A lipoma usually occurring in the extremities of young children (usually boys). It is characterized by lobules of adipose tissue, separated by fibrous septa. The adipose tissue is composed of mature adipocytes and lipoblasts. The lipoblasts may be scarce, depending on the age of the patient.", + "Fetal lipomatosis": "A benign disorder characterized by the presence of multiple lipoblastomas.", + "Fetal rhabdomyoma": "A rare benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. It is characterized by the presence of immature spindle and polygonal cells within a scant myxoid stroma. It usually develops in the head and neck region of young children.", + "Fibrillary astrocytoma": "The most frequent histological variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is predominantly composed of fibrillary neoplastic astrocytes. Nuclear atypia is a diagnostic criterion but mitotic activity, necrosis and microvascular proliferation are absent. The occasional or regional occurrence of gemistocytic neoplastic cells is compatible with the diagnosis of fibrillary astrocytoma. (WHO)", + "Fibro-osteoma": "A well circumscribed lesion of the bone, most frequently arising from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of fibrous tissue and a mineralized component which may be woven bone, lamellar bone, or cementum-like material. Complete removal is recommended, since it continues to enlarge if left untreated.", + "Fibroadenoma, NOS": "A benign tumor of the breast characterized by the presence of stromal and epithelial elements. It presents as a painless, solitary, slow growing, firm, and mobile mass. It is the most common benign breast lesion. It usually occurs in women of childbearing age. The majority of fibroadenomas do not recur after complete excision. A slightly increased risk of developing cancer within fibroadenomas or in the breast tissue of patients previously treated for fibroadenomas has been reported.", + "Fibroameloblastic odontoma": "A rare benign neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a fibromyxoid stroma, epithelial component, dentin, and enamel. Recurrences are rare.", + "Fibroblastic liposarcoma": "A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of a fibroblastic component.", + "Fibroblastic meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of spindle cells that form bundles in a collagen matrix.", + "Fibroblastic osteosarcoma": "A conventional osteosarcoma characterized by the presence of spindle shaped cells.", + "Fibroblastic reticular cell tumor": "A very rare dendritic cell tumor affecting the lymph nodes, spleen, and soft tissues. Morphologically it is similar to the interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma or follicular dendritic cell sarcoma. The tumor cells are positive for cytokeratin and CD68. Clinical outcome is variable.", + "Fibrochondrosarcoma": "A malignant cartilaginous matrix-producing mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the bone and soft tissue. It usually affects middle-aged to elderly adults. The pelvic bones, ribs, shoulder girdle, and long bones are the most common sites of involvement. Most chondrosarcomas arise de novo, but some may develop in a preexisting benign cartilaginous lesion.", + "Fibroepithelial basal cell carcinoma, Pinkus type": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as an elevated or erythematous nodular lesion usually in the back. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of cords of basaloid cells extending from the epidermis into the dermis, creating a fenestrating pattern. It follows an indolent course.", + "Fibroepithelioma of Pinkus type": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as an elevated or erythematous nodular lesion usually in the back. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of cords of basaloid cells extending from the epidermis into the dermis, creating a fenestrating pattern. It follows an indolent course.", + "Fibroepithelioma, NOS": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as an elevated or erythematous nodular lesion usually in the back. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of cords of basaloid cells extending from the epidermis into the dermis, creating a fenestrating pattern. It follows an indolent course.", + "Fibrofolliculoma": "A rare, pilar-associated mesenchyme neoplasm with follicular differentiation. It usually occurs in the face, neck, and chest. It presents as a dome-shaped papular lesion. It is composed of epithelial and mesenchymal cells. Patients with Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome may develop follicular fibromas.", + "Fibroid uterus": "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the body of the uterus. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern.", + "Fibrolipoma": "A benign well-circumscribed tumor composed of mature adipocytes, characterized by areas of abundant fibrous tissue.", + "Fibroliposarcoma": "A usually painless malignant tumor that arises from adipose tissue. Microscopically, it may contain a spectrum of neoplastic adipocytes ranging from lipoblasts to pleomorphic malignant adipocytes. Morphologic variants include: well differentiated, dedifferentiated, pleomorphic, and myxoid liposarcoma. The metastatic potential is higher in less differentiated tumors.", + "Fibroma, NOS": "A non-metastasizing neoplasm arising from the fibrous tissue. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts.", + "Fibromatosis-like metaplastic carcinoma": "", + "Fibromyoma": "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the body of the uterus. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern.", + "Fibromyxolipoma": "A benign well-circumscribed tumor composed of mature adipocytes, characterized by areas of abundant fibrous tissue and extensive myxoid change.", + "Fibromyxoma": "A soft tissue tumor of uncertain lineage characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle-shaped to round cells in a fibromyxoid stroma. Metaplastic bone formation may or may not be present.", + "Fibromyxosarcoma": "A malignant fibroblastic neoplasm arising from the soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped cells, cellular pleomorphism, thin-walled blood vessels, fibrous septa, and myxoid stroma.", + "Fibrosarcoma, NOS": "A malignant mesenchymal fibroblastic neoplasm affecting the soft tissue and bone.", + "Fibrosarcomatous dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans": "A morphologic variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans characterized by the presence of a fibrosarcomatous component.", + "Fibrous astrocytoma": "The most frequent histological variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is predominantly composed of fibrillary neoplastic astrocytes. Nuclear atypia is a diagnostic criterion but mitotic activity, necrosis and microvascular proliferation are absent. The occasional or regional occurrence of gemistocytic neoplastic cells is compatible with the diagnosis of fibrillary astrocytoma. (WHO)", + "Fibrous histiocytoma of tendon sheath": "A tumor usually arising in the synovium of joints, bursa or tendon sheath. It is characterized by the presence of mononuclear cells, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, hemosiderin-laden macrophages, foam cells, and an inflammatory infiltrate. According to the growth pattern, it is classified as localized or diffuse.", + "Fibrous histiocytoma, NOS": "A benign neoplasm composed of fibroblastic spindle cells in a whorled storiform pattern. It is characterized by the presence of foam cells, inflammatory cells, hemosiderin deposition and stromal hemorrhage.", + "Fibrous meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of spindle cells that form bundles in a collagen matrix.", + "Fibrous mesothelioma, benign": "A localized neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation, that arises from the pleura. It is characterized by the presence of round to spindle-shaped cells, hylanized stroma formation, thin-walled branching blood vessels, and thin bands of collagen.", + "Fibrous mesothelioma, malignant": "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells. Anaplastic morphologic features and multinucleated malignant cells may also be seen.", + "Fibrous mesothelioma, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells. Anaplastic morphologic features and multinucleated malignant cells may also be seen.", + "Fibrous papule of nose": "", + "Fibroxanthoma, malignant": "An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of a pleomorphic malignant cellular infiltrate. It is also known as malignant fibrous histiocytoma.", + "Fibroxanthoma, NOS": "A benign neoplasm composed of fibroblastic spindle cells in a whorled storiform pattern. It is characterized by the presence of foam cells, inflammatory cells, hemosiderin deposition and stromal hemorrhage.", + "Flat adenoma": "An adenoma of the gastrointestinal tract mucosa which grossly and morphologically does not appear as an elevated or polypoid lesion.", + "Flat intraepithelial glandular neoplasia, high grade": "", + "Flat intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade": "", + "Florid osseous dysplasia": "A rare, benign, slow growing, multifocal, and expansile lesion of the jaws. Both familiar and sporadic cases have been reported. It is characterized by a fibroblastic proliferation, cementum, and limited bone formation.", + "Follicular adenocarcinoma, moderately differentiated": "", + "Follicular adenocarcinoma, NOS": "A differentiated adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. The nuclear features which characterize the thyroid gland papillary carcinoma are absent. Radiation exposure is a risk factor and it comprises approximately 10% to 15% of thyroid cancers. Clinically, it usually presents as a solitary mass in the thyroid gland. It is generally unifocal and thickly encapsulated and shows invasion of the capsule or the vessels. Diagnostic procedures include thyroid ultrasound and fine needle biopsy.", + "Follicular adenocarcinoma, trabecular": "", + "Follicular adenocarcinoma, well differentiated": "A differentiated adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. The nuclear features which characterize the thyroid gland papillary carcinoma are absent. Radiation exposure is a risk factor and it comprises approximately 10% to 15% of thyroid cancers. Clinically, it usually presents as a solitary mass in the thyroid gland. It is generally unifocal and thickly encapsulated and shows invasion of the capsule or the vessels. Diagnostic procedures include thyroid ultrasound and fine needle biopsy.", + "Follicular adenoma": "A benign, encapsulated tumor, arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. It may be associated with thyroid hormone secretion but it does not have malignant characteristics.", + "Follicular adenoma, oxyphilic cell": "A benign neoplasm composed of large cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm. Representative examples include oncocytic adenomas of the thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, and pituitary gland.", + "Follicular carcinoma, encapsulated": "", + "Follicular carcinoma, minimally invasive": "", + "Follicular carcinoma, moderately differentiated": "", + "Follicular carcinoma, NOS": "A differentiated adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. The nuclear features which characterize the thyroid gland papillary carcinoma are absent. Radiation exposure is a risk factor and it comprises approximately 10% to 15% of thyroid cancers. Clinically, it usually presents as a solitary mass in the thyroid gland. It is generally unifocal and thickly encapsulated and shows invasion of the capsule or the vessels. Diagnostic procedures include thyroid ultrasound and fine needle biopsy.", + "Follicular carcinoma, oxyphilic cell": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of large malignant epithelial cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (oncocytes). Representative examples include thyroid gland oncocytic follicular carcinoma, oncocytic breast carcinoma, and salivary gland oncocytic carcinoma.", + "Follicular carcinoma, trabecular": "", + "Follicular carcinoma, well differentiated": "A differentiated adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. The nuclear features which characterize the thyroid gland papillary carcinoma are absent. Radiation exposure is a risk factor and it comprises approximately 10% to 15% of thyroid cancers. Clinically, it usually presents as a solitary mass in the thyroid gland. It is generally unifocal and thickly encapsulated and shows invasion of the capsule or the vessels. Diagnostic procedures include thyroid ultrasound and fine needle biopsy.", + "Follicular dendritic cell sarcoma": "A neoplasm composed of spindle to ovoid cells which have morphologic and immunophenotypic characteristics of follicular dendritic cells. It affects lymph nodes and other sites including the tonsils, gastrointestinal tract, spleen, liver, soft tissues, skin, and oral cavity. It usually behaves as a low grade sarcoma. Treatment options include complete surgical removal of the tumor with or without adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy. Recurrences have been reported in up to half of the cases.", + "Follicular dendritic cell tumor": "A neoplasm composed of spindle to ovoid cells which have morphologic and immunophenotypic characteristics of follicular dendritic cells. It affects lymph nodes and other sites including the tonsils, gastrointestinal tract, spleen, liver, soft tissues, skin, and oral cavity. It usually behaves as a low grade sarcoma. Treatment options include complete surgical removal of the tumor with or without adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy. Recurrences have been reported in up to half of the cases.", + "Follicular fibroma": "A rare, pilar-associated mesenchyme neoplasm with follicular differentiation. It usually occurs in the face, neck, and chest. It presents as a dome-shaped papular lesion. It is composed of epithelial and mesenchymal cells. Patients with Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome may develop follicular fibromas.", + "Follicular lymphoma, grade 1": "A follicular lymphoma which contains up to 5 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Follicular lymphoma, grade 2": "A follicular lymphoma which contains 6-15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Follicular lymphoma, grade 3": "A follicular lymphoma which contains more than 15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Follicular lymphoma, grade 3A": "A grade 3 follicular lymphoma in which centrocytes are present.", + "Follicular lymphoma, grade 3B": "A grade 3 follicular lymphoma composed of solid sheets of centroblasts.", + "Follicular lymphoma, NOS": "A neoplasm of follicle centre B cells which has at least a partial follicular pattern. Follicular lymphomas comprise about 35% of adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas in the U.S. and 22% worldwide. Most patients have widespread disease at diagnosis. Morphologically, follicular lymphomas are classified as Grade 1, Grade 2, and Grade 3, depending on the percentage of the large lymphocytes present. The vast majority of cases (70-95%) express the BCL-2 rearrangement [t(14;18)]. Histological grade correlates with prognosis. Grades 1 and 2 follicular lymphomas are indolent and grade 3 is more aggressive (adapted from WHO, 2001).", + "Follicular lymphoma, small cleaved cell": "A follicular lymphoma which contains up to 5 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC), encapsulated angioinvasive": "An encapsulated follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland which shows angioinvasion.", + "Folliculome lipidique": "", + "Franklin disease": "A clonal disorder characterized by the secretion of a truncated gamma chain. In most cases, it is associated with morphologic changes also seen in lymphoplasmacytic lymphomas, but the clinical course is typically more aggressive than in lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma.", + "G cell tumor, malignant": "A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor. It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of gastrin and associated with Zollinger Ellison syndrome. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "G cell tumor, NOS": "A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor. It is usually located in the pancreas but it is also found at other anatomic sites, including the stomach and small intestine.", + "Gamma heavy chain disease": "A clonal disorder characterized by the secretion of a truncated gamma chain. In most cases, it is associated with morphologic changes also seen in lymphoplasmacytic lymphomas, but the clinical course is typically more aggressive than in lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma.", + "Gangliocytic paraganglioma": "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from paraganglia located along the sympathetic or parasympathetic nerves. Infrequently, it may arise outside the usual distribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic paraganglia. Tumors arising from the adrenal gland medulla are called pheochromocytomas. Morphologically, paragangliomas usually display a nesting (Zellballen) growth pattern. There are no reliable morphologic criteria to distinguish between benign and malignant paragangliomas. The only definitive indicator of malignancy is the presence of regional or distant metastases.", + "Gangliocytoma": "A well differentiated, slow growing neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells.", + "Ganglioglioma, anaplastic": "A WHO grade III neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells and anaplastic glial cells. The anaplastic changes in the glial component and high MIB-1 and TP53 labeling indices may indicate aggressive behavior. However, the correlation of histological anaplasia with clinical outcome is inconsistent. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Ganglioglioma, NOS": "A well differentiated, slow growing neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells and neoplastic glial cells. Some gangliogliomas show anaplastic features in their glial component and are considered to be WHO grade III. Rare cases of newly diagnosed gangliogliomas with grade IV (glioblastoma) changes in the glial component have also been reported. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Ganglioneuroblastoma": "A neuroblastic tumor characterized by the presence of neuroblastic cells, ganglion cells, and a stroma with Schwannian differentiation constituting more than fifty-percent of the tumor volume. There are two histologic subtypes identified: ganglioneuroblastoma, intermixed and ganglioneuroblastoma, nodular.", + "Ganglioneuroma": "A benign neuroblastic tumor of the sympathetic nervous system that occurs in childhood. Ganglioneuroma typically arises from the sympathetic trunk in the mediastinum. Histologic features include spindle cell proliferation (resembling a neurofibroma) and the presence of large ganglion cells. Common presenting features include a palpable abdominal mass, hepatomegaly, and a thoracic mass detected on routine chest X-ray.", + "Ganglioneuromatosis": "Extensive and diffuse infiltration of tissues by ganglioneuroma.", + "GANT": "A variant of gastrointestinal stromal tumor with ultrastructural features of neural differentiation. It is composed of spindle or epithelioid neoplastic cells.", + "Gastrin cell tumor": "A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor. It is usually located in the pancreas but it is also found at other anatomic sites, including the stomach and small intestine.", + "Gastrin cell tumor, malignant": "A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor. It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of gastrin and associated with Zollinger Ellison syndrome. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Gastrinoma, malignant": "A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor. It is characterized by inappropriate secretion of gastrin and associated with Zollinger Ellison syndrome. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Gastrinoma, NOS": "A gastrin-producing neuroendocrine tumor. It is usually located in the pancreas but it is also found at other anatomic sites, including the stomach and small intestine.", + "Gastrointestinal autonomic nerve tumor": "A variant of gastrointestinal stromal tumor with ultrastructural features of neural differentiation. It is composed of spindle or epithelioid neoplastic cells.", + "Gastrointestinal pacemaker cell tumor": "", + "Gastrointestinal stromal sarcoma": "High Risk Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor", + "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor, benign": "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that is characterized by a maximum diameter equal or less than 5 cm (gastric localization), or equal or less than 2 cm (intestinal localization) and no more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields.", + "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor, malignant": "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that is characterized by large size (diameter greater than 10 cm for gastric localization and greater than 5 cm for intestinal localization) or more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields.", + "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor, NOS": "A stromal tumor most commonly seen in the gastrointestinal tract. Rare cases of solitary masses in the omentum or the mesentery have also been reported (extragastrointestinal gastrointestinal stromal tumor). It is a tumor that differentiates along the lines of interstitial cells of Cajal. Most cases contain KIT- or PDGFRA-activating mutations. Until recently, surgery has been the only effective therapy for this tumor. However, many patients still experience recurrence. Conventional chemotherapy and radiation therapy have been of limited value. A KIT tyrosine kinase inhibitor, imatinib mesylate (also known as STI-571 or Gleevec), is now effective in the treatment of relapsed and unresectable cases.", + "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor, uncertain malignant potential": "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that is characterized by a maximum diameter greater than 5 cm and equal or less than 10 cm (gastric localization), or greater than 2 cm and equal or less than 5 cm (intestinal localization) and no more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields.", + "Gelatinous adenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "Gelatinous carcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "Gemistocytic astrocytoma": "A rare variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is characterized by the presence of a conspicuous, though variable, fraction of gemistocytic neoplastic astrocytes. Gemistocytes are round to oval astrocytes with abundant, glassy, non-fibrillary cytoplasm which appears to displace the dark, angulated nucleus to the periphery of the cell. To make the diagnosis of gemistocytic astrocytoma, gemistocytes should amount to more than approximately 20% of all tumor cells. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Gemistocytoma": "A rare variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is characterized by the presence of a conspicuous, though variable, fraction of gemistocytic neoplastic astrocytes. Gemistocytes are round to oval astrocytes with abundant, glassy, non-fibrillary cytoplasm which appears to displace the dark, angulated nucleus to the periphery of the cell. To make the diagnosis of gemistocytic astrocytoma, gemistocytes should amount to more than approximately 20% of all tumor cells. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Genital rhabdomyoma": "A rare benign skeletal muscle neoplasm arising from the female genital tract. It is characterized by the presence of small nucleated rhabdomyoblasts within a fibrous and myxoid stroma.", + "Germ cell tumor, nonseminomatous": "A term that refers to teratoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, or mixed forms of these tumors.", + "Germ cell tumor, NOS": "A benign or malignant, gonadal or extragonadal neoplasm that originates from germ cells. Representative examples include teratoma, seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, and yolk sac tumor.", + "Germ cell tumors with associated hematological malignancy": "An extragonadal non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor that arises from the mediastinum and is associated with a hematologic malignancy. The hematologic malignancies are clonally related to the malignant germ cell tumor and include acute leukemias, myelodysplastic syndromes, myeloproliferative neoplasms, and mastocytosis.", + "Germinoma": "A malignant germ cell tumor arising in the central nervous system. It is characterized by the presence of primitive, large malignant germ cells and lymphocytes.", + "Ghost cell odontogenic carcinoma": "A carcinoma usually arising from the maxilla and less often the mandible. Symptoms include swelling and paresthesia. It is characterized by the presence of rounded islands of malignant epithelial cells in a fibrous stroma and the benign features of calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor. The clinical course varies from slow growing and locally invasive to rapidly growing and highly aggressive with metastases.", + "Giant cell and spindle cell carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of giant, pleomorphic cells and spindle cells.", + "Giant cell angiofibroma": "A morphologic variant of angiofibroma characterized by the presence of multinucleated giant cells, collagenous or myxoid stroma, focal sclerotic areas, and angiectoid spaces.", + "Giant cell carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of giant, pleomorphic cells.", + "Giant cell fibroblastoma": "A rare, locally aggressive fibroblastic neoplasm typically affecting young patients (predominantly boys). It manifests with painless nodules in the dermis or subcutaneous tissues. Morphologically, it contains giant cells and wide vessel-like spaces. This tumor can recur but metastases have not been reported.", + "Giant cell glioblastoma": "A rare histological variant of glioblastoma (WHO grade IV) with a predominance of bizarre, multinucleated giant cells, an occasionally abundant stromal reticulin network, and a high frequency of TP53 mutations. (WHO)", + "Giant cell sarcoma": "A sarcoma characterized by the presence of large, anaplastic malignant cells.", + "Giant cell sarcoma of bone": "A malignant tumor that arises from the bone. It is characterized by the presence of an area of high grade sarcoma in an otherwise typical giant cell tumor (primary malignancy in giant cell tumor), or the presence of sarcoma in which the pre-existing giant cell tumor may or may not be apparent (secondary malignancy in giant cell tumor).", + "Giant cell tumor of bone, malignant": "A malignant tumor that arises from the bone. It is characterized by the presence of an area of high grade sarcoma in an otherwise typical giant cell tumor (primary malignancy in giant cell tumor), or the presence of sarcoma in which the pre-existing giant cell tumor may or may not be apparent (secondary malignancy in giant cell tumor).", + "Giant cell tumor of bone, NOS": "A benign but locally aggressive tumor that arises from the bone and is composed of mononuclear cells admixed with macrophages and osteoclast-like giant cells. It usually arises from the ends of long bones or the vertebrae. Clinical presentation includes pain, edema, and decreased range of motion in the affected joint.", + "Giant cell tumor of soft parts, NOS": "A painless, well circumscribed tumor arising in soft tissue, usually of the upper and lower extremities. Morphologically, it is characterized by a multinodular growth pattern. The cellular infiltrate is composed of mononuclear round or oval cells and multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, in a rich vascular stroma. It rarely metastasizes.", + "Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath": "A tumor usually arising in the synovium of joints, bursa or tendon sheath. It is characterized by the presence of mononuclear cells, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, hemosiderin-laden macrophages, foam cells, and an inflammatory infiltrate. According to the growth pattern, it is classified as localized or diffuse.", + "Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath, malignant": "An uncommon malignant tumor arising from the tendon sheath. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of a cellular infiltrate reminiscent of a giant cell tumor with prominent malignant characteristics. Recurrent giant cell tumors with a sarcomatous dedifferentiation are included in this category as well.", + "Giant fibroadenoma": "A breast fibroadenoma characterized by a very large size. This term has also been used as a synonym for juvenile fibroadenoma by some authors. The latter is characterized by epithelial hyperplasia and an increased stromal cellularity.", + "Giant osteoid osteoma": "A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the spine. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The tumor is composed of woven bone trabeculae and shares similar histologic characteristics with the osteoid osteoma. Surgical curettage is the treatment of choice. The prognosis is excellent.", + "Giant pigmented nevus, NOS": "A rare melanocytic lesion occurring at birth, comprising at least 5% of the body surface area. It usually presents as a dark brown to black hairy lesion. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of a compound or intradermal nevus. There is an increased risk of malignant transformation to melanoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and poorly differentiated malignant tumors.", + "Gigantiform cementoma": "A rare, benign, slow growing, multifocal, and expansile lesion of the jaws. Both familiar and sporadic cases have been reported. It is characterized by a fibroblastic proliferation, cementum, and limited bone formation.", + "GIST, benign": "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that is characterized by a maximum diameter equal or less than 5 cm (gastric localization), or equal or less than 2 cm (intestinal localization) and no more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields.", + "GIST, malignant": "A gastrointestinal stromal tumor that is characterized by large size (diameter greater than 10 cm for gastric localization and greater than 5 cm for intestinal localization) or more than 5 mitotic figures per 50 high power fields.", + "GIST, NOS": "A stromal tumor most commonly seen in the gastrointestinal tract. Rare cases of solitary masses in the omentum or the mesentery have also been reported (extragastrointestinal gastrointestinal stromal tumor). It is a tumor that differentiates along the lines of interstitial cells of Cajal. Most cases contain KIT- or PDGFRA-activating mutations. Until recently, surgery has been the only effective therapy for this tumor. However, many patients still experience recurrence. Conventional chemotherapy and radiation therapy have been of limited value. A KIT tyrosine kinase inhibitor, imatinib mesylate (also known as STI-571 or Gleevec), is now effective in the treatment of relapsed and unresectable cases.", + "Glandular intraepithelial neoplasia, grade I": "Low Grade Glandular Intraepithelial Neoplasia", + "Glandular intraepithelial neoplasia, grade II": "Grade II Glandular Intraepithelial Neoplasia", + "Glandular intraepithelial neoplasia, grade III": "A high grade intraepithelial neoplasia in which there is marked architectural distortion and crowding of the glands, associated with severe cellular atypia. The neoplastic cells display pleomorphic and hyperchromatic nuclei.", + "Glandular intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade": "This lesion shows moderate or marked architectural distortion with glandular crowding and prominent cellular atypia. It includes moderate dysplasia and severe dysplasia. (WHO, 2000)", + "Glandular intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade": "Low Grade Glandular Intraepithelial Neoplasia", + "Glandular papilloma": "Glandular Papilloma", + "Glassy cell carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical cells with glassy cytoplasm.", + "Glioblastoma": "The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade IV). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and it is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. It may develop from diffuse astrocytoma WHO grade II or anaplastic astrocytoma (secondary glioblastoma, IDH-mutant), but more frequently, it manifests after a short clinical history de novo, without evidence of a less malignant precursor lesion (primary glioblastoma, IDH- wildtype). (Adapted from WHO)", + "Glioblastoma multiforme": "The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade IV). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and it is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. It may develop from diffuse astrocytoma WHO grade II or anaplastic astrocytoma (secondary glioblastoma, IDH-mutant), but more frequently, it manifests after a short clinical history de novo, without evidence of a less malignant precursor lesion (primary glioblastoma, IDH- wildtype). (Adapted from WHO)", + "Glioblastoma with sarcomatous component": "A rare histological variant of glioblastoma (WHO grade IV) characterized by a biphasic tissue pattern with alternating areas displaying glial and mesenchymal differentiation (WHO).", + "Glioblastoma, IDH wildtype": "A glioblastoma that arises de novo. It is more commonly seen in older patients. Mutations in IDH1 or IDH2 genes are not present.", + "Glioblastoma, IDH-mutant": "A glioblastoma associated with IDH1 or IDH2 gene mutations.", + "Gliofibroma": "An astrocytic tumor affecting young people. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of collagenous tissue surrounding neoplastic astrocytes. In some cases the collagen is produced by the tumor cells (desmoplastic astrocytoma), whereas in others it is produced by mesenchymal cells (mixed glioma/fibroma).", + "Glioma, malignant": "A grade III or grade IV glioma arising from the central nervous system. This category includes glioblastoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic ependymoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, and anaplastic oligoastrocytoma.", + "Glioma, NOS": "A benign or malignant brain and spinal cord tumor that arises from glial cells (astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells). Tumors that arise from astrocytes are called astrocytic tumors or astrocytomas. Tumors that arise from oligodendrocytes are called oligodendroglial tumors. Tumors that arise from ependymal cells are called ependymomas.", + "Gliomatosis cerebri": "A diffuse glial tumor which infiltrates the brain extensively, involving more than two lobes. It is frequently bilateral and often extends to the infratentorial structures, even to the spinal cord. It is probably of astrocytic origin, although GFAP expression may be scant or absent. (Adapted from WHO.)", + "Glioneuroma": "A well differentiated, slow growing neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells and neoplastic glial cells. Some gangliogliomas show anaplastic features in their glial component and are considered to be WHO grade III. Rare cases of newly diagnosed gangliogliomas with grade IV (glioblastoma) changes in the glial component have also been reported. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Gliosarcoma": "A rare histological variant of glioblastoma (WHO grade IV) characterized by a biphasic tissue pattern with alternating areas displaying glial and mesenchymal differentiation (WHO).", + "Glomangioma": "A morphologic variant of the glomus tumor characterized by the presence of dilated veins, surrounded by small clusters of glomus cells. Glomangiomas are most often present in patients with multiple lesions.", + "Glomangiomyoma": "A morphologic variant of the glomus tumor with architectural features similar to solid glomus tumor. It is characterized by the presence of elongated glomus cells which resemble mature smooth muscle.", + "Glomangiosarcoma": "A very rare morphologic variant of glomus tumor with a size greater than 2 cm. The tumor arises in subfascial or visceral tissues. It is characterized by the presence of atypical mitotic figures, or marked nuclear atypia, or the combination of both. It has an aggressive clinical course.", + "Glomoid sarcoma": "A very rare morphologic variant of glomus tumor with a size greater than 2 cm. The tumor arises in subfascial or visceral tissues. It is characterized by the presence of atypical mitotic figures, or marked nuclear atypia, or the combination of both. It has an aggressive clinical course.", + "Glomus jugulare tumor, NOS": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia in the base of the skull and middle ear.", + "Glomus tumor, malignant": "A very rare morphologic variant of glomus tumor with a size greater than 2 cm. The tumor arises in subfascial or visceral tissues. It is characterized by the presence of atypical mitotic figures, or marked nuclear atypia, or the combination of both. It has an aggressive clinical course.", + "Glomus tumor, NOS": "A rare benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from cells that resemble the modified smooth muscle cells of the glomus body. The majority of glomus tumors occur in the distal extremities.", + "Glucagon-like peptide-producing tumor": "", + "Glucagonoma, malignant": "A glucagon-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the alpha cells of the pancreas. It may be associated with necrolytic erythema migrans, diarrhea, diabetes, glossitis, weight loss, malabsorption, and anemia. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Glucagonoma, NOS": "", + "Glycogen-rich carcinoma": "A carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with abundant clear cytoplasm which contains glycogen. A representative example is the glycogen-rich, clear cell breast carcinoma.", + "Glycogenic rhabdomyoma": "", + "Goblet cell carcinoid": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of a mixture of neuroendocrine cells with morphologic and immunohistochemical characteristics of carcinoid tumor and malignant glandular cells.", + "Gonadal stromal tumor, NOS": "A neoplasm arising in the ovary or testis. It is composed of granulosa cells, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, and fibroblasts. Each of these cell types may constitute the only cellular component that is present in the neoplasm or it may be mixed with other cell types in various combinations. The prognosis can not always be predicted on histologic grounds alone. Approximately, 10% of these tumors may metastasize. Representative examples include granulosa cell tumor, Leydig cell tumor, Sertoli cell tumor, and tumors of the thecoma-fibroma group.", + "Gonadoblastoma": "A mixed germ cell/sex cord-stromal tumor characterized by the presence of large germ cells which resemble seminoma cells and small cells which resemble Sertoli or granulosa cells. It occurs in the testis and the ovary and is identified in children and adults. It is often associated with gonadal dysgenesis and abnormal karyotype.", + "Gonocytoma": "A mixed germ cell/sex cord-stromal tumor characterized by the presence of large germ cells which resemble seminoma cells and small cells which resemble Sertoli or granulosa cells. It occurs in the testis and the ovary and is identified in children and adults. It is often associated with gonadal dysgenesis and abnormal karyotype.", + "Granular cell adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with granular cytoplasm.", + "Granular cell carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with granular cytoplasm.", + "Granular cell myoblastoma, malignant": "An uncommon granular cell tumor which may metastasize to other anatomic sites. Morphologic characteristics include the presence of spindling neoplastic cells, necrosis, extensive pleomorphism, prominent nucleoli, and increased mitiotic activity.", + "Granular cell myoblastoma, NOS": "An unusual benign or malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic large polygonal cells with granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm which contains abundant lysosomes. It was originally thought to be a tumor originating from muscle cells and was named granular cell myoblastoma. Subsequent studies have suggested a derivation from Schwann cells. It affects females more often than males and it usually presents as a solitary mass. A minority of patients have multiple tumors. It can arise from many anatomic sites including the posterior pituitary gland, skin, oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, heart, mediastinum, and breast.", + "Granular cell tumor of the sellar region": "A generally benign intrasellar and/or suprasellar mass arising from the neurohypophysis or infundibulum. It is composed of nests of large cells with granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm due to abundant intracytoplasmic lysosomes. It generally has a slow progression and lacks invasive growth. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Granular cell tumor, malignant": "An uncommon granular cell tumor which may metastasize to other anatomic sites. Morphologic characteristics include the presence of spindling neoplastic cells, necrosis, extensive pleomorphism, prominent nucleoli, and increased mitiotic activity.", + "Granular cell tumor, NOS": "An unusual benign or malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic large polygonal cells with granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm which contains abundant lysosomes. It was originally thought to be a tumor originating from muscle cells and was named granular cell myoblastoma. Subsequent studies have suggested a derivation from Schwann cells. It affects females more often than males and it usually presents as a solitary mass. A minority of patients have multiple tumors. It can arise from many anatomic sites including the posterior pituitary gland, skin, oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, heart, mediastinum, and breast.", + "Granulocytic leukemia, NOS": "A clonal proliferation of myeloid cells and their precursors in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and spleen. When the proliferating cells are immature myeloid cells and myeloblasts, it is called acute myeloid leukemia. When the proliferating myeloid cells are neutrophils, it is called chronic myelogenous leukemia.", + "Granulocytic sarcoma": "A tumor mass composed of myeloblasts, neutrophils and neutrophil precursors. Granulocytic sarcoma is the most common type of myeloid sarcoma. (WHO, 2001)", + "Granulosa cell carcinoma": "A granulosa cell tumor which has an aggressive clinical course and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Granulosa cell tumor, adult type": "A granulosa cell tumor occurring in the ovary and rarely in the testis. It is composed of granulosa cells in an often fibrothecomatous stroma. The neoplastic cells may form various patterns including the microfollicular, which is characterized by the presence of Call-Exner bodies, macrofollicular, insular, trabecular, and diffuse pattern. In females, it affects middle aged to post-menopausal women. Signs and symptoms include abdominal mass, hemoperitoneum, and ascites. Estrogenic and rarely androgenic manifestations may be present. The vast majority of cases present as stage I tumors; however, all tumors have a potential for aggressive clinical course. In males, it is reported in the age range of 16-76 years and the average age at presentation is 44 years. A minority of patients have gynecomastia. Metastases have been reported in a minority of patients.", + "Granulosa cell tumor, juvenile": "A granulosa cell tumor occurring in the ovary and testis. In females it occurs predominantly in the first three decades of life and presents unilaterally as stage I disease in the vast majority of cases. It is characterized by the presence of granulosa cells forming macrofollicular structures. The majority of cases have a good prognosis. In males it represents the most frequent congenital testicular neoplasm and the vast majority of cases occur in the perinatal period. It presents as a scrotal or abdominal mass and it more often affects the left testis. Approximately 20% of the patients have ambiguous external genitalia. It is characterized by the presence of cystic spaces lined by granulosa cells and cells resembling theca cells. Metastases have not been reported.", + "Granulosa cell tumor, malignant": "A granulosa cell tumor which has an aggressive clinical course and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Granulosa cell tumor, NOS": "A slow-growing, malignant tumor, characterized by the presence of granulosa-like cells and Call-Exner bodies, that is almost always found in the ovary. In rare cases, it has also been found in the testicle. There are two types of granulosa cell tumors that can be distinguished under the microscope: the adult and the juvenile. The testicular juvenile granulosa cell tumors are perhaps the most common congenital testicular neoplasms.", + "Granulosa cell tumor, sarcomatoid": "", + "Granulosa cell-theca cell tumor": "A general term used to describe sex cord-stromal tumors characterized by the presence of granulosa cells in a thecomatous/fibrothecomatous background.", + "Grawitz tumor": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the kidney characterized by the presence of lipid-containing clear cells within a vascular network. The tumor may metastasize to unusual sites and late metastasis is common.", + "Gynandroblastoma": "A rare neoplasm arising from the ovary. Although it may occur at any age, it is more often seen in young females. Morphologically, it is characterized by a mixture of two cellular populations: well differentiated Sertoli cells and granulosa cells, with the latter constituting at least ten percent of the neoplasm. The vast majority of cases are stage I lesions at presentation and produce either estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. Although it may present as a massive ovarian tumor, it usually follows a benign clinical course. Very rare case reports of testicular lesions morphologically resembling gynandroblastomas are in fact variants of juvenile granulose cell tumor, or Sertoli cell tumor, or a combination of both.", + "Haemangioblastoma": "A WHO grade I tumor of uncertain histogenesis which is composed of stromal cells and abundant capillaries. Approximately 25% of hemangioblastomas are associated with Von Hippel-Lindau disease, a disease inherited through an autosomal dominant trait and characterized by the development of hemangioblastomas of the central nervous system and retina, clear cell renal carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, and pancreatic and inner ear tumors. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Haemangiosarcoma": "A malignant tumor arising from the endothelial cells of the blood vessels. Microscopically, it is characterized by frequently open vascular anastomosing and branching channels. The malignant cells that line the vascular channels are spindle or epithelioid and often display hyperchromatic nuclei. Angiosarcomas most frequently occur in the skin and breast. Patients with long-standing lymphedema are at increased risk of developing angiosarcoma.", + "Hairy cell leukaemia variant": "An indolent chronic B-cell leukemia resembling classic hairy cell leukemia but shows variant cytologic, hematologic, and immunophenotypic features and is resistant to the conventional therapy applied to hairy cell leukemia. Biologically, it is not related to hairy cell leukemia.", + "Hairy cell leukemia": "A neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes with \"hairy\" projections in bone marrow, spleen, and peripheral blood. Most patients present with splenomegaly and pancytopenia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Hairy cell leukemia variant": "An indolent chronic B-cell leukemia resembling classic hairy cell leukemia but shows variant cytologic, hematologic, and immunophenotypic features and is resistant to the conventional therapy applied to hairy cell leukemia. Biologically, it is not related to hairy cell leukemia.", + "Hairy nevus": "A usually benign congenital skin growth that is often pigmented and sometimes develop coarse surface hair. There is a lifetime risk of transformation to malignant melanoma which varies depending on the size of the lesion.", + "Halo nevus": "A melanocytic nevus characterized by circumferential depigmentation. It is usually associated with a brisk lymphocytic infiltrate.", + "Hand-Schuller-Christian disease": "A multifocal, unisystem form of Langerhans-cell histiocytosis. There is involvement of multiple sites in one organ system, most frequently the bone. Patients are usually young children presenting with multiple destructive bone lesions.", + "Heavy chain disease, NOS": "A group of rare disorders of immunoglobulin synthesis associated with B-cell proliferative disorders.", + "Hemangioblastic meningioma": "An obsolete term referring to hemangiopericytoma of the central nervous system.", + "Hemangioendothelial sarcoma": "A malignant tumor arising from the endothelial cells of the blood vessels. Microscopically, it is characterized by frequently open vascular anastomosing and branching channels. The malignant cells that line the vascular channels are spindle or epithelioid and often display hyperchromatic nuclei. Angiosarcomas most frequently occur in the skin and breast. Patients with long-standing lymphedema are at increased risk of developing angiosarcoma.", + "Hemangioendothelioma, benign": "A benign vascular proliferation characterized by the presence of prominent endothelial cells and the formation of vascular channels.", + "Hemangioendothelioma, malignant": "A malignant tumor arising from the endothelial cells of the blood vessels. Microscopically, it is characterized by frequently open vascular anastomosing and branching channels. The malignant cells that line the vascular channels are spindle or epithelioid and often display hyperchromatic nuclei. Angiosarcomas most frequently occur in the skin and breast. Patients with long-standing lymphedema are at increased risk of developing angiosarcoma.", + "Hemangioendothelioma, NOS": "A vascular proliferation characterized by the presence of prominent endothelial cells and the formation of vascular channels. Hemangioendotheliomas may display borderline or low grade characteristics.", + "Hemangioma simplex": "A capillary hemangioma that may regress spontaneously. It occurs in infants and children.", + "Hemangioma, NOS": "A benign vascular lesion characterized by the formation of capillary-sized or cavernous vascular channels.", + "Hemangiopericytic meningioma": "", + "Hemangiopericytoma, benign": "A hemangiopericytoma without malignant morphologic or clinical characteristics.", + "Hemangiopericytoma, malignant": "An uncommon malignant neoplasm arising from pericytes. Distinction between benign and malignant hemangiopericytoma may be difficult or even impossible on morphologic grounds alone.", + "Hemangiopericytoma, NOS": "An antiquated term that refers to benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasms characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle-shaped to round cells arranged around thin-walled branching vascular spaces.", + "Hemolymphangioma": "A hemorrhagic lymphatic lesion characterized by the presence of dilated lymphatic spaces, extravasation of red blood cells, hemosiderin deposition, and fibrosis.", + "Hepatoblastoma": "A malignant liver neoplasm that occurs almost exclusively in infants, although isolated cases in older children and adults have been reported. Grossly, hepatoblastoma is solid, well circumscribed, and more often solitary than multiple. Microscopically, most of the tumors are composed exclusively of immature hepatocytic elements. About a fourth of hepatoblastomas contain a stromal component that may be undifferentiated or develop into bone or cartilage. The treatment of choice for hepatoblastoma is surgical excision with adjuvant therapy. Liver transplantation is being increasingly used as well.", + "Hepatoblastoma, epithelioid": "", + "Hepatoblastoma, mixed epithelial-mesenchymal": "A hepatoblastoma characterized by the presence of fetal and embryonal epithelial components and a mesenchymal component.", + "Hepatocarcinoma": "A malignant tumor that arises from hepatocytes. Hepatocellular carcinoma is relatively rare in the United States but very common in all African countries south of the Sahara and in Southeast Asia. Most cases are seen in patients over the age of 50 years, but this tumor can also occur in younger individuals and even in children. Hepatocellular carcinoma is more common in males than females and is associated with hepatitis B, hepatitis C, chronic alcohol abuse and cirrhosis. Serum elevation of alpha-fetoprotein occurs in a large percentage of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. Grossly, hepatocellular carcinoma may present as a single mass, as multiple nodules, or as diffuse liver involvement. Microscopically, there is a wide range of differentiation from tumor to tumor (well differentiated to poorly differentiated tumors). Hepatocellular carcinomas quickly metastasize to regional lymph nodes and lung. The overall median survival of untreated liver cell carcinoma is about 4 months. The most effective treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma is complete resection of the tumor. Lately, an increasing number of tumors have been treated with liver transplantation.", + "Hepatocellular adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the hepatocytes. Grossly, it appears as a soft, round mass which often contains areas of hemorrhage and necrosis. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells resemble normal hepatocytes and form plates separated by sinusoids. Most patients have a history of contraceptive or anabolic steroids use.", + "Hepatocellular carcinoma, clear cell type": "", + "Hepatocellular carcinoma, fibrolamellar": "A distinctive type of liver cell carcinoma that arises in non-cirrhotic livers and is seen predominantly in young patients. The tumor cells are polygonal and deeply eosinophilic, and are embedded in a fibrous stroma. The prognosis is similar to classical hepatocellular carcinoma that arises in non-cirrhotic livers, and better than hepatocellular carcinoma that arises in cirrhotic livers.", + "Hepatocellular carcinoma, NOS": "A malignant tumor that arises from hepatocytes. Hepatocellular carcinoma is relatively rare in the United States but very common in all African countries south of the Sahara and in Southeast Asia. Most cases are seen in patients over the age of 50 years, but this tumor can also occur in younger individuals and even in children. Hepatocellular carcinoma is more common in males than females and is associated with hepatitis B, hepatitis C, chronic alcohol abuse and cirrhosis. Serum elevation of alpha-fetoprotein occurs in a large percentage of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. Grossly, hepatocellular carcinoma may present as a single mass, as multiple nodules, or as diffuse liver involvement. Microscopically, there is a wide range of differentiation from tumor to tumor (well differentiated to poorly differentiated tumors). Hepatocellular carcinomas quickly metastasize to regional lymph nodes and lung. The overall median survival of untreated liver cell carcinoma is about 4 months. The most effective treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma is complete resection of the tumor. Lately, an increasing number of tumors have been treated with liver transplantation.", + "Hepatocellular carcinoma, pleomorphic type": "", + "Hepatocellular carcinoma, sarcomatoid": "", + "Hepatocellular carcinoma, scirrhous": "An uncommon type of hepatocelluar carcinoma, morphologically characterized by significant fibrosis around the sinusoid-like spaces and atrophy of the tumor trabeculae.", + "Hepatocellular carcinoma, spindle cell variant": "", + "Hepatocholangiocarcinoma": "A rare tumor containing unequivocal elements of both hepatocellular and cholangiocarcinoma that are intimately admixed. This tumor should be distinguished from separate hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma arising in the same liver. The prognosis of this tumor is poor.", + "Hepatoid adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma with morphologic characteristics similar to hepatocellular carcinoma, arising from an anatomic site other than the liver.", + "Hepatoid carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma with morphologic characteristics similar to hepatocellular carcinoma, arising from an anatomic site other than the liver.", + "Hepatoid yolk sac tumor": "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor composed of primitive germ cells. It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in the pediatric population. It occurs in the infant testis, ovary, sacrococcygeal region, vagina, uterus, prostate, abdomen, liver, retroperitoneum, thorax, and pineal/third ventricle. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Treatment includes: surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. This tumor is very responsive to chemotherapy regimens that include cisplatinum.", + "Hepatoma, benign": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the hepatocytes. Grossly, it appears as a soft, round mass which often contains areas of hemorrhage and necrosis. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells resemble normal hepatocytes and form plates separated by sinusoids. Most patients have a history of contraceptive or anabolic steroids use.", + "Hepatoma, malignant": "A malignant tumor that arises from hepatocytes. Hepatocellular carcinoma is relatively rare in the United States but very common in all African countries south of the Sahara and in Southeast Asia. Most cases are seen in patients over the age of 50 years, but this tumor can also occur in younger individuals and even in children. Hepatocellular carcinoma is more common in males than females and is associated with hepatitis B, hepatitis C, chronic alcohol abuse and cirrhosis. Serum elevation of alpha-fetoprotein occurs in a large percentage of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. Grossly, hepatocellular carcinoma may present as a single mass, as multiple nodules, or as diffuse liver involvement. Microscopically, there is a wide range of differentiation from tumor to tumor (well differentiated to poorly differentiated tumors). Hepatocellular carcinomas quickly metastasize to regional lymph nodes and lung. The overall median survival of untreated liver cell carcinoma is about 4 months. The most effective treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma is complete resection of the tumor. Lately, an increasing number of tumors have been treated with liver transplantation.", + "Hepatoma, NOS": "A malignant tumor that arises from hepatocytes. Hepatocellular carcinoma is relatively rare in the United States but very common in all African countries south of the Sahara and in Southeast Asia. Most cases are seen in patients over the age of 50 years, but this tumor can also occur in younger individuals and even in children. Hepatocellular carcinoma is more common in males than females and is associated with hepatitis B, hepatitis C, chronic alcohol abuse and cirrhosis. Serum elevation of alpha-fetoprotein occurs in a large percentage of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. Grossly, hepatocellular carcinoma may present as a single mass, as multiple nodules, or as diffuse liver involvement. Microscopically, there is a wide range of differentiation from tumor to tumor (well differentiated to poorly differentiated tumors). Hepatocellular carcinomas quickly metastasize to regional lymph nodes and lung. The overall median survival of untreated liver cell carcinoma is about 4 months. The most effective treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma is complete resection of the tumor. Lately, an increasing number of tumors have been treated with liver transplantation.", + "Hepatosplenic gamma-delta cell lymphoma": "An extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that originates from cytotoxic T-cells, usually of gamma/delta T-cell type. It is characterized by the presence of medium-size neoplastic lymphocytes infiltrating the hepatic sinusoids. A similar infiltrating pattern is also present in the spleen and bone marrow that are usually involved at the time of the diagnosis.", + "Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma": "An extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma that originates from cytotoxic T-cells, usually of gamma/delta T-cell type. It is characterized by the presence of medium-size neoplastic lymphocytes infiltrating the hepatic sinusoids. A similar infiltrating pattern is also present in the spleen and bone marrow that are usually involved at the time of the diagnosis.", + "Hereditary leiomyomatosis & RCC-associated renal cell carcinoma": "An autosomal dominant inherited syndrome caused by germline mutations in the FH gene. It is characterized by predisposition to renal cell carcinoma, leiomyomas of the skin and uterus, and leiomyosarcoma of the uterus.", + "Hibernoma": "A rare benign slow growing adipose tissue tumor, characterized by the presence of polygonal brown fat cells with multivacuolated and/or granular cytoplasm. The tumor is usually painless and is most often seen in young adults.", + "Hidradenocarcinoma": "A carcinoma with apocrine and less often eccrine differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It usually presents as a solitary slow growing nodule in the dermis or subcutaneous tissues. It is characterized by a nodular growth pattern and it is often associated with necrotic changes.", + "Hidradenoma papilliferum": "A benign neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a slow growing cystic nodular lesion most often in the skin of the vulva and the perianal region. It is characterized by the presence of cystic and large papillary structures. The papillary structures contain connective tissue and are covered by two layers of epithelium. Complete excision is curative.", + "Hidradenoma, NOS": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. Variants include the clear cell and nodular hidradenoma.", + "Hidrocystoma": "A benign cystic proliferation of the sweat glands with apocrine or eccrine differentiation. It usually presents as a dome-shaped, cystic papular or nodular lesion usually in the face and neck. It is a unilocular or mutlilocular lesion lined by an inner and an outer layer of epithelium. Complete excision is usually curative.", + "High grade surface osteosarcoma": "A usually aggressive high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the surface of the bone.", + "High-grade neuroendocrine carcinoma": "", + "High-grade serous carcinoma": "", + "Hilar cell tumor": "A benign Leydig cell tumor which arises in the hilar area of the ovary.", + "Hilus cell tumor": "A benign Leydig cell tumor which arises in the hilar area of the ovary.", + "Histiocyte-rich large B-cell lymphoma": "A large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of a limited number of scattered neoplastic large B-lymphocytes which are admixed with numerous non-neoplastic T-lymphocytes and frequently histiocytes.", + "Histiocytic medullary reticulosis": "An antiquated term referring to cases of systemic non-Hodgkin lymphomas which are composed of large, atypical neoplastic lymphoid cells and cases of hemophagocytic syndromes. In the past, cases of anaplastic large cells lymphoma were called malignant histiocytosis.", + "Histiocytic sarcoma": "An aggressive malignant neoplasm with a poor response to therapy, usually presenting as stage III/IV disease. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with morphologic and immunophenotypic characteristics similar to those seen in mature histiocytes.", + "Histiocytoid hemangioma": "A hemangioma characterized by the presence of epithelioid endothelial cells.", + "Histiocytoma, NOS": "A mesenchymal tumor composed of fibroblastic and histiocytic cells.", + "Histiocytosis X, NOS": "A neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells which contain Birbeck granules by ultrastructural examination. Three major overlapping syndromes are recognized: eosinophilic granuloma, Letterer-Siwe disease, and Hand-Schuller-Christian disease. The clinical course is generally related to the number of organs affected at presentation. (WHO, 2001)", + "Hodgkin disease, lymphocyte predominance, diffuse": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma with scattered Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells and a nodular or less often diffuse cellular background consisting of small lymphocytes and with an absence of neutrophils and eosinophils. (WHO, 2008)", + "Hodgkin disease, lymphocyte predominance, NOS": "An antiquated term that refers either to nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma or to lymphocyte-rich classical Hodgkin lymphoma.", + "Hodgkin disease, lymphocytic-histiocytic predominance": "An antiquated term that refers either to nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma or to lymphocyte-rich classical Hodgkin lymphoma.", + "Hodgkin disease, nodular sclerosis, lymphocyte depletion": "Hodgkin's Disease, Nodular Sclerosis, Lymphocyte Depletion", + "Hodgkin disease, nodular sclerosis, lymphocyte predominance": "Hodgkin's Disease, Nodular Sclerosis, Lymphocyte Predominance", + "Hodgkin disease, nodular sclerosis, mixed cellularity": "Hodgkin's Disease, Nodular Sclerosis, Mixed Cellularity", + "Hodgkin disease, nodular sclerosis, NOS": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by collagen bands that surround at least one nodule, and Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells with lacunar type morphology. (WHO, 2008)", + "Hodgkin disease, nodular sclerosis, syncytial variant": "Nodular Sclerosis Classic Hodgkin Lymphoma, Syncytial Variant", + "Hodgkin disease, NOS": "A lymphoma, previously known as Hodgkin's disease, characterized by the presence of large tumor cells in an abundant admixture of nonneoplastic cells. There are two distinct subtypes: nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma and classical Hodgkin lymphoma. Hodgkin lymphoma involves primarily lymph nodes.", + "Hodgkin granuloma": "An obsolete term that refers to cases of Hodgkin lymphoma excluding cases that were classified as Hodgkin's paragranuloma and Hodgkin's sarcoma.", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte depletion, diffuse fibrosis": "", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte depletion, NOS": "A diffuse subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma which is rich in Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells and/or depleted in non-neoplastic lymphocytes. (WHO, 2008)", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte depletion, reticular": "", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte predominance, nodular": "A monoclonal B-cell neoplasm characterized by a nodular, or a nodular and diffuse proliferation of scattered large neoplastic cells known as popcorn or lymphocyte predominant cells (LP cells)- formerly called L&H cells for lymphocytic and/or histiocytic Reed-Sternberg cell variants. The LP cells lack CD15 and CD30 in nearly all instances. Patients are predominantly male, frequently in the 30-50 year age group. Most patients present with limited stage disease (localized peripheral lymphadenopathy, stage I or II). (WHO 2008)", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte-rich": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma with scattered Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells and a nodular or less often diffuse cellular background consisting of small lymphocytes and with an absence of neutrophils and eosinophils. (WHO, 2008)", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, mixed cellularity, NOS": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma with scattered Reed-Sternberg and Hodgkin cells in a diffuse or vaguely nodular mixed inflammatory background without nodular sclerosing fibrosis. (WHO, 2008)", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular lymphocyte predominance": "A monoclonal B-cell neoplasm characterized by a nodular, or a nodular and diffuse proliferation of scattered large neoplastic cells known as popcorn or lymphocyte predominant cells (LP cells)- formerly called L&H cells for lymphocytic and/or histiocytic Reed-Sternberg cell variants. The LP cells lack CD15 and CD30 in nearly all instances. Patients are predominantly male, frequently in the 30-50 year age group. Most patients present with limited stage disease (localized peripheral lymphadenopathy, stage I or II). (WHO 2008)", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis, cellular phase": "A nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by the presence of lacunar cells, nodular growth, and the absence of fibrosis.", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis, grade 1": "Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma in which at least 75% of the tumor nodules contain scattered Reed-Sternberg cells. The background cellular infiltrate is lymphocytic, mixed, or fibrohistiocytic.", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis, grade 2": "Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma in which at least 25% of the tumor nodules contain increased numbers of Reed-Sternberg cells.", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis, NOS": "A subtype of classic Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by collagen bands that surround at least one nodule, and Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells with lacunar type morphology. (WHO, 2008)", + "Hodgkin lymphoma, NOS": "A lymphoma, previously known as Hodgkin's disease, characterized by the presence of large tumor cells in an abundant admixture of nonneoplastic cells. There are two distinct subtypes: nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma and classical Hodgkin lymphoma. Hodgkin lymphoma involves primarily lymph nodes.", + "Hodgkin paragranuloma, nodular": "An obsolete term that includes cases currently classified as nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma.", + "Hodgkin paragranuloma, NOS": "An obsolete term that includes cases currently classified as nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma.", + "Hodgkin sarcoma": "A lymphoma, previously known as Hodgkin's disease, characterized by the presence of large tumor cells in an abundant admixture of nonneoplastic cells. There are two distinct subtypes: nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma and classical Hodgkin lymphoma. Hodgkin lymphoma involves primarily lymph nodes.", + "Hurthle cell adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of large malignant epithelial cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (oncocytes). Representative examples include thyroid gland oncocytic follicular carcinoma, oncocytic breast carcinoma, and salivary gland oncocytic carcinoma.", + "Hurthle cell adenoma": "A thyroid gland adenoma composed of large cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm and large nuclei with prominent nucleoli.", + "Hurthle cell carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of large malignant epithelial cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (oncocytes). Representative examples include thyroid gland oncocytic follicular carcinoma, oncocytic breast carcinoma, and salivary gland oncocytic carcinoma.", + "Hurthle cell tumor": "An adenoma or carcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. It is composed of large oncocytic cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Hutchinson melanotic freckle, NOS": "An atypical proliferation of atypical melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction, without infiltration of the papillary or reticular dermis. The melanocytic proliferation is associated with actinic damage and epidermal atrophy. It usually occurs in the sun-exposed skin of elderly people. It is a form of melanoma in situ.", + "Hyalinizing trabecular adenoma": "A rare, circumscribed or encapsulated tumor arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. It is characterized by a trabecular growth pattern and hyalinized stroma formation. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "Hydatid mole": "A gestational trophoblastic disorder characterized by marked enlargement of the chorionic villi, hyperplasia of the villous trophoblastic cells and hydropic changes.", + "Hydatidiform mole, NOS": "A gestational trophoblastic disorder characterized by marked enlargement of the chorionic villi, hyperplasia of the villous trophoblastic cells and hydropic changes.", + "Hydroa vacciniforme-like lymphoma": "A rare, EBV-positive cutaneous T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder, composed of CD8 positive cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. It affects children, almost exclusively in Latin America and Asia. Patients present with papulovesicular skin lesions, clinically resembling hydroa vacciniforme, in areas of sun-exposed skin.", + "Hygroma, NOS": "A benign lymphatic neoplasm usually arising from the neck and characterized by cystic dilation of the lymphatic vessels.", + "Hypereosinophilic syndrome": "A syndrome characterized by persistent eosinophilia, for which no underlying cause can be found, and which is associated with signs of organ involvement and dysfunction. This term has often been applied to cases of chronic eosinophilic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Hypernephroid tumor": "", + "Hypernephroma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the kidney characterized by the presence of lipid-containing clear cells within a vascular network. The tumor may metastasize to unusual sites and late metastasis is common.", + "Idiopathic hemorrhagic thrombocythaemia": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm that involves primarily the megakaryocytic lineage. It is characterized by sustained thrombocytosis in the blood, increased numbers of large, mature megakaryocytes in the bone marrow, and episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage. (WHO, 2008)", + "Idiopathic thrombocythemia": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm that involves primarily the megakaryocytic lineage. It is characterized by sustained thrombocytosis in the blood, increased numbers of large, mature megakaryocytes in the bone marrow, and episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage. (WHO, 2008)", + "Immature teratoma, malignant": "A teratoma characterized by the presence of an extensive component of immature, fetal-type tissues.", + "Immature teratoma, NOS": "A teratoma characterized by the presence of an extensive component of immature, fetal-type tissues.", + "Immunoblastic sarcoma": "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of immunoblasts with uniformly round-to-oval nuclei, a prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm.", + "Immunocytoma": "An indolent, extranodal type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small B-lymphocytes (centrocyte-like cells). The gastrointestinal tract is the most common site of involvement. Other common sites of involvement include lung, head and neck, ocular adnexae, skin, thyroid, and breast. Gastric involvement is associated with the presence of H. pylori infection. (WHO, 2001)", + "Immunoglobulin deposition disease": "A plasma cell neoplasm characterized by the deposition of immunoglobulin in tissues, resulting in impaired organ function. It includes the following entities: primary amyloidosis, heavy chain deposition disease, and light chain deposition disease.", + "Immunoproliferative disease, NOS": "", + "Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease": "A clonal disorder, also known as immunoproliferative small intestinal disease or Mediterranean lymphoma, characterised by the secretion of a defective alpha heavy chain. It predominantly affects young people in the Mediterranean region. It involves the small intestine, and patients usually present with malabsorption syndrome, abdominal pain, weight loss, and fever. There is extensive villous atrophy of the small intestinal mucosa, which is heavily infiltrated by small lymphocytes and plasma cells. The small intestinal morphologic changes are consistent with a mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma (MALT lymphoma).", + "Indeterminate dendritic cell tumor": "A very rare dendritic cell tumor composed of spindle to ovoid cells with a phenotype that is similar to the Langerhans cells. Patients usually present with cutaneous papules, nodules, and plaques. Systemic symptoms are usually absent. The clinical course is variable.", + "Indolent systemic mastocytosis": "An indolent mast cell neoplasm characterized by systemic infiltration of skin and internal organs by aggregates of neoplastic mast cells. There is no evidence of mast cell leukemia or clonal hematologic malignancy. Clinically, there is no evidence of palpable hepatomegaly and splenomegaly, malabsorption syndrome, or pathologic fractures.", + "Indolent T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder of gastrointestinal tract": "", + "Infantile fibrosarcoma": "A fibrosarcoma that occurs in infants. It shares identical morphologic features with adult fibrosarcoma but carries the t(12;15)(p13;q25) translocation that results in ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusion. It usually affects the superficial and deep soft tissues of the extremities. The prognosis is generally much more favorable than for adult fibrosarcoma, and it rarely metastasizes.", + "Infantile hemangioma": "A capillary hemangioma that may regress spontaneously. It occurs in infants and children.", + "Infantile myofibromatosis": "A benign, multifocal, nodular and well-circumscribed neoplasm usually seen as a congenital neoplasm or in the first year of life. It is characterized by a biphasic growth pattern and is composed of small, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells associated with branching thin-walled vessels and more mature neoplastic spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm in a collagenous stroma.", + "Infiltrating and papillary adenocarcinoma": "A carcinoma that has papillary growth and invades the wall and/or the surrounding tissues of the organ it originates from.", + "Infiltrating angiolipoma": "An uncommon lipoma characterized by prominent vascularity that invades the surrounding deep tissue.", + "Infiltrating basal cell carcinoma, non-sclerosing": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as a pale, indurated plaque, usually in the upper trunk or face. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of strands, cords, and columns of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Perineural invasion may be present and the basaloid cell infiltrate may extend into deeper tissues.", + "Infiltrating basal cell carcinoma, NOS": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as a pale, indurated plaque, usually in the upper trunk or face. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of strands, cords, and columns of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Perineural invasion may be present and the basaloid cell infiltrate may extend into deeper tissues.", + "Infiltrating basal cell carcinoma, sclerosing": "A histologic variant of basal cell carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of strands and nests of malignant cells that are embedded in a dense fibrotic stroma.", + "Infiltrating duct adenocarcinoma": "The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma, accounting for approximately 70% of breast carcinomas. The gross appearance is usually typical with an irregular stellate outline. Microscopically, randomly arranged epithelial elements are seen. When large sheets of malignant cells are present, necrosis may be seen. With adequate tissue sampling, in situ carcinoma can be demonstrated in association with the infiltrating carcinoma. The in situ component is nearly always ductal but occasionally may be lobular or both.", + "Infiltrating duct and colloid carcinoma": "", + "Infiltrating duct and cribriform carcinoma": "", + "Infiltrating duct and lobular carcinoma": "An invasive ductal breast carcinoma associated with a lobular carcinomatous component. The lobular carcinomatous component may be in situ or invasive.", + "Infiltrating duct and lobular carcinoma in situ": "An invasive ductal breast carcinoma associated with an in situ lobular carcinomatous component.", + "Infiltrating duct and mucinous carcinoma": "", + "Infiltrating duct and tubular carcinoma": "", + "Infiltrating duct carcinoma, NOS": "The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma, accounting for approximately 70% of breast carcinomas. The gross appearance is usually typical with an irregular stellate outline. Microscopically, randomly arranged epithelial elements are seen. When large sheets of malignant cells are present, necrosis may be seen. With adequate tissue sampling, in situ carcinoma can be demonstrated in association with the infiltrating carcinoma. The in situ component is nearly always ductal but occasionally may be lobular or both.", + "Infiltrating duct mixed with other types of carcinoma": "", + "Infiltrating ductular carcinoma": "The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma, accounting for approximately 70% of breast carcinomas. The gross appearance is usually typical with an irregular stellate outline. Microscopically, randomly arranged epithelial elements are seen. When large sheets of malignant cells are present, necrosis may be seen. With adequate tissue sampling, in situ carcinoma can be demonstrated in association with the infiltrating carcinoma. The in situ component is nearly always ductal but occasionally may be lobular or both.", + "Infiltrating lipoma": "A benign tumor, composed of lobules of mature adipocytes, that penetrates the surrounding tissue from which it arises. There is usually a higher local recurrence rate when compared with non-infiltrating lipomas.", + "Infiltrating lobular carcinoma and ductal carcinoma in situ": "A breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a ductal carcinoma in situ component and an invasive lobular carcinomatous component.", + "Infiltrating lobular carcinoma, NOS": "An infiltrating lobular adenocarcinoma of the breast. The malignant cells lack cohesion and are arranged individually or in a linear manner (Indian files), or as narrow trabeculae within the stroma. The malignant cells are usually smaller than those of ductal carcinoma, are less pleomorphic, and have fewer mitotic figures.", + "Infiltrating lobular mixed with other types of carcinoma": "", + "Infiltrating papillary adenocarcinoma": "A carcinoma that has papillary growth and invades the wall and/or the surrounding tissues of the organ it originates from.", + "Inflammatory adenocarcinoma": "", + "Inflammatory carcinoma": "", + "Inflammatory liposarcoma": "A rare morphologic variant of well differentiated liposarcoma occurring most often in the retroperitoneum. It is characterized by the presence of a predominant inflammatory infiltrate composed of lymphoplasmacytic aggregates.", + "Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor": "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm that arises from soft tissue or viscera, in children and young adults. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes, and plasma cells.", + "Insular carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma arising from the thyroid gland showing only limited evidence of follicular cell differentiation. Microscopically, the adenocarcinoma cells are arranged in insular, solid, and trabecular patterns. There is associated necrosis, and vascular invasion. The prognosis depends on the tumor stage, complete or partial surgical removal of the tumor, and the degree of response to radioactive iodine therapy. (adapted from WHO Tumors of Endocrine Organs, IARC Press, Lyon 2004)", + "Insulinoma, malignant": "An insulin-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the beta cells of the pancreas. Patients exhibit symptoms related to hypoglycemia due to inappropriate secretion of insulin. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Insulinoma, NOS": "An insulin-producing neuroendocrine tumor arising from the beta cells of the pancreas. Patients exhibit symptoms related to hypoglycemia due to inappropriate secretion of insulin.", + "Interdigitating cell sarcoma": "A neoplastic proliferation of spindle to ovoid cells which show phenotypic features similar to those of interdigitating dendritic cells. The clinical course is generally aggressive. (WHO, 2008)", + "Interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma": "A neoplastic proliferation of spindle to ovoid cells which show phenotypic features similar to those of interdigitating dendritic cells. The clinical course is generally aggressive. (WHO, 2008)", + "Intermediate and giant congenital nevus": "", + "Interstitial cell tumor, benign": "A Leydig cell tumor which does not recur or metastasize. Morphologically, there is no evidence of cellular atypia, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, or vascular invasion.", + "Interstitial cell tumor, malignant": "A Leydig cell tumor characterized by large tumor size, the presence of cytologic atypia, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, and vascular invasion. Approximately 10% of the testicular Leydig cell tumors show malignant characteristics and metastasize. Leydig cell tumors of the ovary follow a benign clinical course.", + "Interstitial cell tumor, NOS": "A sex cord-stromal tumor occurring in the testis and rarely in the ovary. It is predominantly or completely composed of Leydig cells which may contain crystals of Reinke. In males it usually presents as a painless testicular enlargement and it may be associated with gynecomastia and decreased libido. The majority of the cases have a benign clinical course. Approximately 10% of the cases have a malignant clinical course and metastasize. In females it may be associated with androgenic manifestations and it follows a benign clinical course.", + "Intestinal T-cell lymphoma": "A mature T-cell and NK-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma of intraepithelial T-lymphocytes. It usually arises from the small intestine, most commonly the jejunum or ileum. Other less frequent primary anatomic sites include the duodenum, stomach, colon, or outside the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by the presence of pleomorphic medium-sized to large T-lymphocytes with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and moderate to abundant pale cytoplasm. It is associated with celiac disease.", + "Intestinal-type adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma arising from epithelium which has undergone intestinal metaplasia. Representative examples include gastric, gallbladder, and ampulla of Vater intestinal type adenocarcinomas.", + "Intimal sarcoma": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the large blood vessels. It is characterized by the presence of tumor cells that grow within the lumen of the blood vessels. The intraluminal tumor growth may result in vascular obstruction and spread of tumor emboli to peripheral organs. The prognosis is usually poor.", + "Intracanalicular fibroadenoma": "A morphologic variant of breast fibroadenoma without clinical significance. It is characterized by distortion and compression of the ducts by proliferating stromal cells.", + "Intracortical osteosarcoma": "A high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm producing osteoid. The tumor arises from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and most commonly, the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most common clinical presentation. It usually has an aggressive growth and may metastasize through the hematogenous route. The lung is the most frequent site of metastasis.", + "Intracystic carcinoma, NOS": "An intraductal breast carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth within a large cystic duct. There is no evidence of invasion of the breast parenchyma.", + "Intracystic papillary adenocarcinoma": "An intraductal breast carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth within a large cystic duct. There is no evidence of invasion of the breast parenchyma.", + "Intracystic papillary adenoma": "A papillary epithelial neoplasm arising in a cystically dilated breast duct.", + "Intracystic papillary neoplasm with associated invasive carcinoma": "", + "Intracystic papillary neoplasm with high grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "", + "Intracystic papillary neoplasm with intermediate grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "A non-invasive, papillary epithelial neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of gallbladder. It is characterized by the presence of moderate epithelial atypia.", + "Intracystic papillary neoplasm with low grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "A non-invasive, papillary epithelial neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the gallbladder. It is characterized by the presence of mild epithelial atypia.", + "Intracystic papillary tumor with high grade dysplasia": "", + "Intracystic papillary tumor with high grade entraepithelial neoplasia": "", + "Intracystic papillary tumor with high grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "", + "Intracystic papilloma": "A papillary epithelial neoplasm arising in a cystically dilated breast duct.", + "Intradermal nevus": "A nevus characterized by the proliferation of nevus cells in the dermis without involvement of the dermal-epidermal junction.", + "Intraductal adenocarcinoma, noninfiltrating, NOS": "A carcinoma entirely confined to the mammary ducts. It is also known as DCIS. There is no evidence of invasion of the basement membrane. Currently, it is classified into three categories: High-grade DCIS, intermediate-grade DCIS and low-grade DCIS. In this classification the DCIS grade is defined by a combination of nuclear grade, architectural growth pattern and presence of necrosis. The size of the lesion as well as the grade and the clearance margins play a major role in dictating the most appropriate therapy for DCIS.", + "Intraductal and lobular carcinoma": "A breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a ductal carcinoma in situ component and an in situ or invasive lobular carcinomatous component.", + "Intraductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma in situ": "The co-existence of ductal and lobular carcinoma in situ in the breast, without evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Intraductal carcinoma, clinging": "", + "Intraductal carcinoma, noninfiltrating, NOS": "A carcinoma entirely confined to the mammary ducts. It is also known as DCIS. There is no evidence of invasion of the basement membrane. Currently, it is classified into three categories: High-grade DCIS, intermediate-grade DCIS and low-grade DCIS. In this classification the DCIS grade is defined by a combination of nuclear grade, architectural growth pattern and presence of necrosis. The size of the lesion as well as the grade and the clearance margins play a major role in dictating the most appropriate therapy for DCIS.", + "Intraductal carcinoma, NOS": "A carcinoma entirely confined to the mammary ducts. It is also known as DCIS. There is no evidence of invasion of the basement membrane. Currently, it is classified into three categories: High-grade DCIS, intermediate-grade DCIS and low-grade DCIS. In this classification the DCIS grade is defined by a combination of nuclear grade, architectural growth pattern and presence of necrosis. The size of the lesion as well as the grade and the clearance margins play a major role in dictating the most appropriate therapy for DCIS.", + "Intraductal carcinoma, solid type": "", + "Intraductal micropapillary carcinoma": "", + "Intraductal papillary adenocarcinoma with invasion": "A breast adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of an intraductal papillary carcinomatous component and an invasive carcinomatous component.", + "Intraductal papillary adenocarcinoma, NOS": "A non-invasive breast adenocarcinoma located in a distended duct. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular stalks. In the absence of ductal carcinoma in situ or invasive carcinoma in adjacent tissues, the prognosis is usually favorable.", + "Intraductal papillary carcinoma": "A non-invasive breast adenocarcinoma located in a distended duct. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular stalks. In the absence of ductal carcinoma in situ or invasive carcinoma in adjacent tissues, the prognosis is usually favorable.", + "Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm (IPMN) with an associated invasive carcinoma": "A pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of a focal or multifocal invasive carcinomatous component. The invasive carcinoma is either colloid or ductal adenocarcinoma.", + "Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm with an associated invasive carcinoma": "", + "Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm with high grade dysplasia": "A non-invasive pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic epithelial cells that exhibit loss of polarity, nuclear stratification, hyperchromasia, and pleomorphism. There is severe architectural atypia and frequent mitotic figures present.", + "Intraductal papillary neoplasm with associated invasive carcinoma": "A breast adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of an intraductal papillary carcinomatous component and an invasive carcinomatous component.", + "Intraductal papillary neoplasm with high grade dysplasia": "", + "Intraductal papillary neoplasm with high grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "A non-invasive, papillary epithelial neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. It is characterized by the presence of severe epithelial atypia.", + "Intraductal papillary neoplasm with intermediate grade neoplasia": "An intraluminal papillary epithelial neoplasm arising within the ducts. Representative examples are the intraductal breast papilloma and the salivary gland intraductal papilloma.", + "Intraductal papillary neoplasm with low grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "A non-invasive, papillary epithelial neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts. It is characterized by the presence of mild epithelial atypia.", + "Intraductal papillary neoplasm, NOS": "A non-invasive, papillary epithelial neoplasm that arises from the epithelium of the intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile ducts.", + "Intraductal papillary tumor with high grade dysplasia": "", + "Intraductal papillary tumor with high grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "", + "Intraductal papillary-mucinous adenoma": "", + "Intraductal papillary-mucinous carcinoma, invasive": "", + "Intraductal papillary-mucinous carcinoma, non-invasive": "", + "Intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasm with low grade dysplasia": "", + "Intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasm with moderate dysplasia": "", + "Intraductal papillary-mucinous tumor with intermediate dysplasia": "", + "Intraductal papillary-mucinous tumor with low grade dysplasia": "", + "Intraductal papillary-mucinous tumor with moderate dysplasia": "", + "Intraductal papilloma": "An intraluminal papillary epithelial neoplasm arising within the ducts. Representative examples are the intraductal breast papilloma and the salivary gland intraductal papilloma.", + "Intraductal papilloma with ductal carcinoma in situ": "", + "Intraductal papilloma with lobular carcinoma in situ": "", + "Intraductal papillomatosis, NOS": "A neoplastic process characterized by the presence of multiple intraductal papillomas.", + "Intraductal tubular-papillary neoplasm, high grade": "", + "Intraductal tubular-papillary neoplasm, low grade": "", + "Intraductal tubulopapillary neoplasm": "An epithelial neoplasm that arises from the exocrine pancreas characterized by the formation of tubular structures, high grade dysplasia, and ductal differentiation. Grossly, it is characterized by the presence of intraductal nodular masses. Morphologically, there are nodules of tubular glands and occasional papillary structures growing in dilated ducts. There is no significant mucin production. Signs and symptoms include epigastric pain, weight loss, vomiting, steatorrhea, and diabetes mellitus.", + "Intraepidermal carcinoma, NOS": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm confined to the squamous epithelium, without invasion of the underlying tissues.", + "Intraepidermal epithelioma of Jadassohn": "A rare cutaneous lesion presenting as a scaly verrucous plaque. Morphologically, the plaque contains nests of basaloid cells.", + "Intraepidermal nevus": "A nevus characterized by the presence of an intraepidermal proliferation of nevus cells. The nevus cells form multiple nests in the dermal-epidermal junction. It presents as a small, slightly raised, pigmented skin lesion.", + "Intraepidermal squamous cell carcinoma, Bowen type": "A form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ. It is a distinct clinicopathological entity and arises from the skin or the mucocutaneous junction. It affects predominantly white males in their 6-8th decades of life. Exposed and non-exposed skin sites are equally affected. UV damage and ingestion of inorganic arsenic may play a role in the development of the disease. On the skin surface, it presents as a single or multiple erythematous, scaly, keratotic patches or plaques. The clinical entity of erythroplasia of Queyrat is regarded as Bowen disease of the penis and it presents as an asymptomatic, red, circumscribed plaque. Morphologically, Bowen disease is characterized by the presence of hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis, dyskeratosis, and acanthosis. The keratotic squamous cells are atypical and display hyperchromatism and abnormal mitotic figures. The dermoepidermal basement membrane is intact. Complete surgical removal of the lesion may be curative.", + "Intraepithelial carcinoma, NOS": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm which is confined to the epithelial layer without evidence of further tissue invasion.", + "Intraepithelial squamous cell carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm confined to the squamous epithelium, without invasion of the underlying tissues.", + "Intraglandular papillary neoplasm with low grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "An intraluminal papillary epithelial neoplasm arising within the ducts. Representative examples are the intraductal breast papilloma and the salivary gland intraductal papilloma.", + "Intramuscular hemangioma": "A hemangioma arising from skeletal muscle.", + "Intramuscular lipoma": "A benign tumor, composed of mature adipocytes, that arises within skeletal muscle fibers.", + "Intraneural perineurioma": "A WHO grade I perineurioma that arises within the endoneurium. It is characterized by the formation of pseudo-onion bulbs by the proliferating perineural cells.", + "Intraosseous low grade osteosarcoma": "A low grade osteosarcoma arising from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and is characterized by the presence of fibroblastic stroma and osteoid production. Pain and swelling are the usual sign and symptom. The prognosis is more favorable than conventional osteosarcoma.", + "Intraosseous well differentiated osteosarcoma": "A low grade osteosarcoma arising from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and is characterized by the presence of fibroblastic stroma and osteoid production. Pain and swelling are the usual sign and symptom. The prognosis is more favorable than conventional osteosarcoma.", + "Intratubular germ cell neoplasia": "", + "Intratubular malignant germ cells": "", + "Intravascular B-cell lymphoma": "A rare extranodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, characterized by the presence of lymphoma cells exclusively in the lumina of small vessels, particularly capillaries. This is an extremely aggressive lymphoma which responds poorly to chemotherapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Intravascular bronchial alveolar tumor": "", + "Intravascular large B-cell lymphoma": "A rare extranodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, characterized by the presence of lymphoma cells exclusively in the lumina of small vessels, particularly capillaries. This is an extremely aggressive lymphoma which responds poorly to chemotherapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Intravascular leiomyomatosis": "", + "Invasive carcinoma of no special type": "", + "Invasive carcinoma, NST": "", + "Invasive encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma (invasive EFVPTC)": "A papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland which is encapsulated and resembles an encapsulated follicular neoplasm. Capsular invasion is present. The malignant follicular cells display the nuclear features that characterize the papillary adenocarcinomas of the thyroid gland.", + "Invasive fibroma": "An insidious, locally aggressive, poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern. It lacks metastatic potential.", + "Invasive hydatidiform mole": "A complete hydatidiform mole or very rarely a partial mole that invades the myometrium.", + "Invasive lobular carcinoma": "An infiltrating lobular adenocarcinoma of the breast. The malignant cells lack cohesion and are arranged individually or in a linear manner (Indian files), or as narrow trabeculae within the stroma. The malignant cells are usually smaller than those of ductal carcinoma, are less pleomorphic, and have fewer mitotic figures.", + "Invasive lobular carcinoma, alveolar type": "A grade I invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast, characterized by the presence of round groups of neoplastic cells.", + "Invasive lobular carcinoma, solid type": "A grade I invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast, characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells that form trabeculae and groups infiltrating collagen bundles.", + "Invasive lobular carcinoma, tubulolobular variant": "An invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast, characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells forming small tubular structures.", + "Invasive mammary carcinoma": "A carcinoma that infiltrates the breast parenchyma. The vast majority are adenocarcinomas arising from the terminal ductal lobular unit (TDLU). Often, the invasive adenocarcinoma co-exists with ductal or lobular carcinoma in situ. It is the most common carcinoma affecting women.", + "Invasive micropapillary carcinoma": "An invasive breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of clusters of malignant cells located within artifactual clear stromal spaces that resemble vascular spaces.", + "Invasive mole, NOS": "A complete hydatidiform mole or very rarely a partial mole that invades the myometrium.", + "Invasive mucinous adenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the presence of tall columnar cells and mucin production. This category refers to cases formerly classified as mucinous bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, excluding cases that meet the criteria for adenocarcinoma in situ or mucinous minimally invasive adenocarcinoma.", + "Involuting nevus": "", + "Islet cell adenocarcinoma": "An aggressive, high-grade and poorly differentiated carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the pancreas. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 10 HPF. According to the size of the malignant cells, the prominence of the nucleoli, and the amount of cytoplasm, it is classified either as small or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma.", + "Islet cell adenoma": "A benign endocrine neoplasm arising from the pancreas. It is separated from the normal pancreatic tissues by a thin collagenous capsule. It may secrete a hormone (e.g. insulin, gastrin) or it may be non-functional.", + "Islet cell adenomatosis": "A sporadic or inherited disorder characterized by the focal or diffuse proliferation of the cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It results in hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycemia.", + "Islet cell carcinoma": "An aggressive, high-grade and poorly differentiated carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the pancreas. The mitotic count is more than 20 per 10 HPF. According to the size of the malignant cells, the prominence of the nucleoli, and the amount of cytoplasm, it is classified either as small or large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma.", + "Islet cell tumor, benign": "", + "Islet cell tumor, NOS": "A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the pancreas. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (low and intermediate grade) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (high grade).", + "Jadassohn blue nevus": "An intradermal nevus characterized by the presence of benign pigmented dendritic spindle-shaped melanocytes. It most frequently occurs in the skin of the distal upper extremities, followed by the lower extremities, scalp, face, and buttocks. It usually presents as a single blue or blue-black papular lesion less than 1cm in diameter. Simple excision is usually curative.", + "Jugular paraganglioma": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia in the base of the skull and middle ear.", + "Jugulotympanic paraganglioma": "A benign or malignant extra-adrenal parasympathetic paraganglioma arising from paraganglia in the base of the skull and middle ear.", + "Junction nevus": "A nevus characterized by the presence of an intraepidermal proliferation of nevus cells. The nevus cells form multiple nests in the dermal-epidermal junction. It presents as a small, slightly raised, pigmented skin lesion.", + "Junctional nevus, NOS": "A nevus characterized by the presence of an intraepidermal proliferation of nevus cells. The nevus cells form multiple nests in the dermal-epidermal junction. It presents as a small, slightly raised, pigmented skin lesion.", + "Juvenile angiofibroma": "A morphologic variant of fibroma characterized by the presence of numerous dilated vascular channels.", + "Juvenile astrocytoma": "An astrocytic tumor appearing before the age of twenty one without designation of benign or malignant nor designated location.", + "Juvenile carcinoma of breast": "A rare, low grade invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by the presence of cells that secrete milk-like material. Morphologically, it usually appears as a circumscribed lesion, composed of cystic spaces, tubular structures, and solid areas.", + "Juvenile chronic myelomonocytic leukemia": "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm of childhood that is characterized by proliferation principally of the granulocytic and monocytic lineages. Myelomonocytic proliferation is seen in the bone marrow and the blood. The leukemic cells may infiltrate any tissue, however liver, spleen, lymph nodes, skin, and respiratory tract are the most common sites of involvement. (WHO, 2001)", + "Juvenile fibroadenoma": "A breast fibroadenoma characterized by epithelial hyperplasia and an increased stromal cellularity.", + "Juvenile hemangioma": "A capillary hemangioma that may regress spontaneously. It occurs in infants and children.", + "Juvenile histiocytoma": "A rare, well-circumscribed, pseudo-encapsulated benign fibrous histiocytoma that arises entirely within the subcutaneous tissue or deep soft tissue. It usually affects the extremities or the head and neck region. It recurs locally in a minority of cases.", + "Juvenile melanoma": "A benign, acquired or congenital, usually single skin lesion. It can occur on any area of the body, but most commonly occurs on the face of children and the thighs of young females. It is characterized by a proliferation of large spindle, oval, or large epithelioid melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction. The melanocytic proliferation subsequently extends into the dermis.", + "Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia": "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm of childhood that is characterized by proliferation principally of the granulocytic and monocytic lineages. Myelomonocytic proliferation is seen in the bone marrow and the blood. The leukemic cells may infiltrate any tissue, however liver, spleen, lymph nodes, skin, and respiratory tract are the most common sites of involvement. (WHO, 2001)", + "Juvenile nevus": "A benign, acquired or congenital, usually single skin lesion. It can occur on any area of the body, but most commonly occurs on the face of children and the thighs of young females. It is characterized by a proliferation of large spindle, oval, or large epithelioid melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction. The melanocytic proliferation subsequently extends into the dermis.", + "Juxtacortical chondroma": "A benign neoplasm of bone surface composed of hyaline cartilage. It arises beneath the periosteum and is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, and calcification.", + "Juxtacortical chondrosarcoma": "A chondrosarcoma arising from the surface of bone. It is characterized by a lobulated growth pattern, high mitotic activity, myxoid stroma formation, and necrotic changes. It occurs in adults. Clinical presentation includes pain, and sometimes swelling.", + "Juxtacortical osteosarcoma": "A low grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the surface of the bone. It usually affects the distal posterior femur, the proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Painless swelling is the usual clinical sign. Most patients are young adults and the prognosis is usually excellent.", + "Juxtaglomerular tumor": "A benign, well circumscribed neoplasm arising from the cortex of the kidney. It secrets renin and the patients usually present with severe hypertension and marked hypokalemia. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of sheets of polygonal or spindle-shaped neoplastic cells forming a hemangiopericytic pattern.", + "Kaposi sarcoma": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by a vascular proliferation which usually contains blunt endothelial cells. Erythrocyte extravasation and hemosiderin deposition are frequently present. The most frequent site of involvement is the skin; however it may also occur internally. It generally develops in people with compromised immune systems including those with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS).", + "Kaposiform hemangioendothelioma": "An intermediate, locally aggressive blood vessel neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle endothelial cells, and formation of capillary-sized and slit-like vascular channels. It is often associated with hemorrhage and hemosiderin deposition.", + "Keratotoc papilloma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern and a proliferation of neoplastic squamous cells without morphologic evidence of malignancy. Most frequently it arises in the oral cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, esophagus, vagina, and vulva.", + "Klatskin tumor": "A carcinoma that arises from the junction, or adjacent to the junction, of the right and left hepatic ducts.", + "Krukenberg tumor": "Metastatic signet-ring cell carcinoma in the ovary. The primary site is the gastrointestinal tract or breast.", + "Kupffer cell sarcoma": "", + "L-cell tumor": "", + "Lactating adenoma": "A tubular type adenoma of the breast in which, during pregnancy and lactation, the epithelial cells show extensive secretory changes.", + "Langerhans cell granulomatosis": "A neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells which contain Birbeck granules by ultrastructural examination. Three major overlapping syndromes are recognized: eosinophilic granuloma, Letterer-Siwe disease, and Hand-Schuller-Christian disease. The clinical course is generally related to the number of organs affected at presentation. (WHO, 2001)", + "Langerhans cell granulomatosis, unifocal": "A clinical variant of Langerhans cell histiocytosis characterized by unifocal involvement of a bone (most often), skin, or lung. Patients are usually older children or adults usually presenting with a lytic bone lesion. The etiology is unknown. Morphologically, eosinophilic granuloma is characterized by the presence of Langerhans cells in a characteristic milieu which includes histiocytes, eosinophils, neutrophils, and small, mature lymphocytes.", + "Langerhans cell histiocytosis, disseminated": "Langerhans cell histiocytosis presenting with disseminated disease.", + "Langerhans cell histiocytosis, generalized": "Langerhans cell histiocytosis presenting with disseminated disease.", + "Langerhans cell histiocytosis, mono-ostotic": "Langerhans cell histiocytosis presenting as a solitary lesion.", + "Langerhans cell histiocytosis, multifocal": "Langerhans cell histiocytosis presenting with multiple sites of involvement.", + "Langerhans cell histiocytosis, NOS": "A neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells which contain Birbeck granules by ultrastructural examination. Three major overlapping syndromes are recognized: eosinophilic granuloma, Letterer-Siwe disease, and Hand-Schuller-Christian disease. The clinical course is generally related to the number of organs affected at presentation. (WHO, 2001)", + "Langerhans cell histiocytosis, poly-ostotic": "Langerhans cell histiocytosis presenting with multiple sites of involvement.", + "Langerhans cell histiocytosis, unifocal": "Langerhans cell histiocytosis presenting as a solitary lesion.", + "Langerhans cell sarcoma": "A neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells with overtly malignant cytologic features. It can be considered a higher grade variant of Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) and it can present de novo or progress from antecedent LCH. (WHO, 2001)", + "Large B-cell lymphoma arising in HHV8-associated multicentric Castleman disease": "An aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma occurring in patients with HHV8-positive multicentric Castleman disease. It is characterized by the presence of human herpesvirus 8-infected large B-lymphocytes that resemble plasmablasts. It is usually seen in patients with HIV infection.", + "Large cell (Ki-1+) lymphoma": "A peripheral (mature) T-cell lymphoma, consisting of usually large anaplastic, CD30 positive cells. The majority of cases are positive for the anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALK) protein. The most frequently seen genetic alteration is a t(2;5) translocation. Majority of patients present with advanced disease. The most important prognostic indicator is ALK positivity, which has been associated with a favorable prognosis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Large cell calcifying Sertoli cell tumor": "", + "Large cell carcinoma with rhabdoid phenotype": "A large cell lung carcinoma characterized by the presence of rhabdoid cells.", + "Large cell carcinoma, NOS": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of large, atypical cells.", + "Large cell medulloblastoma": "A medulloblastoma composed of large cells with prominent nucleoli and a larger amount of cytoplasm in contrast with the cells of the classic medulloblastoma.", + "Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma": "A usually aggressive carcinoma composed of large malignant cells which display neuroendocrine characteristics. It is characterized by the presence of high mitotic activity and necrotic changes. The vast majority of cases are positive for neuron-specific enolase. Representative examples include lung, breast, cervical, and thymic neuroendocrine carcinomas.", + "Large granular lymphocytosis, NOS": "", + "LCIS, NOS": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by a proliferation of monomorphic cells completely filling the lumina. The overall lobular architecture is preserved. It is frequently multifocal (90% in some series) and bilateral. It seldom becomes invasive; however there is an increased risk of infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma.", + "Leiomyoblastoma": "A benign or malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumor with epithelioid morphology.", + "Leiomyofibroma": "A benign smooth muscle neoplasm arising from the body of the uterus. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern.", + "Leiomyoma, NOS": "A well-circumscribed benign smooth muscle neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle cells with cigar-shaped nuclei, interlacing fascicles, and a whorled pattern.", + "Leiomyomatosis, NOS": "A condition characterized by the presence of numerous small benign smooth muscle neoplasms located throughout the body.", + "Leiomyosarcoma, NOS": "An uncommon, aggressive malignant smooth muscle neoplasm, usually occurring in post-menopausal women. It is characterized by a proliferation of neoplastic spindle cells. Morphologic variants include epithelioid, granular cell, inflammatory and myxoid leimyosarcomas.", + "Lennert lymphoma": "A variant of peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic small lymphocytes infiltrating the lymph nodes in a diffuse and less frequently interfollicular pattern. There is an associated proliferation of epithelioid histiocytes forming confluent clusters.", + "Lentigo maligna": "An atypical proliferation of atypical melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction, without infiltration of the papillary or reticular dermis. The melanocytic proliferation is associated with actinic damage and epidermal atrophy. It usually occurs in the sun-exposed skin of elderly people. It is a form of melanoma in situ.", + "Lentigo maligna melanoma": "A melanoma of the skin characterized by single cell infiltration of the papillary dermis by atypical melanocytes, in a background of lentigo maligna changes.", + "Lepidic adenocarcinoma": "", + "Lepidic predominant adenocarcinoma": "A lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of mildly and moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma cells across the alveolar walls with at least one focus of invasive carcinoma measuring more than 5 mm in greatest dimension.", + "Leptomeningeal sarcoma": "A sarcoma arising from the leptomeninges.", + "Letterer-Siwe disease": "A multifocal, multisystem form of Langerhans-cell histiocytosis. There is involvement of multiple organ systems including the bones, skin, liver, spleen, and lymph nodes. Patients are usually infants presenting with fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, bone and skin lesions, and pancytopenia.", + "Leukemia, NOS": "A malignant (clonal) hematologic disorder, involving hematopoietic stem cells and characterized by the presence of primitive or atypical myeloid or lymphoid cells in the bone marrow and the blood. Leukemias are classified as acute or chronic based on the degree of cellular differentiation and the predominant cell type present. Leukemia is usually associated with anemia, fever, hemorrhagic episodes, and splenomegaly. Common leukemias include acute myeloid leukemia, chronic myelogenous leukemia, acute lymphoblastic or precursor lymphoblastic leukemia, and chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Treatment is vital to patient survival; untreated, the natural course of acute leukemias is normally measured in weeks or months, while that of chronic leukemias is more often measured in months or years.", + "Leukemic reticuloendotheliosis": "A neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes with \"hairy\" projections in bone marrow, spleen, and peripheral blood. Most patients present with splenomegaly and pancytopenia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Leydig cell tumor, benign": "A Leydig cell tumor which does not recur or metastasize. Morphologically, there is no evidence of cellular atypia, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, or vascular invasion.", + "Leydig cell tumor, malignant": "A Leydig cell tumor characterized by large tumor size, the presence of cytologic atypia, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, and vascular invasion. Approximately 10% of the testicular Leydig cell tumors show malignant characteristics and metastasize. Leydig cell tumors of the ovary follow a benign clinical course.", + "Leydig cell tumor, NOS": "A sex cord-stromal tumor occurring in the testis and rarely in the ovary. It is predominantly or completely composed of Leydig cells which may contain crystals of Reinke. In males it usually presents as a painless testicular enlargement and it may be associated with gynecomastia and decreased libido. The majority of the cases have a benign clinical course. Approximately 10% of the cases have a malignant clinical course and metastasize. In females it may be associated with androgenic manifestations and it follows a benign clinical course.", + "Linitis plastica": "A cancer-related condition in which the gastric wall becomes thickened and rubbery (leather-bottle stomach). It is most often associated with diffuse gastric adenocarcinomas.", + "Lipid cell tumor of ovary": "An ovarian tumor in which the vast majority of the cells (more than 90% of the tumor cells) resemble steroid hormone-secreting cells. It usually presents with androgenic manifestations. Approximately one-third of the cases follow a malignant clinical course.", + "Lipid-rich carcinoma": "A carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm which contains neutral lipids. A representative example is the lipid-rich breast carcinoma.", + "Lipid-rich Sertoli cell tumor": "", + "Lipid-rich urothelial carcinoma": "A variant of infiltrating bladder urothelial carcinoma characterized by the presence of lipid laden tumor cells.", + "Lipoadenoma": "An adenoma in which the neoplastic epithelial cells are admixed with adipose tissue cells.", + "Lipoblastoma": "A lipoma usually occurring in the extremities of young children (usually boys). It is characterized by lobules of adipose tissue, separated by fibrous septa. The adipose tissue is composed of mature adipocytes and lipoblasts. The lipoblasts may be scarce, depending on the age of the patient.", + "Lipoblastomatosis": "A benign disorder characterized by the presence of multiple lipoblastomas.", + "Lipoid cell tumor of ovary": "An ovarian tumor in which the vast majority of the cells (more than 90% of the tumor cells) resemble steroid hormone-secreting cells. It usually presents with androgenic manifestations. Approximately one-third of the cases follow a malignant clinical course.", + "Lipoleiomyoma": "A benign extrauterine tumor composed of mature adipocytes and smooth muscle cells.", + "Lipoma, NOS": "A benign, usually painless, well-circumscribed lipomatous tumor composed of adipose tissue.", + "Lipoma-like liposarcoma": "An intermediate, locally aggressive lipomatous neoplasm. Microscopically, the adipose tissue contains large and pleomorphic lipoblasts, and is dissected by fibrous septa containing spindle cells. It requires a wide local excision, may recur locally, but never metastasizes.", + "Lipomatous medulloblastoma": "A rare, WHO grade II cerebellar neoplasm which shows consistent neuronal, variable astrocytic and focal lipomatous differentiation. It occurs in adults, has a low proliferative potential and usually has a favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Liposarcoma, differentiated": "A locally aggressive malignant neoplasm composed of mature adipocytes showing cell size variation and nuclear atypia. It is often associated with the presence of hyperchromatic multinucleated stromal cells, and varying numbers of lipoblasts. There are three histologic subtypes, sclerosing, inflammatory, and spindle cell liposarcoma. These tumors do not usually metastasize unless they undergo dedifferentiation.", + "Liposarcoma, NOS": "A usually painless malignant tumor that arises from adipose tissue. Microscopically, it may contain a spectrum of neoplastic adipocytes ranging from lipoblasts to pleomorphic malignant adipocytes. Morphologic variants include: well differentiated, dedifferentiated, pleomorphic, and myxoid liposarcoma. The metastatic potential is higher in less differentiated tumors.", + "Liposarcoma, well differentiated": "A locally aggressive malignant neoplasm composed of mature adipocytes showing cell size variation and nuclear atypia. It is often associated with the presence of hyperchromatic multinucleated stromal cells, and varying numbers of lipoblasts. There are three histologic subtypes, sclerosing, inflammatory, and spindle cell liposarcoma. These tumors do not usually metastasize unless they undergo dedifferentiation.", + "Liver cell adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the hepatocytes. Grossly, it appears as a soft, round mass which often contains areas of hemorrhage and necrosis. Morphologically, the neoplastic cells resemble normal hepatocytes and form plates separated by sinusoids. Most patients have a history of contraceptive or anabolic steroids use.", + "Liver cell carcinoma": "A malignant tumor that arises from hepatocytes. Hepatocellular carcinoma is relatively rare in the United States but very common in all African countries south of the Sahara and in Southeast Asia. Most cases are seen in patients over the age of 50 years, but this tumor can also occur in younger individuals and even in children. Hepatocellular carcinoma is more common in males than females and is associated with hepatitis B, hepatitis C, chronic alcohol abuse and cirrhosis. Serum elevation of alpha-fetoprotein occurs in a large percentage of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. Grossly, hepatocellular carcinoma may present as a single mass, as multiple nodules, or as diffuse liver involvement. Microscopically, there is a wide range of differentiation from tumor to tumor (well differentiated to poorly differentiated tumors). Hepatocellular carcinomas quickly metastasize to regional lymph nodes and lung. The overall median survival of untreated liver cell carcinoma is about 4 months. The most effective treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma is complete resection of the tumor. Lately, an increasing number of tumors have been treated with liver transplantation.", + "Lobular adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma of the breast arising from the lobules. This is a relatively uncommon carcinoma, represents approximately 10% of the breast adenocarcinomas and is often bilateral or multifocal.", + "Lobular and ductal carcinoma": "A breast carcinoma characterized by the presence of a lobular and a ductal component. The ductal component comprises less than 50 percent of the tumor.", + "Lobular carcinoma in situ, NOS": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by a proliferation of monomorphic cells completely filling the lumina. The overall lobular architecture is preserved. It is frequently multifocal (90% in some series) and bilateral. It seldom becomes invasive; however there is an increased risk of infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma.", + "Lobular carcinoma, noninfiltrating": "A non-invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by a proliferation of monomorphic cells completely filling the lumina. The overall lobular architecture is preserved. It is frequently multifocal (90% in some series) and bilateral. It seldom becomes invasive; however there is an increased risk of infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma.", + "Lobular carcinoma, NOS": "An adenocarcinoma of the breast arising from the lobules. This is a relatively uncommon carcinoma, represents approximately 10% of the breast adenocarcinomas and is often bilateral or multifocal.", + "Localized fibrous tumor": "A localized neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation. It is characterized by the presence of round to spindle-shaped cells, hylanized stroma formation, thin-walled branching blood vessels, and thin bands of collagen.", + "Low grade adenosquamous carcinoma": "A low grade metaplastic carcinoma of the breast with morphologic features similar to the adenosquamous carcinoma of the skin. In the majority of cases the prognosis is excellent.", + "Low grade appendiceal mucinous neoplasm": "A well differentiated mucinous adenocarcinoma that arises from the appendix. It is characterized by slow growth and it is associated with the development of pseudomyxoma peritonei. Unlike the high grade mucinous adenocarcinoma of the appendix, it usually does not spread beyond the peritoneum and it does not metastasize to distant anatomic sites.", + "Low grade cribriform cystadenocarcinoma (LGCCC)": "A rare, low-grade adenocarcinoma that arises from the salivary glands. It is characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by ductal cells which are arranged in cribriform patterns. Adjacent ducts show intraductal proliferation.", + "Low-grade central osteosarcoma": "A low grade osteosarcoma arising from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and is characterized by the presence of fibroblastic stroma and osteoid production. Pain and swelling are the usual sign and symptom. The prognosis is more favorable than conventional osteosarcoma.", + "Low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma": "A low grade, late-metastasizing variant of fibrosarcoma characterized by alternating fibrous and myxoid areas and a whorling growth pattern. The neoplastic cells have a spindle morphology, and lack hyperchromasia or significant nuclear atypia. Approximately 40% of cases show the focal presence of collagen rosettes. A t(7;16)(q33;p11) translocation has been identified in the majority of cases, associated with the presence of FUS-CREB3L2 fusion protein. Rare cases carry the t(11;16)(p11;p11) translocation which is associated with the presence of the FUS-CREB3L1 fusion protein.", + "Low-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma": "A low grade osteosarcoma arising from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and is characterized by the presence of fibroblastic stroma and osteoid production. Pain and swelling are the usual sign and symptom. The prognosis is more favorable than conventional osteosarcoma.", + "Low-grade myofibroblastic sarcoma": "A low grade malignant neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped myofibroblasts and collagenous stroma formation in a storiform growth pattern. Metastasis is very rare.", + "Low-grade serous carcinoma": "", + "Luteinoma": "A benign ovarian stromal tumor in which more than 90% of the tumor cells resemble steroid hormone-secreting cells. Crystals of Reinke are not present. It occurs in post-menopausal women and it is usually associated with estrogenic effects.", + "Luteoma, NOS": "A benign ovarian stromal tumor in which more than 90% of the tumor cells resemble steroid hormone-secreting cells. Crystals of Reinke are not present. It occurs in post-menopausal women and it is usually associated with estrogenic effects.", + "Lymphangioendothelial sarcoma": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the endothelial cells of the lymphatic vessels.", + "Lymphangioendothelioma, malignant": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the endothelial cells of the lymphatic vessels.", + "Lymphangioendothelioma, NOS": "A lymphangioma characterized by the presence of collagen bundle formation. It has an indolent clinical course and may be associated with skin plaques.", + "Lymphangioleiomyomatosis": "A multifocal neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation affecting almost exclusively females of child-bearing age. It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle and epithelioid cells and by the proliferation of lymphatic vessels. Sites of involvement include the lungs, mediastinum, and the retroperitoneum. It usually presents with chylous pleural effusion or ascites.", + "Lymphangioma, NOS": "A benign lesion composed of dilated lymphatic channels. Painless swelling is the usual clinical manifestation.", + "Lymphangiomyoma": "A neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation, often associated with tuberous sclerosis. It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle and epithelioid cells and by the proliferation of lymphatic vessels. Sites of involvement include the lymph nodes, lung, mediastinum, and retroperitoneum.", + "Lymphangiomyomatosis": "A multifocal neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation affecting almost exclusively females of child-bearing age. It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle and epithelioid cells and by the proliferation of lymphatic vessels. Sites of involvement include the lungs, mediastinum, and the retroperitoneum. It usually presents with chylous pleural effusion or ascites.", + "Lymphangiosarcoma": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the endothelial cells of the lymphatic vessels.", + "Lymphatic leukemic, NOS": "A malignant lymphocytic neoplasm of B-cell or T-cell lineage involving primarily the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This category includes precursor or acute lymphoblastic leukemias and chronic leukemias.", + "Lymphoblastic leukemia, NOS": "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "Lymphoblastoma": "A lymphoma composed of immature small to medium-sized precursor lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts). It includes the B- and T-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma.", + "Lymphocytic leukemia, NOS": "A malignant lymphocytic neoplasm of B-cell or T-cell lineage involving primarily the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This category includes precursor or acute lymphoblastic leukemias and chronic leukemias.", + "Lymphoepithelial carcinoma": "A nonkeratinizing carcinoma which occurs predominantly in the nasopharynx but also in the tonsils and rarely in other anatomic sites. It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate.", + "Lymphoepithelioid lymphoma": "A variant of peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic small lymphocytes infiltrating the lymph nodes in a diffuse and less frequently interfollicular pattern. There is an associated proliferation of epithelioid histiocytes forming confluent clusters.", + "Lymphoepithelioma": "A nonkeratinizing carcinoma which occurs predominantly in the nasopharynx but also in the tonsils and rarely in other anatomic sites. It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate.", + "Lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma": "A nonkeratinizing carcinoma which occurs predominantly in the nasopharynx but also in the tonsils and rarely in other anatomic sites. It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate.", + "Lymphoid leukemia, NOS": "A malignant lymphocytic neoplasm of B-cell or T-cell lineage involving primarily the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This category includes precursor or acute lymphoblastic leukemias and chronic leukemias.", + "Lymphoma, NOS": "A malignant (clonal) proliferation of B- lymphocytes or T- lymphocytes which involves the lymph nodes, bone marrow and/or extranodal sites. This category includes Non-Hodgkin lymphomas and Hodgkin lymphomas.", + "Lymphomatoid granulomatosis": "An angiocentric and angiodestructive lymphoproliferative disease involving extranodal sites, comprised of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-positive B-cells admixed with reactive T-cells. Incidence is higher among adult males; patients with a history of immunodeficiency are at increased risk. The most common site of involvement is the lung; other common sites include brain, kidney, liver, and skin. Morphologically, three grades are recognized: grade I, II, and III. Grade III lymphomatoid granulomatosis should be approached clinically as a subtype of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.", + "Lymphomatoid papulosis": "A chronic, recurrent cutaneous disorder characterized by the presence of spontaneously regressing papules. The papules are composed of an atypical lymphocytic infiltrate that contains anaplastic CD30-positive T-cells, which are found in type A and diffuse large cell type (type C) lymphomatoid papulosis. In a small number of cases, of type B, the lymphocytic infiltrate is composed of small, cerebriform-like lymphocytes that are often negative for CD30. The majority of cases follow a benign clinical course, but some cases are clonal and may progress to lymphoma. Treatment options include low dose methotrexate and psoralen/UVA (PUVA).", + "Lymphoplasmacyte-rich meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of prominent chronic inflammatory infiltrates that predominate over the meningioma cells.", + "Lymphoproliferative disease, NOS": "A disorder characterized by proliferation of lymphocytes at various stages of differentiation. Lymphoproliferative disorders can be neoplastic (clonal, as in lymphomas and leukemias) or reactive (polyclonal, as in infectious mononucleosis).", + "Lymphoproliferative disorder, NOS": "A disorder characterized by proliferation of lymphocytes at various stages of differentiation. Lymphoproliferative disorders can be neoplastic (clonal, as in lymphomas and leukemias) or reactive (polyclonal, as in infectious mononucleosis).", + "Lymphosarcoma cell leukemia": "A malignant lymphocytic neoplasm of B-cell or T-cell lineage involving primarily the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. This category includes precursor or acute lymphoblastic leukemias and chronic leukemias.", + "Lymphosarcoma, diffuse": "An antiquated term that refers to a non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small and medium sized lymphocytes.", + "Lymphosarcoma, NOS": "An antiquated term that refers to a non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small and medium sized lymphocytes.", + "M6A": "Acute erythroid leukemia characterised by the presence of at least 50% erythroid precursors and at least 20% myeloblasts in the bone marrow.", + "M6B": "Acute erythroid leukemia characterised by the presence of immature erythroid cells in the bone marrow (at least 80% of the cellular component), without evidence of a significant myeloblastic cell population present.", + "Macrofollicular adenoma": "A thyroid gland adenoma composed of large size follicles.", + "Magnocellular nevus": "A benign melanocytic proliferation within or adjacent to the optic disk. It presents as a pigmented, intraocular tumor.", + "Malignancy": "A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.", + "Malignant chondroid syringoma": "", + "Malignant cystic nephroma": "A variant of Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the presence of cystic spaces separated by septa. The septa contain immature epithelial cells, immature stromal cells, and blastema cells. Surgical resection is usually curative.", + "Malignant eccrine spiradenoma": "A very rare, aggressive carcinoma of the sweat glands arising from malignant transformation of a long standing spiradenoma. It usually grows in the upper extremities, lower extremities, trunk, and head and neck. It has the tendency to recur and metastasize most often to the lymph nodes, bones, and lungs.", + "Malignant fibrous histiocytoma": "An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of a pleomorphic malignant cellular infiltrate. It is also known as malignant fibrous histiocytoma.", + "Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (MFH) of bone": "", + "Malignant giant cell tumor of soft parts": "An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma characterized by the presence of osteoclast-like giant cells and cellular pleomorphism.", + "Malignant histiocytosis": "An antiquated term referring to cases of systemic non-Hodgkin lymphomas which are composed of large, atypical neoplastic lymphoid cells and cases of hemophagocytic syndromes. In the past, cases of anaplastic large cells lymphoma were called malignant histiocytosis.", + "Malignant hydatidiform mole": "A complete hydatidiform mole or very rarely a partial mole that invades the myometrium.", + "Malignant lymphoma, centroblastic, diffuse": "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of large noncleaved cells. This is a subtype of diffuse large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma.", + "Malignant lymphoma, centroblastic, follicular": "An antiquated term that refers to a follicular non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed predominantly of large B-lymphocytes.", + "Malignant lymphoma, centroblastic, NOS": "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of large noncleaved cells. This is a subtype of diffuse large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma.", + "Malignant lymphoma, centroblasticcentrocytic, diffuse": "Diffuse Centroblastic-Centrocytic Lymphoma", + "Malignant lymphoma, centroblasticcentrocytic, follicular": "A neoplasm of follicle centre B cells which has at least a partial follicular pattern. Follicular lymphomas comprise about 35% of adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas in the U.S. and 22% worldwide. Most patients have widespread disease at diagnosis. Morphologically, follicular lymphomas are classified as Grade 1, Grade 2, and Grade 3, depending on the percentage of the large lymphocytes present. The vast majority of cases (70-95%) express the BCL-2 rearrangement [t(14;18)]. Histological grade correlates with prognosis. Grades 1 and 2 follicular lymphomas are indolent and grade 3 is more aggressive (adapted from WHO, 2001).", + "Malignant lymphoma, centroblasticcentrocytic, NOS": "Diffuse Centroblastic-Centrocytic Lymphoma", + "Malignant lymphoma, centrocytic": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, cleaved cell, NOS": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, convoluted cell": "Malignant Lymphoma, Convoluted", + "Malignant lymphoma, diffuse, NOS": "An antiquated term referring to non-Hodgkin lymphomas with a diffuse architectural pattern.", + "Malignant lymphoma, follicle center, follicular": "A neoplasm of follicle centre B cells which has at least a partial follicular pattern. Follicular lymphomas comprise about 35% of adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas in the U.S. and 22% worldwide. Most patients have widespread disease at diagnosis. Morphologically, follicular lymphomas are classified as Grade 1, Grade 2, and Grade 3, depending on the percentage of the large lymphocytes present. The vast majority of cases (70-95%) express the BCL-2 rearrangement [t(14;18)]. Histological grade correlates with prognosis. Grades 1 and 2 follicular lymphomas are indolent and grade 3 is more aggressive (adapted from WHO, 2001).", + "Malignant lymphoma, follicle center, NOS": "A neoplasm of follicle centre B cells which has at least a partial follicular pattern. Follicular lymphomas comprise about 35% of adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas in the U.S. and 22% worldwide. Most patients have widespread disease at diagnosis. Morphologically, follicular lymphomas are classified as Grade 1, Grade 2, and Grade 3, depending on the percentage of the large lymphocytes present. The vast majority of cases (70-95%) express the BCL-2 rearrangement [t(14;18)]. Histological grade correlates with prognosis. Grades 1 and 2 follicular lymphomas are indolent and grade 3 is more aggressive (adapted from WHO, 2001).", + "Malignant lymphoma, follicular, NOS": "A neoplasm of follicle centre B cells which has at least a partial follicular pattern. Follicular lymphomas comprise about 35% of adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas in the U.S. and 22% worldwide. Most patients have widespread disease at diagnosis. Morphologically, follicular lymphomas are classified as Grade 1, Grade 2, and Grade 3, depending on the percentage of the large lymphocytes present. The vast majority of cases (70-95%) express the BCL-2 rearrangement [t(14;18)]. Histological grade correlates with prognosis. Grades 1 and 2 follicular lymphomas are indolent and grade 3 is more aggressive (adapted from WHO, 2001).", + "Malignant lymphoma, histiocytic, diffuse": "Malignant Lymphoma, Histiocytic, Diffuse", + "Malignant lymphoma, histiocytic, nodular": "A follicular lymphoma which contains more than 15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Malignant lymphoma, histiocytic, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by a diffuse proliferation of predominantly large neoplastic B lymphocytes. It is the most frequently seen type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, representing 30%-40% of the cases. Morphologic variants include centroblastic lymphoma, immunoblastic lymphoma, and anaplastic lymphoma. Subtypes/entities include T-cell/histiocyte rich large B-cell lymphoma, primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system, plasmablastic lymphoma, primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type, and ALK-positive large B-cell lymphoma.", + "Malignant lymphoma, Hodgkin": "A lymphoma, previously known as Hodgkin's disease, characterized by the presence of large tumor cells in an abundant admixture of nonneoplastic cells. There are two distinct subtypes: nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma and classical Hodgkin lymphoma. Hodgkin lymphoma involves primarily lymph nodes.", + "Malignant lymphoma, immunoblastic, NOS": "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of immunoblasts with uniformly round-to-oval nuclei, a prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large B-cell, diffuse, centroblastic, NOS": "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of large noncleaved cells. This is a subtype of diffuse large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large B-cell, diffuse, immunoblastic, NOS": "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of immunoblasts with uniformly round-to-oval nuclei, a prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large B-cell, diffuse, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by a diffuse proliferation of predominantly large neoplastic B lymphocytes. It is the most frequently seen type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, representing 30%-40% of the cases. Morphologic variants include centroblastic lymphoma, immunoblastic lymphoma, and anaplastic lymphoma. Subtypes/entities include T-cell/histiocyte rich large B-cell lymphoma, primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system, plasmablastic lymphoma, primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type, and ALK-positive large B-cell lymphoma.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large B-cell, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by a diffuse proliferation of predominantly large neoplastic B lymphocytes. It is the most frequently seen type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, representing 30%-40% of the cases. Morphologic variants include centroblastic lymphoma, immunoblastic lymphoma, and anaplastic lymphoma. Subtypes/entities include T-cell/histiocyte rich large B-cell lymphoma, primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system, plasmablastic lymphoma, primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type, and ALK-positive large B-cell lymphoma.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cell, cleaved and noncleaved": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by a diffuse proliferation of predominantly large neoplastic B lymphocytes. It is the most frequently seen type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, representing 30%-40% of the cases. Morphologic variants include centroblastic lymphoma, immunoblastic lymphoma, and anaplastic lymphoma. Subtypes/entities include T-cell/histiocyte rich large B-cell lymphoma, primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system, plasmablastic lymphoma, primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type, and ALK-positive large B-cell lymphoma.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cell, cleaved, diffuse": "Antiquated term describing non-Hodgkin lymphomas that are usually diffuse and are composed of large cells with irregular nuclei, invisible nucleoli and a small amount of cytoplasm. This morphologic category includes both mature B- and mature T-cell lymphomas.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cell, cleaved, NOS": "Antiquated term describing non-Hodgkin lymphomas that are usually diffuse and are composed of large cells with irregular nuclei, invisible nucleoli and a small amount of cytoplasm. This morphologic category includes both mature B- and mature T-cell lymphomas.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cell, diffuse, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by a diffuse proliferation of predominantly large neoplastic B lymphocytes. It is the most frequently seen type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, representing 30%-40% of the cases. Morphologic variants include centroblastic lymphoma, immunoblastic lymphoma, and anaplastic lymphoma. Subtypes/entities include T-cell/histiocyte rich large B-cell lymphoma, primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the central nervous system, plasmablastic lymphoma, primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type, and ALK-positive large B-cell lymphoma.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cell, follicular, NOS": "A follicular lymphoma which contains more than 15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cell, immunoblastic": "A diffuse large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of immunoblasts with uniformly round-to-oval nuclei, a prominent nucleolus, and abundant cytoplasm.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cell, noncleaved, diffuse": "Antiquated term for diffuse non-Hodgkin lymphomas composed of non-cleaved cells. The vast majority of cases are mature B-cell lymphomas (Burkitts or diffuse large B-cell lymphomas).", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cell, noncleaved, follicular": "A follicular lymphoma which contains more than 15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cell, noncleaved, NOS": "Antiquated term for diffuse non-Hodgkin lymphomas composed of non-cleaved cells. The vast majority of cases are mature B-cell lymphomas (Burkitts or diffuse large B-cell lymphomas).", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cell, NOS": "An antiquated term that refers to a morphologic variant of non-Hodgkin lymphoma which is composed predominantly or exclusively of large neoplastic lymphocytes.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cleaved cell, follicular": "A follicular lymphoma which contains more than 15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Malignant lymphoma, large cleaved cell, NOS": "Antiquated term describing non-Hodgkin lymphomas that are usually diffuse and are composed of large cells with irregular nuclei, invisible nucleoli and a small amount of cytoplasm. This morphologic category includes both mature B- and mature T-cell lymphomas.", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphoblastic, NOS": "A lymphoma composed of immature small to medium-sized precursor lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts). It includes the B- and T-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma.", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphocytic, diffuse, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of monomorphic small, round B-lymphocytes in the lymph nodes. When the lymphoid process predominantly involves the bone marrow and the peripheral blood it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphocytic, intermediate differentiation, diffuse": "An aggressive, usually diffuse non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small to medium sized B-lymphocytes (centrocytes). Most patients present with advanced stage disease with lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and bone marrow involvement. The gastrointestinal tract is the most commonly affected extranodal site by this type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The vast majority of cases express the t(11;14)(q13;q32) resulting in the rearrangement of the BCL-1 gene and the overexpression of cyclin D1 mRNA.", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphocytic, intermediate differentiation, nodular": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphocytic, nodular, NOS": "A neoplasm of follicle centre B cells which has at least a partial follicular pattern. Follicular lymphomas comprise about 35% of adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas in the U.S. and 22% worldwide. Most patients have widespread disease at diagnosis. Morphologically, follicular lymphomas are classified as Grade 1, Grade 2, and Grade 3, depending on the percentage of the large lymphocytes present. The vast majority of cases (70-95%) express the BCL-2 rearrangement [t(14;18)]. Histological grade correlates with prognosis. Grades 1 and 2 follicular lymphomas are indolent and grade 3 is more aggressive (adapted from WHO, 2001).", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphocytic, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of monomorphic small, round B-lymphocytes in the lymph nodes. When the lymphoid process predominantly involves the bone marrow and the peripheral blood it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphocytic, poorly differentiated, diffuse": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphocytic, poorly differentiated, nodular": "A follicular lymphoma which contains up to 5 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphocytic, well differentiated, diffuse": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of monomorphic small, round B-lymphocytes in the lymph nodes. When the lymphoid process predominantly involves the bone marrow and the peripheral blood it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphocytic, well differentiated, nodular": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphoplasmacytic": "A clonal neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes, lymphoplasmacytoid cells, and plasma cells involving the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and the spleen. The majority of patients have a serum IgM paraprotein.", + "Malignant lymphoma, lymphoplasmacytoid": "A clonal neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes, lymphoplasmacytoid cells, and plasma cells involving the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and the spleen. The majority of patients have a serum IgM paraprotein.", + "Malignant lymphoma, mixed cell type, diffuse": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, mixed cell type, follicular": "A follicular lymphoma which contains 6-15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Malignant lymphoma, mixed cell type, nodular": "A follicular lymphoma which contains 6-15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Malignant lymphoma, mixed lymphocytic-histiocytic, diffuse": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, mixed lymphocytic-histiocytic, nodular": "A follicular lymphoma which contains 6-15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Malignant lymphoma, mixed small and large cell, diffuse": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, mixed small cleaved and large cell, follicular": "A follicular lymphoma which contains 6-15 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Malignant lymphoma, nodular, NOS": "A neoplasm of follicle centre B cells which has at least a partial follicular pattern. Follicular lymphomas comprise about 35% of adult non-Hodgkin lymphomas in the U.S. and 22% worldwide. Most patients have widespread disease at diagnosis. Morphologically, follicular lymphomas are classified as Grade 1, Grade 2, and Grade 3, depending on the percentage of the large lymphocytes present. The vast majority of cases (70-95%) express the BCL-2 rearrangement [t(14;18)]. Histological grade correlates with prognosis. Grades 1 and 2 follicular lymphomas are indolent and grade 3 is more aggressive (adapted from WHO, 2001).", + "Malignant lymphoma, non-cleaved cell, NOS": "Malignant Lymphoma, Non-Cleaved Cell Type", + "Malignant lymphoma, non-Hodgkin, NOS": "Distinct from Hodgkin lymphoma both morphologically and biologically, non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) is characterized by the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells, can occur at any age, and usually presents as a localized or generalized lymphadenopathy associated with fever and weight loss. The clinical course varies according to the morphologic type. NHL is clinically classified as indolent, aggressive, or having a variable clinical course. NHL can be of B-or T-/NK-cell lineage.", + "Malignant lymphoma, noncleaved cell, follicular, NOS": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, noncleaved, diffuse, NOS": "Antiquated term for diffuse non-Hodgkin lymphomas composed of non-cleaved cells. The vast majority of cases are mature B-cell lymphomas (Burkitts or diffuse large B-cell lymphomas).", + "Malignant lymphoma, noncleaved, NOS": "Antiquated term for diffuse non-Hodgkin lymphomas composed of non-cleaved cells. The vast majority of cases are mature B-cell lymphomas (Burkitts or diffuse large B-cell lymphomas).", + "Malignant lymphoma, NOS": "A malignant (clonal) proliferation of B- lymphocytes or T- lymphocytes which involves the lymph nodes, bone marrow and/or extranodal sites. This category includes Non-Hodgkin lymphomas and Hodgkin lymphomas.", + "Malignant lymphoma, plasmacytoid": "A clonal neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes, lymphoplasmacytoid cells, and plasma cells involving the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and the spleen. The majority of patients have a serum IgM paraprotein.", + "Malignant lymphoma, small B lymphocytic, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of monomorphic small, round B-lymphocytes in the lymph nodes. When the lymphoid process predominantly involves the bone marrow and the peripheral blood it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant lymphoma, small cell diffuse": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of monomorphic small, round B-lymphocytes in the lymph nodes. When the lymphoid process predominantly involves the bone marrow and the peripheral blood it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant lymphoma, small cell, noncleaved, diffuse": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, small cell, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of monomorphic small, round B-lymphocytes in the lymph nodes. When the lymphoid process predominantly involves the bone marrow and the peripheral blood it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant lymphoma, small cleaved cell, diffuse": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, small cleaved cell, follicular": "A follicular lymphoma which contains up to 5 centroblasts per 40X high-power microscopic field.", + "Malignant lymphoma, small cleaved cell, NOS": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, small lymphocytic, diffuse": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of monomorphic small, round B-lymphocytes in the lymph nodes. When the lymphoid process predominantly involves the bone marrow and the peripheral blood it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant lymphoma, small lymphocytic, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of monomorphic small, round B-lymphocytes in the lymph nodes. When the lymphoid process predominantly involves the bone marrow and the peripheral blood it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant lymphoma, small noncleaved, Burkitt type": "A highly aggressive lymphoma composed of monomorphic medium-sized B-cells with basophilic cytoplasm and numerous mitotic figures. It is often associated with the presence of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and is commonly seen in AIDS patients. Three morphologic variants are recognized: classical Burkitt lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma with plasmacytoid differentiation, and atypical Burkitt/Burkitt-like lymphoma. All cases express the MYC translocation [t(8;14)]. (WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant lymphoma, undifferentiated cell type, NOS": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, undifferentiated cell, non-Burkitt": "", + "Malignant lymphoma, undifferentiated, Burkitt type": "A highly aggressive lymphoma composed of monomorphic medium-sized B-cells with basophilic cytoplasm and numerous mitotic figures. It is often associated with the presence of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and is commonly seen in AIDS patients. Three morphologic variants are recognized: classical Burkitt lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma with plasmacytoid differentiation, and atypical Burkitt/Burkitt-like lymphoma. All cases express the MYC translocation [t(8;14)]. (WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant lymphomatous polyposis": "A clinico-pathological entity reflecting the multiple polyps throughout the gastrointestinal tract created as a result of involvement by a non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Typically, mantle cell lymphomas involving the gastrointestinal tract give rise to multifocal lymphomatous polyposis. Importantly, other histologic subtypes of non-Hodgkin lymphoma can also produce this clinico-pathological entity. (WHO, 2000)", + "Malignant mast cell tumor": "A rare malignant neoplasm characterized by localized but destructive growth of a tumor consisting of highly atypical, immature mast cells.(WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant mastocytoma": "A rare malignant neoplasm characterized by localized but destructive growth of a tumor consisting of highly atypical, immature mast cells.(WHO, 2001)", + "Malignant mastocytosis": "Malignant neoplasm originating from mast cells.", + "Malignant melanoma in congenital melanocytic nevus": "", + "Malignant melanoma in giant pigmented nevus": "", + "Malignant melanoma in Hutchinson melanotic freckle": "A melanoma of the skin characterized by single cell infiltration of the papillary dermis by atypical melanocytes, in a background of lentigo maligna changes.", + "Malignant melanoma in junctional nevus": "A melanoma arising from a melanocytic nevus which involves the dermal-epidermal junction of the skin.", + "Malignant melanoma in precancerous melanosis": "A melanoma arising from an atypical intraepithelial melanocytic hyperplasia.", + "Malignant melanoma, NOS": "A malignant, usually aggressive tumor composed of atypical, neoplastic melanocytes. Most often, melanomas arise in the skin (cutaneous melanomas) and include the following histologic subtypes: superficial spreading melanoma, nodular melanoma, acral lentiginous melanoma, and lentigo maligna melanoma. Cutaneous melanomas may arise from acquired or congenital melanocytic or dysplastic nevi. Melanomas may also arise in other anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal system, eye, urinary tract, and reproductive system. Melanomas frequently metastasize to lymph nodes, liver, lungs, and brain.", + "Malignant melanoma, regressing": "A skin lesion characterized by the disappearance of the melanoma cells from the primary melanoma site. The disappearance of the malignant cells is associated with fibroplasia of the papillary dermis. According to some authors, complete regression of the primary melanoma may occur in 4-8% of patients.", + "Malignant midline reticulosis": "", + "Malignant mucinous adenofibroma": "", + "Malignant mucinous cystadenofibroma": "", + "Malignant multilocular cystic nephroma": "A variant of Wilms tumor of the kidney characterized by the presence of cystic spaces separated by septa. The septa contain immature epithelial cells, immature stromal cells, and blastema cells. Surgical resection is usually curative.", + "Malignant myelosclerosis": "", + "Malignant myoepithelioma": "An infiltrating malignant tumor characterized by the presence of atypical cells with myoepithelial differentiation. Representative examples include malignant breast myoepithelioma and salivary gland myoepithelial carcinoma.", + "Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor": "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life. It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region. It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1).", + "Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor with rhabdomyoblastic differentiation": "A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor which shows rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation. More than half of the patients have neurofibromatosis type 1. The prognosis is usually poor.", + "Malignant perivascular epithelial cell tumor": "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the perivascular cells of the connective and soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of pericytes that grow in a circumferential pattern around vessels, and cytologic atypia.", + "Malignant reticulosis, NOS": "An aggressive, predominantly extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. It is characterized by an often angiocentric and angiodestructive cellular infiltrate composed of EBV positive NK/T cells. The nasal cavity is the most common site of involvement. Patients often present with midfacial destructive lesions (lethal midline granuloma). The disease may disseminate rapidly to various anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal tract, skin, testis, and cervical lymph nodes. It is also known as angiocentric T-cell lymphoma. The term \"polymorphic reticulosis\" has been widely used to describe the morphologic changes seen in this type of lymphoma. However, the latter term may also apply to lymphomatoid granulomatosis, which is an angiocentric and angiodestructive EBV positive B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder.", + "Malignant rhabdoid tumor": "An aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm usually occurring during childhood. It is characterized by the presence of large cells with abundant cytoplasm, large eccentric nucleus, and a prominent nucleolus and it is associated with abnormalities of chromosome 22. It can arise from the central nervous system, kidney, and the soft tissues. The prognosis is poor.", + "Malignant schwannoma with rhabdomyoblastic differentiation": "A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor which shows rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation. More than half of the patients have neurofibromatosis type 1. The prognosis is usually poor.", + "Malignant schwannoma, NOS": "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life. It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region. It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1).", + "Malignant serous adenofibroma": "", + "Malignant serous cystadenofibroma": "", + "Malignant tenosynovial giant cell tumor": "An uncommon malignant tumor arising from the tendon sheath. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of a cellular infiltrate reminiscent of a giant cell tumor with prominent malignant characteristics. Recurrent giant cell tumors with a sarcomatous dedifferentiation are included in this category as well.", + "Malignant teratoma, anaplastic": "A teratoma composed exclusively of immature tissues.", + "Malignant teratoma, intermediate": "An immature teratoma characterized by the presence of an intermediate amount of undifferentiated tissues.", + "Malignant teratoma, trophoblastic": "A malignant germ cell tumor which metastasizes widely and produces high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin.", + "Malignant teratoma, undifferentiated": "A teratoma composed exclusively of immature tissues.", + "Malignant tumor, clear cell type": "", + "Malignant tumor, fusiform cell type": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical spindle cells.", + "Malignant tumor, giant cell type": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by then presence of atypical giant cells.", + "Malignant tumor, small cell type": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of small atypical cells.", + "Malignant tumor, spindle cell type": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical spindle cells.", + "MALT lymphoma": "An indolent, extranodal type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small B-lymphocytes (centrocyte-like cells). The gastrointestinal tract is the most common site of involvement. Other common sites of involvement include lung, head and neck, ocular adnexae, skin, thyroid, and breast. Gastric involvement is associated with the presence of H. pylori infection. (WHO, 2001)", + "Mammary carcinoma, in situ": "", + "MANEC": "A carcinoma that arises from the digestive system and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component. At least 30% of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made.", + "Mantle cell lymphoma (Includes all variants blastic, pleomorphic, small cell)": "An aggressive, usually diffuse non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small to medium sized B-lymphocytes (centrocytes). Most patients present with advanced stage disease with lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and bone marrow involvement. The gastrointestinal tract is the most commonly affected extranodal site by this type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The vast majority of cases express the t(11;14)(q13;q32) resulting in the rearrangement of the BCL-1 gene and the overexpression of cyclin D1 mRNA.", + "Mantle zone lymphoma": "An aggressive, usually diffuse non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small to medium sized B-lymphocytes (centrocytes). Most patients present with advanced stage disease with lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and bone marrow involvement. The gastrointestinal tract is the most commonly affected extranodal site by this type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The vast majority of cases express the t(11;14)(q13;q32) resulting in the rearrangement of the BCL-1 gene and the overexpression of cyclin D1 mRNA.", + "Marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, NOS": "A usually indolent mature B-cell lymphoma, arising from the marginal zone of lymphoid tissues. It is characterized by the presence of small to medium sized atypical lymphocytes. It comprises three entities, according to the anatomic sites involved: extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, which affects extranodal sites (most often stomach, lung, skin, and ocular adnexa); nodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, which affects lymph nodes without evidence of extranodal disease; and splenic marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, which affects the spleen and splenic hilar lymph nodes, bone marrow, and often the peripheral blood.", + "Marginal zone lymphoma, NOS": "A usually indolent mature B-cell lymphoma, arising from the marginal zone of lymphoid tissues. It is characterized by the presence of small to medium sized atypical lymphocytes. It comprises three entities, according to the anatomic sites involved: extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, which affects extranodal sites (most often stomach, lung, skin, and ocular adnexa); nodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, which affects lymph nodes without evidence of extranodal disease; and splenic marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, which affects the spleen and splenic hilar lymph nodes, bone marrow, and often the peripheral blood.", + "Masculinovoblastoma": "An ovarian tumor in which the vast majority of the cells (more than 90% of the tumor cells) resemble steroid hormone-secreting cells. It usually presents with androgenic manifestations. Approximately one-third of the cases follow a malignant clinical course.", + "Mast cell leukaemia": "A variant of systemic mastocytosis with involvement of the bone marrow (20% or more mast cells) and the peripheral blood (mast cells account for 10% or more of peripheral blood white cells). (WHO, 2001)", + "Mast cell sarcoma": "A rare malignant neoplasm characterized by localized but destructive growth of a tumor consisting of highly atypical, immature mast cells.(WHO, 2001)", + "Mast cell tumor, NOS": "A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by the abnormal growth and accumulation of mast cells in one or more organ systems. Recent data suggest that most variants of mast cell neoplasms are clonal disorders. (WHO, 2001)", + "Mastocytoma, NOS": "A localized tumor composed of sheets of mast cells without atypia. It includes the cutaneous mastocytoma which involves the dermis and subcutaneous tissue, and the extracutaneous mastocytoma. Most cases of extracutaneous mastocytoma have been reported in the lung.", + "Matrical carcinoma": "A very rare, locally aggressive, malignant neoplasm of the hair follicle. The majority of the cases arise de novo, however malignant transformation from a pre-existing pilomatricoma has been reported. It usually presents as a solitary nodule in the head and neck, upper extremities, or buttocks. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of aggregates of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Masses of ghost cells are present in the cellular aggregates. Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice. If it is not completely removed, it usually recurs, but it rarely metastasizes to distant anatomic sites.", + "Mature T ALL": "Mature T-ALL", + "Mature T-cell lymphoma, NOS": "A heterogenous category of nodal and extranodal mature T-cell lymphomas that do not correspond to any of the specifically defined entities of mature T-cell lymphoma in the 2017 WHO classification. Excluded from this category are tumors with a T follicular helper (TFH) cell phenotype. Variants include lymphoepithelioid lymphoma (Lennert lymphoma) and primary EBV-positive nodal T-cell or NK-cell lymphoma. The follicular variant included in the peripheral T-cell lymphomas, not otherwise specified, in the 2008 edition of the WHO classification has been moved to the category of angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma and other nodal lymphomas of T follicular helper cell origin in the 2017 WHO update. The same is true for a proportion of cases previously designated as the T-zone variant, because they usually have a TFH-cell phenotype. (WHO 2017)", + "Mature teratoma": "A teratoma which may be cystic; it is composed entirely of well differentiated, adult-type mature tissues, without evidence of fetal-type immature tissues (grade 0 teratoma).", + "Mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma": "A large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising in the mediastinum. Morphologically it is characterized by a massive diffuse lymphocytic proliferation associated with compartmentalizing fibrosis. Response to intensive chemotherapy, with or without radiotherapy, is usually good. (WHO, 2001)", + "Mediterranean lymphoma": "A clonal disorder, also known as immunoproliferative small intestinal disease or Mediterranean lymphoma, characterised by the secretion of a defective alpha heavy chain. It predominantly affects young people in the Mediterranean region. It involves the small intestine, and patients usually present with malabsorption syndrome, abdominal pain, weight loss, and fever. There is extensive villous atrophy of the small intestinal mucosa, which is heavily infiltrated by small lymphocytes and plasma cells. The small intestinal morphologic changes are consistent with a mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma (MALT lymphoma).", + "Medullary adenocarcinoma": "", + "Medullary carcinoma with amyloid stroma": "A medullary thyroid gland carcinoma characterized by the presence of amyloid stroma. The majority of medullary carcinomas of the thyroid gland are associated with amyloid deposits. The latter are highlighted with Congo red staining method.", + "Medullary carcinoma with lymphoid stroma": "", + "Medullary carcinoma, NOS": "A term referring to medullary carcinomas which can develop in various anatomic sites such as the thyroid gland, breast, colon, rectum, and small intestine.", + "Medullary osteosarcoma": "A high grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm producing osteoid. The tumor arises from the medullary portion of the bone. It affects the long bones and most commonly, the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most common clinical presentation. It usually has an aggressive growth and may metastasize through the hematogenous route. The lung is the most frequent site of metastasis.", + "Medulloblastoma with extensive nodularity": "A medulloblastoma characterized by nodularity and neuronal differentiation.", + "Medulloblastoma, classic": "A medulloblastoma composed of malignant cells with hyperchromatic nucleus and scanty cytoplasm. Homer Wright rosettes may be present.", + "Medulloblastoma, group 3": "Medulloblastoma not associated with activation of the WNT pathway or sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. MYC amplifications may be present. TP53 mutations are absent. Patients in this group are usually young children. The overall survival is the worst among all the molecular groups.", + "Medulloblastoma, group 4": "Medulloblastoma not associated with activation of the WNT pathway or sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. MYC amplifications are absent. TP53 mutations are absent. Chromosome 17 abnormalities may be present.", + "Medulloblastoma, non-WNT/non-SHH": "Medulloblastoma not associated with activation of the WNT pathway or sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway. TP53 mutations are absent. This molecular subtype includes medulloblastomas numerically designated as \"group 3\" and \"group 4\".", + "Medulloblastoma, NOS": "A malignant, invasive embryonal neoplasm arising from the cerebellum or posterior fossa. It occurs predominantly in children and has the tendency to metastasize via the cerebrospinal fluid pathways. Signs and symptoms include truncal ataxia, disturbed gait, lethargy, headache, and vomiting. There are four histologic variants: classic medulloblastoma, large cell/anaplastic medulloblastoma, desmoplastic/nodular medulloblastoma, and medulloblastoma with extensive nodularity.", + "Medulloblastoma, SHH-activated and TP53-mutant": "Medulloblastoma associated with activation of the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway and the presence of TP53 mutations.", + "Medulloblastoma, SHH-activated and TP53-wildtype": "Medulloblastoma associated with activation of the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway and the absence of TP53 mutations.", + "Medulloblastoma, WNT-activated": "A molecular subtype of medulloblastoma associated with activation of the WNT pathway. TP53 mutations may be present or absent. WNT pathway activation in medulloblastomas is associated with good outcome.", + "Medullocytoma": "A rare, WHO grade II cerebellar neoplasm which shows consistent neuronal, variable astrocytic and focal lipomatous differentiation. It occurs in adults, has a low proliferative potential and usually has a favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Medulloepithelioma, benign": "", + "Medulloepithelioma, NOS": "A rare, unilateral, benign or malignant embryonic neoplasm typically presenting as a cilliary body mass during childhood. It is composed of medullary epithelial cells.", + "Medullomyoblastoma": "A rare malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the cerebellum. It is characterized by the morphologic features of a medulloblastoma and the presence of a striated muscle component. Its clinical behavior is similar to medulloblastoma.", + "Megakaryocytic leukemia": "An acute myeloid leukemia in which at least 50% of the blasts are of megakaryocytic lineage. (WHO, 2001)", + "Megakaryocytic myelosclerosis": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, proliferation of atypical megakaryocytes and granulocytes in the bone marrow, anemia, splenomegaly, and extramedullary hematopoiesis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Melanoameloblastoma": "A rare neoplasm usually occurring in infants. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of melanin-containing epithelial cells and smaller neuroblast-like cells. It may involve the skull and facial bones, or the epididymis. It usually has a benign clinical course.", + "Melanocytic nevus": "A neoplasm composed of melanocytes that usually appears as a dark spot on the skin.", + "Melanocytoma, eyeball": "A benign melanocytic proliferation within or adjacent to the optic disk. It presents as a pigmented, intraocular tumor.", + "Melanocytoma, NOS": "A benign melanocytic proliferation without metastatic potential.", + "Melanoma in situ": "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Melanoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastases. M0: No detectable evidence of distant metastases. (from AJCC 6th and 7th Eds.)", + "Melanoma, malignant, of soft parts": "A rare malignant neoplasm with melanocytic differentiation characterized by the presence of polygonal or spindle shaped clear cells. This sarcoma usually affects the tendons and aponeuroses and is associated with a poor prognosis due to recurrences and metastases.", + "Melanoma, NOS": "A malignant, usually aggressive tumor composed of atypical, neoplastic melanocytes. Most often, melanomas arise in the skin (cutaneous melanomas) and include the following histologic subtypes: superficial spreading melanoma, nodular melanoma, acral lentiginous melanoma, and lentigo maligna melanoma. Cutaneous melanomas may arise from acquired or congenital melanocytic or dysplastic nevi. Melanomas may also arise in other anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal system, eye, urinary tract, and reproductive system. Melanomas frequently metastasize to lymph nodes, liver, lungs, and brain.", + "Melanotic medulloblastoma": "A rare malignant embryonal neoplasm characterized by the presence of small cells which resemble the cells of classic medulloblastoma and a minor population of melanin-forming neuroepithelial cells. It usually has an unfavorable clinical course.", + "Melanotic MPNST": "A rare variant of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells that contain melanin.", + "Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor": "A rare neoplasm usually occurring in infants. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of melanin-containing epithelial cells and smaller neuroblast-like cells. It may involve the skull and facial bones, or the epididymis. It usually has a benign clinical course.", + "Melanotic neurofibroma": "A rare neurofibroma characterized by the presence of melanin-laden cells and the absence of atypia.", + "Melanotic progonoma": "A rare neoplasm usually occurring in infants. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of melanin-containing epithelial cells and smaller neuroblast-like cells. It may involve the skull and facial bones, or the epididymis. It usually has a benign clinical course.", + "Melanotic psammomatous MPNST": "A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor characterized by the presence of malignant cells that contain melanin and formation of psammoma bodies.", + "Melanotic schwannoma": "A rare circumscribed, non-encapsulated and grossly pigmented nerve sheath tumor. It is composed of cells with the immunophenotypic and electron microscopic features of Schwann cells which contain melanosomes and are positive for melanoma markers. It usually involves spinal nerve roots but may occur in other locations. It may be associated with PRKAR1A gene mutation and Carney complex. Malignant behavior has been reported in a significant number of patients.", + "Meningeal melanocytoma": "A usually well differentiated melanocytic neoplasm arising from the meninges. It is characterized by the presence of epithelioid, fusiform, polyhedral, and spindle melanocytes without evidence of hemorrhage, necrosis, or high mitotic activity. Presenting symptoms include headache, vomiting, and neurological manifestations. Complete excision is usually curative.", + "Meningeal melanoma": "A melanoma that arises from leptomeningeal melanocytes.", + "Meningeal melanomatosis": "A meningeal melanoma with secondary diffuse meningeal spread. (WHO)", + "Meningeal sarcoma": "A rare sarcoma arising from the meninges.", + "Meningeal sarcomatosis": "A rare condition characterized by diffuse spread of sarcoma cells throughout the meninges. The neoplastic cells are derived from meningeal connective tissue. Clinically, this disorder may present as a fulminant pachymeningitis and/or encephalitis.", + "Meningioma, anaplastic": "A WHO grade III meningioma characterized by the presence of malignant morphologic features, including malignant cytology and a very high mitotic index (20 or more mitoses per ten high power fields).", + "Meningioma, malignant": "A WHO grade III meningioma characterized by the presence of malignant morphologic features, including malignant cytology and a very high mitotic index (20 or more mitoses per ten high power fields).", + "Meningioma, NOS": "A generally slow growing tumor attached to the dura mater. It is composed of neoplastic meningothelial (arachnoidal) cells. It typically occurs in adults, often women and it has a wide range of histopathological appearances. Of the various subtypes, meningothelial, fibrous and transitional meningiomas are the most common. Most meningiomas are WHO grade I tumors, and some are WHO grade II or III tumors. Most subtypes share a common clinical behavior, although some subtypes are more likely to recur and follow a more aggressive clinical course. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Meningiomatosis, NOS": "The presence of multiple meningiomas in the leptomeninges.", + "Meningothelial meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of tumor cells that form lobules. The tumor cells are generally uniform. Whorls and psammoma bodies are usually not present.", + "Meningothelial sarcoma": "A rare sarcoma arising from the meninges.", + "Merkel cell carcinoma": "A rare malignant cutaneous tumor seen in elderly patients. Its usual location is on the head, neck and extremities. The tumor is composed of small round cells with scanty cytoplasm arranged in a trabecular pattern, or in ill-defined nodules or in a diffuse pattern. The tumor cells contain cytoplasmic membrane-bound dense core granules resembling neurosecretory granules. There is strong evidence implicating Merkel cell polyomavirus in a majority of cases of Merkel cell carcinoma.", + "Merkel cell tumor": "A rare malignant cutaneous tumor seen in elderly patients. Its usual location is on the head, neck and extremities. The tumor is composed of small round cells with scanty cytoplasm arranged in a trabecular pattern, or in ill-defined nodules or in a diffuse pattern. The tumor cells contain cytoplasmic membrane-bound dense core granules resembling neurosecretory granules. There is strong evidence implicating Merkel cell polyomavirus in a majority of cases of Merkel cell carcinoma.", + "Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma": "A morphologic variant of chondrosarcoma arising from bone and soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of malignant small round cells, biphasic growth pattern, and well differentiated hyaline cartilage. Clinical presentation includes pain and swelling. The clinical course is aggressive, with local recurrences and distant metastases.", + "Mesenchymal tumor, malignant": "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm of the soft tissue or bone. It arises from muscle, fat, fibrous tissue, bone, cartilage, and blood vessels. Sarcomas occur in both children and adults. The prognosis depends largely on the degree of differentiation (grade) of the neoplasm. Representative subtypes are liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, osteosarcoma, and chondrosarcoma.", + "Mesenchymoma, benign": "A term describing a benign soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation.", + "Mesenchymoma, malignant": "A term describing a malignant soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation.", + "Mesenchymoma, NOS": "A term describing a soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation.", + "Mesenteric fibromatosis": "An insidious poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues of the abdomen. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern.", + "Mesoblastic nephroma": "A low grade childhood congenital malignant neoplasm arising from the kidney. It is characterized by the presence of fibroblastic cells. The majority of cases occur in the first year of life. Complete excision is usually associated with an excellent prognosis.", + "Mesodermal mixed tumor": "A group of tumors affecting the female reproductive system, characterized by the presence of epithelial and stromal elements. It includes the following clinicopathological entities: adenofibroma, adenomyoma, Mullerian adenosarcoma, and malignant mixed mesodermal (Mullerian) tumor.", + "Mesonephric adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma of the cervix or the vagina arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "Mesonephric adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm of the female reproductive system arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "Mesonephric tumor, NOS": "An epithelial neoplasm of the female reproductive system arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "Mesonephroma, benign": "A benign epithelial neoplasm of the female reproductive system arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "Mesonephroma, malignant": "An adenocarcinoma of the cervix or the vagina arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "Mesonephroma, NOS": "An epithelial neoplasm of the female reproductive system arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "Mesothelial papilloma": "", + "Mesothelioma, benign": "A benign neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the formation of glandular and tubular patterns. It can occur in several anatomic sites including the pleura, peritoneum, and epididymis.", + "Mesothelioma, biphasic, malignant": "A malignant mesothelioma characterized by the presence of epithelioid and sarcomatoid components, with each component representing at least 10% of the tumor.", + "Mesothelioma, biphasic, NOS": "A malignant mesothelioma characterized by the presence of epithelioid and sarcomatoid components, with each component representing at least 10% of the tumor.", + "Mesothelioma, malignant": "A malignant neoplasm that arises from mesothelial cells. It is associated with exposure to asbestos.", + "Mesothelioma, NOS": "A usually malignant and aggressive neoplasm of the mesothelium which is often associated with exposure to asbestos.", + "Metanephric adenoma": "A benign, well-circumscribed renal cortical neoplasm affecting females more often than males. Polycythemia has been reported in twelve-percent of patients.", + "Metaplastic carcinoma of no special type": "A general term used to describe carcinomas arising from epithelial cells that have been transformed into another cells type (metaplastic epithelial cells). A representative example is the adenocarcinoma arising in Barrett esophagus. This term is also used to describe carcinomas in which the malignant epithelial cells show differentiation towards another cell type. A representative example of the latter is the metaplastic breast carcinoma in which the malignant glandular cells show squamous, spindle cell, or chondroid/osseous differentiation.", + "Metaplastic carcinoma with chondroid differentiation": "", + "Metaplastic carcinoma with osseous differentiation": "", + "Metaplastic carcinoma with other types mesenchymal differentiation": "", + "Metaplastic carcinoma, NOS": "A general term used to describe carcinomas arising from epithelial cells that have been transformed into another cells type (metaplastic epithelial cells). A representative example is the adenocarcinoma arising in Barrett esophagus. This term is also used to describe carcinomas in which the malignant epithelial cells show differentiation towards another cell type. A representative example of the latter is the metaplastic breast carcinoma in which the malignant glandular cells show squamous, spindle cell, or chondroid/osseous differentiation.", + "Metaplastic meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of a prominent mesenchymal component. The mesenchymal component may be osseous, cartilaginous, myxoid, lipomatous, or a mixture of mesenchymal elements.", + "Metastasizing leiomyoma": "", + "Metastatic signet ring cell carcinoma": "A signet ring cell carcinoma that has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.", + "Metatypical carcinoma": "A skin carcinoma displaying cytological characteristics intermediate to nodular basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma.", + "MGUS": "A condition in which an abnormal amount of a single immunoglobulin is present in the serum. This category includes IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance and non-IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Up to 25% of cases of monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance progress to a B-cell malignancy or myeloma.", + "Microcystic adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a microcystic pattern. The cystic spaces are lined by small cuboidal cells without evidence of significant cytologic atypia.", + "Microcystic adnexal carcinoma": "A low grade adenocarcinoma with ductal differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a scar usually in the face. It is characterized by the formation of small ducts and it frequently involves nerves and perineural spaces.", + "Microcystic meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of intercellular microcystic spaces that contain mucinous fluid.", + "Microcystic urothelial carcinoma": "A variant of infiltrating bladder urothelial carcinoma. It is characterized by microcysts formation. It is also associated with intracytoplasmic mucin deposits and calcification in cyst walls.", + "Microfollicular adenoma, NOS": "A thyroid gland adenoma composed of microfollicular structures.", + "Microglioma": "A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that arises in the brain or spinal cord as a primary lesion. There is no evidence of lymphoma outside the central nervous system at the time of diagnosis.", + "Micropapillary adenocarcinoma": "", + "Micropapillary carcinoma, NOS": "", + "Micropapillary serous carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma usually arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of complex micropapillary structures covered by round and cuboidal cells with a high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio.", + "Midline carcinoma of children and young adults with NUT rearrangement": "A rare, highly aggressive and lethal carcinoma that affects children and young adults. It arises from midline epithelial structures, most commonly the head, neck, and mediastinum. It is a poorly differentiated carcinoma and is characterized by mutations and rearrangement of the NUT gene. A balanced translocation t(15;19) is present that results in the creation of a fusion gene involving the NUT gene, most commonly BRD4-NUT fusion gene.", + "Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma, mucinous": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by tall columnar cells and mucin production.", + "Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma, non-mucinous": "A morphologic variant of minimally invasive lung adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of Clara cells and/or type II cells.", + "Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma, NOS": "A solitary adenocarcinoma arising from the lung measuring 3 cm or less. It is characterized by a predominantly lepidic pattern and 5 mm or less invasion in greatest dimension. It is usually a non-mucinous adenocarcinoma, but rarely may be mucinous.", + "MiT family translocation renal cell carcinoma": "A renal cell carcinoma (RCC) usually seen in children or young adults. It is characterized by papillary, alveolar and nested growth patterns with clear and eosinophilic cells. The carcinomas range from microscopic lesions to clinically symptomatic tumors. It is associated with translocations/gene fusions involving members of the MiT family of transcription factors, including TFE3 and TFEB. There are two subtypes; RCCs associated with Xp11 translocations and TFE3 gene fusions and RCCs with t(6:11) translocations resulting in MALAT1-TFEB gene fusions.", + "Mixed acidophil-basophil adenoma": "An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic and basic dyes.", + "Mixed acidophil-basophil carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with acidic and basic dyes.", + "Mixed acinar-ductal carcinoma": "", + "Mixed acinar-endocrine carcinoma": "", + "Mixed acinar-endocrine-ductal carcinoma": "A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas showing either extensive mucin accumulation and acinar neoplastic cells or a mixture of columnar or signet-ring cells and acinar neoplastic cells.", + "Mixed adenocarcinoma and epidermoid carcinoma": "An invasive carcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells and malignant squamous cells.", + "Mixed adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma": "An invasive carcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells and malignant squamous cells.", + "Mixed adenomatous and hyperplastic polyp": "An adenoma that arises from the large intestine and the appendix. It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands and the presence of generalized low-grade dysplasia.", + "Mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma": "A carcinoma that arises from the digestive system and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component. At least 30% of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made.", + "Mixed basal-squamous cell carcinoma": "A basal cell carcinoma which displays squamous differentiation. The neoplastic cells have more abundant cytoplasm with more marked keratinization than typical basal cell carcinomas. It usually has a more aggressive clinical course compared to typical basal cell carcinoma, and it may produce regional or widespread metastases.", + "Mixed carcinoid-adenocarcinoma": "A carcinoma that arises from the digestive system and is characterized by the presence of a malignant glandular epithelial component and a malignant neuroendocrine component. At least 30% of either component should be present for the diagnosis to be made.", + "Mixed cell adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a mixed malignant glandular cell population.", + "Mixed cell adenoma": "An adenoma characterized by the presence of a mixed epithelial cell population.", + "Mixed ductal-endocrine carcinoma": "A carcinoma that arises from the pancreas showing a mixture of ductal and neuroendocrine malignant cells in both the primary tumor and in the metastatic sites.", + "Mixed embryonal carcinoma and teratoma": "A germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of an embryonal carcinoma component and a teratoma component.", + "Mixed embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma and alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma": "", + "Mixed endocrine and exocrine adenocarcinoma": "", + "Mixed epithelioid and spindle cell melanoma": "A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant large epithelioid melanocytes and malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes.", + "Mixed germ cell sex cord-stromal tumor, unclassified": "A testicular mixed germ cell-sex cord-stromal tumor in which the neoplastic germ cells and the neoplastic sex cord-stromal cells do not form nests and are instead arranged in a diffuse pattern.", + "Mixed germ cell tumor": "A malignant germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of at least two different germ cell tumor components. The different germ cell tumor components include choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, and seminoma. It occurs in the ovary, testis, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system and mediastinum.", + "Mixed glioma": "A tumor composed of two or more glial cell types (astrocytes, ependymal cells, and oligodendrocytes).", + "Mixed hepatocellular and bile duct carcinoma": "A rare tumor containing unequivocal elements of both hepatocellular and cholangiocarcinoma that are intimately admixed. This tumor should be distinguished from separate hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma arising in the same liver. The prognosis of this tumor is poor.", + "Mixed invasive mucinous and non-mucinous adenocarcinoma": "", + "Mixed islet cell and exocrine adenocarcinoma": "", + "Mixed liposarcoma": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of a combination of liposarcomatous morphologic subtypes: myxoid/round cell and well differentiated/dedifferentiated liposarcoma or myxoid/round cell and pleomorphic liposarcoma.", + "Mixed medullary-follicular carcinoma": "", + "Mixed medullary-papillary carcinoma": "", + "Mixed meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the coexistence of meningothelial cells and fibrous architectural patterns.", + "Mixed mesenchymal sarcoma": "A term describing a malignant soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation.", + "Mixed mesenchymal tumor": "A term describing a soft tissue tumor which consists of two or more mesenchymal lines of differentiation, excluding a fibroblastic line of differentiation.", + "Mixed pancreatic endocrine and exocrine tumor, malignant": "", + "Mixed phenotype acute leukemia with t(9;22)(q34;q11.2); BCR-ABL1": "A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts also carry the translocation t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2) by karyotypic analysis or the BCR-ABL1 translocation by FISH or PCR. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "Mixed phenotype acute leukemia with t(v;11q23); MLL rearranged": "A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts also carry a translocation (v; 11q23.3) involving the KMT2A gene. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "Mixed phenotype acute leukemia, B/myeloid, NOS": "A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts express B-lymphoid and myeloid lineage markers but are negative for MLL translocation and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "Mixed phenotype acute leukemia, T/myeloid, NOS": "A rare mixed phenotype acute leukemia in which the blasts express T-lymphoid and myeloid lineage markers but are negative for MLL translocation and t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) translocation. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "Mixed pineal tumor": "", + "Mixed pineocytoma-pineoblastoma": "", + "Mixed small cell carcinoma": "A morphologic variant of small cell lung carcinoma in combination with a non-small cell carcinoma.", + "Mixed squamous cell and glandular papilloma": "", + "Mixed subependymoma-ependymoma": "A benign, slow growing neoplasm which is typically attached to a ventricular wall. It is composed of glial tumor cell clusters embedded in an abundant fibrillary matrix with frequent microcystic change. Some lesions have the histological features of both subependymoma and ependymoma. It is often detected incidentally and has a very favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO.)", + "Mixed teratoma and seminoma": "Mixed Teratoma and Seminoma", + "Mixed tumor, malignant, NOS": "A malignant tumor arising from the salivary gland. It includes carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, a malignant epithelial tumor arising from a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma and carcinosarcoma which is characterized by a mixture of malignant epithelial and sarcomatous elements.", + "Mixed tumor, NOS": "A benign myoepithelioma characterized by the presence of a minor ductal component.", + "Mixed tumor, salivary gland type, malignant": "A malignant tumor arising from the salivary gland. It includes carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, a malignant epithelial tumor arising from a pre-existing pleomorphic adenoma and carcinosarcoma which is characterized by a mixture of malignant epithelial and sarcomatous elements.", + "Mixed tumor, salivary gland type, NOS": "A neoplasm characterized by the presence of benign epithelial and myoepithelial cells and a mesenchymal component that may contain mucoid, myxoid, cartilaginous, or osseous areas. It may be completely or partially encapsulated. It occurs in the parotid gland, submandibular gland, minor salivary glands in the oral cavity, upper respiratory tract, and nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It usually presents as a slow growing painless mass. Infrequently, patients may present with pain and facial palsy. It may recur after excision or transform to a malignant neoplasm (carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma).", + "Mixed type rhabdomyosarcoma": "", + "Monoblastic leukemia, NOS": "An acute myeloid leukemia in which the monoblasts represent 80% or more of the total cellular population. (WHO, 2001)", + "Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance": "A condition in which an abnormal amount of a single immunoglobulin is present in the serum. This category includes IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance and non-IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Up to 25% of cases of monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance progress to a B-cell malignancy or myeloma.", + "Monoclonal gammopathy, NOS": "A condition in which an abnormal amount of a single immunoglobulin is present in the serum. This category includes IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance and non-IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. Up to 25% of cases of monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance progress to a B-cell malignancy or myeloma.", + "Monocytic leukemia, NOS": "An acute myeloid leukemia in which the majority of monocytic cells are promonocytes. (WHO, 2001)", + "Monocytoid B-cell lymphoma": "A primary nodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma which morphologically resembles lymph nodes involved by marginal zone lymphomas of extranodal or splenic types, but without evidence of extranodal or splenic disease. (WHO, 2001)", + "Monomorphic adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the salivary glands. It is characterized by the presence of a monomorphic cellular infiltrate.", + "Monstrocellular sarcoma": "", + "MPNST with glandular differentiation": "", + "MPNST with mesenchymal differentiation": "", + "MPNST with rhabdomyoblastic differentiation": "A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor which shows rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation. More than half of the patients have neurofibromatosis type 1. The prognosis is usually poor.", + "MPNST, NOS": "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life. It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region. It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1).", + "Mu heavy chain disease": "A clonal disorder characterized by the secretion of a mu heavy chain that lacks a variable region. Most patients present with slowly progressive chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). In contrast to most cases of CLL, Mu heavy chain disease is associated with hepatosplenomegaly and absence of lymphadenopathy.", + "Mucin-producing adenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which produce mucin.", + "Mucin-producing carcinoma": "A carcinoma that produces mucin.", + "Mucin-secreting adenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which produce mucin.", + "Mucin-secreting carcinoma": "A carcinoma that produces mucin.", + "Mucinous adenocarcinofibroma": "", + "Mucinous adenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "Mucinous adenocarcinoma, endocervical type": "A mucinous adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells which resemble the endocervical epithelium.", + "Mucinous adenofibroma of borderline malignancy": "", + "Mucinous adenofibroma, NOS": "A benign or borderline adenofibroma characterized by the presence of epithelial cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin and a fibrotic stroma. A representative example is the ovarian mucinous adenofibroma.", + "Mucinous adenoma": "A benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung.", + "Mucinous carcinoid": "", + "Mucinous carcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "Mucinous carcinoma, gastric type": "A cervical mucinous adenocarcinoma showing gastric differentiation.", + "Mucinous carcinoma, intestinal type": "A cervical mucinous adenocarcinoma that resembles the large intestinal adenocarcinoma.", + "Mucinous cystadenocarcinofibroma": "", + "Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, non-invasive": "", + "Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, NOS": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by cystic changes and the presence of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung.", + "Mucinous cystadenofibroma of borderline malignancy": "", + "Mucinous cystadenofibroma, NOS": "A benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by mucinous columnar epithelial cells in a fibrotic stroma.", + "Mucinous cystadenoma, borderline malignancy": "", + "Mucinous cystadenoma, NOS": "A benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung.", + "Mucinous cystic neoplasm with an associated invasive carcinoma": "", + "Mucinous cystic neoplasm with high-grade dysplasia": "", + "Mucinous cystic neoplasm with high-grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "", + "Mucinous cystic neoplasm with intermediate-grade dysplasia": "", + "Mucinous cystic neoplasm with intermediate-grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "", + "Mucinous cystic neoplasm with low-grade dysplasia": "", + "Mucinous cystic neoplasm with low-grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "", + "Mucinous cystic tumor of borderline malignancy": "", + "Mucinous cystic tumor with an associated invasive carcinoma": "", + "Mucinous cystic tumor with high-grade dysplasia": "", + "Mucinous cystic tumor with intermediate dysplasia": "", + "Mucinous cystic tumor with low grade dysplasia": "", + "Mucinous cystic tumor with moderate dysplasia": "A non-invasive mucinous cystic neoplasm that arises from the pancreas and is characterized by the presence of moderate dysplasia. The neoplastic columnar mucin-producing epithelial cells form papillary projections or crypt-like invaginations. There is cellular pseudostratification and mitotic activity present.", + "Mucinous cystoma": "A benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung.", + "Mucinous tubular and spindle cell carcinoma": "A low grade carcinoma of the kidney characterized by the presence of tubules which are separated by mucinous stroma. Often the tubular structures have a spindle cell appearance. Patients are usually asymptomatic and occasionally they may present with hematuria or flank pain.", + "Mucinous tumor, NOS, of low malignant potential": "", + "Mucocarcinoid tumor": "", + "Mucoepidermoid carcinoma": "A carcinoma morphologically characterized the presence of cuboidal mucous cells, goblet-like mucous cells, squamoid cells, cystic changes, and a fibrotic stromal formation. It can occur in several anatomic sites, including parotid gland, oral cavity, paranasal sinus, skin, breast, lung, larynx, and lacrimal ducts. It is classified as low or high grade.", + "Mucoepidermoid tumor": "", + "Mucoid adenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "Mucoid carcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "Mucoid cell adenocarcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with basic dyes.", + "Mucoid cell adenoma": "An epithelial neoplasm of the anterior pituitary gland in which the neoplastic cells stain positive with basic dyes.", + "Mucosal lentiginous melanoma": "An acral lentiginous melanoma affecting mucosal surfaces.", + "Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma": "An indolent, extranodal type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small B-lymphocytes (centrocyte-like cells). The gastrointestinal tract is the most common site of involvement. Other common sites of involvement include lung, head and neck, ocular adnexae, skin, thyroid, and breast. Gastric involvement is associated with the presence of H. pylori infection. (WHO, 2001)", + "Mucous adenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "Mucous carcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma composed of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. Often, the infiltrating glandular structures are associated with mucoid stromal formation. It may arise from the large and small intestine, appendix, stomach, lung, ovary, breast, corpus uteri, cervix, vagina, and salivary gland.", + "Mullerian adenosarcoma": "A low grade malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of a benign epithelial component (tubular and cleft-like glands) and a low grade sarcomatous component that contains varying amounts of fibrous and smooth muscle tissues. In a minority of cases, the sarcomatous component contains heterologous elements including striated muscle, cartilage, and fat. It occurs in the uterine corpus, ovary, fallopian tube, cervix, and vagina. It may recur and in a minority of cases may metastasize to distant anatomic sites.", + "Mullerian mixed tumor": "A group of tumors affecting the female reproductive system, characterized by the presence of epithelial and stromal elements. It includes the following clinicopathological entities: adenofibroma, adenomyoma, Mullerian adenosarcoma, and malignant mixed mesodermal (Mullerian) tumor.", + "Multicentric basal cell carcinoma": "A superficial basal cell carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of lobules of basaloid cells which are separated by large distances and represent multifocal discrete tumors.", + "Multicystic mesothelioma, benign": "", + "Multifocal superficial basal cell carcinoma": "A superficial basal cell carcinoma of the skin characterized by the presence of lobules of basaloid cells which are separated by large distances and represent multifocal discrete tumors.", + "Multiple adenomatous polyps": "A condition in which multiple adenomas develop in the gastrointestinal tract.", + "Multiple endocrine adenomas": "An autosomal dominant inherited neoplastic syndrome characterized by the development of various endocrine neoplasms and abnormalities in various anatomic sites. There are four types recognized: type 1 (MEN 1), caused by inactivation of the tumor suppressor gene MEN-1, type 2A (MEN 2A), caused by mutation of the RET gene, type 2B (MEN 2B) also caused by mutation of the RET gene, and type 4 (MEN 4) caused by mutation of the CDKN1B gene. Patients with MEN 1 may develop hyperparathyroidism and parathyroid gland adenomas, pituitary gland adenomas, pancreatic islet cell neoplasms, and carcinoid tumors. Patients with MEN 2A develop medullary thyroid carcinomas and may also develop pheochromocytomas and parathyroid gland hyperplasia. Patients with MEN 2B develop medullary thyroid carcinomas and numerous neural defects including neuromas. Patients with MEN 4 develop endocrine neoplasms, particularly in the parathyroid glands, pituitary, and pancreas.", + "Multiple hemorrhagic sarcoma": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by a vascular proliferation which usually contains blunt endothelial cells. Erythrocyte extravasation and hemosiderin deposition are frequently present. The most frequent site of involvement is the skin; however it may also occur internally. It generally develops in people with compromised immune systems including those with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS).", + "Multiple meningiomas": "The presence of multiple meningiomas in the leptomeninges.", + "Multiple myeloma": "A bone marrow-based plasma cell neoplasm characterized by a serum monoclonal protein and skeletal destruction with osteolytic lesions, pathological fractures, bone pain, hypercalcemia, and anemia. Clinical variants include non-secretory myeloma, smoldering myeloma, indolent myeloma, and plasma cell leukemia.", + "Multiple neurofibromatosis": "An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome. Two distinct clinicopathological entities are recognized: neurofibromatosis type 1 and neurofibromatosis type 2. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is associated with the presence of cafe-au-lait cutaneous lesions, multiple neurofibromas, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors, optic nerve gliomas, and bone lesions. Neurofibromatosis type 2 is associated with the presence of schwannomas, meningiomas, and gliomas.", + "Mycosis fungoides": "A peripheral (mature) T-cell lymphoma presenting in the skin with patches/plaques. It is characterized by epidermal and dermal infiltration of small to medium-sized T-cells with cerebriform nuclei. Patients with limited disease generally have an excellent prognosis. In the more advanced stages, the prognosis is poor. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myelocytic leukemia, NOS": "A clonal proliferation of myeloid cells and their precursors in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and spleen. When the proliferating cells are immature myeloid cells and myeloblasts, it is called acute myeloid leukemia. When the proliferating myeloid cells are neutrophils, it is called chronic myelogenous leukemia.", + "Myelodysplastic syndrome with 5q deletion (5q-) syndrome": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by a deletion between bands q31 and 33 on chromosome 5. The number of blasts in the bone marrow and blood is <5%. The bone marrow is usually hypercellular or normocellular with increased number of often hypolobated megakaryocytes. The peripheral blood shows macrocytic anemia. This syndrome occurs predominantly but not exclusively in middle age to older women. The prognosis is good and transformation to acute leukemia is rare. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myelodysplastic syndrome with isolated del (5q)": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by a deletion between bands q31 and 33 on chromosome 5. The number of blasts in the bone marrow and blood is <5%. The bone marrow is usually hypercellular or normocellular with increased number of often hypolobated megakaryocytes. The peripheral blood shows macrocytic anemia. This syndrome occurs predominantly but not exclusively in middle age to older women. The prognosis is good and transformation to acute leukemia is rare. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myelodysplastic syndrome, NOS": "A clonal hematopoietic disorder characterized by dysplasia and ineffective hematopoiesis in one or more of the hematopoietic cell lines. The dysplasia may be accompanied by an increase in myeloblasts, but the number is less than 20%, which, according to the WHO guidelines, is the requisite threshold for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia. It may occur de novo or as a result of exposure to alkylating agents and/or radiotherapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myelodysplastic syndrome, unclassifiable": "A subtype of myelodysplastic syndrome which initially lacks findings appropriate for classification into any other myelodysplastic category. There are no specific morphologic findings. The diagnosis can be made in the following instances: 1. in cases of refractory cytopenia with unilineage dysplasia or refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia but with 1% blasts in the peripheral blood; 2: in cases of myelodysplastic syndrome with unilineage dysplasia which are associated with pancytopenia; 3: in cases with persistent cytopenia (s) with 1% or fewer blasts in the blood and fewer than 5% in the bone marrow, unequivocal dysplasia in less than 10% of the cells in one or more myeloid lineages, and cytogenetic abnormalities considered as presumptive evidence of myelodysplastic syndrome. (WHO, 2008)", + "Myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable": "This entity includes cases that have clinical, laboratory, and morphologic features that support the diagnosis of both a myelodysplastic syndrome and a myeloproliferative neoplasm, but do not meet the criteria for any of the other entities included in the myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm category. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myelofibrosis as a result of myeloproliferative disease": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, proliferation of atypical megakaryocytes and granulocytes in the bone marrow, anemia, splenomegaly, and extramedullary hematopoiesis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, proliferation of atypical megakaryocytes and granulocytes in the bone marrow, anemia, splenomegaly, and extramedullary hematopoiesis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myelogenous leukemia, NOS": "A clonal proliferation of myeloid cells and their precursors in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and spleen. When the proliferating cells are immature myeloid cells and myeloblasts, it is called acute myeloid leukemia. When the proliferating myeloid cells are neutrophils, it is called chronic myelogenous leukemia.", + "Myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms with FGFR1 abnormalities": "", + "Myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms with PDGFRA rearrangement": "Hematologic neoplasms characterized by the rearrangement of the PDGFRA gene, most often resulting in the formation of FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion transcripts. Patients usually present with chronic eosinophilic leukemia, and less often with acute myeloid leukemia or T-lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "Myeloid leukemia associated with Down Syndrome": "Acute myeloid leukemia or myelodysplastic syndrome occurring in children with Down syndrome. The acute myeloid leukemia is usually an acute megakaryoblastic leukemia, and is associated with GATA1 gene mutation.", + "Myeloid leukemia, NOS": "A clonal proliferation of myeloid cells and their precursors in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and spleen. When the proliferating cells are immature myeloid cells and myeloblasts, it is called acute myeloid leukemia. When the proliferating myeloid cells are neutrophils, it is called chronic myelogenous leukemia.", + "Myeloid neoplasms with PDGFRB rearrangement": "Myeloid and rarely lymphoid neoplasms characterized by the rearrangement of the PDGFRB gene, most often resulting in the formation of ETV6-PDGFRB fusion transcripts. Patients usually present with chronic myelomonocytic leukemia and less often with atypical chronic myeloid leukemia, or chronic eosinophilic leukemia.", + "Myeloid sarcoma": "A tumor mass composed of myeloblasts or immature myeloid cells. It occurs in extramedullary sites or the bone. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myelolipoma": "A benign soft tissue lesion arising from the adrenal gland. It is composed of mature adipose and hematopoietic/lymphoid tissues.", + "Myeloma, NOS": "A bone marrow-based plasma cell neoplasm characterized by a serum monoclonal protein and skeletal destruction with osteolytic lesions, pathological fractures, bone pain, hypercalcemia, and anemia. Clinical variants include non-secretory myeloma, smoldering myeloma, indolent myeloma, and plasma cell leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myelomatosis": "A bone marrow-based plasma cell neoplasm characterized by a serum monoclonal protein and skeletal destruction with osteolytic lesions, pathological fractures, bone pain, hypercalcemia, and anemia. Clinical variants include non-secretory myeloma, smoldering myeloma, indolent myeloma, and plasma cell leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myelomonocytic leukemia, NOS": "", + "Myeloproliferative disease, NOS": "A clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder, characterized by proliferation in the bone marrow of one or more of the myeloid (i.e., granulocytic, erythroid, megakaryocytic, and mast cell) lineages. It is primarily a neoplasm of adults. (WHO 2008)", + "Myeloproliferative neoplasm, NOS": "A clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder, characterized by proliferation in the bone marrow of one or more of the myeloid (i.e., granulocytic, erythroid, megakaryocytic, and mast cell) lineages. It is primarily a neoplasm of adults. (WHO 2008)", + "Myelosclerosis with myeloid metaplasia": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, proliferation of atypical megakaryocytes and granulocytes in the bone marrow, anemia, splenomegaly, and extramedullary hematopoiesis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable": "This entity includes cases that have clinical, laboratory, and morphologic features that support the diagnosis of both a myelodysplastic syndrome and a myeloproliferative neoplasm, but do not meet the criteria for any of the other entities included in the myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm category. (WHO, 2001)", + "Myoepithelial adenoma": "A tumor with myoepithelial differentiation that lacks an infiltrative growth pattern and does not metastasize.", + "Myoepithelial carcinoma": "An infiltrating malignant tumor characterized by the presence of atypical cells with myoepithelial differentiation. Representative examples include malignant breast myoepithelioma and salivary gland myoepithelial carcinoma.", + "Myoepithelial tumor": "A benign or malignant tumor characterized by the presence of cells that show myoepithelial differentiation. Based on its morphologic features, it is classified as benign or malignant. A representative example of benign myoepithelioma is benign salivary gland myoepithelioma. Representative examples of malignant myoepithelioma or myoepithelial carcinoma are malignant breast myoepithelioma and salivary gland myoepithelial carcinoma.", + "Myoepithelioma": "A benign or malignant tumor characterized by the presence of cells that show myoepithelial differentiation. Based on its morphologic features, it is classified as benign or malignant. A representative example of benign myoepithelioma is benign salivary gland myoepithelioma. Representative examples of malignant myoepithelioma or myoepithelial carcinoma are malignant breast myoepithelioma and salivary gland myoepithelial carcinoma.", + "Myofibroblastic sarcoma": "", + "Myofibroblastic tumor, NOS": "A multinodular intermediate fibroblastic neoplasm that arises from soft tissue or viscera, in children and young adults. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, and a chronic inflammatory infiltrate composed of eosinophils, lymphocytes, and plasma cells.", + "Myofibroblastic tumor, peribronchial": "", + "Myofibroblastoma": "A benign, well circumscribed soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle shaped myofibroblasts and mast cells in a collagenous stroma.", + "Myofibroma": "A benign, localized, nodular and well-circumscribed neoplasm usually seen as a congenital neoplasm or in the first year of life. It is characterized by a biphasic growth pattern and is composed of small, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells associated with branching thin-walled vessels and more mature neoplastic spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm in a collagenous stroma.", + "Myofibromatosis": "A benign, multifocal, nodular and well-circumscribed neoplasm usually seen as a congenital neoplasm or in the first year of life. It is characterized by a biphasic growth pattern and is composed of small, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells associated with branching thin-walled vessels and more mature neoplastic spindle cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm in a collagenous stroma.", + "Myoma": "A benign mesenchymal neoplasm arising from smooth, skeletal, or cardiac muscle tissue.", + "Myosarcoma": "A malignant neoplasm affecting the skeletal or smooth muscles. Malignant neoplasms arising from the skeletal muscles are called rhabdomyosarcomas. Malignant neoplasms arising from the smooth muscles are called leiomyosarcomas.", + "Myxofibroma, NOS": "A soft tissue tumor of uncertain lineage characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle-shaped to round cells in a fibromyxoid stroma. Metaplastic bone formation may or may not be present.", + "Myxoid chondrosarcoma": "A chondrosarcoma characterized by the presence of myxoid changes.", + "Myxoid fibroma": "A soft tissue tumor of uncertain lineage characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle-shaped to round cells in a fibromyxoid stroma. Metaplastic bone formation may or may not be present.", + "Myxoid leiomyosarcoma": "A morphologic variant of leiomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of cellular pleomorphism, malignant cells with large nuclei, and a myxoid stroma.", + "Myxoid liposarcoma": "A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of round non-lipogenic primitive mesenchymal cells and small signet ring lipoblasts within a myxoid stoma with a branching vascular pattern. This category includes hypercellular lesions with round cell morphology, formerly known as round cell liposarcoma.", + "Myxoinflammatory fibroblastic sarcoma (MIFS)": "A low grade, locally aggressive, fibroblastic neoplasm that occurs primarily in the distal extremities. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts, multivacuolated lipoblast-like cells, bizarre ganglion-like cells with inclusion-like nuclei, myxoid stroma formation, and a mixture of acute and chronic inflammatory cells. Distant metastases are very rare.", + "Myxolipoma": "A benign well-circumscribed tumor composed of mature adipocytes, characterized by areas of abundant fibrous tissue and extensive myxoid change.", + "Myxoliposarcoma": "A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of round non-lipogenic primitive mesenchymal cells and small signet ring lipoblasts within a myxoid stoma with a branching vascular pattern. This category includes hypercellular lesions with round cell morphology, formerly known as round cell liposarcoma.", + "Myxoma, NOS": "A benign soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle and stellate cells, lobulated growth pattern, and myxoid stroma formation.", + "Myxopapillary ependymoma": "A slow growing, WHO grade I glioma which generally occurs in young adults. It arises almost exclusively in the conus medullaris, cauda equina, and filum terminale of the spinal cord. It generally has a favorable prognosis and is characterized histologically by tumor cells arranged in a papillary manner around vascularized mucoid stromal cores. (Adapted from WHO).", + "Myxosarcoma": "An infiltrating malignant soft tissue neoplasm characterized by the presence of immature undifferentiated cells and abundant myxoid stroma formation.", + "Neoplasm, benign": "A neoplasm which is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (severe cytologic atypia, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic rate). Benign neoplasms remain confined to the original site of growth and do not metastasize to other anatomic sites.", + "Neoplasm, malignant": "A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.", + "Neoplasm, malignant, uncertain whether primary or metastatic": "A malignant neoplasm in which the examined tissue can not be determined with certainty if it represents the primary site of tumor growth or tumor spread from another anatomic site.", + "Neoplasm, metastatic": "A tumor that has spread from its original (primary) site of growth to another site, close to or distant from the primary site. Metastasis is characteristic of advanced malignancies, but in rare instances can be seen in neoplasms lacking malignant morphology.", + "Neoplasm, NOS": "A benign or malignant tissue growth resulting from uncontrolled cell proliferation. Benign neoplastic cells resemble normal cells without exhibiting significant cytologic atypia, while malignant cells exhibit overt signs such as dysplastic features, atypical mitotic figures, necrosis, nuclear pleomorphism, and anaplasia. Representative examples of benign neoplasms include papillomas, cystadenomas, and lipomas; malignant neoplasms include carcinomas, sarcomas, lymphomas, and leukemias.", + "Neoplasm, secondary": "A neoplasm that arises from a pre-existing lower grade lesion, or as a result of a primary lesion that has spread to secondary sites, or due to a complication of a cancer treatment.", + "Neoplasm, uncertain whether benign or malignant": "A neoplasm which, on morphologic grounds, can not be classified with certainty as benign or malignant.", + "Nephroblastoma, NOS": "An embryonal pediatric tumor of the kidney which may also be seen rarely in adults. The peak incidence of Wilms tumor is between the second and fifth year of life. Microscopically, it is composed of a mixture of cellular elements (blastemal, stromal, and epithelial). The most common sites of metastasis include the regional lymph nodes, lungs, and liver.", + "Nephrogenic adenofibroma": "A benign, solitary, and partially cystic neoplasm arising from the kidney. It occurs in children and adults. Presenting symptoms include hematuria and polycythemia. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial nodules embedded in a stroma containing spindle cells.", + "Nephroma, NOS": "An embryonal pediatric tumor of the kidney which may also be seen rarely in adults. The peak incidence of Wilms tumor is between the second and fifth year of life. Microscopically, it is composed of a mixture of cellular elements (blastemal, stromal, and epithelial). The most common sites of metastasis include the regional lymph nodes, lungs, and liver.", + "Nerve sheath myxoma": "A benign neoplasm arising from nerve sheaths. It is characterized by the presence of a myxoid stroma.", + "Nesidioblastoma": "A benign endocrine neoplasm arising from the pancreas. It is separated from the normal pancreatic tissues by a thin collagenous capsule. It may secrete a hormone (e.g. insulin, gastrin) or it may be non-functional.", + "Nested urothelial carcinoma": "A variant of infiltrating bladder urothelial carcinoma. It is characterized by a nested growth pattern.", + "Neurilemoma, malignant": "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life. It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region. It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1).", + "Neurilemoma, NOS": "A benign, usually encapsulated slow growing tumor composed of Schwann cells. It affects peripheral and cranial nerves. It recurs infrequently and only rare cases associated with malignant transformation have been reported.", + "Neurilemosarcoma": "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life. It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region. It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1).", + "Neurinoma": "A benign, usually encapsulated slow growing tumor composed of Schwann cells. It affects peripheral and cranial nerves. It recurs infrequently and only rare cases associated with malignant transformation have been reported.", + "Neurinomatosis": "A rare genetic disorder characterized by the presence of multiple schwannomas.", + "Neuroastrocytoma": "A well differentiated, slow growing neuroepithelial neoplasm composed of neoplastic, mature ganglion cells and neoplastic glial cells. Some gangliogliomas show anaplastic features in their glial component and are considered to be WHO grade III. Rare cases of newly diagnosed gangliogliomas with grade IV (glioblastoma) changes in the glial component have also been reported. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Neuroblastoma, NOS": "A neuroblastic tumor characterized by the presence of neuroblastic cells, the absence of ganglion cells, and the absence of a prominent Schwannian stroma formation.", + "Neurocytoma": "An intraventricular neuronal neoplasm composed of uniform round cells with neuronal differentiation. It is typically located in the lateral ventricles in the region of the foramen of Monro. It generally affects young adults and has a favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Neuroectodermal tumor, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm that originates in the neuroectoderm. The neuroectoderm constitutes the portion of the ectoderm of the early embryo that gives rise to the central and peripheral nervous systems and includes some glial cell precursors.", + "Neuroendocrine carcinoma, low grade": "Grade I Neuroendocrine Carcinoma", + "Neuroendocrine carcinoma, moderately differentiated": "Grade II Neuroendocrine Carcinoma", + "Neuroendocrine carcinoma, NOS": "A malignant neuroendocrine neoplasm composed of cells containing secretory granules that stain positive for NSE and chromogranin. The neoplastic cells are often round and form clusters or trabecular sheets. Representative examples are small cell carcinoma, large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, and Merkel cell carcinoma.", + "Neuroendocrine carcinoma, poorly differentiated": "A neoplastic lesion with neuroendocrine differentiation and poorly differentiated histological features.", + "Neuroendocrine carcinoma, well-differentiated": "Grade I Neuroendocrine Carcinoma", + "Neuroendocrine tumor, grade 1": "", + "Neuroendocrine tumor, grade 2": "", + "Neuroendocrine tumor, well differentiated": "A neoplastic lesion with neuroendocrine differentiation and well differentiated histological features.", + "Neuroepithelioma, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm that originates in the neuroectoderm. The neuroectoderm constitutes the portion of the ectoderm of the early embryo that gives rise to the central and peripheral nervous systems and includes some glial cell precursors.", + "Neurofibroma, NOS": "An intraneural or extraneural neoplasm arising from nerve tissues and neural sheaths. It is composed of perineurial-like fibroblasts and Schwann cells. It usually presents as a localized cutaneous lesion and less often as a circumscribed peripheral nerve mass. Patients with neurofibromatosis type 1 present with multiple masses. Neurofibromas which arise from major nerves and plexiform neurofibromas are precursor lesions to malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors.", + "Neurofibromatosis, NOS": "An autosomal dominant hereditary neoplastic syndrome. Two distinct clinicopathological entities are recognized: neurofibromatosis type 1 and neurofibromatosis type 2. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is associated with the presence of cafe-au-lait cutaneous lesions, multiple neurofibromas, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors, optic nerve gliomas, and bone lesions. Neurofibromatosis type 2 is associated with the presence of schwannomas, meningiomas, and gliomas.", + "Neurofibrosarcoma": "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life. It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region. It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1).", + "Neurogenic sarcoma": "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life. It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region. It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1).", + "Neurolipocytoma": "A rare, WHO grade II cerebellar neoplasm which shows consistent neuronal, variable astrocytic and focal lipomatous differentiation. It occurs in adults, has a low proliferative potential and usually has a favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Neuroma, NOS": "A tumor that grows from a nerve or is composed of nerve cells and nerve fibers.", + "Neuronevus": "An intradermal nevus characterized by the presence of nests of atrophic nevus cells which are hyalinized and resemble nerve bundles.", + "Neurosarcoma": "An uncommon, highly aggressive malignant tumor, arising from the peripheral nerves and affecting mostly adults in their third to sixth decades of life. It usually occurs in medium-sized and large nerves of the buttock, thigh, upper arm, or the paraspinal region. It may be associated with neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1).", + "Neurothekeoma": "A benign neoplasm arising from nerve sheaths. It is characterized by the presence of a myxoid stroma.", + "Neurotropic melanoma, malignant": "", + "Nevus, NOS": "A neoplasm composed of melanocytes that usually appears as a dark spot on the skin.", + "NK-cell large granular lymphocytic leukemia": "", + "NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal and nasal-type": "An aggressive, predominantly extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. It is characterized by an often angiocentric and angiodestructive cellular infiltrate composed of EBV positive NK/T cells. The nasal cavity is the most common site of involvement. Patients often present with midfacial destructive lesions (lethal midline granuloma). The disease may disseminate rapidly to various anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal tract, skin, testis, and cervical lymph nodes. It is also known as angiocentric T-cell lymphoma. The term \"polymorphic reticulosis\" has been widely used to describe the morphologic changes seen in this type of lymphoma. However, the latter term may also apply to lymphomatoid granulomatosis, which is an angiocentric and angiodestructive EBV positive B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder.", + "Nodal marginal zone lymphoma": "A primary nodal B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma which morphologically resembles lymph nodes involved by marginal zone lymphomas of extranodal or splenic types, but without evidence of extranodal or splenic disease. (WHO, 2001)", + "Nodular hidradenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a nodular lesion usually in the scalp, trunk, and proximal extremities. It is characterized by a nodular growth pattern. Complete excision is curative.", + "Nodular hidradenoma, malignant": "", + "Nodular melanoma": "An aggressive form of melanoma, frequently metastasizing to the lymph nodes. It presents as a papular or nodular raised skin lesion. It comprises approximately 10-15% of melanomas. Morphologically, it often displays an epithelioid appearance.", + "Non-Hodgkin lymphoma, NOS": "Distinct from Hodgkin lymphoma both morphologically and biologically, non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) is characterized by the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells, can occur at any age, and usually presents as a localized or generalized lymphadenopathy associated with fever and weight loss. The clinical course varies according to the morphologic type. NHL is clinically classified as indolent, aggressive, or having a variable clinical course. NHL can be of B-or T-/NK-cell lineage.", + "Non-invasive EFVPTC": "A non-invasive neoplasm of thyroid follicular cells with a follicular growth pattern and nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma that has an extremely low malignant potential. These tumors were formerly classified as non-invasive encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma or well-differentiated tumor of uncertain malignant potential. (WHO 2017)", + "Non-invasive encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma (non-invasive EFVPTC)": "A non-invasive neoplasm of thyroid follicular cells with a follicular growth pattern and nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma that has an extremely low malignant potential. These tumors were formerly classified as non-invasive encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma or well-differentiated tumor of uncertain malignant potential. (WHO 2017)", + "Non-invasive follicular thyroid neoplasm with papillary-like nuclear features (NIFTP)": "A non-invasive neoplasm of thyroid follicular cells with a follicular growth pattern and nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma that has an extremely low malignant potential. These tumors were formerly classified as non-invasive encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma or well-differentiated tumor of uncertain malignant potential. (WHO 2017)", + "Non-invasive FTP": "A non-invasive neoplasm of thyroid follicular cells with a follicular growth pattern and nuclear features of papillary thyroid carcinoma that has an extremely low malignant potential. These tumors were formerly classified as non-invasive encapsulated follicular variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma or well-differentiated tumor of uncertain malignant potential. (WHO 2017)", + "Non-invasive low grade serous carcinoma": "", + "Non-invasive mammary carcinoma": "", + "Non-lymphocytic leukemia, NOS": "A clonal proliferation of myeloid cells and their precursors in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and spleen. When the proliferating cells are immature myeloid cells and myeloblasts, it is called acute myeloid leukemia. When the proliferating myeloid cells are neutrophils, it is called chronic myelogenous leukemia.", + "Non-small cell carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the absence of neoplastic small epithelial cells. A representative example is the lung non-small cell carcinoma.", + "Nonchromaffin paraganglioma, malignant": "An extra-adrenal paraganglioma that metastasizes to regional or distant anatomic sites. Common sites of metastasis include the lymph nodes, lungs, bones, and liver.", + "Nonchromaffin paraganglioma, NOS": "", + "Nonencapsulated sclerosing adenocarcinoma": "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland that more often affects young patients and commonly metastasizing to the lungs. It is characterized by a diffuse infiltration of the thyroid gland by malignant follicular cells, squamous metaplasia, stromal fibrosis, and lymphocytic infiltration.", + "Nonencapsulated sclerosing carcinoma": "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland that more often affects young patients and commonly metastasizing to the lungs. It is characterized by a diffuse infiltration of the thyroid gland by malignant follicular cells, squamous metaplasia, stromal fibrosis, and lymphocytic infiltration.", + "Nonencapsulated sclerosing tumor": "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland that more often affects young patients and commonly metastasizing to the lungs. It is characterized by a diffuse infiltration of the thyroid gland by malignant follicular cells, squamous metaplasia, stromal fibrosis, and lymphocytic infiltration.", + "Noninfiltrating intracystic carcinoma": "An intraductal breast carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth within a large cystic duct. There is no evidence of invasion of the breast parenchyma.", + "Noninfiltrating intraductal papillary adenocarcinoma": "A non-invasive breast adenocarcinoma located in a distended duct. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular stalks. In the absence of ductal carcinoma in situ or invasive carcinoma in adjacent tissues, the prognosis is usually favorable.", + "Noninfiltrating intraductal papillary carcinoma": "A non-invasive breast adenocarcinoma located in a distended duct. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular stalks. In the absence of ductal carcinoma in situ or invasive carcinoma in adjacent tissues, the prognosis is usually favorable.", + "Noninvasive pancreatobiliary papillary neoplasm with high grade dysplasia": "An ampullary noninvasive papillary neoplasm of the pancreatobiliary type characterized by the presence of high grade dysplasia.", + "Noninvasive pancreatobiliary papillary neoplasm with high grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "An ampullary noninvasive papillary neoplasm of the pancreatobiliary type characterized by the presence of high grade dysplasia.", + "Noninvasive pancreatobiliary papillary neoplasm with low grade dysplasia": "An ampullary noninvasive papillary neoplasm of the pancreatobiliary type characterized by the presence of low grade dysplasia.", + "Noninvasive pancreatobiliary papillary neoplasm with low grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "An ampullary noninvasive papillary neoplasm of the pancreatobiliary type characterized by the presence of low grade dysplasia.", + "Nonlipid reticuloendotheliosis": "", + "Nonpigmented nevus": "A benign nevus characterized by the absence of melanin pigment in the melanocytes.", + "NUT carcinoma": "A rare, highly aggressive and lethal carcinoma that affects children and young adults. It arises from midline epithelial structures, most commonly the head, neck, and mediastinum. It is a poorly differentiated carcinoma and is characterized by mutations and rearrangement of the NUT gene. A balanced translocation t(15;19) is present that results in the creation of a fusion gene involving the NUT gene, most commonly BRD4-NUT fusion gene.", + "NUT midline carcinoma": "A rare, highly aggressive and lethal carcinoma that affects children and young adults. It arises from midline epithelial structures, most commonly the head, neck, and mediastinum. It is a poorly differentiated carcinoma and is characterized by mutations and rearrangement of the NUT gene. A balanced translocation t(15;19) is present that results in the creation of a fusion gene involving the NUT gene, most commonly BRD4-NUT fusion gene.", + "Oat cell carcinoma": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of small malignant cells which are often said to resemble \"oat cells\" under the microscope. Small cell carcinoma most often affects the lungs. Clinically, this is often a rapidly growing cancer that spreads to distant sites early.", + "Odontoameloblastoma": "A rare, locally aggressive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the mandible and maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium and adjacent myxoid tissue, fibrous stroma, and mineralized dental tissues.", + "Odontogenic carcinoma": "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Symptoms include swelling, pain, bleeding, mobility of affected teeth, and oral mucosa ulcerations. It may metastasize to lymph nodes and distant anatomic sites early.", + "Odontogenic carcinosarcoma": "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Symptoms include swelling, pain, bleeding, mobility of affected teeth, and oral mucosa ulcerations. It may metastasize to lymph nodes and distant anatomic sites early.", + "Odontogenic fibroma, NOS": "A rare, benign, intraosseous neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues in the mandible and maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium which is embedded in a fibrous stroma. Local enucleation of the tumor is curative.", + "Odontogenic fibrosarcoma": "A locally aggressive malignant neoplasm arising from odontogenic tissue. It occurs in the mandible and less often in the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of a malignant connective tissue component and a benign epithelial component. The frequency of distal metastases is low.", + "Odontogenic ghost cell tumor": "A locally aggressive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It is more often intraosseous and less frequently extraosseous and occurs in the jaw. It is characterized by the presence of ameloblastoma-like epithelium, connective tissue stroma, ghost cells, and dysplastic dentin. Wide local resection is recommended for intraosseous neoplasms and enucleation for extraosseous neoplasms.", + "Odontogenic myxofibroma": "An intraosseous odontogenic neoplasm with good prognosis, arising from the mandible and less frequently from the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of stellate cells, myxoid stroma formation, and prominent collagen. Small tumors may be cured with enucleation. Complete excision may be required for larger tumors.", + "Odontogenic myxoma": "An intraosseous odontogenic neoplasm with good prognosis, arising from the mandible and less frequently from the maxilla. It is characterized by the presence of stellate cells and abundant myxoid stroma formation. Small tumors may be cured with enucleation. Complete excision may be required for larger tumors.", + "Odontogenic sarcoma": "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Symptoms include swelling, pain, bleeding, mobility of affected teeth, and oral mucosa ulcerations. It may metastasize to lymph nodes and distant anatomic sites early.", + "Odontogenic tumor, benign": "A benign, slow growing neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Representative examples include adenomatoid odontogenic tumor, calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor, and squamous odontogenic tumor.", + "Odontogenic tumor, malignant": "A rare neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Symptoms include swelling, pain, bleeding, mobility of affected teeth, and oral mucosa ulcerations. It may metastasize to lymph nodes and distant anatomic sites early.", + "Odontogenic tumor, NOS": "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It occurs in the maxillofacial skeleton or the gingiva. Benign tumors are slow growing and are not associated with specific clinical symptoms. Pain is absent or slight. Malignant tumors are usually associated with rapid swelling and pain.", + "Odontoma, NOS": "A benign, slow growing, and painless hamartomatous tumor occurring in tooth-bearing areas of the jaws. According to the presence or absence of tooth-like structures, it is classified as complex type or compound type. Odontoma of complex type is characterized by the presence of enamel and dentin and the absence of tooth-like structures. It is treated with local excision. If it is incompletely removed, it may recur. Odontoma of compound type is characterized by the presence of tooth-like structures. It is treated by local excision. Recurrences have not been reported.", + "Olfactory neuroblastoma": "A rare neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. Microscopically, it is characterized by neuroblastic differentiation with occasional formation of rosettes. If the tumor is not resected at an early stage, the prognosis is usually poor.", + "Olfactory neurocytoma": "A rare benign neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity. Microscopically, it is characterized by the absence of malignant characteristics and the absence of rosettes formation.", + "Olfactory neuroepithelioma": "A rare neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. Microscopically, it is characterized by neuroblastic differentiation with occasional formation of rosettes. If the tumor is not resected at an early stage, the prognosis is usually poor.", + "Olfactory neurogenic tumor": "A rare, benign (olfactory neurocytoma) or malignant (olfactory neuroblastoma) neuroectodermal tumor originating from olfactory receptor cells in the nasal cavity.", + "Oligoastrocytoma": "A WHO grade II tumor composed of a conspicuous mixture of two distinct neoplastic cell types morphologically resembling the tumor cells in oligodendroglioma and diffuse astrocytoma. (WHO)", + "Oligodendroblastoma": "An obsolete term referring to neoplasms arising from oligodendrocytes.", + "Oligodendroglioma, anaplastic": "A WHO grade III oligodendroglioma with focal or diffuse malignant morphologic features (prominent nuclear pleomorphism, mitoses, and increased cellularity).", + "Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant and 1p/19q-codeleted": "An oligodendroglioma carrying IDH gene family mutation and combined whole-arm losses of 1p and 19q (1p/19q codeletion).", + "Oligodendroglioma, NOS": "An oligodendroglioma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes and 1p/19q codeletion status.", + "Oncocytic adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of large malignant epithelial cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (oncocytes). Representative examples include thyroid gland oncocytic follicular carcinoma, oncocytic breast carcinoma, and salivary gland oncocytic carcinoma.", + "Oncocytic adenoma": "A benign neoplasm composed of large cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm. Representative examples include oncocytic adenomas of the thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, and pituitary gland.", + "Oncocytic carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of large malignant epithelial cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (oncocytes). Representative examples include thyroid gland oncocytic follicular carcinoma, oncocytic breast carcinoma, and salivary gland oncocytic carcinoma.", + "Oncocytic Schneiderian papilloma": "A benign neoplasm with exophytic and endophytic growth arising from the lateral nasal wall or the paranasal sinuses. It is characterized by the proliferation of columnar cells with oncocytic features. Microcysts containing mucin and neutrophils are present in the epithelium. Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction and epistaxis. Occasionally, it is associated with the development or presence of a carcinoma, usually squamous cell carcinoma.", + "Oncocytoma": "A usually benign neoplasm composed of large cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm. Representative examples include oncocytic neoplasms of the thyroid gland, and kidney. (NCI05)", + "Orchioblastoma": "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor composed of primitive germ cells. It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in the pediatric population. It occurs in the infant testis, ovary, sacrococcygeal region, vagina, uterus, prostate, abdomen, liver, retroperitoneum, thorax, and pineal/third ventricle. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Treatment includes: surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. This tumor is very responsive to chemotherapy regimens that include cisplatinum.", + "Ossifying fibroma": "A well circumscribed lesion of the bone, most frequently arising from the posterior mandible. It is characterized by the presence of fibrous tissue and a mineralized component which may be woven bone, lamellar bone, or cementum-like material. Complete removal is recommended, since it continues to enlarge if left untreated.", + "Ossifying fibromyxoid tumor": "A rare soft tissue tumor of uncertain lineage characterized by the presence of neoplastic spindle to round cells forming cords in a fibromyxoid stroma. The lesions are associated with the formation of metaplastic bone. Most patients present with painless subcutaneous masses. Recurrences have been reported in a minority of patients.", + "Ossifying fibromyxoid tumor, malignant": "An ossifying fibromyxoid tumor characterized by the presence of high grade nuclear features or increased cellularity and more than two mitotic figures per 50 HPFs.", + "Ossifying renal tumor": "", + "Osteoblastic sarcoma": "A conventional osteosarcoma characterized by the predominance of osteoid matrix.", + "Osteoblastoma, malignant": "An undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma characterized by the presence of osteoclast-like giant cells and cellular pleomorphism.", + "Osteoblastoma, NOS": "A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the spine. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The tumor is composed of woven bone trabeculae and shares similar histologic characteristics with the osteoid osteoma. Surgical curettage is the treatment of choice. The prognosis is excellent.", + "Osteocartilaginous exostosis": "A common, benign cartiliginous neoplasm arising from the metaphysis of bone. The tumor grows on the surface of the bone; it may be pedunculated or sessile. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a cartilage cap, and a fibrous perichondrium that extends to the periosteum of the bone. In some cases, there is deletion of 8q24.1 chromosome locus.", + "Osteochondroma": "A common, benign cartiliginous neoplasm arising from the metaphysis of bone. The tumor grows on the surface of the bone; it may be pedunculated or sessile. It is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a cartilage cap, and a fibrous perichondrium that extends to the periosteum of the bone. In some cases, there is deletion of 8q24.1 chromosome locus.", + "Osteochondromatosis, NOS": "An autosomal dominant neoplastic chondrogenic process affecting multiple sites. It is caused by mutations in the EXT1 or EXT2 genes. Grossly and microscopically, the lesions resemble an osteochondroma.", + "Osteochondrosarcoma": "An osteosarcoma characterised by the presence of atypical cartilage of variable cellularity. It may or may not be associated with the presence of myxoid areas or focal bone formation.", + "Osteofibroma": "", + "Osteofibrosarcoma": "A conventional osteosarcoma characterized by the presence of spindle shaped cells.", + "Osteogenic sarcoma, NOS": "A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm, predominantly affecting adolescents and young adults. It usually involves bones and less frequently extraosseous sites. It often involves the long bones (particularly distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus). Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most frequent clinical symptom. It may spread to other anatomic sites, particularly the lungs.", + "Osteoid osteoma, NOS": "A small, benign, bone-forming neoplasm that can arise from any bone but more frequently affects the long bones. The central portion of the neoplasm (nidus) contains differentiated osteoblasts which produce osteoid and sometimes bone. The lesion is usually surrounded by hypervascular sclerotic bone and has limited growth potential. Clinical signs and symptoms include pain and localized tenderness, at the site of the lesion. The pain may be intense but in the majority of cases it is completely alleviated by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Prognosis is excellent and recurrences are rare.", + "Osteoma, NOS": "A benign, well-circumscribed, bone-forming neoplasm predominantly composed of lamellar bone. It usually arises from the calvarial, facial, or jaw bones. It is usually asymptomatic but it may cause local swelling or obstruction of the paranasal sinuses. Asymptomatic cases have an indolent clinical course.", + "Osteosarcoma in Paget disease of bone": "", + "Osteosarcoma, NOS": "A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm, predominantly affecting adolescents and young adults. It usually involves bones and less frequently extraosseous sites. It often involves the long bones (particularly distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus). Pain with or without a palpable mass is the most frequent clinical symptom. It may spread to other anatomic sites, particularly the lungs.", + "Ovarian stromal tumor": "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed of granulosa cells, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, theca cells, and fibroblasts. Representative examples include thecoma, fibroma, Sertoli cell tumor, and granulosa cell tumor.", + "Oxyphilic adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of large malignant epithelial cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm (oncocytes). Representative examples include thyroid gland oncocytic follicular carcinoma, oncocytic breast carcinoma, and salivary gland oncocytic carcinoma.", + "Oxyphilic adenoma": "A benign neoplasm composed of large cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm. Representative examples include oncocytic adenomas of the thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, and pituitary gland.", + "Pacinian tumor": "A neurofibroma characterized by the presence of structures which resemble Vater-Pacini corpuscles.", + "Paget disease and infiltrating duct carcinoma of breast": "", + "Paget disease and intraductal carcinoma of breast": "Paget disease of the breast associated with the presence of a usually high grade ductal carcinoma in situ in the lactiferous glands.", + "Paget disease of breast": "A malignant neoplasm in which there is infiltration of the skin overlying the breast by neoplastic large cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and large nuclei with prominent nucleoli (Paget cells). It is almost always associated with an intraductal or invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. The clinical features include focal skin reddening, and eczema. Retraction of the nipple may sometimes occur.", + "Paget disease, extramammary": "A malignant neoplasm in which there is infiltration of the skin by neoplastic large cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and large nuclei with prominent nucleoli (Paget cells). It may affect the anus, penis, scrotum, and vulva.", + "Paget disease, mammary": "A malignant neoplasm in which there is infiltration of the skin overlying the breast by neoplastic large cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and large nuclei with prominent nucleoli (Paget cells). It is almost always associated with an intraductal or invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. The clinical features include focal skin reddening, and eczema. Retraction of the nipple may sometimes occur.", + "Pagetoid reticulosis": "A variant of mycosis fungoides, characterized by an exclusively intraepidermal atypical (cerebriform) lymphocytic infiltrate. Patients present with a localized psoriasiform or hyperkeratotic patch or plaque, usually in the extremities. Extracutaneous dissemination of the disease has never been reported.", + "Pancreatic endocrine tumor, benign": "", + "Pancreatic endocrine tumor, malignant": "", + "Pancreatic endocrine tumor, nonfunctioning": "", + "Pancreatic endocrine tumor, NOS": "A neoplasm with neuroendocrine differentiation that arises from the pancreas. It includes neuroendocrine tumors (low and intermediate grade) and neuroendocrine carcinomas (high grade).", + "Pancreatic microadenoma": "", + "Pancreatic peptide and pancreatic peptide-like peptide within terminal tyrosine amide producing tumor": "", + "Pancreatobiliary neoplasm, non-invasive": "", + "Pancreatobiliary-type carcinoma": "", + "Pancreatoblastoma": "A rare malignant epithelial neoplasm arising from the pancreas. The vast majority of cases occur during childhood. It is characterized by acinar differentiation, the formation of squamoid corpuscles, and the formation of stromal bands. Patients may present with an abdominal mass. Symptoms include pain, weight loss, and diarrhea. It may metastasize to lymph nodes, liver, and distant anatomic sites. Children who do not have metastatic disease at the time of diagnosis usually have a favorable clinical outcome when treated with a combination of surgery and chemotherapy. However, children with metastatic disease at presentation or adult patients usually have a poor prognosis.", + "Papillary adenocarcinoma, follicular variant": "", + "Papillary adenocarcinoma, NOS": "A morphologic variant of adenocarcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of a papillary growth pattern. Representative examples include thyroid gland papillary carcinoma, invasive papillary breast carcinoma, and ovarian serous surface papillary adenocarcinoma.", + "Papillary adenofibroma": "A biphasic polypoid neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillary projections that are lined by epithelial cells and fibrotic stroma.", + "Papillary adenoma, NOS": "Glandular Papilloma", + "Papillary and follicular adenocarcinoma": "Thyroid Gland Papillary and Follicular Carcinoma", + "Papillary and follicular carcinoma": "Thyroid Gland Papillary and Follicular Carcinoma", + "Papillary carcinoma in situ": "An epithelial neoplasm with a papillary growth pattern in which the malignant cells are confined to the epithelium, without evidence of invasion.", + "Papillary carcinoma of thyroid": "A differentiated adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Radiation exposure is a risk factor and it is the most common malignant thyroid lesion, comprising 75% to 80% of all thyroid cancers in iodine sufficient countries. Diagnostic procedures include thyroid ultrasound and fine needle biopsy. Microscopically, the diagnosis is based on the distinct characteristics of the malignant cells, which include enlargement, oval shape, elongation, and overlapping of the nuclei. The nuclei also display clearing or have a ground glass appearance.", + "Papillary carcinoma, columnar cell": "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the presence of pseudostratified malignant follicular cells.", + "Papillary carcinoma, diffuse sclerosing": "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland that more often affects young patients and commonly metastasizing to the lungs. It is characterized by a diffuse infiltration of the thyroid gland by malignant follicular cells, squamous metaplasia, stromal fibrosis, and lymphocytic infiltration.", + "Papillary carcinoma, encapsulated": "", + "Papillary carcinoma, follicular variant": "", + "Papillary carcinoma, NOS": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern. A papillary carcinoma may be composed of glandular cells (papillary adenocarcinoma), squamous cells (papillary squamous cell carcinoma), or transitional cells (papillary transitional cell carcinoma). Bladder carcinoma is a representative example of papillary transitional cell carcinoma.", + "Papillary carcinoma, oxyphilic cell": "", + "Papillary carcinoma, tall cell": "A morphologic variant of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland characterized by the presence of tall malignant follicular cells, arranged in papillary and trabecular patterns. Necrotic changes and high mitotic activity are present.", + "Papillary cystadenocarcinoma, NOS": "A malignant cystic serous or mucinous epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures. Stromal invasion is present.", + "Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum": "An adenoma characterized by an oncocytic, often papillary, epithelial component, dense lymphoid stroma, and cystic spaces. It occurs primarily in the parotid gland, and is the second most common benign parotid salivary gland tumor. A strong association with smoking has been reported. It typically presents as a painless swelling in the lower portion of the parotid gland.", + "Papillary cystadenoma, borderline malignancy": "A serous or mucinous cystic glandular epithelial neoplasm of low malignant potential. It is characterized by the presence of atypical or malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures with an absence of stromal invasion.", + "Papillary cystadenoma, NOS": "A serous or mucinous benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm. It is characterized by the presence of glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures.", + "Papillary cystic tumor": "A benign, malignant, or borderline epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillary mucinous, serous, or clear cell structures and cystic structures.", + "Papillary ependymoma": "A rare variant of ependymoma characterized by well formed papillae. Tumor cell processes abutting capillaries are usually GFAP-positive. Differential diagnoses include choroid plexus papilloma, papillary meningioma and metastatic papillary carcinoma. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Papillary epidermoid carcinoma": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary, exophytic growth pattern and hyperkeratosis. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the larynx, penis, cervix, vagina, and vulva.", + "Papillary glioneuronal tumor": "A WHO grade I, indolent and relatively circumscribed brain tumor. Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of astrocytes that line vascular and hyalinized pseudopapillae. In between the pseudopapillae aggregates of neurocytes, large neurons, and ganglioid cells are present.", + "Papillary hidradenoma": "A benign neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a slow growing cystic nodular lesion most often in the skin of the vulva and the perianal region. It is characterized by the presence of cystic and large papillary structures. The papillary structures contain connective tissue and are covered by two layers of epithelium. Complete excision is curative.", + "Papillary meningioma": "A WHO grade III meningioma characterized by the predominance of a perivascular pseudopapillary pattern.", + "Papillary microcarcinoma": "", + "Papillary mucinous cystadenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by cystic changes, papillary growth pattern, and the presence of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin.", + "Papillary mucinous cystadenoma, borderline malignancy": "A low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm usually arising from the ovary. It is composed of glandular cells with intracytoplasmic mucin. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion.", + "Papillary mucinous cystadenoma, NOS": "A usually benign and less often low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures.", + "Papillary mucinous tumor of low malignant potential": "A low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm usually arising from the ovary. It is composed of glandular cells with intracytoplasmic mucin. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion.", + "Papillary neoplasm, pancreatobiliary-type, with high grade intraepithelial neoplasia": "An ampullary noninvasive papillary neoplasm of the pancreatobiliary type characterized by the presence of high grade dysplasia.", + "Papillary pseudomucinous cystadenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by cystic changes, papillary growth pattern, and the presence of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin.", + "Papillary pseudomucinous cystadenoma, borderline malignancy": "A low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm usually arising from the ovary. It is composed of glandular cells with intracytoplasmic mucin. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion.", + "Papillary pseudomucinous cystadenoma, NOS": "A usually benign and less often low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It is characterized by the presence of papillary structures.", + "Papillary renal cell carcinoma": "Also known as chromophil carcinoma, it represents a minority of renal cell carcinomas. It can be hereditary or sporadic. The sporadic papillary renal cell carcinoma is characterized by trisomy of chromosomes 7, 16, and 17, and loss of chromosome Y. The peak incidence is in the sixth and seven decades. It is classified as type 1 or 2, based on the cytoplasmic volume and the thickness of the lining neoplastic cells. The prognosis is more favorable than for conventional (clear cell) renal cell carcinoma.", + "Papillary serous adenocarcinoma": "A malignant cystic serous epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures. Stromal invasion is present.", + "Papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma": "A malignant cystic serous epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures. Stromal invasion is present.", + "Papillary serous cystadenoma, borderline malignancy": "A low malignant potential cystic serous epithelial neoplasm arising from the ovary. Cases with identical morphology have been described arising from the peritoneum as well. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion.", + "Papillary serous cystadenoma, NOS": "A serous benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures.", + "Papillary serous tumor of low malignant potential": "A low malignant potential cystic serous epithelial neoplasm arising from the ovary. Cases with identical morphology have been described arising from the peritoneum as well. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion.", + "Papillary squamous cell carcinoma": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary, exophytic growth pattern and hyperkeratosis. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the larynx, penis, cervix, vagina, and vulva.", + "Papillary squamous cell carcinoma in situ": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary, exophytic growth pattern, hyperkeratosis, and absence of invasion of adjacent tissues.", + "Papillary squamous cell carcinoma, non-invasive": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary, exophytic growth pattern, hyperkeratosis, and absence of invasion of adjacent tissues.", + "Papillary syringadenoma": "A benign adnexal neoplasm occurring during childhood or adolescence. It usually presents as a papular lesion or a plaque on the head and neck. It may arise in an organoid nevus such as sebaceous. It is characterized by an endophytic invagination of the epithelium into the dermis. There are dermal cystic spaces present, containing villous projections. Complete excision is curative.", + "Papillary syringocystadenoma": "A benign adnexal neoplasm occurring during childhood or adolescence. It usually presents as a papular lesion or a plaque on the head and neck. It may arise in an organoid nevus such as sebaceous. It is characterized by an endophytic invagination of the epithelium into the dermis. There are dermal cystic spaces present, containing villous projections. Complete excision is curative.", + "Papillary transitional cell carcinoma": "A non-invasive or invasive transitional cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern. It may occur in the bladder or the renal pelvis.", + "Papillary transitional cell carcinoma, non-invasive": "A transitional cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern and lack of stromal invasion.", + "Papillary transitional cell neoplasm of low malignant potential": "A papillary neoplasm of the urinary bladder in which the transitional cells form papillae. The papillary structures exhibit minimal architectural distortion and minimal atypia. Mitoses are infrequent. Patients are at an increased risk of developing new papillary lesions. Occasionally, the new lesions are urothelial carcinomas.", + "Papillary tumor of the pineal region": "A rare tumor that arises from the pineal region and affects adults. It is characterized by the presence of neuroepithelial cells and a papillary architecture. Electron microscopic studies suggest ependymal differentiation. The clinical course is variable.", + "Papillary urothelial carcinoma": "A non-invasive or invasive transitional cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern. It may occur in the bladder or the renal pelvis.", + "Papillary urothelial carcinoma, non-invasive": "A transitional cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern and lack of stromal invasion.", + "Papillary urothelial neoplasm of low malignant potential": "A papillary neoplasm of the urinary bladder in which the transitional cells form papillae. The papillary structures exhibit minimal architectural distortion and minimal atypia. Mitoses are infrequent. Patients are at an increased risk of developing new papillary lesions. Occasionally, the new lesions are urothelial carcinomas.", + "Papillocystic adenocarcinoma": "A malignant cystic serous or mucinous epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells forming papillary structures. Stromal invasion is present.", + "Papilloma of bladder": "A rare benign condition, characterized by a papillary growth in the urinary tract with a central fibrovascular core. The latter is lined by normal urothelium.", + "Papilloma, NOS": "A benign epithelial neoplasm that projects above the surrounding epithelial surface and consists of villous or arborescent outgrowths of fibrovascular stroma.", + "Papillomatosis, glandular": "Multifocal neoplastic proliferations of the glandular epithelium displaying a papillary pattern.", + "Papillomatosis, NOS": "Glandular or squamous cell neoplastic proliferations characterized by the formation of multiple papillary structures diffusely involving a specific anatomic site.", + "Papillotubular adenocarcinoma": "", + "Papillotubular adenoma": "An epithelial neoplasm morphologically characterized by the presence of a villous and a tubular architectural pattern. Most often it occurs in the large intestine, small intestine, and the stomach in which the neoplastic epithelial cells show dysplastic features.", + "Parachordoma": "A rare, usually benign myoepithelial tumor characterized by the presence of epithelioid, often vacuolated neoplastic cells. Most patients present with painless swelling in the subcutaneous or subfascial soft tissues of the extremities.", + "Parafollicular cell carcinoma": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from the C-cells of the thyroid gland. It is closely associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. Approximately 10% to 20% of medullary thyroid carcinomas are familial. Patients usually present with a thyroid nodule that is painless and firm. In the majority of cases nodal involvement is present at diagnosis. Surgery is the preferred treatment for both primary lesions and recurrences. This carcinoma is generally not very sensitive to radiation and almost unresponsive to chemotherapy.", + "Paraganglioma, benign": "A paraganglioma that is confined to the site of origin, without metastatic potential.", + "Paraganglioma, malignant": "A paraganglioma that metastasizes to regional or distant anatomic sites. Extraadrenal paragangliomas have a higher tendency to metastasize, as compared to pheochromocytomas. Common sites of metastasis include the lymph nodes, lungs, bones, and liver.", + "Paraganglioma, NOS": "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from paraganglia located along the sympathetic or parasympathetic nerves. Infrequently, it may arise outside the usual distribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic paraganglia. Tumors arising from the adrenal gland medulla are called pheochromocytomas. Morphologically, paragangliomas usually display a nesting (Zellballen) growth pattern. There are no reliable morphologic criteria to distinguish between benign and malignant paragangliomas. The only definitive indicator of malignancy is the presence of regional or distant metastases.", + "Parasympathetic paraganglioma": "A benign or malignant, usually non-functioning, extra-adrenal paraganglioma that arises from paraganglia located along the parasympathetic nerves. Representative examples include aorticopulmonary, carotid body, jugulotympanic, and mediastinal paragangliomas.", + "Parietal cell adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma of the stomach arising from the parietal cells. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with eosinophilic, finely granular cytoplasm.", + "Parietal cell carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma of the stomach arising from the parietal cells. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with eosinophilic, finely granular cytoplasm.", + "Parosteal osteosarcoma": "A low grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the surface of the bone. It usually affects the distal posterior femur, the proximal tibia, and proximal humerus. Painless swelling is the usual clinical sign. Most patients are young adults and the prognosis is usually excellent.", + "Partial hydatidiform mole": "A gestational trophoblastic disorder characterized by the presence of an abnormal fetus and two populations of chorionic villi: one population which is unremarkable and a second one which shows hydropic changes.", + "PEComa, malignant": "A usually large and aggressive tumor with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation characterized by the presence of marked nuclear atypia, pleomorphism, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, and infiltrative margins. The most common metastatic sites are liver, lungs, lymph nodes, and bone.", + "Periapical cemental dysplasia": "A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the jaw. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The cell of origin is the cementoblast.", + "Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia": "A rare benign bone-forming neoplasm usually arising from the jaw. It is a well-circumscribed lytic tumor that varies in size. The cell of origin is the cementoblast.", + "Pericanalicular fibroadenoma": "A morphologic variant of breast fibroadenoma without clinical significance. It is characterized by circumferential proliferation of stromal cells around the ducts. This results in the formation of rounded ductal-epithelial structures.", + "Periductal stromal tumor, low grade": "", + "Perifollicular fibroma": "A benign neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped fibroblasts surrounding the hair follicle.", + "Perineural MPNST": "A very rare malignant tumor with morphologic features similar to those of benign perineurioma of soft tissue along with hypercellularity, nuclear atypia, hyperchromasia, and a high mitotic rate.", + "Perineurioma, malignant": "A very rare malignant tumor with morphologic features similar to those of benign perineurioma of soft tissue along with hypercellularity, nuclear atypia, hyperchromasia, and a high mitotic rate.", + "Perineurioma, NOS": "A rare benign tumor composed entirely of neoplastic perineurial cells. It may occur in the soft tissues, intraneurally or in mucosal sites.", + "Periosteal chondroma": "A benign neoplasm of bone surface composed of hyaline cartilage. It arises beneath the periosteum and is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes, a lobulated growth pattern, and calcification.", + "Periosteal chondrosarcoma": "A chondrosarcoma arising from the surface of bone. It is characterized by a lobulated growth pattern, high mitotic activity, myxoid stroma formation, and necrotic changes. It occurs in adults. Clinical presentation includes pain, and sometimes swelling.", + "Periosteal fibroma": "A benign fibrous neoplasm arising from the periosteal connective tissue that surrounds a bone.", + "Periosteal fibrosarcoma": "A malignant fibroblastic tumor arising from the periosteal connective tissue that surrounds a bone.", + "Periosteal osteosarcoma": "An intermediate grade malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm with chondroblastic differentiation. It arises from the surface of the bone and affects the diaphysis or diaphyseal- metaphyseal portion of the long bones. A painless mass or swelling is the most common clinical sign. It is associated with a better prognosis than conventional osteosarcoma.", + "Periosteal sarcoma, NOS": "", + "Peripheral neuroectodermal tumor": "A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation arising from the soft tissues or bone.", + "Peripheral odontogenic fibroma": "A rare, benign, extraosseous neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually presents as a slow growing exophytic mass in the gingiva. It is characterized by the presence of odontogenic epithelium which is embedded in a fibrous stroma.", + "Peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, NOS": "A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation arising from the soft tissues or bone.", + "Peripheral T-cell lymphoma, AILD (Angioimmunoblastic Lymphadenopathy with Dysproteinemia)": "A peripheral T-cell lymphoma of mature T follicular helper (TFH) cells characterized by systemic disease and a polymorphous infiltrate involving lymph nodes, with a prominent proliferation of high endothelial venules and follicular dendritic cells. EBV-positive cells are nearly always present. It is a clinically aggressive lymphoma and seen mainly in older adults. (WHO 2017)", + "Peripheral T-cell lymphoma, large cell": "Peripheral T-Cell Lymphoma, Large Cell", + "Peripheral T-cell lymphoma, NOS": "A heterogenous category of nodal and extranodal mature T-cell lymphomas that do not correspond to any of the specifically defined entities of mature T-cell lymphoma in the 2017 WHO classification. Excluded from this category are tumors with a T follicular helper (TFH) cell phenotype. Variants include lymphoepithelioid lymphoma (Lennert lymphoma) and primary EBV-positive nodal T-cell or NK-cell lymphoma. The follicular variant included in the peripheral T-cell lymphomas, not otherwise specified, in the 2008 edition of the WHO classification has been moved to the category of angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma and other nodal lymphomas of T follicular helper cell origin in the 2017 WHO update. The same is true for a proportion of cases previously designated as the T-zone variant, because they usually have a TFH-cell phenotype. (WHO 2017)", + "Peripheral T-cell lymphoma, pleomorphic medium and large cell": "", + "Peripheral T-cell lymphoma, pleomorphic small cell": "", + "Perivascular epithelioid cell tumor, malignant": "A usually large and aggressive tumor with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation characterized by the presence of marked nuclear atypia, pleomorphism, increased mitotic activity, necrosis, and infiltrative margins. The most common metastatic sites are liver, lungs, lymph nodes, and bone.", + "Pheochromoblastoma": "A pheochromocytoma that metastasizes to other anatomic sites. Common sites of metastasis include lymph nodes, bones, liver, and lung. Morphologic features associated with malignant pheochromocytomas include: atypical mitotic figures, capsular and vascular invasion, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic activity.", + "Pheochromocytoma, malignant": "A pheochromocytoma that metastasizes to other anatomic sites. Common sites of metastasis include lymph nodes, bones, liver, and lung. Morphologic features associated with malignant pheochromocytomas include: atypical mitotic figures, capsular and vascular invasion, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic activity.", + "Pheochromocytoma, NOS": "A benign or malignant neuroendocrine neoplasm of the sympathetic nervous system that secretes catecholamines. It arises from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla. Clinical presentation includes headaches, palpitations, chest and abdominal pain, hypertension, fever, and tremor. Microscopically, a characteristic nesting (zellballen) growth pattern is usually seen. Other growth patterns including trabecular pattern may also be present.", + "Phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor, malignant": "A phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor that has metastasized from its original site of growth to other anatomic sites.", + "Phyllodes tumor, benign": "A benign, circumscribed fibroepithelial neoplasm arising from the breast and rarely the prostate gland. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial structures which are arranged in clefts and by a hypercellular mesenchymal stroma which is organized in leaf-like structures. There is no evidence of cellular atypia or sarcomatous features.", + "Phyllodes tumor, borderline": "A phyllodes tumor with morphologic characteristics which are intermediate between a benign and a malignant phyllodes tumor. The stromal sarcomatous changes are of low grade and are often reminiscent of low grade fibrosarcomas.", + "Phyllodes tumor, malignant": "A phyllodes tumor with sarcomatous stroma. The sarcomatous component is usually of the fibrosarcomatous type. Liposarcomatous, chondrosarcomatous, osteosarcomatous, or rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation may also occur in the stroma. It may recur and metastasize following surgical resection. The lung and skeleton are the anatomic sites most frequently involved by metastases.", + "Phyllodes tumor, NOS": "A benign, borderline, or malignant fibroepithelial neoplasm arising from the breast and rarely the prostate gland. It may recur following resection. The recurrence rates are higher for borderline and malignant phyllodes tumors. In borderline and malignant phyllodes tumors metastases to distant anatomic sites can occur. The incidence of metastases is higher in malignant phyllodes tumors.", + "Pick tubular adenoma": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. In males, the presenting symptom is a slow growing testicular mass. Most cases follow a benign clinical course. In females it may present with estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "Pigmented adenoma": "A usually functioning adenoma of the adrenal cortex. Grossly, it has a dark brown appearance and is characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells containing abundant intracytoplasmic lipofuscin. It may be associated with Cushing syndrome.", + "Pigmented basal cell carcinoma": "A basal cell carcinoma that contains large amounts of melanin. The melanin is produced by symbiotic nontumoral proliferating melanocytes.", + "Pigmented dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans": "A morphologic variant of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans characterized by the presence of melanin-pigmented dendritic cells.", + "Pigmented nevus, NOS": "A nevus characterised by the presence of excessive pigment.", + "Pigmented schwannoma": "A rare circumscribed, non-encapsulated and grossly pigmented nerve sheath tumor. It is composed of cells with the immunophenotypic and electron microscopic features of Schwann cells which contain melanosomes and are positive for melanoma markers. It usually involves spinal nerve roots but may occur in other locations. It may be associated with PRKAR1A gene mutation and Carney complex. Malignant behavior has been reported in a significant number of patients.", + "Pigmented spindle cell nevus of Reed": "A benign, small and slightly elevated brown or black skin lesion with usually well-demarcated borders. It is characterized by the presence of a melanocytic proliferation resulting in the formation of uniform cellular nests. Sometimes the clinical and morphologic features may be difficult to distinguish from melanoma.", + "Pilar tumor": "A neoplasm with tricholemmal differentiation. It affects women more frequently than men. It usually presents on the scalp as a solitary, multilobular, large, exophytic mass. Morphologically, it may display benign cytological features and appear as a circumscribed solid-cystic neoplasm or it may display malignant characteristics and invasive features. Cases without malignant characteristics usually have an indolent course. Complete surgical excision is recommended in such cases to avoid recurrences and to allow complete examination of the specimen. Cases with malignant characteristics may have a locally aggressive clinical course, recur, or metastasize.", + "Pilocytic astrocytoma": "A WHO grade I, relatively circumscribed, slowly growing, often cystic astrocytoma occurring in children and young adults. Histologically it is characterized by a biphasic pattern with compacted bipolar cells associated with Rosenthal fibers and multipolar cells associated with microcysts and eosinophilic bodies/hyaline droplets. (WHO)", + "Piloid astrocytoma": "A WHO grade I, relatively circumscribed, slowly growing, often cystic astrocytoma occurring in children and young adults. Histologically it is characterized by a biphasic pattern with compacted bipolar cells associated with Rosenthal fibers and multipolar cells associated with microcysts and eosinophilic bodies/hyaline droplets. (WHO)", + "Pilomatricoma, malignant": "A very rare, locally aggressive, malignant neoplasm of the hair follicle. The majority of the cases arise de novo, however malignant transformation from a pre-existing pilomatricoma has been reported. It usually presents as a solitary nodule in the head and neck, upper extremities, or buttocks. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of aggregates of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Masses of ghost cells are present in the cellular aggregates. Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice. If it is not completely removed, it usually recurs, but it rarely metastasizes to distant anatomic sites.", + "Pilomatricoma, NOS": "A benign adnexal neoplasm arising from hair-bearing skin surfaces, usually the head and neck and upper extremities. It usually presents as a solitary, slow-growing nodular mass. Morphologically, it displays differentiation towards the matrix and inner sheath of the normal hair follicle and the hair cortex. Complete surgical excision is usually curative. Occasionally, it may recur.", + "Pilomatrix carcinoma": "A very rare, locally aggressive, malignant neoplasm of the hair follicle. The majority of the cases arise de novo, however malignant transformation from a pre-existing pilomatricoma has been reported. It usually presents as a solitary nodule in the head and neck, upper extremities, or buttocks. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of aggregates of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Masses of ghost cells are present in the cellular aggregates. Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice. If it is not completely removed, it usually recurs, but it rarely metastasizes to distant anatomic sites.", + "Pilomatrixoma, malignant": "A very rare, locally aggressive, malignant neoplasm of the hair follicle. The majority of the cases arise de novo, however malignant transformation from a pre-existing pilomatricoma has been reported. It usually presents as a solitary nodule in the head and neck, upper extremities, or buttocks. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of aggregates of basaloid cells infiltrating the dermis. Masses of ghost cells are present in the cellular aggregates. Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice. If it is not completely removed, it usually recurs, but it rarely metastasizes to distant anatomic sites.", + "Pilomatrixoma, NOS": "A benign adnexal neoplasm arising from hair-bearing skin surfaces, usually the head and neck and upper extremities. It usually presents as a solitary, slow-growing nodular mass. Morphologically, it displays differentiation towards the matrix and inner sheath of the normal hair follicle and the hair cortex. Complete surgical excision is usually curative. Occasionally, it may recur.", + "Pilomyxoid astrocytoma": "An astrocytic tumor of uncertain relation to pilocytic astrocytoma. It occurs predominantly in infants and young children. It is characterized by a monomorphic architectural pattern, usually associated with the absence of Rosenthal fibers and eosinophilic granular bodies. The clinical course is usually aggressive.", + "PIN III": "High grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of severe architectural and cytologic abnormalities.", + "Pindborg tumor": "A slow growing, locally invasive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It most often grows intraosseously in the mandible and less frequently in the maxilla. In a minority of cases it grows extraosseously in the gingiva. It is characterized by the presence of a fibrous stroma, epithelial cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, and amyloid material which is often calcified. Small tumors may be successfully treated with enucleation. Local resection is usually required for larger tumors. Recurrences have been reported in a minority of cases.", + "Pineal parenchymal tumor of intermediate differentiation": "A WHO grade II or III pineal parenchymal neoplasm of intermediate-grade malignancy, affecting all ages. It is composed of diffuse sheets or large lobules of uniform cells with mild to moderate nuclear atypia and low to moderate level mitotic activity. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Pinealoma": "A benign or malignant neoplasm that affects the pineal region.", + "Pineoblastoma": "A poorly differentiated malignant embryonal neoplasm arising from the pineal region. It usually occurs in children and it is characterized by the presence of small immature neuroepithelial cells. It may follow an aggressive clinical course.", + "Pineocytoma": "A WHO grade I slow growing tumor, more frequently affecting young adults. It is composed of small, uniform, mature cells resembling pineocytes with occasional large pineocytomatous rosettes. It may show a wide range of divergent phenotypes, including neuronal, glial, melanocytic, photoreceptor and mesenchymal differentiation. Pineocytoma generally has a relatively favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Pinkus tumor": "A variant of basal cell carcinoma presenting as an elevated or erythematous nodular lesion usually in the back. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of cords of basaloid cells extending from the epidermis into the dermis, creating a fenestrating pattern. It follows an indolent course.", + "Pituicytoma": "An extremely rare, WHO grade I, circumscribed and slow-growing tumor that arises from the neurohypophysis or infundibulum and described in adults. It is characterized by the presence of elongated, spindle-shaped neoplastic glial cells that form storiform patterns or interlacing fascicular arrangements. Signs and symptoms include visual disturbances, headache, amenorrhea, and decreased libido.", + "Pituitary adenoma, NOS": "A non-metastasizing tumor that arises from the adenohypophysial cells of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. The tumor can be hormonally functioning or not. The diagnosis can be based on imaging studies and/or radioimmunoassays. Due to its location in the sella turcica, expansion of the tumor mass can impinge on the optic chiasm or involve the temporal lobe, third ventricle and posterior fossa A frequently associated physical finding is bitemporal hemianopsia which may progress to further visual loss.", + "Pituitary carcinoma, NOS": "A rare adenocarcinoma with poor prognosis, arising from the adenohypophysial cells of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland or pre-existing adenomas. The majority are hormonally functioning neoplasms, usually producing prolactin or ACTH. The diagnosis is based on the presence of metastases. Syndromes associated with pituitary gland carcinomas include hyperprolactinemia, Cushing disease, and acromegaly.", + "Placental site trophoblastic tumor": "A rare gestational trophoblastic tumor characterized by the presence of a diffuse cellular infiltrate composed of intermediate trophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts and by the absense of a significant population of syncytiotrophoblasts.", + "Plasma cell leukemia": "An aggressive plasma cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic plasma cells in the peripheral blood. It is characterized by the presence of a circulating clonal plasma cell count that exceeds 2x10^9/L or is 20% of the leukocyte differential count.", + "Plasma cell myeloma": "A bone marrow-based plasma cell neoplasm characterized by a serum monoclonal protein and skeletal destruction with osteolytic lesions, pathological fractures, bone pain, hypercalcemia, and anemia. Clinical variants include non-secretory myeloma, smoldering myeloma, indolent myeloma, and plasma cell leukemia. (WHO, 2001)", + "Plasma cell tumor": "A clonal proliferation of immunoglobulin-secreting plasma cells. This category includes plasma cell myeloma, plasma cell leukemia, plasmacytoma, monoclonal immunoglobulin deposition disease, and monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance.", + "Plasmablastic lymphoma": "An aggressive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma frequently arising in the setting of HIV infection and characterized by the presence of large neoplastic cells resembling B-immunoblasts which have the immunophenotypic profile of plasma cells. Sites of involvement include the oral cavity, sinonasal cavity, skin, soft tissues, gastrointestinal tract, and bone.", + "Plasmacytic leukemia": "An aggressive plasma cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic plasma cells in the peripheral blood. It is characterized by the presence of a circulating clonal plasma cell count that exceeds 2x10^9/L or is 20% of the leukocyte differential count.", + "Plasmacytic lymphoma": "A clonal neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes, lymphoplasmacytoid cells, and plasma cells involving the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and the spleen. The majority of patients have a serum IgM paraprotein.", + "Plasmacytoma of bone": "A localized, clonal (malignant) plasma cell infiltrate in the bone, without peripheral blood involvement. The most commonly affected bones are the vertebrae, ribs, skull, pelvis and femur. X-rays examination reveals a solitary lytic lesion.", + "Plasmacytoma, extramedullary": "A plasma cell neoplasm arising at an extraosseous site. There is no involvement of the bone marrow. It most frequently involves the oropharynx, nasopharynx, sinuses, and larynx. Other sites of involvement include the gastrointestinal tract, central nervous system, breast, skin, lymph nodes, and bladder. A minority of patients have a monoclonal gammopathy. Treatment includes radiation therapy. Progression to plasma cell myeloma occurs in a minority of patients.", + "Plasmacytoma, NOS": "A malignant (clonal) proliferation of plasma cells that are cytologically and immunophenotypically identical to those of plasma cell myeloma, but manifest a localized osseous or extraosseous growth pattern. (WHO, 2001)", + "Pleomorphic adenoma": "A neoplasm characterized by the presence of benign epithelial and myoepithelial cells and a mesenchymal component that may contain mucoid, myxoid, cartilaginous, or osseous areas. It may be completely or partially encapsulated. It occurs in the parotid gland, submandibular gland, minor salivary glands in the oral cavity, upper respiratory tract, and nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It usually presents as a slow growing painless mass. Infrequently, patients may present with pain and facial palsy. It may recur after excision or transform to a malignant neoplasm (carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma).", + "Pleomorphic carcinoma": "A usually aggressive malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of cells with significant cytologic atypia and nuclear pleomorphism.", + "Pleomorphic cell sarcoma": "A sarcoma characterized by the presence of large, anaplastic malignant cells.", + "Pleomorphic leiomyoma": "A morphologic variant of leiomyoma characterized by the presence of pleomorphic muscle cells with bizarre hyperchromatic nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Pleomorphic lipoma": "A benign circumscribed tumor characterized by small spindle cells, rounded hyperchromatic cells and multinucleated giant cells with radially arranged nuclei.", + "Pleomorphic liposarcoma": "A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of varying proportions of pleomorphic lipoblasts in a background that resembles undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma. It is the rarest liposarcoma variant and usually has an aggressive clinical course.", + "Pleomorphic lobular carcinoma": "A grade II invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast, characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells with large and atypical nuclei.", + "Pleomorphic lobular carcinoma in situ": "A recently described aggressive subtype of classic lobular breast carcinoma in situ. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic large cells with irregular nuclei and prominent single or multiple nucleoli.", + "Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma, adult type": "An aggressive rhabdomyosarcoma occurring in adults. The neoplasm is characterized by the presence of bizarre round, spindle, and polygonal cells. Clinical presentation includes a rapidly enlarging painful mass usually in the lower extremities.", + "Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma, NOS": "An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation, occurring in adults and rarely in children. The tumor is characterized by the presence of bizarre round, spindle, and polygonal cells. Clinical presentation includes a rapidly enlarging painful mass usually of the lower extremities.", + "Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma": "A WHO grade ll astrocytic tumor with a relatively favorable prognosis. It is characterized by pleomorphic and lipidized cells expressing GFAP often surrounded by a reticulin network and eosinophilic granular bodies. It presents in the superficial cerebral hemispheres and involves the meninges. It typically affects children and young adults.", + "Pleuropulmonary blastoma": "A malignant neoplasm affecting the lungs and/or the pleura. Pleuropulmonary blastoma is seen in children. Microscopically, the tumor may show features of chondrosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, or undifferentiated sarcoma. In approximately 25% of patients with pleuropulmonary blastoma, there are other lesions or neoplasms that may affect patients or their families, including lung or kidney cysts, and ovarian or testicular neoplasms. Heterozygous germline mutations in DICER1 gene have been identified in families harboring pleuropulmonary blastomas.", + "Plexiform fibrohistiocytic tumor": "An intermediate fibrohistiocytic neoplasm of the skin that usually affects children and young adults. It is a multinodular, poorly circumscribed tumor characterized by the presence of multinucleated giant cells, mononuclear histiocyte-like cells, and spindle fibroblast-like cells arranged in a plexiform pattern.", + "Plexiform fibromyxoma": "", + "Plexiform hemangioma": "A capillary hemangioma that may regress spontaneously. It occurs in infants and children.", + "Plexiform leiomyoma": "", + "Plexiform neurofibroma": "An elongated and multinodular neurofibroma, formed when the tumor involves either multiple trunks of a plexus or multiple fascicles of a large nerve, such as the sciatic. Some plexiform neurofibromas resemble a bag of worms, others produce a massive ropy enlargement of the nerve. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Plexiform neuroma": "An elongated and multinodular neurofibroma, formed when the tumor involves either multiple trunks of a plexus or multiple fascicles of a large nerve, such as the sciatic. Some plexiform neurofibromas resemble a bag of worms, others produce a massive ropy enlargement of the nerve. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Plexiform schwannoma": "A schwannoma characterized by a plexiform or multinodular growth pattern. It usually arises from the skin or subcutaneous tissues in the extremities, trunk, and head and neck.", + "PNET, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm that originates in the neuroectoderm. The neuroectoderm constitutes the portion of the ectoderm of the early embryo that gives rise to the central and peripheral nervous systems and includes some glial cell precursors.", + "Pneumoblastoma": "A biphasic tumor that consists of fetal adenocarcinoma (typically low-grade) and primitive mesenchymal stroma. Foci of specific mesenchymal differentiation (osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, or rhabdomyosarcoma) may also be present, but are not required for the diagnosis. Most patients are smokers. The prognosis is very poor. (WHO 2015)", + "Polar spongioblastoma": "A lesion characterized by the presence of neoplastic neuroepithelial cells with palisading nuclei. This lesion implies a morphologic growth pattern and it is not considered a clinicopathological entity.", + "Polycythemia rubra vera": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by an increased red blood cell production. The bone marrow is hypercellular due to a panmyelotic proliferation typically characterized by pleomorphic megakaryocytes. The major symptoms are related to hypertension, splenomegaly or to episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage.", + "Polycythemia vera": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by an increased red blood cell production. The bone marrow is hypercellular due to a panmyelotic proliferation typically characterized by pleomorphic megakaryocytes. The major symptoms are related to hypertension, splenomegaly or to episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage.", + "Polyembryoma": "", + "Polygonal cell carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm composed of atypical polygonal cells with a large amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm. A representative example is the fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma.", + "Polymorphic post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder": "A clonal B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder arising as a result of post-transplant immunosuppression therapy. It is characterized by destructive infiltration of lymph nodes and extranodal sites by a polymorphic B-cell infiltrate composed of small and medium sized lymphocytes, immunoblasts, and plasma cells. In some cases, reduction of the immunosuppression therapy may lead to regression of the lesions. In other cases the lesions may progress to lymphoma.", + "Polymorphic reticulosis": "", + "Polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma": "", + "Polypoid adenoma": "A polypoid neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium. There is proliferation of glandular cells which may display dysplastic cytologic features. Representative examples include the adenomatous polyps of the colon and rectum.", + "Polyvesicular vitelline tumor": "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor composed of primitive germ cells. It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in the pediatric population. It occurs in the infant testis, ovary, sacrococcygeal region, vagina, uterus, prostate, abdomen, liver, retroperitoneum, thorax, and pineal/third ventricle. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Treatment includes: surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. This tumor is very responsive to chemotherapy regimens that include cisplatinum.", + "Poorly cohesive carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a diffuse cellular infiltrate which is composed of poorly cohesive cells with minimal or no glandular formations. Representative example is the gastric diffuse adenocarcinoma.", + "Porocarcinoma": "A carcinoma with eccrine differentiation arising from the sweat glands. It may arise de novo or as a malignant transformation of a pre-existing poroma. It usually grows in the legs, buttocks, feet, and trunk and usually presents as an ulcerative plaque. It is characterized by the presence of intraepidermal and dermal nests of malignant epithelial cells. It may recur after excision and metastasize to the lymph nodes and less frequently to distal anatomic sites.", + "Post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder, NOS": "Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) is a polyclonal (benign) or clonal (malignant) proliferation of lymphoid cells that develops as a consequence of immunosuppression in a recipient of a solid organ or bone marrow allograft. PTLDs comprise a spectrum ranging from early, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-driven polyclonal lymphoid proliferations to EBV-positive or EBV- negative lymphomas of predominantly B-cell or less often T-cell type. (WHO, 2001)", + "PP/PYY producing tumor": "", + "PPNET": "A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation arising from the soft tissues or bone.", + "Pre-B ALL": "An acute lymphoblastic leukemia that originates from pre-B lymphocytes. The pre-B lymphoblasts contain cytoplasmic immunoglobulin.", + "Pre-pre-B ALL": "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia of early B-lineage.", + "Pre-T ALL": "Pre T-ALL", + "Precancerous melanosis, NOS": "Precancerous Melanosis", + "Precursor B-cell lymphoblastic leukemia": "The most frequent type of acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Approximately 75% of cases occur in children under six years of age. This is a good prognosis leukemia. In the pediatric age group the complete remission rate is approximately 95% and the disease free survival rate is 70%. Approximately 80% of children appear to be cured. In the adult age group the complete remission rate is 60-85%. (WHO, 2001)", + "Precursor B-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma": "An uncommon type of lymphoma. It constitutes approximately 10% of cases of lymphoblastic lymphoma. Approximately 75% of cases reported in a literature review involved patients who were less than 18 years of age. The most commonly affected sites are the skin, bone, soft tissue, and lymph nodes. It has a high remission rate with a median survival of approximately 60 months. (WHO, 2001)", + "Precursor cell lymphoblastic leukemia, NOS": "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "Precursor cell lymphoblastic leukemia, not phenotyped": "Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.", + "Precursor cell lymphoblastic lymphoma, NOS": "A lymphoma composed of immature small to medium-sized precursor lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts). It includes the B- and T-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma.", + "Precursor T-cell lymphoblastic leukemia": "Acute lymphoblastic leukemia of T-cell origin. It comprises about 15% of childhood cases and 25% of adult cases. It is more common in males than females. (WHO, 2001)", + "Precursor T-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma": "The most frequent type of lymphoblastic lymphoma. It comprises approximately 85-90% of cases. It is more frequently seen in adolescent males. It frequently presents with a mass lesion in the mediastinum. Pleural effusions are common. (WHO, 2001)", + "Preleukemia": "A clonal hematopoietic disorder characterized by dysplasia and ineffective hematopoiesis in one or more of the hematopoietic cell lines. The dysplasia may be accompanied by an increase in myeloblasts, but the number is less than 20%, which, according to the WHO guidelines, is the requisite threshold for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia. It may occur de novo or as a result of exposure to alkylating agents and/or radiotherapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Preleukemic syndrome": "A clonal hematopoietic disorder characterized by dysplasia and ineffective hematopoiesis in one or more of the hematopoietic cell lines. The dysplasia may be accompanied by an increase in myeloblasts, but the number is less than 20%, which, according to the WHO guidelines, is the requisite threshold for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia. It may occur de novo or as a result of exposure to alkylating agents and/or radiotherapy. (WHO, 2001)", + "Primary amyloidosis": "A plasma cell neoplasm that secretes an abnormal immunoglobulin, which deposits in tissues and forms a beta-pleated sheet structure that binds Congo red dye with characteristic birefringence. (WHO, 2001)", + "Primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma": "An anaplastic large cell lymphoma limited to the skin at the time of diagnosis. Most patients present with solitary or localized skin lesions, which may be tumors, nodules or papules. The t(2;5) translocation that is present in many cases of systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma, is not found in this disease. (WHO, 2001)", + "Primary cutaneous CD4-positive small/medium T-cell lymphoma": "A primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder. It usually presents with a solitary plaque or tumor on the face, neck, or upper trunk. Morphologically, it is composed of small to medium-sized CD4-positive, CD8-negative, and CD30-negative pleomorphic T-lymphocytes. A small number of large pleomorphic T-lymphocytes may also be present. The lymphocytic infiltrate is dermal. Focal epidermotropism and subcutaneous involvement may be present. The clinical behavior is almost always indolent and most patients present with localized disease.", + "Primary cutaneous CD8-positive aggressive epidermotropic cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma": "An aggressive, epidermotropic primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. It is characterized by the presence of eruptive papules and nodules, or tumors, which may be localized or disseminated. Morphologically, it is composed of small to medium-sized, or medium-sized to large, CD8-positive T-lymphocytes with pleomorphic or blastic nuclei. Epidermotropism is often pronounced. Angiocentricity and angioinvasion may be present.", + "Primary cutaneous CD30+ large T-cell lymphoma": "An anaplastic large cell lymphoma limited to the skin at the time of diagnosis. Most patients present with solitary or localized skin lesions, which may be tumors, nodules or papules. The t(2;5) translocation that is present in many cases of systemic anaplastic large cell lymphoma, is not found in this disease. (WHO, 2001)", + "Primary cutaneous CD30+ T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder": "This entity represents a spectrum of lymphoproliferative disorders characterized by CD30 (Ki-1)-positive cutaneous T-cell infiltrates. The two ends of the spectrum include lymphomatoid papulosis (benign end) and primary cutaneous anaplastic large cell lymphoma (malignant end). Borderline lesions are also included in this spectrum. (WHO, 2001)", + "Primary cutaneous DLBCL, leg type": "An aggressive primary cutaneous B-cell lymphoma, usually involving the lower leg. It is composed of a generally monotonous proliferation of immunoblasts, or less frequently centroblasts, with few admixed reactive cells. This type of lymphoma occurs most often in elderly women who present with rapidly growing tumors, usually on one or both legs. Dissemination to extracutaneous sites is frequent. Treatment with combination chemotherapy is usually required.", + "Primary cutaneous follicle centre lymphoma": "A primary lymphoma of the skin composed of various numbers of small and large irregular neoplastic follicle center cells. Its morphologic pattern can be nodular, diffuse, or nodular and diffuse. It presents with solitary or grouped plaques and tumors, and it usually involves the scalp, forehead, or trunk. It rarely involves the legs. This type of cutaneous lymphoma tends to remain localized to the skin.", + "Primary cutaneous gamma-delta T-cell lymphoma": "An aggressive cutaneous lymphoma of mature, activated gamma/delta T-lymphocytes. It usually presents with disseminated plaques and nodules. Involvement of mucosal sites is frequent. However, involvement of lymph nodes, spleen, or bone marrow is uncommon. Morphologically, there are three patterns of cutaneous involvement: epidermotropic, dermal, and subcutaneous. Often, more than one pattern may co-exist in a single biopsy specimen, or may be present in different biopsy specimens from the same patient. The lymphocytic infiltrate is composed of medium- to large-sized lymphocytes expressing CD56. Most cases lack both CD4 and CD8, although CD8 may be present in some cases. This group of lymphomas includes cases previously known as subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma with a gamma/delta phenotype.", + "Primary cutaneous neuroendocrine carcinoma": "A rare malignant cutaneous tumor seen in elderly patients. Its usual location is on the head, neck and extremities. The tumor is composed of small round cells with scanty cytoplasm arranged in a trabecular pattern, or in ill-defined nodules or in a diffuse pattern. The tumor cells contain cytoplasmic membrane-bound dense core granules resembling neurosecretory granules. There is strong evidence implicating Merkel cell polyomavirus in a majority of cases of Merkel cell carcinoma.", + "Primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the CNS": "", + "Primary effusion lymphoma": "A large B-cell lymphoma usually presenting as a serous effusion without detectable tumor masses. It is universally associated with human herpes virus 8 (HHV8), also called Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus. It mostly occurs in the setting of immunodeficiency. The most common sites of involvement are the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities. Rare HHV8-positive lymphomas indistinguishable from primary effusion lymphomas (PEL) present as solid tumor masses, and have been termed extracavitary PEL. The prognosis is extremely unfavorable. (WHO 2017)", + "Primary intraosseous carcinoma": "", + "Primary myelofibrosis": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, proliferation of atypical megakaryocytes and granulocytes in the bone marrow, anemia, splenomegaly, and extramedullary hematopoiesis. (WHO, 2001)", + "Primary serous papillary carcinoma of peritoneum": "A rare, serous papillary adenocarcinoma that arises from the lining of the peritoneum. It affects females. The clinical behavior and pathologic characteristics are similar to the serous papillary adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary.", + "Primitive neuroectodermal tumor, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm that originates in the neuroectoderm. The neuroectoderm constitutes the portion of the ectoderm of the early embryo that gives rise to the central and peripheral nervous systems and includes some glial cell precursors.", + "Primitive polar spongioblastoma": "", + "Pro-B ALL": "An acute lymphoblastic leukemia that originates from pre-B lymphocytes. The pre-B lymphoblasts contain cytoplasmic immunoglobulin.", + "Pro-T ALL": "Pre T-ALL", + "Prolactinoma": "An adenoma of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that produces prolactin. It is the most common type of pituitary gland adenomas and it is associated with hyperprolactinemia. Clinical manifestations include amenorrhea, galactorrhea, impotence, headache, and visual disturbances.", + "Proliferating trichilemmal cyst": "A neoplasm with tricholemmal differentiation. It affects women more frequently than men. It usually presents on the scalp as a solitary, multilobular, large, exophytic mass. Morphologically, it may display benign cytological features and appear as a circumscribed solid-cystic neoplasm or it may display malignant characteristics and invasive features. Cases without malignant characteristics usually have an indolent course. Complete surgical excision is recommended in such cases to avoid recurrences and to allow complete examination of the specimen. Cases with malignant characteristics may have a locally aggressive clinical course, recur, or metastasize.", + "Proliferating trichilemmal tumor": "A neoplasm with tricholemmal differentiation. It affects women more frequently than men. It usually presents on the scalp as a solitary, multilobular, large, exophytic mass. Morphologically, it may display benign cytological features and appear as a circumscribed solid-cystic neoplasm or it may display malignant characteristics and invasive features. Cases without malignant characteristics usually have an indolent course. Complete surgical excision is recommended in such cases to avoid recurrences and to allow complete examination of the specimen. Cases with malignant characteristics may have a locally aggressive clinical course, recur, or metastasize.", + "Proliferative dermal lesion in congenital nevus": "A benign proliferation of epithelioid or spindled melanocytes usually in the upper or mid dermis in a background of congenital melanocytic nevus. The congenital melanocytic nevus is usually of the deep type, involving the dermis and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. It presents as a dark plaque or nodule above a giant congenital melanocytic nevus.", + "Proliferative polycythemia": "A chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by an increased red blood cell production. The bone marrow is hypercellular due to a panmyelotic proliferation typically characterized by pleomorphic megakaryocytes. The major symptoms are related to hypertension, splenomegaly or to episodes of thrombosis and/or hemorrhage.", + "Prolymphocytic leukemia, B-cell type": "A malignant B-cell lymphoproliferative process affecting the blood, bone marrow, and spleen. The B-prolymphocytes are medium-sized, round lymphoid cells with prominent nucleoli. The B-prolymphocytes must exceed 55% of lymphoid cells in the blood. Cases of transformed chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and CLL with increased prolymphocytes are excluded. The prognosis is poor. (WHO, 2001)", + "Prolymphocytic leukemia, NOS": "A mature B- or T- cell leukemia with progressive clinical course. It is characterized by the presence of medium-sized lymphocytes with visible nucleoli (prolymphocytes) in the peripheral blood, bone marrow, and spleen.", + "Prolymphocytic leukemia, T-cell type": "An aggressive T-cell leukemia, characterized by the proliferation of small to medium sized prolymphocytes with a mature T-cell phenotype, involving the blood, bone marrow, lymph nodes, liver, spleen, and skin. (WHO, 2001)", + "Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia, grade III": "High grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia characterized by the presence of severe architectural and cytologic abnormalities.", + "Protoplasmic astrocytoma": "A rare variant of diffuse astrocytoma. It is predominantly composed of neoplastic astrocytes showing a small cell body with few, flaccid processes with a low content of glial filaments and scant GFAP expression. This lesion is not well defined and is considered by some authors as an occasional histopathological feature rather than a reproducibly identifiable variant. When occurring in children, this neoplasm may be difficult to separate from pilocytic juvenile astrocytoma. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Psammomatous meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of psammoma bodies that predominate over the meningeal cells.", + "Psammomatous schwannoma": "A benign, usually encapsulated slow growing tumor composed of Schwann cells. It affects peripheral and cranial nerves. It recurs infrequently and only rare cases associated with malignant transformation have been reported.", + "Pseudomucinous adenocarcinoma": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by cystic changes and the presence of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung.", + "Pseudomucinous cystadenocarcinoma, NOS": "An invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by cystic changes and the presence of malignant glandular cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung.", + "Pseudomucinous cystadenoma, borderline malignancy": "", + "Pseudomucinous cystadenoma, NOS": "A benign or low malignant potential cystic epithelial neoplasm composed of cells which contain intracytoplasmic mucin. It may arise from the ovary, pancreas, appendix, and lung.", + "Pseudomyxoma peritonei": "A usually well differentiated mucinous adenocarcinoma of the peritoneum. The majority of cases represent tumor spread from a primary low grade mucinous neoplasm of the appendix. Cases of pseudomyxoma peritonei associated with mucinous adenocarcinomas of the gallbladder, stomach, colon, rectum, pancreas, lung, breast, and fallopian tubes have also been reported. In the past, the ovary has been considered as a common primary site associated with pseudomyxoma peritonei. However, there is recent evidence based on immunohistochemistry and molecular genetic analysis suggesting that most cases of pseudomyxoma peritonei probably represent metastasis from an appendiceal and not ovarian primary.", + "Pseudomyxoma peritonei with unknown primary site": "A usually well differentiated mucinous adenocarcinoma of the peritoneum. The majority of cases represent tumor spread from a primary low grade mucinous neoplasm of the appendix. Cases of pseudomyxoma peritonei associated with mucinous adenocarcinomas of the gallbladder, stomach, colon, rectum, pancreas, lung, breast, and fallopian tubes have also been reported. In the past, the ovary has been considered as a common primary site associated with pseudomyxoma peritonei. However, there is recent evidence based on immunohistochemistry and molecular genetic analysis suggesting that most cases of pseudomyxoma peritonei probably represent metastasis from an appendiceal and not ovarian primary.", + "Pseudosarcomatous carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle cells and anaplastic morphologic features. Giant cells and a sarcomatous component may also be present.", + "PTLD, NOS": "Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) is a polyclonal (benign) or clonal (malignant) proliferation of lymphoid cells that develops as a consequence of immunosuppression in a recipient of a solid organ or bone marrow allograft. PTLDs comprise a spectrum ranging from early, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-driven polyclonal lymphoid proliferations to EBV-positive or EBV- negative lymphomas of predominantly B-cell or less often T-cell type. (WHO, 2001)", + "Pulmonary adenomatosis": "This is a non-human neoplastic process described in sheep.", + "Pulmonary artery intimal sarcoma": "A sarcoma arising from the arterial intima of pulmonary arteries.", + "Pulmonary blastoma": "A biphasic tumor that consists of fetal adenocarcinoma (typically low-grade) and primitive mesenchymal stroma. Foci of specific mesenchymal differentiation (osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, or rhabdomyosarcoma) may also be present, but are not required for the diagnosis. Most patients are smokers. The prognosis is very poor. (WHO 2015)", + "Pulmonary myxoid sarcoma with EWSR1-CREB1 translocation": "A sarcoma that arises from the lung. It is related to a bronchus and is often predominantly endobronchial. It is characterized by the proliferation of round and spindle cells within a myxoid stroma. It is associated with the presence of an EWSR1-CREB1 fusion gene.", + "Queyrat erythroplasia": "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ. cN0: No palpable or visibly enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. pN0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Racemose hemangioma": "A benign vascular lesion characterized by the presence of a complex network of communicating arterial and venous vascular structures.", + "RAEB": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of 5-19% myeloblasts in the bone marrow or 2-19% blasts in the peripheral blood. It includes two categories: myelodysplastic syndrome with excess blasts-1 and myelodysplastic syndrome with excess blasts-2.", + "RAEB I": "A myelodysplastic syndrome defined by 5-9% blasts in the bone marrow, and <5% blasts in the blood. Approximately 25% of cases progress to an acute leukemia. (WHO)", + "RAEB II": "A myelodysplastic syndrome defined by 10-19% blasts in the bone marrow or 5-19% blasts in the blood. Approximately 33% of cases progress to acute leukemia. The prognosis is usually poor.", + "RAEB-T": "Refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation (RAEB-T) is characterised by dysplastic features of the myeloid and usually erythroid progenitor cells in the bone marrow and an increased number of myeloblasts in the peripheral blood. The peripheral blood blast count ranges from 20% to 30%. RAEB-T used to be a subcategory of myelodysplastic syndromes in the past. Recently, the term has been eliminated from the WHO based classification of myelodysplastic syndromes. The reason is that the percentage of peripheral blood blasts required for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia has been reduced to 20%. The elimination of the RAEB-T term by the WHO experts has created confusion and ongoing arguments. Currently, according to WHO classification, the vast majority of RAEB-T cases are best classified as acute leukemias (acute leukemias with multilineage dysplasia following myelodysplastic syndrome). A minority of cases are part of RAEB-2.", + "RARS": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by an anemia in which 15% or more of the erythroid precursors are ring sideroblasts. The ring sideroblast is an erythroid precursor in which one third or more of the nucleus is encircled by granules which are positive for iron stain. (WHO, 2001)", + "Rathke pouch tumor": "A benign, partly cystic, epithelial tumor of the sellar region, presumably derived from Rathke pouch epithelium. It affects mainly children and young adults. There are two clinicopathological forms: adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma and papillary craniopharyngioma. The most significant factor associated with recurrence is the extent of surgical resection, with lesions greater than 5 cm in diameter carrying a markedly worse prognosis. (Adapted from WHO)", + "Recklinghausen disease": "The most common type of neurofibromatosis. It is characterized clinically by cutaneous and subcutaneous tumors with patches of hyperpigmentation. The hyperpigmented skin areas, are present from birth and found anywhere on the body surface. They can vary markedly in size and color. The dark brown areas are called cafe-au-lait spots. The multiple cutaneous and subcutaneous tumors are nerve sheath tumors, called neurofibromas. They can develop anywhere along the peripheral nerve fibers. Neurofibromas can become quite large, causing a major disfigurement, eroding bone, and compressing various peripheral nerve structures. Type 1 neurofibromatosis has dominant inheritance, with a gene locus on the proximal long arm of chromosome 17.", + "Refractory anemia": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized mainly by dysplasia of the erythroid series. Refractory anemia is uncommon. It is primarily a disease of older adults. The median survival exceeds 5 years. (WHO, 2001)", + "Refractory anemia with excess blasts": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of 5-19% myeloblasts in the bone marrow or 2-19% blasts in the peripheral blood. It includes two categories: myelodysplastic syndrome with excess blasts-1 and myelodysplastic syndrome with excess blasts-2.", + "Refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation": "Refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation (RAEB-T) is characterised by dysplastic features of the myeloid and usually erythroid progenitor cells in the bone marrow and an increased number of myeloblasts in the peripheral blood. The peripheral blood blast count ranges from 20% to 30%. RAEB-T used to be a subcategory of myelodysplastic syndromes in the past. Recently, the term has been eliminated from the WHO based classification of myelodysplastic syndromes. The reason is that the percentage of peripheral blood blasts required for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia has been reduced to 20%. The elimination of the RAEB-T term by the WHO experts has created confusion and ongoing arguments. Currently, according to WHO classification, the vast majority of RAEB-T cases are best classified as acute leukemias (acute leukemias with multilineage dysplasia following myelodysplastic syndrome). A minority of cases are part of RAEB-2.", + "Refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts associated with marked thrombocytosis": "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm with morphologic and clinical characteristics of refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts, marked thrombocytosis, and abnormal megakaryocytes.", + "Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by an anemia in which 15% or more of the erythroid precursors are ring sideroblasts. The ring sideroblast is an erythroid precursor in which one third or more of the nucleus is encircled by granules which are positive for iron stain. (WHO, 2001)", + "Refractory anemia with sideroblasts": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by an anemia in which 15% or more of the erythroid precursors are ring sideroblasts. The ring sideroblast is an erythroid precursor in which one third or more of the nucleus is encircled by granules which are positive for iron stain. (WHO, 2001)", + "Refractory anemia without sideroblasts": "", + "Refractory cytopenia of childhood": "The most common subtype of the myelodysplastic syndromes affecting children. It is characterized by persistent cytopenia with less than 5% blasts in the bone marrow and less than 2% blasts in the peripheral blood.", + "Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by bi-cytopenia or pancytopenia and dysplastic changes in 10% or more of the cells in two or more of the myeloid cell lines. (WHO, 2001)", + "Refractory neutropenia": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of at least 10% dysplastic neutrophils in the bone marrow or the peripheral blood.", + "Refractory thrombocytopenia": "A myelodysplastic syndrome characterized by the presence of at least 10% dysplastic megakaryocytes, found within at least 30 megakaryocytes examined in the bone marrow.", + "Regressing nevus": "A nevus associated with focal regression-like changes.", + "Renal carcinoma, collecting duct type": "Also known as collecting duct carcinoma, this is a rare type of renal carcinoma. It arises from the collecting ducts of the renal medulla, and most authors suggest that this is an aggressive tumor.", + "Renal cell adenocarcinoma": "A carcinoma arising from the renal parenchyma. There is a strong correlation between cigarette smoking and the development of renal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation includes : hematuria, flank pain and a palpable lumbar mass. A high percentage of renal cell carcinomas are diagnosed when an ultrasound is performed for other purposes. Radical nephrectomy is the standard intervention procedure. Renal cell carcinoma is generally considered to be resistant to radiation treatment and chemotherapy.", + "Renal cell carcinoma, chromophobe type": "A type of carcinoma that comprises a minority of renal cell carcinomas. It is characterized by loss of chromosomes 1 and Y. Based on the cytoplasmic characteristics of the neoplastic cells, this type of carcinoma is classified as classic (typical) or eosinophilic. It has a much better prognosis than other renal cell carcinomas.", + "Renal cell carcinoma, NOS": "A carcinoma arising from the renal parenchyma. There is a strong correlation between cigarette smoking and the development of renal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation includes : hematuria, flank pain and a palpable lumbar mass. A high percentage of renal cell carcinomas are diagnosed when an ultrasound is performed for other purposes. Radical nephrectomy is the standard intervention procedure. Renal cell carcinoma is generally considered to be resistant to radiation treatment and chemotherapy.", + "Renal cell carcinoma, sarcomatoid": "A high grade carcinoma of the kidney. It is not a distinct clinicopathological entity and includes a diverse group of renal cell carcinomas which have been transformed from a lower to a higher grade.", + "Renal cell carcinoma, spindle cell": "A high grade carcinoma of the kidney. It is not a distinct clinicopathological entity and includes a diverse group of renal cell carcinomas which have been transformed from a lower to a higher grade.", + "Renal cell carcinoma, unclassified": "A carcinoma arising from the renal parenchyma. There is a strong correlation between cigarette smoking and the development of renal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation includes : hematuria, flank pain and a palpable lumbar mass. A high percentage of renal cell carcinomas are diagnosed when an ultrasound is performed for other purposes. Radical nephrectomy is the standard intervention procedure. Renal cell carcinoma is generally considered to be resistant to radiation treatment and chemotherapy.", + "Renal medullary carcinoma": "A type of renal carcinoma affecting mostly young African-Americans. It is located in the medulla of the kidney, and follows an aggressive clinical course. Most reported cases have shown metastatic disease at the time of diagnosis.", + "Reninoma": "A benign, well circumscribed neoplasm arising from the cortex of the kidney. It secrets renin and the patients usually present with severe hypertension and marked hypokalemia. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of sheets of polygonal or spindle-shaped neoplastic cells forming a hemangiopericytic pattern.", + "Renomedullary fibroma": "", + "Renomedullary interstitial cell tumor": "", + "Reserve cell carcinoma": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of small malignant cells which are often said to resemble \"oat cells\" under the microscope. Small cell carcinoma most often affects the lungs. Clinically, this is often a rapidly growing cancer that spreads to distant sites early.", + "Reticulohistiocytoma": "A rare cutaneous lesion composed of eosinophilic histiocytes, which are often multinucleated. The lesions are yellow-brown papules affecting any part of the body. Patients are usually adult men. The prognosis is excellent. -- 2003", + "Reticulosarcoma, diffuse": "", + "Reticulosarcoma, NOS": "An antiquated term that refers to a non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of diffuse infiltrates of large, often anaplastic lymphocytes.", + "Reticulum cell sarcoma, diffuse": "", + "Reticulum cell sarcoma, NOS": "An antiquated term that refers to a non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of diffuse infiltrates of large, often anaplastic lymphocytes.", + "Retinal anlage tumor": "A rare neoplasm usually occurring in infants. It is characterized by the presence of a mixture of melanin-containing epithelial cells and smaller neuroblast-like cells. It may involve the skull and facial bones, or the epididymis. It usually has a benign clinical course.", + "Retinoblastoma, differentiated": "A retinoblastoma with well differentiated features. It often produces Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes or Homer-Wright rosettes. In some cases the tumor cells form fleurettes.", + "Retinoblastoma, diffuse": "A retinoblastoma characterized by the absence of a distinct retinal mass and the presence of malignant cells diffusely infiltrating the retina. It is often confused with uveitis and endophthalmitis, resulting in delayed diagnosis of the malignancy.", + "Retinoblastoma, NOS": "A malignant tumor that originates in the nuclear layer of the retina. As the most common primary tumor of the eye in children, retinoblastoma is still relatively uncommon, accounting for only 1% of all malignant tumors in pediatric patients. Approximately 95% of cases are diagnosed before age 5. These tumors may be multifocal, bilateral, congenital, inherited, or acquired. Seventy-five percent of retinoblastomas are unilateral; 60% occur sporadically. A predisposition to retinoblastoma has been associated with 13q14 cytogenetic abnormalities. Patients with the inherited form also appear to be at increased risk for secondary nonocular malignancies such as osteosarcoma, malignant fibrous histiocytoma, and fibrosarcoma.", + "Retinoblastoma, spontaneously regressed": "This term applies to a retinoblastoma which has regressed spontaneously. Histologic examination of the tumor reveals benign-appearing tumor cells, with no evidence of nuclear atypia, pleomorphism, or rosettes formation. There is a well-vascularized stroma which contains calcifications.", + "Retinoblastoma, undifferentiated": "A retinoblastoma composed of small, undifferentiated cells. It is often associated with necrotic changes.", + "Retinocytoma": "A rare, unilateral or bilateral benign retinal neoplasm. Since there is a risk of malignant transformation to retinoblastoma, patients should be closely observed.", + "Retroperitoneal fibromatosis": "An insidious poorly circumscribed neoplasm arising from the deep soft tissues of the abdomen. It is characterized by the presence of elongated spindle-shaped fibroblasts, collagenous stroma formation, and an infiltrative growth pattern.", + "Rhabdoid meningioma": "A WHO grade III meningioma characterized by the predominant presence of rhabdoid cells forming sheets.", + "Rhabdoid sarcoma": "An aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm usually occurring during childhood. It is characterized by the presence of large cells with abundant cytoplasm, large eccentric nucleus, and a prominent nucleolus and it is associated with abnormalities of chromosome 22. It can arise from the central nervous system, kidney, and the soft tissues. The prognosis is poor.", + "Rhabdoid tumor, NOS": "An aggressive malignant embryonal neoplasm usually occurring during childhood. It is characterized by the presence of large cells with abundant cytoplasm, large eccentric nucleus, and a prominent nucleolus and it is associated with abnormalities of chromosome 22. It can arise from the central nervous system, kidney, and the soft tissues. The prognosis is poor.", + "Rhabdomyoma, NOS": "A benign mesenchymal tumor arising from skeletal or cardiac muscle.", + "Rhabdomyosarcoma with ganglionic differentiation": "An aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the nervous system or soft tissues. It is characterized by the presence of a sarcomatous component (most often rhabdomyosarcoma) and a ganglionic or a neuroectodermal component.", + "Rhabdomyosarcoma, NOS": "A rare aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. It usually occurs in children and young adults. Only a small percentage of tumors arise in the skeletal muscle of the extremities. The majority arise in other anatomic sites.", + "Rhabdosarcoma": "A rare aggressive malignant mesenchymal neoplasm arising from skeletal muscle. It usually occurs in children and young adults. Only a small percentage of tumors arise in the skeletal muscle of the extremities. The majority arise in other anatomic sites.", + "Rodent ulcer": "A type of basal cell carcinoma of the skin. It appears as a flesh-colored papule with telangiectatic vessels on its surface. It grows slowly; as it enlarges it becomes necrotic forming a central ulcer with raised borders.", + "Rosette-forming glioneuronal tumor": "A central nervous system neoplasm mostly occurring in the fourth ventricle region. It is characterized by the presence of neurocytes forming pseudorosettes and astrocytes which contain Rosenthal fibers. Cytologic atypia is minimal.", + "Round cell carcinoma": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of small malignant cells which are often said to resemble \"oat cells\" under the microscope. Small cell carcinoma most often affects the lungs. Clinically, this is often a rapidly growing cancer that spreads to distant sites early.", + "Round cell liposarcoma": "A poorly differentiated liposarcoma, characterized by the presence of solid sheets of primitive round mesenchymal cells and the absence of myxoid stroma.", + "Round cell osteosarcoma": "An osteosarcoma usually arising from the metaphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of small cells and osteoid production. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "Round cell sarcoma": "", + "Salivary duct carcinoma": "An aggressive, high grade adenocarcinoma that arises from the salivary glands. It usually affects elderly males and presents as a rapidly enlarging mass. It metastasizes to regional lymph nodes and distant anatomic sites.", + "SALT lymphoma": "A low-grade, extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the skin. It usually presents with multifocal papular or nodular lesions in the arms or trunk. It rarely disseminates to internal organs or progresses to high grade lymphoma.", + "Sarcoma botryoides": "A morphologic variant of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma arising from organs with a mucosal epithelial surface. It is characterized by the formation of a cambium layer in the affected tissue and polypoid nodules within an abundant myxoid stroma.", + "Sarcoma, NOS": "A usually aggressive malignant neoplasm of the soft tissue or bone. It arises from muscle, fat, fibrous tissue, bone, cartilage, and blood vessels. Sarcomas occur in both children and adults. The prognosis depends largely on the degree of differentiation (grade) of the neoplasm. Representative subtypes are liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, osteosarcoma, and chondrosarcoma.", + "Sarcomatoid carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle cells and anaplastic morphologic features. Giant cells and a sarcomatous component may also be present.", + "Sarcomatoid mesothelioma": "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells. Anaplastic morphologic features and multinucleated malignant cells may also be seen.", + "Sarcomatosis, NOS": "The occurrence of several sarcomas in different anatomic locations.", + "Schmincke tumor": "A nonkeratinizing carcinoma which occurs predominantly in the nasopharynx but also in the tonsils and rarely in other anatomic sites. It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, syncytial growth pattern, and a lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate.", + "Schneiderian carcinoma": "A squamous cell carcinoma of the sinonasal tract characterized by a plexiform or ribbon-like growth pattern, cytological atypia, and lack of histological evidence of keratinization.", + "Schneiderian papilloma, inverted": "A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. It results from the invagination and proliferation of epithelial cells in the underlying stroma. Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and anosmia. It has the tendency to recur and extend to adjacent structures. Inverted papillomas are occasionally associated with the development or presence of carcinomas, usually squamous cell carcinomas.", + "Schneiderian papilloma, NOS": "A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It is classified as inverted papilloma, oncocytic papilloma, and exophytic papilloma. Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and anosmia.", + "Schwannoma, NOS": "A benign, usually encapsulated slow growing tumor composed of Schwann cells. It affects peripheral and cranial nerves. It recurs infrequently and only rare cases associated with malignant transformation have been reported.", + "Scirrhous adenocarcinoma": "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of desmoplastic stromal reaction.", + "Scirrhous carcinoma": "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of desmoplastic stromal reaction.", + "Sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma": "A well-circumscribed rare morphologic variant of fibrosarcoma, that arises from the soft tissue. It is characterized by the presence of nests of malignant epithelioid fibroblasts and sclerotic collagen stroma formation.", + "Sclerosing hemangioma": "A solitary, slowly growing, nodular tumor most often affecting the extremities. It is composed of fibrous and histiocytic cells which infiltrate the dermis and occasionally the underlying subcutaneous tissue. Usually local excision is curative. Recurrences are reported only in a small minority of cases.", + "Sclerosing hepatic carcinoma": "An uncommon type of hepatocelluar carcinoma, morphologically characterized by significant fibrosis around the sinusoid-like spaces and atrophy of the tumor trabeculae.", + "Sclerosing liposarcoma": "A morphologic variant of well differentiated liposarcoma occurring most often in the retroperitoneum and paratesticular area. It is characterized by the presence of bizarre hyperchromatic stromal cells and rare multivacuolated lipoblasts within a fibrous stroma.", + "Sclerosing rhabdomyosarcoma": "An uncommon variant of rhabdomyosarcoma with sclerosing morphology. It usually arises from the limbs.", + "Sclerosing stromal tumor": "A benign ovarian stromal tumor characterized by the presence of cellular areas which contain fibroblasts and round cells. The cellular areas are separated by sclerotic or edematous hypocellular tissue. Symptoms include abdominal discomfort and menstrual abnormalities.", + "Sclerosing sweat duct carcinoma": "A low grade adenocarcinoma with ductal differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a scar usually in the face. It is characterized by the formation of small ducts and it frequently involves nerves and perineural spaces.", + "Sebaceous adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma with sebaceous differentiation. It presents as a painless mass and it may be multifocal. It grows in the ocular adnexae and in the skin of head and neck, trunk, genitals, and extremities. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with multivesicular and clear cytoplasm. It may recur and metastasize.", + "Sebaceous adenoma": "A benign, well circumscribed neoplasm arising from the sebaceous glands. It usually presents as a small yellowish tumor in the sun exposed skin of head and neck. It is characterized by the presence of sebaceous cells aggregates with a peripheral rim of basaloid cells.", + "Sebaceous carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma with sebaceous differentiation. It presents as a painless mass and it may be multifocal. It grows in the ocular adnexae and in the skin of head and neck, trunk, genitals, and extremities. It is characterized by the presence of malignant cells with multivesicular and clear cytoplasm. It may recur and metastasize.", + "Sebaceous epithelioma": "A basal cell carcinoma of the skin that is characterized by sebaceous differentiation.", + "Secondary carcinoma": "A carcinoma that arises from a pre-existing lower grade epithelial lesion, or as a result of a primary carcinoma that has spread to secondary sites, or due to a complication of a cancer treatment.", + "Secretory carcinoma of breast": "A rare, low grade invasive adenocarcinoma of the breast characterized by the presence of cells that secrete milk-like material. Morphologically, it usually appears as a circumscribed lesion, composed of cystic spaces, tubular structures, and solid areas.", + "Secretory meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of epithelial differentiation and numerous intracellular PAS positive bodies that are rich in glycogen.", + "Seminoma with high mitotic index": "A seminoma of the testis characterized by increased cellular pleomorphism, high mitotic activity, and a non-prominent stromal lymphocytic infiltrate.", + "Seminoma, anaplastic": "A seminoma of the testis characterized by increased cellular pleomorphism, high mitotic activity, and a non-prominent stromal lymphocytic infiltrate.", + "Seminoma, NOS": "A radiosensitive malignant germ cell tumor found in the testis (especially undescended), and extragonadal sites (anterior mediastinum and pineal gland). It is characterized by the presence of uniform cells with clear or dense cytoplasm which contains glycogen, and by a large nucleus which contains one or more nucleoli. The neoplastic germ cells form aggregates separated by fibrous septa. The fibrous septa contain chronic inflammatory cells, mainly lymphocytes.", + "Seromucinous carcinoma": "A malignant mixed epithelial neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed predominantly of serous and endocervical-type mucinous epithelium.", + "Serotonin producing carcinoid": "", + "Serous adenocarcinofibroma": "", + "Serous adenocarcinoma, NOS": "A malignant serous cystic neoplasm usually involving the ovary or the pancreas. It is characterized by the presence of invasive malignant glandular epithelial cells which often form papillary structures.", + "Serous adenofibroma of borderline malignancy": "", + "Serous adenofibroma, NOS": "A benign or borderline adenofibroma characterized by the presence of serous secretory cells and minute cystic spaces filled with watery fluid. A representative example is the ovarian serous adenofibroma.", + "Serous borderline tumor-micropapillary variant": "A non-invasive serous neoplasm that arises from the ovary and shows micropapillary and/or cribriform architectural patterns. It is composed of round epithelial cells with scant cytoplasm and moderate nuclear atypia.", + "Serous carcinoma, NOS": "A malignant serous cystic neoplasm usually involving the ovary or the pancreas. It is characterized by the presence of invasive malignant glandular epithelial cells which often form papillary structures.", + "Serous cystadenocarcinofibroma": "", + "Serous cystadenocarcinoma, NOS": "A malignant serous cystic neoplasm usually involving the ovary or the pancreas. It is characterized by the presence of invasive malignant glandular epithelial cells which often form papillary structures.", + "Serous cystadenofibroma of borderline malignancy": "", + "Serous cystadenofibroma, NOS": "", + "Serous cystadenoma, borderline malignancy": "A serous cystic glandular epithelial neoplasm of low malignant potential. It is characterized by the presence of atypical or malignant glandular epithelial cells with an absence of stromal invasion.", + "Serous cystadenoma, NOS": "A serous neoplasm in which the cysts and papillae are lined by a single layer of cells without atypia, architectural complexity or invasion.", + "Serous cystoma": "A serous neoplasm in which the cysts and papillae are lined by a single layer of cells without atypia, architectural complexity or invasion.", + "Serous endometrial intraepithelial carcinoma": "A precursor of endometrial serous adenocarcinoma characterized by the replacement of the normal endometrial cells by malignant glandular cells that resemble the malignant cells of invasive serous adenocarcinoma. The endometrial neoplastic process is non-invasive. It may coexist with invasive endometrial adenocarcinoma or can be associated with metastases outside the uterus, in the absence of invasive endometrial carcinoma.", + "Serous microcystic adenoma": "A serous neoplasm in which the cysts and papillae are lined by a single layer of cells without atypia, architectural complexity or invasion.", + "Serous papillary cystic tumor of borderline malignancy": "A low malignant potential cystic serous epithelial neoplasm arising from the ovary. Cases with identical morphology have been described arising from the peritoneum as well. It is characterized by an atypical epithelial proliferation and a papillary growth pattern. There is no evidence of destructive stromal invasion.", + "Serous surface papillary carcinoma": "An invasive serous adenocarcinoma arising from the ovary and rarely the peritoneum. Morphologically, it may be a well, moderately, or poorly differentiated neoplasm. It is characterized by a papillary growth pattern often associated with the presence of psammoma bodies.", + "Serous surface papillary tumor of borderline malignancy": "", + "Serous surface papilloma": "A non-invasive papillary serous epithelial neoplasm usually arising from the ovary.", + "Serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma": "A non-invasive serous carcinoma arising from the fallopian tube.", + "Serous tumor, NOS, of low malignant potential": "A serous cystic glandular epithelial neoplasm of low malignant potential. It is characterized by the presence of atypical or malignant glandular epithelial cells with an absence of stromal invasion.", + "Serrated adenocarcinoma": "", + "Serrated adenoma": "An adenoma that arises from the large intestine and the appendix. It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands and the presence of generalized low-grade dysplasia.", + "Sertoli cell adenoma": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. In males, the presenting symptom is a slow growing testicular mass. Most cases follow a benign clinical course. In females it may present with estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "Sertoli cell carcinoma": "", + "Sertoli cell tumor with lipid storage": "", + "Sertoli cell tumor, NOS": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. In males, the presenting symptom is a slow growing testicular mass. Most cases follow a benign clinical course. In females it may present with estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor of intermediate differentiation": "", + "Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, intermediate differentiation, with heterologous elements": "", + "Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, NOS": "A benign or malignant sex cord-stromal tumor arising from the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of neoplastic Leydig cells. Signs and symptoms include hirsutism, menorrhagia and metrorrhagia. It may be associated with trisomy 8.", + "Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, poorly differentiated": "", + "Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, poorly differentiated, with heterologous elements": "", + "Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, retiform": "", + "Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, retiform, with heterologous elements": "", + "Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, sarcomatoid": "", + "Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, well differentiated": "", + "Sessile serrated adenoma": "A polyp that arises from the large intestine and the appendix. It is characterized by the presence of serrated glands and the absence of generalized dysplasia. Some authors have suggested that it is a precursor lesion for some colorectal adenocarcinomas with microsatellite instability.", + "Sessile serrated polyp": "A polyp that arises from the large intestine and the appendix. It is characterized by the presence of serrated glands and the absence of generalized dysplasia. Some authors have suggested that it is a precursor lesion for some colorectal adenocarcinomas with microsatellite instability.", + "SETTLE": "A rare, slow growing, primary malignant tumor of the thyroid gland characterized by a lobulated architectural pattern and the presence of a biphasic cellular population composed of spindle epithelial cells and glandular cells. A small number of cases are composed exclusively of spindle epithelial cells or glandular cells.", + "Sex cord tumor with annular tubules": "", + "Sex cord tumor, NOS": "A neoplasm arising in the ovary or testis. It is composed of granulosa cells, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, and fibroblasts. Each of these cell types may constitute the only cellular component that is present in the neoplasm or it may be mixed with other cell types in various combinations. The prognosis can not always be predicted on histologic grounds alone. Approximately, 10% of these tumors may metastasize. Representative examples include granulosa cell tumor, Leydig cell tumor, Sertoli cell tumor, and tumors of the thecoma-fibroma group.", + "Sex cord-gonadal stromal tumor, incompletely differentiated": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis in which the neoplastic cells do not show specific differentiation.", + "Sex cord-gonadal stromal tumor, mixed forms": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis which may contain any combination of cell types, for example Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, and granulosa cells. Symptoms include testicular swelling and gynecomastia.", + "Sex cord-gonadal stromal tumor, NOS": "A benign or malignant neoplasm that arises from the ovary and is composed of granulosa cells, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, theca cells, and fibroblasts. Representative examples include thecoma, fibroma, Sertoli cell tumor, and granulosa cell tumor.", + "Sezary disease": "A generalized peripheral (mature) T-cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, and neoplastic, cerebriform T-lymphocytes in the blood. Sezary syndrome is an aggressive disease. (WHO, 2001)", + "Sezary syndrome": "A generalized peripheral (mature) T-cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, and neoplastic, cerebriform T-lymphocytes in the blood. Sezary syndrome is an aggressive disease. (WHO, 2001)", + "Sialoblastoma": "", + "Signet ring cell adenocarcinoma": "A usually aggressive, poorly differentiated invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells in which the nucleus is pressed to one side by the presence of intracytoplasmic mucus. It may arise from the stomach, small and large intestine, ampulla of Vater, appendix, gallbladder, pancreas, lung, bladder, breast, and prostate gland.", + "Signet ring cell carcinoma": "A usually aggressive, poorly differentiated invasive adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant glandular cells in which the nucleus is pressed to one side by the presence of intracytoplasmic mucus. It may arise from the stomach, small and large intestine, ampulla of Vater, appendix, gallbladder, pancreas, lung, bladder, breast, and prostate gland.", + "Sinonasal papilloma, exophytic": "A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It is classified as inverted papilloma, oncocytic papilloma, and exophytic papilloma. Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and anosmia.", + "Sinonasal papilloma, fungiform": "A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It is classified as inverted papilloma, oncocytic papilloma, and exophytic papilloma. Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and anosmia.", + "Sinonasal papilloma, NOS": "A benign neoplasm that arises from the ciliated respiratory mucosa that lines the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. It is classified as inverted papilloma, oncocytic papilloma, and exophytic papilloma. Clinical manifestations include nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and anosmia.", + "Skin appendage adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sebaceous or sweat glands. Representative examples include sebaceous adenoma, tubular apocrine adenoma, and hidradenoma.", + "Skin appendage carcinoma": "A carcinoma arising from the sebaceous glands, sweat glands, or the hair follicles. Representative examples include sebaceous carcinoma, apocrine carcinoma, eccrine carcinoma, and pilomatrical carcinoma.", + "Skin appendage tumor, benign": "A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the hair follicles, sebaceous glands, or sweat glands. Representative examples include cylindroma, hidrocystoma, hidradenoma, and sebaceoma.", + "Skin-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma": "A low-grade, extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue that arises from the skin. It usually presents with multifocal papular or nodular lesions in the arms or trunk. It rarely disseminates to internal organs or progresses to high grade lymphoma.", + "Small cell carcinoma pulmonary type": "An aggressive small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma that arises from the ovary. Morphologically, it resembles the small cell carcinoma that arises from the lung.", + "Small cell carcinoma, fusiform cell": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of malignant fusiform small cells.", + "Small cell carcinoma, hypercalcemic type": "An undifferentiated small cell carcinoma that arises from the ovary and is associated with hypercalcemia. Electron microscopic studies show neurosecretory granules are either absent or, when present, are in small numbers.", + "Small cell carcinoma, intermediate cell": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of malignant small cells of intermediate shape.", + "Small cell carcinoma, NOS": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of small malignant cells which are often said to resemble \"oat cells\" under the microscope. Small cell carcinoma most often affects the lungs. Clinically, this is often a rapidly growing cancer that spreads to distant sites early.", + "Small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma": "A neuroendocrine carcinoma composed of small malignant cells which are often said to resemble \"oat cells\" under the microscope. Small cell carcinoma most often affects the lungs. Clinically, this is often a rapidly growing cancer that spreads to distant sites early.", + "Small cell osteosarcoma": "An osteosarcoma usually arising from the metaphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of small cells and osteoid production. The prognosis is usually unfavorable.", + "Small cell sarcoma": "A sarcoma characterized by the presence of small round or elongated malignant cells with a small amount of cytoplasm.", + "Small congenital nevus": "", + "Smooth muscle tumor of uncertain malignant potential": "A benign or malignant myomatous neoplasm arising from smooth muscle.", + "Smooth muscle tumor, NOS": "A benign or malignant myomatous neoplasm arising from smooth muscle.", + "Soft tissue perineurioma": "A perineurioma not associated with a nerve, arising from the soft tissues.", + "Soft tissue sarcoma": "A malignant neoplasm arising from muscle tissue, adipose tissue, blood vessels, fibrous tissue, or other supportive tissues excluding the bones.", + "Soft tissue tumor, benign": "A non-metastasizing neoplasm that arises from the soft tissue.", + "Soft tissue tumor, malignant": "A malignant neoplasm arising exclusively from the soft tissues.", + "Solid adenocarcinoma with mucin formation": "", + "Solid and cystic tumor": "A benign, malignant, or borderline epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillary mucinous, serous, or clear cell structures and cystic structures.", + "Solid and papillary epithelial neoplasm": "A benign, malignant, or borderline epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillary mucinous, serous, or clear cell structures and cystic structures.", + "Solid carcinoma with mucin formation": "", + "Solid carcinoma, NOS": "A carcinoma morphologically characterized by the presence of solid sheets of malignant epithelial cells in tissues.", + "Solid papillary carcinoma in situ": "A well circumscribed, low grade neoplasm that arises from the breast. It is characterized by the presence of sheets of malignant epithelial cells that are supported by fibrovascular structures. When there is an invasive component present, it is usually a mucinous carcinoma.", + "Solid papillary carcinoma with invasion": "", + "Solid pseudopapillary carcinoma": "", + "Solid pseudopapillary tumor": "A benign, malignant, or borderline epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of papillary mucinous, serous, or clear cell structures and cystic structures.", + "Solid teratoma": "A non-seminomatous germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of various tissues which correspond to the different germinal layers (endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm). It occurs in the testis, ovary, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system, mediastinum, lung, and stomach. According to the level of differentiation of the tissues which comprise the tumor, teratomas are classified as benign (grade 0 or 1), immature (grade 2), and malignant (grade 3). Grade 0 teratomas contain only mature elements; grade 1 teratomas have a limited degree of immaturity; grade 2 teratomas have a more extensive degree of immaturity; grade 3 teratomas are composed exclusively of immature tissues. The prognosis depends on patient age, tumor size and grade, and stage.", + "Solitary fibrous tumor": "A localized neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation. It is characterized by the presence of round to spindle-shaped cells, hylanized stroma formation, thin-walled branching blood vessels, and thin bands of collagen.", + "Solitary fibrous tumor, malignant": "A malignant neoplasm of probable fibroblastic derivation. It is characterized by the presence of atypical round to spindle-shaped cells, increased cellularity, necrotic change and high mitotic activity.", + "Solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma Grade 1 (CNS)": "A solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma that arises from the central nervous system. It corresponds most often to the collagenous and low cellularity spindle cell tumor which was diagnosed as central nervous system solitary fibrous tumor in the past.", + "Solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma Grade 2 (CNS)": "A solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma that arises from the central nervous system. It corresponds to the more cellular, less collagenous tumor with plump cells and staghorn vasculature which was diagnosed as central nervous system hemangiopericytoma in the past.", + "Solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma Grade 3 (CNS)": "A solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma that arises from the central nervous system. It most often corresponds to the tumor previously diagnosed as anaplastic hemangiopericytoma.", + "Solitary mastocytoma of skin": "Solitary Mastocytoma of the Skin", + "Solitary myeloma": "A localized clonal (malignant) plasma cell infiltrate either in the bony skeleton or soft tissue without peripheral blood involvement.", + "Solitary plasmacytoma": "A localized clonal (malignant) plasma cell infiltrate either in the bony skeleton or soft tissue without peripheral blood involvement.", + "Somatostatin cell tumor, malignant": "A malignant neuroendocrine tumor arising from delta cells which produce somatostatin. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Somatostatin cell tumor, NOS": "A rare, usually malignant neuroendocrine tumor arizing from delta cells. This neoplasm produces large amounts of somatostatin, which may result in a syndrome characterized by diarrhea, steatorrhea, weight loss, and gastric hyposecretion. Sixty percent are found in the pancreas and 40% in the duodenum or jejunum. The peak incidence occurs between 40 and 60 years of age; women are affected more than men by 2:1.", + "Somatostatinoma, malignant": "A malignant neuroendocrine tumor arising from delta cells which produce somatostatin. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Somatostatinoma, NOS": "A rare, usually malignant neuroendocrine tumor arizing from delta cells. This neoplasm produces large amounts of somatostatin, which may result in a syndrome characterized by diarrhea, steatorrhea, weight loss, and gastric hyposecretion. Sixty percent are found in the pancreas and 40% in the duodenum or jejunum. The peak incidence occurs between 40 and 60 years of age; women are affected more than men by 2:1.", + "Spermatocytic seminoma": "A testicular germ cell tumor derived from postpubertal-type germ cells. It is characterized by the presence of three cell types: round cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, small cells with dark nucleus and a small amount of cytoplasm, and mono-or multinucleated giant cells. The neoplastic cells are not cohesive. There is an edematous stroma present; lymphocytic infiltrates are rarely seen. Most patients are older males.", + "Spermatocytoma": "A testicular germ cell tumor derived from postpubertal-type germ cells. It is characterized by the presence of three cell types: round cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, small cells with dark nucleus and a small amount of cytoplasm, and mono-or multinucleated giant cells. The neoplastic cells are not cohesive. There is an edematous stroma present; lymphocytic infiltrates are rarely seen. Most patients are older males.", + "Spindle cell angioendothelioma": "A hemangioma characterized by the presence of spindle endothelial cells.", + "Spindle cell carcinoma, NOS": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle cells and anaplastic morphologic features. Giant cells and a sarcomatous component may also be present.", + "Spindle cell hemangioendothelioma": "A hemangioma characterized by the presence of spindle endothelial cells.", + "Spindle cell lipoma": "A benign circumscribed tumor composed of spindled cells, adipocytes, and collagen bundles. There is no evidence of nuclear hyperchromasia or mitotic activity.", + "Spindle cell melanoma, NOS": "A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes.", + "Spindle cell melanoma, type A": "A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with slender nuclei and no visible nucleoli. Representative example is the type A spindle cell uveal melanoma.", + "Spindle cell melanoma, type B": "A melanoma characterized by the presence of malignant spindle-shaped melanocytes with larger nuclei and distinct nucleoli. Representative example is the type B spindle cell uveal melanoma.", + "Spindle cell nevus, NOS": "A benign, acquired or congenital, usually single skin lesion. It can occur on any area of the body, but most commonly occurs on the face of children and the thighs of young females. It is characterized by a proliferation of large spindle, oval, or large epithelioid melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction. The melanocytic proliferation subsequently extends into the dermis.", + "Spindle cell oncocytoma": "A very rare, WHO grade I neoplasm of the posterior pituitary. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells with eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm forming fascicles. Electron microscopic studies demonstrate the accumulation of intracytoplasmic mitochondria and lack of secretory granules. Immunohistochemical studies are negative for pituitary hormones. Patients may present with pituitary hypofunction, visual disturbances, headache, nausea and vomiting. The clinical course is usually benign.", + "Spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma": "An uncommon variant of rhabdomyosarcoma characterized by the presence of whorls of spindle cells forming a storiform pattern. In children it usually arises in the paratesticular region. In adults it usually arises from the deep soft tissues in the head and neck.", + "Spindle cell sarcoma": "A malignant mesenchymal neoplasm composed of spindle-shaped cells. This is a morphologic term which can be applied to a wide range of sarcomas.", + "Spindle epithelial tumor with thymus-like differentiation": "A rare, slow growing, primary malignant tumor of the thyroid gland characterized by a lobulated architectural pattern and the presence of a biphasic cellular population composed of spindle epithelial cells and glandular cells. A small number of cases are composed exclusively of spindle epithelial cells or glandular cells.", + "Spindle epithelial tumor with thymus-like element": "A rare, slow growing, primary malignant tumor of the thyroid gland characterized by a lobulated architectural pattern and the presence of a biphasic cellular population composed of spindle epithelial cells and glandular cells. A small number of cases are composed exclusively of spindle epithelial cells or glandular cells.", + "Spindled mesothelioma": "A malignant neoplasm arising from mesothelial cells. It is characterized by the presence of spindle cells. Anaplastic morphologic features and multinucleated malignant cells may also be seen.", + "Spiradenoma, NOS": "A benign epithelial neoplasm with eccrine or apocrine differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It usually presents as a solitary, well circumscribed, firm nodule in the face and upper trunk. It is characterized by the presence of basaloid cells forming nodules in the dermis. Cases of carcinoma arising from long standing spiradenomas have been reported.", + "Spitz nevus": "A benign, acquired or congenital, usually single skin lesion. It can occur on any area of the body, but most commonly occurs on the face of children and the thighs of young females. It is characterized by a proliferation of large spindle, oval, or large epithelioid melanocytes in the dermal-epidermal junction. The melanocytic proliferation subsequently extends into the dermis.", + "Splenic B-cell lymphoma/leukemia, unclassifiable": "A small B-cell clonal lymphoproliferative disorder of the spleen that does not fall into any of the other categories of mature B-cell neoplasms.", + "Splenic diffuse red pulp small B-cell lymphoma": "An uncommon, indolent B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small B-lymphocytes involving the red pulp of the spleen, bone marrow, and peripheral blood. Patients often have massive splenomegaly. The peripheral blood examination reveals villous lymphocytes.", + "Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes": "", + "Splenic marginal zone B-cell lymphoma": "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small lymphocytes which surround and replace the splenic white pulp germinal centers. It involves the spleen and splenic hilar lymph nodes, bone marrow, and often the peripheral blood. When lymphoma cells are present in the peripheral blood, they are usually, but not always, characterized by the presence of short polar villi. (WHO)", + "Splenic marginal zone lymphoma, NOS": "A B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma composed of small lymphocytes which surround and replace the splenic white pulp germinal centers. It involves the spleen and splenic hilar lymph nodes, bone marrow, and often the peripheral blood. When lymphoma cells are present in the peripheral blood, they are usually, but not always, characterized by the presence of short polar villi. (WHO)", + "Spongioblastoma multiforme": "The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade IV). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and it is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. It may develop from diffuse astrocytoma WHO grade II or anaplastic astrocytoma (secondary glioblastoma, IDH-mutant), but more frequently, it manifests after a short clinical history de novo, without evidence of a less malignant precursor lesion (primary glioblastoma, IDH- wildtype). (Adapted from WHO)", + "Spongioblastoma polare": "A lesion characterized by the presence of neoplastic neuroepithelial cells with palisading nuclei. This lesion implies a morphologic growth pattern and it is not considered a clinicopathological entity.", + "Spongioblastoma, NOS": "", + "Spongioneuroblastoma": "A neuroectodermal tumor composed of neoplastic neural elements.", + "Squamotransitional cell carcinoma": "A human papillomavirus-related cervical squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of papillary structures with fibrovascular cores. It is covered with multiple layers of atypical cells that resemble cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 3.", + "Squamous carcinoma": "A carcinoma arising from squamous epithelial cells. Morphologically, it is characterized by the proliferation of atypical, often pleomorphic squamous cells. Squamous cell carcinomas are graded by the degree of cellular differentiation as well, moderately, or poorly differentiated. Well differentiated carcinomas are usually associated with keratin production and the presence of intercellular bridges between adjacent cells. Representative examples are lung squamous cell carcinoma, skin squamous cell carcinoma, and cervical squamous cell carcinoma.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma in situ with questionable stromal invasion": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm involving all the layers of the squamous epithelium, but it is not certain if it is confined to the squamous epithelium or it has invaded the basement membrane and the underlying stroma.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma in situ, NOS": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm confined to the squamous epithelium, without invasion of the underlying tissues.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma with horn formation": "A keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of horn pearls. Representative examples include squamous cell carcinomas of the face presenting as a cutaneous horn.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, acantholytic": "A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the formation of gland-like structures.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, adenoid": "A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the formation of gland-like structures.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, clear cell type": "A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with clear cytoplasm.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, HPV-negative": "", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, HPV-positive": "Human Papillomavirus-Related Squamous Cell Carcinoma", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, keratinizing, NOS": "Squamous cell carcinomas with morphologically prominent production of keratin.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, large cell, keratinizing": "Squamous cell carcinomas with morphologically prominent production of keratin.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, large cell, nonkeratinizing, NOS": "A squamous cell carcinoma composed of large atypical cells, without morphologic evidence of keratin production.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, metastatic, NOS": "A carcinoma that arises from squamous cells and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, microinvasive": "A squamous cell carcinoma with minimal stromal invasion.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, nonkeratinizing, NOS": "A squamous cell carcinoma composed of large atypical cells, without morphologic evidence of keratin production.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, NOS": "A carcinoma arising from squamous epithelial cells. Morphologically, it is characterized by the proliferation of atypical, often pleomorphic squamous cells. Squamous cell carcinomas are graded by the degree of cellular differentiation as well, moderately, or poorly differentiated. Well differentiated carcinomas are usually associated with keratin production and the presence of intercellular bridges between adjacent cells. Representative examples are lung squamous cell carcinoma, skin squamous cell carcinoma, and cervical squamous cell carcinoma.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, pseudoglandular": "A squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the formation of gland-like structures.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, sarcomatoid": "A poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with spindle cell features.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, small cell, nonkeratinizing": "A squamous cell carcinoma composed of small atypical cells, without morphologic evidence of keratin production.", + "Squamous cell carcinoma, spindle cell": "A poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with spindle cell features.", + "Squamous cell epithelioma": "A carcinoma arising from squamous epithelial cells. Morphologically, it is characterized by the proliferation of atypical, often pleomorphic squamous cells. Squamous cell carcinomas are graded by the degree of cellular differentiation as well, moderately, or poorly differentiated. Well differentiated carcinomas are usually associated with keratin production and the presence of intercellular bridges between adjacent cells. Representative examples are lung squamous cell carcinoma, skin squamous cell carcinoma, and cervical squamous cell carcinoma.", + "Squamous cell papilloma, inverted": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by an endophytic growth, papillary pattern, and proliferation of neoplastic squamous cells without morphologic evidence of malignancy.", + "Squamous cell papilloma, NOS": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern and a proliferation of neoplastic squamous cells without morphologic evidence of malignancy. Most frequently it arises in the oral cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, esophagus, vagina, and vulva.", + "Squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, grade I": "A precancerous neoplastic process characterized by the presence of mild dysplastic cytological changes which are usually present in the lower part of the squamous epithelium. Representative examples include the low grade esophageal squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, and low grade vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia.", + "Squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, grade II": "Grade II Squamous Intraepithelial Neoplasia", + "Squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, grade III": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm confined to the squamous epithelium, without invasion of the underlying tissues.", + "Squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade": "A precancerous neoplastic process characterized by the presence of moderate or severe dysplastic cytological changes which extend to the upper part of the squamous epithelium. Maturation at the surface of the squamous epithelium may or may not be present. Representative examples include the high grade esophageal squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, high grade vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, and high grade vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia.", + "Squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade": "A precancerous neoplastic process characterized by the presence of mild dysplastic cytological changes which are usually present in the lower part of the squamous epithelium. Representative examples include the low grade esophageal squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade cervical squamous intraepithelial neoplasia, low grade vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, and low grade vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia.", + "Squamous odontogenic tumor": "A rare, locally invasive neoplasm arising from tooth-forming tissues. It usually grows intraosseously in the mandible. The maxilla is less frequently involved. It is characterized by the presence of well differentiated squamous cells which form islands. Recurrences may rarely occur and probably are related to incomplete excision of the tumor.", + "Squamous papilloma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern and a proliferation of neoplastic squamous cells without morphologic evidence of malignancy. Most frequently it arises in the oral cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, esophagus, vagina, and vulva.", + "Squamous papillomatosis": "A benign squamous neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern, diffusely involving a specific anatomic site.", + "Stem cell leukemia": "A rare acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage in which the blasts do not express markers specific to myeloid or lymphoid lineage.", + "Steroid cell tumor, malignant": "", + "Steroid cell tumor, NOS": "An ovarian tumor in which the vast majority of the cells (more than 90% of the tumor cells) resemble steroid hormone-secreting cells. It usually presents with androgenic manifestations. Approximately one-third of the cases follow a malignant clinical course.", + "Stromal endometriosis": "An infiltrating mesenchymal tumor arising from the uterine corpus, cervix, vagina, and the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of oval to spindle-shape cells that resemble the cells of the endometrial stroma, without evidence of significant atypia and pleomorphism. Numerous small vessels are also present. It is usually characterized by indolent growth and late recurrences.", + "Stromal myosis, NOS": "An infiltrating mesenchymal tumor arising from the uterine corpus, cervix, vagina, and the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of oval to spindle-shape cells that resemble the cells of the endometrial stroma, without evidence of significant atypia and pleomorphism. Numerous small vessels are also present. It is usually characterized by indolent growth and late recurrences.", + "Stromal sarcoma, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the presence of atypical mesenchymal-stromal cells. Representative examples include endometrial stromal sarcoma and prostate stromal sarcoma.", + "Stromal tumor with minor sex cord elements": "A rare, benign sex cord-stromal tumor of the ovary characterized by the presence of a fibrothecomatous stroma and scattered sex cord elements. Although it is usually hormonally inactive, cases associated with endometrial hyperplasia or adenocarcinoma have been reported.", + "Stromal tumor, benign": "A benign neoplasm composed of mesenchymal stromal cells without evidence of cellular atypia.", + "Stromal tumor, NOS": "A benign or malignant mesenchymal neoplasm composed of stromal cells. Representative examples include gastrointestinal stromal tumor, endometrial stromal sarcoma, and prostate stromal sarcoma.", + "Struma ovarii and carcinoid": "An ovarian neoplasm characterized by the presence of aberrant thyroid tissue and a carcinoid tumor. A minority of patients develop symptoms of functioning thyroid tissue. The neuroendocrine carcinoid cells infiltrate the aberrant thyroid tissue and progressively replace the follicular lining cells.", + "Struma ovarii, malignant": "An ovarian mature teratoma characterized by the presence of aberrant thyroid tissue with morphologic changes identical to thyroid carcinoma. Patients may present with abdominal mass and unusual symptoms due to thyrotoxicosis, or with Meigs syndrome (ascites and pleural effusion).", + "Struma ovarii, NOS": "An ovarian mature teratoma characterized by the presence of aberrant thyroid tissue. The aberrant thyroid tissue shows morphologic changes identical to thyroid adenoma or carcinoma. Patients may present with abdominal mass and unusual symptoms due to thyrotoxicosis, or Meigs syndrome (ascites and pleural effusion).", + "Strumal carcinoid": "An ovarian neoplasm characterized by the presence of aberrant thyroid tissue and a carcinoid tumor. A minority of patients develop symptoms of functioning thyroid tissue. The neuroendocrine carcinoid cells infiltrate the aberrant thyroid tissue and progressively replace the follicular lining cells.", + "Subacute granulocytic leukemia": "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the principal involvement of the neutrophil series with leukocytosis and multilineage dysplasia. The neoplastic cells do not have a Philadelphia chromosome or the BCR/ABL fusion gene. (WHO, 2001)", + "Subacute leukemia, NOS": "", + "Subacute lymphatic leukemia": "", + "Subacute lymphocytic leukemia": "", + "Subacute lymphoid leukemia": "", + "Subacute monocytic leukemia": "", + "Subacute myelogenous leukemia": "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the principal involvement of the neutrophil series with leukocytosis and multilineage dysplasia. The neoplastic cells do not have a Philadelphia chromosome or the BCR/ABL fusion gene. (WHO, 2001)", + "Subacute myeloid leukemia": "A myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the principal involvement of the neutrophil series with leukocytosis and multilineage dysplasia. The neoplastic cells do not have a Philadelphia chromosome or the BCR/ABL fusion gene. (WHO, 2001)", + "Subareolar duct papillomatosis": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the nipple. Signs and symptoms include serous or sanguineous nipple discharge and nipple erosion. It is characterized by the presence of aggregates of small tubules replacing the nipple stroma. The tubules are lined by epithelial and myoepithelial cells.", + "Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma": "A cytotoxic primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Recent studies suggest there are at least two groups of subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphomas, each with distinct histologic features, immunophenotypic profile, and prognosis. One group has an alpha/beta, CD8 positive phenotype, involves only subcutaneous tissues, and usually has an indolent clinical course. The second group has a gamma/delta phenotype, is CD8 negative, often co-expresses CD56, is not confined to the subcutaneous tissues, and usually has a poor prognosis. In the recent WHO-EORTC classification, the term subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma is reserved for cases with an alpha/beta, CD8 positive phenotype. Cases with a gamma/delta phenotype are included in the group of cutaneous gamma/delta T-cell lymphomas.", + "Subependymal astrocytoma, NOS": "", + "Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma": "A benign, slowly growing tumor (WHO grade I) typically arising in the wall of the lateral ventricles and composed of large ganglioid astrocytes. It is the most common CNS neoplasm in patients with tuberous sclerosis complex and typically occurs during the first two decades of life. (WHO)", + "Subependymal glioma": "A benign, slow growing neoplasm which is typically attached to a ventricular wall. It is composed of glial tumor cell clusters embedded in an abundant fibrillary matrix with frequent microcystic change. Some lesions have the histological features of both subependymoma and ependymoma. It is often detected incidentally and has a very favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO.)", + "Subependymoma": "A benign, slow growing neoplasm which is typically attached to a ventricular wall. It is composed of glial tumor cell clusters embedded in an abundant fibrillary matrix with frequent microcystic change. Some lesions have the histological features of both subependymoma and ependymoma. It is often detected incidentally and has a very favorable prognosis. (Adapted from WHO.)", + "Subepidermal nodular fibrosis": "Subepidermal Nodular Fibrosis", + "Superficial spreading adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma which has spread within the mucosa without further invasion of the underlying tissues.", + "Superficial spreading melanoma": "A type of melanoma that typically occurs in light-skinned individuals ranging in age from young adults to the elderly. Risk factors include extensive sun exposure during childhood, a family history of melanoma, and the presence of dysplastic nevi.", + "Superficial well differentiated liposarcoma": "An intermediate, locally aggressive lipomatous neoplasm. Microscopically, the adipose tissue contains large and pleomorphic lipoblasts, and is dissected by fibrous septa containing spindle cells. It requires a wide local excision, may recur locally, but never metastasizes.", + "Supratentorial PNET": "A central nervous system embryonal tumor, not otherwise specified arising from the supratentorial region.", + "Sweat gland adenocarcinoma": "A carcinoma arising from the sweat glands. Representative examples include tubular carcinoma, spiradenocarcinoma, eccrine carcinoma, hidradenocarcinoma, and apocrine carcinoma.", + "Sweat gland adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm arising from the sweat glands. Representative examples include tubular apocrine adenoma, syringofibroadenoma, and hidradenoma.", + "Sweat gland carcinoma": "A carcinoma arising from the sweat glands. Representative examples include tubular carcinoma, spiradenocarcinoma, eccrine carcinoma, hidradenocarcinoma, and apocrine carcinoma.", + "Sweat gland tumor, benign": "A benign neoplasm involving the sweat gland.", + "Sweat gland tumor, malignant": "A malignant neoplasm that affects the sweat glands.", + "Sweat gland tumor, NOS": "A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from the sweat glands.", + "Sympathetic paraganglioma": "A benign or malignant paraganglioma arising from the chromaffin cells of the paraganglia that are located along the sympathetic nerves. It includes extra-adrenal paragangliomas and paragangliomas that arise from the adrenal medulla. The latter are commonly referred to as pheochromocytomas. Representative examples of extra-adrenal sympathetic paragangliomas include the bladder, and superior and inferior paraaortic paragangliomas. Clinical signs are related to the secretion of catecholamines resulting in hypertension.", + "Sympathicoblastoma": "", + "Symplastic leiomyoma": "A morphologic variant of leiomyoma characterized by the presence of pleomorphic muscle cells with bizarre hyperchromatic nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Syncytial meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the presence of tumor cells that form lobules. The tumor cells are generally uniform. Whorls and psammoma bodies are usually not present.", + "Synovial sarcoma, biphasic": "A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of both an epithelial and a spindle cell component.", + "Synovial sarcoma, epithelioid cell": "A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of an epithelial cell component only. The epithelial cells are arranged in glandular or papillary structures.", + "Synovial sarcoma, monophasic fibrous": "A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of a spindle cell component only.", + "Synovial sarcoma, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the chromosomal translocation t(X;18)(p11;q11). It can occur at any age, but mainly affects young adults, more commonly males. Although any site can be affected, the vast majority of the cases arise in the deep soft tissues of extremities, especially around the knee. Microscopically, synovial sarcoma is classified as monophasic (with a spindle or epithelial cell component) or biphasic (with both spindle and epithelial cell components). Synovial sarcomas can recur or metastasize to the lungs, bones, and lymph nodes.", + "Synovial sarcoma, spindle cell": "A synovial sarcoma characterized by the presence of a spindle cell component only.", + "Synovioma, benign": "A benign neoplasm arising from the synovial membrane. Examples include the diffuse giant cell tumor of tendon sheath and localized giant cell tumor of tendon sheath.", + "Synovioma, malignant": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the chromosomal translocation t(X;18)(p11;q11). It can occur at any age, but mainly affects young adults, more commonly males. Although any site can be affected, the vast majority of the cases arise in the deep soft tissues of extremities, especially around the knee. Microscopically, synovial sarcoma is classified as monophasic (with a spindle or epithelial cell component) or biphasic (with both spindle and epithelial cell components). Synovial sarcomas can recur or metastasize to the lungs, bones, and lymph nodes.", + "Synovioma, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm characterized by the chromosomal translocation t(X;18)(p11;q11). It can occur at any age, but mainly affects young adults, more commonly males. Although any site can be affected, the vast majority of the cases arise in the deep soft tissues of extremities, especially around the knee. Microscopically, synovial sarcoma is classified as monophasic (with a spindle or epithelial cell component) or biphasic (with both spindle and epithelial cell components). Synovial sarcomas can recur or metastasize to the lungs, bones, and lymph nodes.", + "Syringadenoma, NOS": "", + "Syringocystadenoma papilliferum": "A benign adnexal neoplasm occurring during childhood or adolescence. It usually presents as a papular lesion or a plaque on the head and neck. It may arise in an organoid nevus such as sebaceous. It is characterized by an endophytic invagination of the epithelium into the dermis. There are dermal cystic spaces present, containing villous projections. Complete excision is curative.", + "Syringofibroadenoma": "A rare, benign eccrine neoplasm usually arising on acral areas as a solitary papular or nodular lesion. Multiple lesions are referred as syringofibroadenomatosis. It is characterized by the presence of epithelial cuboidal cells forming anastomosing cords in a fibrovascular stroma.", + "Syringoma, NOS": "A benign sweat gland neoplasm usually affecting the lower eyelids and upper cheeks. The lesions are papular and are usually numerous. Morphologically, there are nests, cords, and tubules of epithelial cells present, surrounded by a dense stroma in the reticular dermis.", + "Syringomatous carcinoma": "A low grade adenocarcinoma with ductal differentiation, arising from the sweat glands. It presents as a scar usually in the face. It is characterized by the formation of small ducts and it frequently involves nerves and perineural spaces.", + "Systemic EBV positive T-cell lymphoproliferative disease of childhood": "An aggressive and life-threatening, EBV-positive T-cell lymphoma affecting children. It is more prevalent in Taiwan and Japan. Clinically, it presents with acute onset of fever and generalized malaise, followed by hepatosplenomegaly and liver failure. Morphologically it is characterized by the presence of infiltrating T-lymphocytes which are usually small and erythrophagocytosis. Most patients have a fulminant clinical course.", + "Systemic light chain disease": "A condition in which plasma cells secrete immunoglobulin light chains of only one type, kappa or lambda. Light chain deposition disease is often associated with multiple myeloma or lymphoproliferative disease, but as many as 50% of patients have no evidence of neoplastic plasma cell proliferation. Light chains excreted in the urine are known as Bence Jones protein. Amyloidosis and severe renal failure occur more frequently than in multiple myeloma. Also known as Bence Jones myeloma. L-chain disease, L-chain myeloma, and LCDD.", + "Systemic mastocytosis with AHNMD": "A disorder characterized by systemic infiltration of internal organs by aggregates of neoplastic mast cells and the presence of a clonal non-mast cell hematologic neoplasm (e.g., myelodysplastic syndrome, chronic myeloproliferative disorder, acute myeloid leukemia, and lymphoma).", + "Systemic mastocytosis with associated hematological clonal non-mast cell disorder": "A disorder characterized by systemic infiltration of internal organs by aggregates of neoplastic mast cells and the presence of a clonal non-mast cell hematologic neoplasm (e.g., myelodysplastic syndrome, chronic myeloproliferative disorder, acute myeloid leukemia, and lymphoma).", + "Systemic tissue mast cell disease": "A variant of mastocytosis characterized by multifocal, dense infiltrates of mast cells (15 or more mast cells in aggregates) detected in the bone marrow and/or other extracutaneous sites. (WHO, 2001)", + "T lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma": "A neoplasm of lymphoblasts committed to the T-cell lineage, typically composed of small to medium-sized blast cells. When the neoplasm involves predominantly the bone marrow and the peripheral blood, it is called T acute lymphoblastic leukemia. When it involves nodal or extranodal sites it is called T lymphoblastic lymphoma. (WHO, 2001)", + "T-cell large granular lymphocytic leukemia": "A T-cell peripheral neoplasm characterized by a persistent (>6 months) increase in the number of peripheral blood large granular lymphocytes, without a clearly identified cause. (WHO, 2001)", + "T-cell large granular lymphocytosis": "A T-cell peripheral neoplasm characterized by a persistent (>6 months) increase in the number of peripheral blood large granular lymphocytes, without a clearly identified cause. (WHO, 2001)", + "T-cell lymphoma, NOS": "A non-Hodgkin lymphoma of T-cell lineage. It includes the T lymphoblastic lymphoma and the mature T- and NK-cell lymphomas. -- 2003", + "T-cell rich large B-cell lymphoma": "A large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of a limited number of scattered neoplastic large B-lymphocytes which are admixed with numerous non-neoplastic T-lymphocytes and frequently histiocytes.", + "T-cell rich/histiocyte-rich large B-cell lymphoma": "A large B-cell lymphoma characterized by the presence of a limited number of scattered neoplastic large B-lymphocytes which are admixed with numerous non-neoplastic T-lymphocytes and frequently histiocytes.", + "T-gamma lymphoproliferative disease": "A T-cell peripheral neoplasm characterized by a persistent (>6 months) increase in the number of peripheral blood large granular lymphocytes, without a clearly identified cause. (WHO, 2001)", + "T-zone lymphoma": "An obsolete variant of peripheral T-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified included in the 2008 WHO classification. These lymphomas usually have a T follicular helper (TFH) cell phenotype and have been moved to the category of angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma and other nodal lymphomas of T follicular helper cell origin in the 2017 WHO update. (WHO 2017)", + "T/NK-cell lymphoma": "An aggressive, predominantly extranodal, mature T-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma. It is characterized by an often angiocentric and angiodestructive cellular infiltrate composed of EBV positive NK/T cells. The nasal cavity is the most common site of involvement. Patients often present with midfacial destructive lesions (lethal midline granuloma). The disease may disseminate rapidly to various anatomic sites including the gastrointestinal tract, skin, testis, and cervical lymph nodes. It is also known as angiocentric T-cell lymphoma. The term \"polymorphic reticulosis\" has been widely used to describe the morphologic changes seen in this type of lymphoma. However, the latter term may also apply to lymphomatoid granulomatosis, which is an angiocentric and angiodestructive EBV positive B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder.", + "Tanycytic ependymoma": "A variant of ependymoma, often found in the spinal cord, with tumor cells arranged in fascicles of variable width and cell density. Ependymal rosettes are generally absent, so this lesion must be distinguished from astrocytic neoplasms, but its EM characteristics are ependymal. (Adapted from WHO.)", + "Telangiectatic osteosarcoma": "An osteosarcoma usually arising from the metaphysis of long bones. It is characterized by the presence of a cystic architecture with blood-filled spaces. The prognosis is similar to that of conventional osteosarcoma.", + "Tenosynovial giant cell tumor": "A tumor usually arising in the synovium of joints, bursa or tendon sheath. It is characterized by the presence of mononuclear cells, multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, hemosiderin-laden macrophages, foam cells, and an inflammatory infiltrate. According to the growth pattern, it is classified as localized or diffuse.", + "Teratoblastoma, malignant": "A teratoma characterized by the presence of an extensive component of immature, fetal-type tissues.", + "Teratocarcinoma": "A germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of an embryonal carcinoma component and a teratoma component.", + "Teratoid medulloepithelioma": "", + "Teratoid medulloepithelioma, benign": "", + "Teratoma with malignant transformation": "A teratoma which is characterized by morphologic transformation to malignancy and an aggressive clinical course. The malignant component most often is sarcomatous or carcinomatous.", + "Teratoma, benign": "A teratoma which may be cystic; it is composed entirely of well differentiated, adult-type mature tissues, without evidence of fetal-type immature tissues (grade 0 teratoma).", + "Teratoma, differentiated": "A teratoma which may be cystic; it is composed entirely of well differentiated, adult-type mature tissues, without evidence of fetal-type immature tissues (grade 0 teratoma).", + "Teratoma, malignant, NOS": "A teratoma characterized by the presence of an extensive component of immature, fetal-type tissues.", + "Teratoma, NOS": "A non-seminomatous germ cell tumor characterized by the presence of various tissues which correspond to the different germinal layers (endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm). It occurs in the testis, ovary, and extragonadal sites including central nervous system, mediastinum, lung, and stomach. According to the level of differentiation of the tissues which comprise the tumor, teratomas are classified as benign (grade 0 or 1), immature (grade 2), and malignant (grade 3). Grade 0 teratomas contain only mature elements; grade 1 teratomas have a limited degree of immaturity; grade 2 teratomas have a more extensive degree of immaturity; grade 3 teratomas are composed exclusively of immature tissues. The prognosis depends on patient age, tumor size and grade, and stage.", + "Terminal duct adenocarcinoma": "", + "Testicular adenoma": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. In males, the presenting symptom is a slow growing testicular mass. Most cases follow a benign clinical course. In females it may present with estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "Testicular stromal tumor": "", + "Theca cell tumor": "An ovarian or testicular stromal tumor characterized by the presence of lipid-rich neoplastic spindle cells. In females, uterine bleeding is the most common symptom. A minority of post-menopausal women with thecoma have an associated endometrial adenocarcinoma or rarely a malignant mixed mullerian tumor or endometrial stromal sarcoma. Rare cases with nuclear atypia and mitotic activity may metastasize. In males, thecomas are rare and they usually present as slow growing, sometimes painful masses. Metastases have not been reported.", + "Theca cell-granulosa cell tumor": "A general term used to describe sex cord-stromal tumors characterized by the presence of granulosa cells in a thecomatous/fibrothecomatous background.", + "Thecoma, luteinized": "A variant of ovarian thecoma characterized by the presence of lutein cells. It is associated with a lower frequency of estrogenic manifestations compared to typical thecomas. In a minority of cases androgenic manifestations are present.", + "Thecoma, malignant": "A thecoma of the ovary which may metastasize to another anatomic site. It is usually characterized by nuclear atypia and mitotic activity. Malignant thecomas are rare.", + "Thecoma, NOS": "An ovarian or testicular stromal tumor characterized by the presence of lipid-rich neoplastic spindle cells. In females, uterine bleeding is the most common symptom. A minority of post-menopausal women with thecoma have an associated endometrial adenocarcinoma or rarely a malignant mixed mullerian tumor or endometrial stromal sarcoma. Rare cases with nuclear atypia and mitotic activity may metastasize. In males, thecomas are rare and they usually present as slow growing, sometimes painful masses. Metastases have not been reported.", + "Therapy related myeloid neoplasm": "Acute myeloid leukemias, myelodysplastic syndromes, and myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasms arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of chemotherapy agents and/or radiation that are used for the treatment of neoplastic or non-neoplastic disorders.", + "Therapy-related acute myeloid leukemia, alkylating agent related": "Acute myeloid leukemia occurring as late complication of prior therapy with alkylating agents.", + "Therapy-related acute myeloid leukemia, epipodophyllotoxin-related": "Acute myeloid leukemia occurring as late complication of prior therapy with alkylating agents.", + "Therapy-related acute myeloid leukemia, NOS": "An acute myeloid leukemia arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of chemotherapy agents and/or ionizing radiation. (WHO, 2001)", + "Therapy-related myelodysplastic syndrome, alkylating agent related": "A disorder seen following cancer chemotherapy. It is the most common cause of therapy-related myelodysplastic syndromes. It typically manifests several years after initiation of single or multi-agent chemotherapy with alkylators. Mutagenic potential of alkylating agents is believed to be age and cumulative dose-dependent. Deletions in chromosomes 5 and 7 are associated with susceptibility to this disorder. Clinical signs may include fatigue, dyspnea, bruising and frequent infections. Clinical course may progress to bone marrow failure or acute myeloid leukemia that is refractory to treatment. Prognosis is dismal with survivability usually less than one year.", + "Therapy-related myelodysplastic syndrome, epipodophyllotoxin-related": "A disorder seen following cancer chemotherapy. It typically manifests a few years after initiation of epipodophyllotoxin chemotherapy. Mutagenic potential of these non-intercalating DNA topoisomerase II inhibitors is believed to be increased with concurrent use of asparaginase or granulocyte colony-stimulating factor. Balanced translocations involving chromosomal bands 11q23 and 21q22 are commonly associated with this disorder. Clinical signs may include fatigue, dyspnea, bruising and frequent infections. Clinical course usually progresses to acute myeloid leukemia though most epipodophyllotoxin-related leukemias do not have an antecedent myelodysplastic phase. Prognosis is dismal with survivability usually less than one year.", + "Therapy-related myelodysplastic syndrome, NOS": "A myelodysplastic syndrome caused by chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy.", + "Thymic carcinoma with adenoid cystic carcinoma-like features": "", + "Thymic carcinoma, NOS": "A diverse group of carcinomas of the thymus gland, previously known as thymoma type C. It includes morphologic variants derived from purely epithelial cells, as well as from cells with neuroendocrine differentiation.", + "Thymic large B-cell lymphoma": "A large B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising in the mediastinum. Morphologically it is characterized by a massive diffuse lymphocytic proliferation associated with compartmentalizing fibrosis. Response to intensive chemotherapy, with or without radiotherapy, is usually good. (WHO, 2001)", + "Thymoma, atypical, malignant": "Also known as well-differentiated thymic carcinoma, atypical thymoma, or epithelial thymoma, this type of thymoma displays morphologic characteristics of a well-differentiated carcinoma. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage II or stage III tumors. It is almost always invasive, it recurs frequently, and metastasizes in approximately 20% of the cases.", + "Thymoma, atypical, NOS": "Also known as well-differentiated thymic carcinoma, atypical thymoma, or epithelial thymoma, this type of thymoma displays morphologic characteristics of a well-differentiated carcinoma. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage II or stage III tumors. It is almost always invasive, it recurs frequently, and metastasizes in approximately 20% of the cases.", + "Thymoma, benign": "A thymoma that is completely surrounded by a capsule, without evidence of capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues, and metastases.", + "Thymoma, cortical, malignant": "A type B2 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, cortical, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic large, polygonal epithelial cells with large vesicular nuclei and prominent nucleoli. The neoplastic cells are arranged around perivascular spaces and along septa. Immature T-lymphocytes are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It is a tumor of moderate malignancy. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I, stage II, or stage III tumors. Metastatic, stage IV tumors occur less frequently.", + "Thymoma, epithelial, malignant": "Also known as well-differentiated thymic carcinoma, atypical thymoma, or epithelial thymoma, this type of thymoma displays morphologic characteristics of a well-differentiated carcinoma. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage II or stage III tumors. It is almost always invasive, it recurs frequently, and metastasizes in approximately 20% of the cases.", + "Thymoma, epithelial, NOS": "Also known as well-differentiated thymic carcinoma, atypical thymoma, or epithelial thymoma, this type of thymoma displays morphologic characteristics of a well-differentiated carcinoma. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage II or stage III tumors. It is almost always invasive, it recurs frequently, and metastasizes in approximately 20% of the cases.", + "Thymoma, lymphocyte-rich, malignant": "A type B1 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, lymphocyte-rich, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of expanded areas which resemble the normal thymic cortex. The neoplastic epithelial cells are small and scant and there is a dense T-lymphocytic component present. Areas of medullary differentiation with or without Hassall's corpuscles are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It has a low grade malignant potential. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. A minority of the cases occur as stage II tumors.", + "Thymoma, lymphocytic, malignant": "A type B1 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, lymphocytic, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of expanded areas which resemble the normal thymic cortex. The neoplastic epithelial cells are small and scant and there is a dense T-lymphocytic component present. Areas of medullary differentiation with or without Hassall's corpuscles are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It has a low grade malignant potential. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. A minority of the cases occur as stage II tumors.", + "Thymoma, malignant, NOS": "A thymoma that has an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize. Although any morphologic subtype of thymoma may eventually have a malignant clinical course, this term is most often associated with thymoma types B3 and C.", + "Thymoma, medullary, malignant": "A type A thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, medullary, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle and/or oval neoplastic epithelial cells. Lymphocytic infiltration is minimal or absent. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis or pure red cell aplasia. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. Approximately 20% of the cases occur as stage II or stage III tumors. Type A thymoma generally behaves as a benign tumor and the overall survival is reported to be 100% at 5 and 10 years.", + "Thymoma, mixed type, malignant": "A type AB thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, mixed type, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of a lymphocyte-poor component similar to that seen in type A thymoma and a lymphocyte-rich component which contains neoplastic small polygonal epithelial cells. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis and pure red cell aplasia. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. A minority of the cases occur as stage II or stage III tumors. The overall survival is reported to be 80-100% at 5 and 10 years.", + "Thymoma, NOS": "A neoplasm arising from the epithelial cells of the thymus. Although thymomas are usually encapsulated tumors, they may invade the capsule and infiltrate the surrounding tissues or even metastasize to distant anatomic sites. The following morphologic subtypes are currently recognized: type A, type B, type AB, metaplastic, micronodular, microscopic, and sclerosing thymoma. Thymomas type B are further subdivided into types B1, B2, and B3. Thymoma type B3 usually has the most aggressive clinical course.", + "Thymoma, organoid, malignant": "A type B1 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, organoid, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of expanded areas which resemble the normal thymic cortex. The neoplastic epithelial cells are small and scant and there is a dense T-lymphocytic component present. Areas of medullary differentiation with or without Hassall's corpuscles are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It has a low grade malignant potential. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. A minority of the cases occur as stage II tumors.", + "Thymoma, predominantly cortical, malignant": "A type B1 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, predominantly cortical, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of expanded areas which resemble the normal thymic cortex. The neoplastic epithelial cells are small and scant and there is a dense T-lymphocytic component present. Areas of medullary differentiation with or without Hassall's corpuscles are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It has a low grade malignant potential. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. A minority of the cases occur as stage II tumors.", + "Thymoma, spindle cell, malignant": "A type A thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, spindle cell, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle and/or oval neoplastic epithelial cells. Lymphocytic infiltration is minimal or absent. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis or pure red cell aplasia. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. Approximately 20% of the cases occur as stage II or stage III tumors. Type A thymoma generally behaves as a benign tumor and the overall survival is reported to be 100% at 5 and 10 years.", + "Thymoma, type A, malignant": "A type A thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, type A, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of spindle and/or oval neoplastic epithelial cells. Lymphocytic infiltration is minimal or absent. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis or pure red cell aplasia. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. Approximately 20% of the cases occur as stage II or stage III tumors. Type A thymoma generally behaves as a benign tumor and the overall survival is reported to be 100% at 5 and 10 years.", + "Thymoma, type AB, malignant": "A type AB thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, type AB, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of a lymphocyte-poor component similar to that seen in type A thymoma and a lymphocyte-rich component which contains neoplastic small polygonal epithelial cells. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis and pure red cell aplasia. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. A minority of the cases occur as stage II or stage III tumors. The overall survival is reported to be 80-100% at 5 and 10 years.", + "Thymoma, type B1, malignant": "A type B1 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, type B1, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of expanded areas which resemble the normal thymic cortex. The neoplastic epithelial cells are small and scant and there is a dense T-lymphocytic component present. Areas of medullary differentiation with or without Hassall's corpuscles are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It has a low grade malignant potential. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I tumors. A minority of the cases occur as stage II tumors.", + "Thymoma, type B2, malignant": "A type B2 thymoma which is characterized by an aggressive clinical course (capsular invasion, infiltration of the surrounding tissues) and can metastasize.", + "Thymoma, type B2, NOS": "A thymic epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of neoplastic large, polygonal epithelial cells with large vesicular nuclei and prominent nucleoli. The neoplastic cells are arranged around perivascular spaces and along septa. Immature T-lymphocytes are also present. It may be associated with myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, and hypogammaglobulinemia. It is a tumor of moderate malignancy. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage I, stage II, or stage III tumors. Metastatic, stage IV tumors occur less frequently.", + "Thymoma, type B3, malignant": "Also known as well-differentiated thymic carcinoma, atypical thymoma, or epithelial thymoma, this type of thymoma displays morphologic characteristics of a well-differentiated carcinoma. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage II or stage III tumors. It is almost always invasive, it recurs frequently, and metastasizes in approximately 20% of the cases.", + "Thymoma, type B3, NOS": "Also known as well-differentiated thymic carcinoma, atypical thymoma, or epithelial thymoma, this type of thymoma displays morphologic characteristics of a well-differentiated carcinoma. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage II or stage III tumors. It is almost always invasive, it recurs frequently, and metastasizes in approximately 20% of the cases.", + "Thymoma, type C": "A diverse group of carcinomas of the thymus gland, previously known as thymoma type C. It includes morphologic variants derived from purely epithelial cells, as well as from cells with neuroendocrine differentiation.", + "Tibial adamantinoma": "An adamantinoma arising from the tibia. The tibia is the site which is more frequently involved by adamantinoma (80-90% of cases).", + "Trabecular adenocarcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of a trabecular glandular architectural pattern.", + "Trabecular adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of a trabecular glandular architectural pattern.", + "Trabecular carcinoma": "A malignant epithelial neoplasm characterized by the presence of a trabecular glandular architectural pattern.", + "Traditional serrated adenoma": "An adenoma that arises from the large intestine and the appendix. It is characterized by prominent serration of the glands and the presence of generalized low-grade dysplasia.", + "Traditional sessile serrated adenoma": "", + "Transient abnormal myelopoiesis": "A myeloid proliferation occurring in newborns with Down syndrome. It is clinically and morphologically indistinguishable from acute myeloid leukemia and is associated with GATA1 mutations. The blasts display morphologic and immunophenotypic features of megakaryocytic lineage. In the majority of patients the myeloid proliferation undergoes spontaneous remission.", + "Transitional carcinoma": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the transitional epithelium, usually affecting the urinary bladder, ureter, or renal pelvis. It may or may not have a papillary configuration. It is graded 1 to 3 or 4 according to the degree of cellular differentiation and architectural patterns. Grade 1 transitional cell carcinoma is histologically benign but it may recur. Transitional cell carcinomas may also affect the upper respiratory tract and the ovaries.", + "Transitional cell carcinoma": "A malignant neoplasm arising from the transitional epithelium, usually affecting the urinary bladder, ureter, or renal pelvis. It may or may not have a papillary configuration. It is graded 1 to 3 or 4 according to the degree of cellular differentiation and architectural patterns. Grade 1 transitional cell carcinoma is histologically benign but it may recur. Transitional cell carcinomas may also affect the upper respiratory tract and the ovaries.", + "Transitional cell carcinoma in situ": "A lesion in which the surface epithelium of the bladder or the renal pelvis and ureter contains transitional cells which display malignant cytologic characteristics. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Transitional cell carcinoma, micropapillary": "A transitional cell carcinoma characterized by a micropapillary growth pattern. Typical example is the micropapillary variant of infiltrating bladder urothelial carcinoma.", + "Transitional cell carcinoma, sarcomatoid": "A poorly differentiated transitional cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with spindle cell morphologic features.", + "Transitional cell carcinoma, spindle cell": "A poorly differentiated transitional cell carcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant cells with spindle cell morphologic features.", + "Transitional cell papilloma, benign": "A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells which show preservation of the nuclear polarity.", + "Transitional cell papilloma, inverted, benign": "A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells and characterized by an endophytic growth pattern.", + "Transitional cell papilloma, inverted, NOS": "A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells and characterized by an endophytic growth pattern.", + "Transitional cell papilloma, NOS": "A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells which show preservation of the nuclear polarity.", + "Transitional meningioma": "A WHO grade I meningioma characterized by the coexistence of meningothelial cells and fibrous architectural patterns.", + "Transitional papilloma": "A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells which show preservation of the nuclear polarity.", + "Transitional papilloma, inverted, benign": "A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells and characterized by an endophytic growth pattern.", + "Transitional papilloma, inverted, NOS": "A benign papillary neoplasm composed of transitional cells and characterized by an endophytic growth pattern.", + "Transitional pineal tumor": "", + "Trichilemmal carcinoma": "A rare malignant tumor arising from the outer hair sheath and infundibulum on the face. It is considered the malignant counterpart of tricholemmoma. Complete surgical excision is required.", + "Trichilemmocarcinoma": "A rare malignant tumor arising from the outer hair sheath and infundibulum on the face. It is considered the malignant counterpart of tricholemmoma. Complete surgical excision is required.", + "Trichilemmoma": "A benign neoplasm arising from the outer hair sheath and infundibulum. It occurs in the head and neck, usually on the face. It usually presents as an exophytic wart-like lesion or a dome-shaped lesion with smooth surface. Multiple facial lesions are usually associated with Cowden disease.", + "Trichodiscoma": "A benign tumor usually arising in the face, trunk or thighs.", + "Trichoepithelioma": "A benign hair follicle neoplasm with trichoblastic differentiation. It usually presents as a solitary papular lesion It most often presents on the head and neck area, but it may develop in any anatomic site containing hair follicles. Because of its benign nature, treatment usually is not required, provided that the diagnosis has been established with certainty.", + "Trichofolliculoma": "A skin appendage neoplasm with follicular differentiation. It usually occurs in the head and neck region, particularly the face. It presents as a solitary dome-shaped small lesion. The clinical course is benign.", + "Triton tumor, malignant": "A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor which shows rhabdomyosarcomatous differentiation. More than half of the patients have neurofibromatosis type 1. The prognosis is usually poor.", + "Trophoblastic tumor, epithelioid": "A gestational trophoblastic tumor characterized by the presence of a monomorphous cellular population of intermediate trophoblastic cells infiltrating in a nodular pattern.", + "True histiocytic lymphoma": "An antiquated term referring to large cell lymphomas.", + "Tubular adenocarcinoma": "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma in which the malignant cells form tubular structures. Representative examples include the tubular breast carcinoma and the gastric tubular adenocarcinoma.", + "Tubular adenoma, NOS": "A usually polypoid neoplasm arising from the glandular epithelium. It is characterized by a tubular architectural pattern. The neoplastic glandular cells have dysplastic features. Representative examples include the tubular adenomas of the colon and rectum.", + "Tubular androblastoma with lipid storage": "", + "Tubular androblastoma, NOS": "A sex cord-stromal tumor of the testis or the ovary. It is characterized by the presence of Sertoli cells forming tubules. Leydig cells are rare or absent. It may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. In males, the presenting symptom is a slow growing testicular mass. Most cases follow a benign clinical course. In females it may present with estrogenic or androgenic manifestations. The vast majority of cases have a benign clinical course.", + "Tubular carcinoid": "", + "Tubular carcinoma": "An infiltrating adenocarcinoma in which the malignant cells form tubular structures. Representative examples include the tubular breast carcinoma and the gastric tubular adenocarcinoma.", + "Tubulo-papillary adenoma": "An epithelial neoplasm morphologically characterized by the presence of a villous and a tubular architectural pattern. Most often it occurs in the large intestine, small intestine, and the stomach in which the neoplastic epithelial cells show dysplastic features.", + "Tubulocystic renal cell carcinoma": "A rare, cytologically high grade carcinoma that arises from the renal parenchyma. It is characterized by the presence of prominently dilated cystic spaces in a bland, fibrotic stroma. The lining cells have large irregular nuclei with prominent nucleoli and abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. Necrosis and mitotic figures are not present. It rarely metastasizes.", + "Tubulolobular carcinoma": "An invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast, characterized by the presence of neoplastic cells forming small tubular structures.", + "Tubulopapillary adenocarcinoma": "", + "Tubulovillous adenoma, NOS": "An epithelial neoplasm morphologically characterized by the presence of a villous and a tubular architectural pattern. Most often it occurs in the large intestine, small intestine, and the stomach in which the neoplastic epithelial cells show dysplastic features.", + "Tumor cells, benign": "", + "Tumor cells, malignant": "Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.", + "Tumor cells, NOS": "Cells of, or derived from, a tumor.", + "Tumor cells, uncertain whether benign or malignant": "Cells of, or derived from, a tumor.", + "Tumor embolus": "A tumor embolism involves sudden blockage of an artery by a clot or by other material from tumor fragments transported by the blood stream.", + "Tumor, benign": "A neoplasm which is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (severe cytologic atypia, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic rate). Benign neoplasms remain confined to the original site of growth and do not metastasize to other anatomic sites.", + "Tumor, malignant, NOS": "A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.", + "Tumor, metastatic": "A tumor that has spread from its original (primary) site of growth to another site, close to or distant from the primary site. Metastasis is characteristic of advanced malignancies, but in rare instances can be seen in neoplasms lacking malignant morphology.", + "Tumor, NOS": "A benign or malignant tissue growth resulting from uncontrolled cell proliferation. Benign neoplastic cells resemble normal cells without exhibiting significant cytologic atypia, while malignant cells exhibit overt signs such as dysplastic features, atypical mitotic figures, necrosis, nuclear pleomorphism, and anaplasia. Representative examples of benign neoplasms include papillomas, cystadenomas, and lipomas; malignant neoplasms include carcinomas, sarcomas, lymphomas, and leukemias.", + "Tumor, secondary": "A neoplasm that arises from a pre-existing lower grade lesion, or as a result of a primary lesion that has spread to secondary sites, or due to a complication of a cancer treatment.", + "Tumorlet, benign": "A tiny localized pulmonary nodule characterized by neuroendocrine cell proliferation. It is usually discovered as an incidental finding during routine histologic examination of tissue sections or during radiologic examination.", + "Tumorlet, NOS": "", + "Turban tumor": "Turban Tumor", + "Typical carcinoid": "", + "Unclassified tumor, benign": "A neoplasm which is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (severe cytologic atypia, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic rate). Benign neoplasms remain confined to the original site of growth and do not metastasize to other anatomic sites.", + "Unclassified tumor, borderline malignancy": "A neoplasm which, on morphologic grounds, can not be classified with certainty as benign or malignant.", + "Unclassified tumor, malignant": "A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.", + "Unclassified tumor, malignant, uncertain whether primary or metastatic": "A malignant neoplasm in which the examined tissue can not be determined with certainty if it represents the primary site of tumor growth or tumor spread from another anatomic site.", + "Unclassified tumor, uncertain whether benign or malignant": "A neoplasm which, on morphologic grounds, can not be classified with certainty as benign or malignant.", + "Undifferentiated epithelioid sarcoma": "An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of a malignant cellular infiltrate with epithelioid morphology.", + "Undifferentiated high-grade pleomorphic sarcoma": "A rare, high-grade pleomorphic malignant neoplasm arising from the bone. It usually presents with pain which may or may not be associated with swelling in the affected area. It is characterized by the presence of spindle-shaped cells, polygonal or epithelioid cells, multinucleated giant cells, and inflammatory cells. The neoplastic cells exhibit nuclear pleomorphism and high mitotic activity. It metastasizes frequently, most often in the lungs.", + "Undifferentiated leukaemia": "A clonal (malignant) hematopoietic disorder with an acute onset, affecting the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. The malignant cells show minimal differentiation and are called blasts, either myeloid blasts (myeloblasts) or lymphoid blasts (lymphoblasts).", + "Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma": "An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of a pleomorphic malignant cellular infiltrate. It is also known as malignant fibrous histiocytoma.", + "Undifferentiated round cell sarcoma": "An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of uniform round or ovoid malignant cells with a high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio.", + "Undifferentiated sarcoma": "An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma which cannot be further characterized.", + "Undifferentiated spindle cell sarcoma": "An undifferentiated soft tissue sarcoma characterized by the presence of a malignant spindle cell infiltrate with amphophilic or palely eosinophilic cytoplasm.", + "Undifferentiated uterine sarcoma": "A rare, high grade sarcoma that arises from the endometrial stroma or myometrium without a specific type of differentiation. It was previously also known as high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma. In 2014, high grade endometrial stromal sarcoma was reclassified and is currently considered a distinct and rare neoplasm. Undifferentiated uterine sarcoma has a worse prognosis.", + "Urachal carcinoma": "A rare variant of carcinoma of the urachal remnant of bladder.", + "Urothelial carcinoma in situ": "A lesion in which the surface epithelium of the bladder or the renal pelvis and ureter contains transitional cells which display malignant cytologic characteristics. There is no evidence of stromal invasion.", + "Urothelial carcinoma with divergent differentiation": "", + "Urothelial carcinoma with squamous differentiation": "An invasive transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder that exhibits squamous differentiation.", + "Urothelial carcinoma with trophoblastic differentiation": "A variant of infiltrating bladder urothelial carcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of trophoblastic differentiation within the carcinoma.", + "Urothelial carcinoma, NOS": "A malignant neoplasm derived from the transitional epithelium of the urinary tract (urinary bladder, ureter, urethra, or renal pelvis). It is frequently papillary.", + "Urothelial papilloma, NOS": "A rare benign condition, characterized by a papillary growth in the urinary tract with a central fibrovascular core. The latter is lined by normal urothelium.", + "Urticaria pigmentosa": "The most frequent form of cutaneous mastocytosis. In children, the lesions tend to be papular, and are characterized by aggregates of elongated or spindle-shaped mast cells which fill the papillary dermis and extend into the reticular dermis. In adults, the lesions tend to have fewer mast cells compared to those in children. The lesions are located most commonly on the trunk, but they can be seen on the extremities, head and neck. (WHO, 2001)", + "Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, grade III": "Stage 0 includes: (Tis, N0, M0). Tis: Carcinoma in situ. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)", + "VAIN III": "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ (preinvasive carcinoma). N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. FIGO no longer includes stage 0. (AJCC 7th ed.)", + "Vascular leiomyoma": "A benign, slow-growing neoplasm that arises from the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. It is characterized by the presence of well-differentiated smooth muscle cells which are arranged around numerous vessels.", + "Venous hemangioma": "A hemangioma composed of veins.", + "Verrucous carcinoma, NOS": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern, acanthosis, mild cytologic atypia, and pushing tumor margins. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the oral cavity, nasal cavity, larynx, esophagus, anus, vagina, vulva, and the plantar region of the foot.", + "Verrucous epidermoid carcinoma": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern, acanthosis, mild cytologic atypia, and pushing tumor margins. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the oral cavity, nasal cavity, larynx, esophagus, anus, vagina, vulva, and the plantar region of the foot.", + "Verrucous keratotic hemangioma": "A skin hemangioma characterized by the presence of epidermal hyperplasia.", + "Verrucous papilloma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm characterized by a papillary growth pattern, lack of significant cytologic atypia, and a wart-like appearance.", + "Verrucous squamous cell carcinoma": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern, acanthosis, mild cytologic atypia, and pushing tumor margins. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the oral cavity, nasal cavity, larynx, esophagus, anus, vagina, vulva, and the plantar region of the foot.", + "Villoglandular adenoma": "An epithelial neoplasm morphologically characterized by the presence of a villous and a tubular architectural pattern. Most often it occurs in the large intestine, small intestine, and the stomach in which the neoplastic epithelial cells show dysplastic features.", + "Villoglandular carcinoma": "A cervical adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a prominent villoglandular pattern.", + "Villous adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of a villous architectural pattern. It may arise from a villous adenoma.", + "Villous adenoma, NOS": "An epithelial neoplasm morphologically characterized by the presence of a villous architectural pattern. Most often it occurs in the large intestine, small intestine, and the stomach in which the neoplastic epithelial cells show dysplastic features. It may also arise in the urinary bladder, urethra, and vagina.", + "Villous papilloma": "", + "VIN III": "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ (preinvasive carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)", + "Vipoma, malignant": "An aggressive neuroendocrine tumor located in the pancreas or small intestine. It is composed of cells containing vasoactive intestinal peptide. It is associated with watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria. It displays vascular invasion and metastasizes to other anatomic sites.", + "Vipoma, NOS": "An often clinically aggressive neuroendocrine tumor located in the pancreas or small intestine. It is composed of cells containing vasoactive intestinal peptide. It may cause intractable diarrhea and metabolic disturbances.", + "Von Recklinghausen disease": "The most common type of neurofibromatosis. It is characterized clinically by cutaneous and subcutaneous tumors with patches of hyperpigmentation. The hyperpigmented skin areas, are present from birth and found anywhere on the body surface. They can vary markedly in size and color. The dark brown areas are called cafe-au-lait spots. The multiple cutaneous and subcutaneous tumors are nerve sheath tumors, called neurofibromas. They can develop anywhere along the peripheral nerve fibers. Neurofibromas can become quite large, causing a major disfigurement, eroding bone, and compressing various peripheral nerve structures. Type 1 neurofibromatosis has dominant inheritance, with a gene locus on the proximal long arm of chromosome 17.", + "Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia, grade III": "Stage 0 includes: Tis, N0, M0. Tis: Carcinoma in situ (preinvasive carcinoma. N0: No regional lymph node metastasis. M0: No distant metastasis. (AJCC 6th ed.)", + "Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia": "Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma associated with bone marrow involvement and IgM monoclonal gammopathy.", + "Warthin tumor": "An adenoma characterized by an oncocytic, often papillary, epithelial component, dense lymphoid stroma, and cystic spaces. It occurs primarily in the parotid gland, and is the second most common benign parotid salivary gland tumor. A strong association with smoking has been reported. It typically presents as a painless swelling in the lower portion of the parotid gland.", + "Warty carcinoma": "A well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma characterized by a papillary growth pattern, acanthosis, mild cytologic atypia, and pushing tumor margins. The most commonly affected anatomic sites are the oral cavity, nasal cavity, larynx, esophagus, anus, vagina, vulva, and the plantar region of the foot.", + "Water-clear cell adenocarcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear, often vacuolated or foamy cytoplasm.", + "Water-clear cell adenoma": "A rare parathyroid gland adenoma composed of neoplastic cells with abundant cytoplasm. The cytoplasm of the neoplastic cells is usually not entirely clear, and is often variably vacuolated, foamy, and granular.", + "Water-clear cell carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells with clear, often vacuolated or foamy cytoplasm.", + "Well differentiated liposarcoma of superficial soft tissue": "An intermediate, locally aggressive lipomatous neoplasm. Microscopically, the adipose tissue contains large and pleomorphic lipoblasts, and is dissected by fibrous septa containing spindle cells. It requires a wide local excision, may recur locally, but never metastasizes.", + "Well differentiated papillary mesothelioma, benign": "", + "Well differentiated thymic carcinoma": "Also known as well-differentiated thymic carcinoma, atypical thymoma, or epithelial thymoma, this type of thymoma displays morphologic characteristics of a well-differentiated carcinoma. The majority of cases occur in the anterior mediastinum as Masaoka stage II or stage III tumors. It is almost always invasive, it recurs frequently, and metastasizes in approximately 20% of the cases.", + "Wilms tumor": "An embryonal neoplasm characterized by the presence of epithelial, mesenchymal, and blastema components. The vast majority of cases arise from the kidney. A small number of cases with morphologic features resembling Wilms tumor of the kidney have been reported arising from the ovary and the cervix.", + "Wolffian duct adenoma": "A benign epithelial neoplasm of the female reproductive system arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "Wolffian duct carcinoma": "An adenocarcinoma of the cervix or the vagina arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "Wolffian duct tumor": "An epithelial neoplasm of the female reproductive system arising from mesonephric remnants.", + "Xanthofibroma": "A benign neoplasm composed of fibroblastic spindle cells in a whorled storiform pattern. It is characterized by the presence of foam cells, inflammatory cells, hemosiderin deposition and stromal hemorrhage.", + "Yolk sac tumor": "A non-seminomatous malignant germ cell tumor composed of primitive germ cells. It is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in the pediatric population. It occurs in the infant testis, ovary, sacrococcygeal region, vagina, uterus, prostate, abdomen, liver, retroperitoneum, thorax, and pineal/third ventricle. The tumor mimics the yolk sac of the embryo and produces alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Treatment includes: surgical resection, radiation, and chemotherapy. This tumor is very responsive to chemotherapy regimens that include cisplatinum.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "primary_disease": { + "column_description": "Indicates whether the specific diagnosis represents the disease that was the primary focus of the study.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "primary_gleason_grade": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the primary Gleason score, which describes the pattern of cells making up the largest area of the tumor. The primary and secondary Gleason pattern grades are combined to determine the patient's Gleason grade group, which is used to determine the aggresiveness of prostate cancer. Note that this grade describes the entire prostatectomy specimen and is not specific to the sample used for sequencing.", + "value_data": { + "Pattern 1": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of a well circumscribed nodule of separate glands which are closely packed. There is no infiltration of the surrounding parenchyma. The epithelial polarity of the malignant cells is preserved and luminal differentiation is present in all glands.", + "Pattern 2": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of glands that are more loosely arranged and less uniform compared to Gleason pattern 1. Minimal invasion of the surrounding parenchyma may be present. The epithelial polarity of the malignant cells is preserved and luminal differentiation is present in all glands.", + "Pattern 3": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of glands that are infiltrative and vary in size and shape. The epithelial polarity of the malignant cells is preserved and luminal differentiation is present in all glands.", + "Pattern 4": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of fused, cribriform, or poorly defined glands. There is partial loss of normal epithelial polarity.", + "Pattern 5": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by almost complete loss of epithelial polarity and luminal differentiation." + } + }, + "prior_malignancy": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe the patient's history of prior cancer diagnosis.", + "value_data": { + "yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "no": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "not reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "prior_treatment": { + "column_description": "A yes/no/unknown/not applicable indicator related to the administration of therapeutic agents received before the body specimen was collected.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "satellite_nodule_present": { + "column_description": "Indicator noting whether a nodule or tumor is located within a small distance (e.g. 2cm) of the primary tumor.", + "value_data": { + "Absent": "Not existing in a specified place at a specified time.", + "Indeterminate": "Cannot distinguish between two or more possible values in the current context.", + "Present": "Being or existing in a specified place or at the specified time.", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "secondary_gleason_grade": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the secondary Gleason score, which describes the pattern of cells making up the second largest area of the tumor. The primary and secondary Gleason pattern grades are combined to determine the patient's Gleason grade group, which is used to determine the aggresiveness of prostate cancer. Note that this grade describes the entire prostatectomy specimen and is not specific to the sample used for sequencing.", + "value_data": { + "Pattern 1": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of a well circumscribed nodule of separate glands which are closely packed. There is no infiltration of the surrounding parenchyma. The epithelial polarity of the malignant cells is preserved and luminal differentiation is present in all glands.", + "Pattern 2": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of glands that are more loosely arranged and less uniform compared to Gleason pattern 1. Minimal invasion of the surrounding parenchyma may be present. The epithelial polarity of the malignant cells is preserved and luminal differentiation is present in all glands.", + "Pattern 3": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of glands that are infiltrative and vary in size and shape. The epithelial polarity of the malignant cells is preserved and luminal differentiation is present in all glands.", + "Pattern 4": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by the presence of fused, cribriform, or poorly defined glands. There is partial loss of normal epithelial polarity.", + "Pattern 5": "A pattern of prostate carcinoma characterized by almost complete loss of epithelial polarity and luminal differentiation." + } + }, + "site_of_resection_or_biopsy": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the anatomic site of origin, of the patient's malignant disease, as described by the World Health Organization's (WHO) International Classification of Diseases for Oncology (ICD-O).", + "value_data": { + "Abdomen, NOS": "The portion of the body that lies between the thorax and the pelvis.", + "Abdominal esophagus": "Clinical esophageal segment composed of smooth muscle. It corresponds to the inferior part of the lower third topographic segment of the esophagus.", + "Accessory sinus, NOS": "Any one of the air-filled spaces within the ethmoid, frontal, maxillary, or sphenoid bones, which communicate with the nasal cavity.", + "Acoustic nerve": "The cochlear portion of cranial nerve VIII (the vestibulocochlear nerve), which transmits auditory sensory impulses to the cochlear nucleus in the brainstem.", + "Adrenal gland, NOS": "A flattened, roughly triangular body resting upon the upper end of each kidney; it is one of the ductless glands furnishing internal secretions (epinephrine and norepinephrine from the medulla and steroid hormones from the cortex).", + "Ampulla of Vater": "The junction of the common bile and main pancreatic ducts, which protrudes into the medial aspect of the descending duodenum at the major duodenal papilla. The flow of bile and pancreatic juices into the duodenum through the Ampulla of Vater is controlled by the sphincter of Oddi.", + "Anal canal": "The terminal section of the alimentary canal, which extends from the anorectal junction and ends at the anal opening.", + "Anterior 2/3 of tongue, NOS": "", + "Anterior floor of mouth": "", + "Anterior mediastinum": "The area between the lungs; it contains the thymus, some lymph nodes, and vessels and branches of the internal thoracic artery.", + "Anterior surface of epiglottis": "The lingual or upper surface of the epiglottis.", + "Anterior wall of bladder": "The anterior aspect of the bladder wall.", + "Anterior wall of nasopharynx": "The anterior aspect of the nasopharynx.", + "Anus, NOS": "The lower opening of the digestive tract, lying in the cleft between the buttocks, through which fecal matter is extruded.", + "Aortic body and other paraganglia": "", + "Appendix": "Small tissue projection existing as a cecal diverticulum with a questionable history of vestigial versus specialized organ.", + "Ascending colon": "The first part of the colon (large intestine) that starts in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen and ends at the transverse colon in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.", + "Autonomic nervous system, NOS": "The part of the nervous system of vertebrates that controls involuntary actions of the smooth muscles and heart and glands.", + "Axillary tail of breast": "The superolateral extension of the mammary gland into the axilla that consists of fibroadipose tissue, lymph nodes, and lymphatics.", + "Base of tongue, NOS": "The posterior one third of the tongue behind the terminal sulcus that forms the anterior aspect of the oro-pharynx responsible for swallowing and modification of the voice in speech.", + "Biliary tract, NOS": "The system that transports bile from the hepatocytes in the liver to the small intestine. It is comprised of the intrahepatic bile ducts, hepatic ducts, common bile duct, cystic duct, and the gallbladder.", + "Bladder neck": "The inferior portion of the urinary bladder which is formed as the walls of the bladder converge and become contiguous with the proximal urethra.", + "Bladder, NOS": "The distensible sac-like organ that functions as a reservoir of urine, collecting from the kidneys and eliminating via the urethra.", + "Blood": "A liquid tissue; its major function is to transport oxygen throughout the body. It also supplies the tissues with nutrients, removes waste products, and contains various components of the immune system defending the body against infection. Several hormones also travel in the blood.", + "Body of pancreas": "The part of the pancreas from the point where it crosses the portal vein to the point where it enters the lienorenal ligament.", + "Body of penis": "The portion of the penis that extends from the site of attachment to the glans, and which is covered by skin. It is formed by the joining of the two proximal free parts of the corpora cavernosa and the related free part of the corpus spongiosum.", + "Body of stomach": "The main section of the digestive tube that connects the esophagus to the small intestine. The body proper excludes the upper and lower sections of the fundus and pyloric portion respectively.", + "Bone marrow": "The tissue occupying the spaces of bone. It consists of blood vessel sinuses and a network of hematopoietic cells which give rise to the red cells, white cells, and megakaryocytes.", + "Bone of limb, NOS": "A bone within a limb of the body.", + "Bone, NOS": "Connective tissue that forms the skeletal components of the body.", + "Bones of skull and face and associated joints": "", + "Border of tongue": "", + "Brain stem": "Three sections, the midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata, that are located at the base of the brain. The brain stem regulates the central nervous system, and is vital as a conduit for motor and sensory innervations.", + "Brain, NOS": "An organ composed of grey and white matter containing billions of neurons that is the center for intelligence and reasoning. It is protected by the bony cranium.", + "Branchial cleft": "A congenital defect in the neck that occurs during early embryonic development. It is caused by developmental abnormalities of the pharyngeal arches and results in the development of a cyst or a fissure in the side of the neck.", + "Breast, NOS": "One of two hemispheric projections of variable size situated in the subcutaneous layer over the pectoralis major muscle on either side of the chest.", + "Broad ligament": "A wide fold of peritoneum that connects the uterus to the lateral walls and floor of the pelvis, and contains the ovaries, fallopian tubes, ovarian ligaments, round ligament of the uterus, and ovarian and uterine arteries.", + "Cardia, NOS": "The area around the esophagogastric mucosal junction where the esophageal mucosa transitions into the gastric mucosa.", + "Carotid body": "A cluster of cells that function as chemo-receptors, located at the bifurcation of the carotid artery. Its main purpose is to detect changes in the composition of arterial blood.", + "Cauda equina": "The collection of spinal nerve roots, arising from lumbar pairs two through five, sacral pairs one through five, and the coccygeal nerve, that branch off the conus medularis at the termination of the spinal cord, and float freely within the lumbar cistern before exiting the spinal column at the appropriate vertebra.", + "Cecum": "A blind pouch-like commencement of the colon in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen at the end of the small intestine and the start of the large intestine.", + "Central portion of breast": "The part of the breast which is in the center.", + "Cerebellum, NOS": "The portion of the brain located at the base of the skull that is responsible for balance, equilibrium and movement.", + "Cerebral meninges": "The membranes that envelop and protect the brain.", + "Cerebrum": "The part of the brain that controls muscle functions and also controls speech, thought, emotions, reading, writing, and learning. The right hemisphere controls the muscles on the left side of the body, and the left hemisphere controls the muscles on the right side of the body.", + "Cervical esophagus": "Clinical esophageal segment composed of skeletal muscle. It corresponds to the superior part of the upper third topographic segment of the esophagus.", + "Cervix uteri": "The lower part of the uterus occupying the region between the isthmus of the uterus and the vagina. It is divided into supravaginal and vaginal portions.", + "Cheek mucosa": "The mucosal membranes located on the inside of the cheek, in the buccal cavity.", + "Choroid": "A blood vessel-containing membrane of the eye that lies between the retina and the sclera.", + "Ciliary body": "Tissue located behind the iris and composed of muscle and epithelium. Its functions include the production of aqueous humor and changing the shape of the crystalline lens.", + "Clitoris": "The erectile tissue in the vulva. It is composed of the corpora cavernosa and the glans clitoris.", + "Cloacogenic zone": "The middle segment of the anal canal between the colorectal and squamous zones.", + "Colon, NOS": "The part of the large intestine measured from the cecum to the rectum consisting of ascending, transverse, descending and sigmoid portions. The purpose of the colon is to remove water from digested food prior to excretion.", + "Commissure of lip": "The junction of the upper and lower lips at the corner of the mouth.", + "Conjunctiva": "A thin, transparent tissue divided into the palpebral conjunctiva (covering the inner side of the eye lid) and the bulbar conjunctiva (covering the eyeball).", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of abdomen": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of head, face, and neck": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of lower limb and hip": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of pelvis": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of thorax": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of trunk, NOS": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of upper limb and shoulder": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues, NOS": "", + "Cornea, NOS": "A dome-shaped, transparent, avascular tissue covering the front of the eye. It is composed of five layers: squamous epithelium, Bowman's membrane, stroma, Descemet's membrane, and endothelium. Refraction of light contributing to eye's focusing ability is its characteristic function. It contains unmyelinated nerve endings which are responsible for the high sensitivity of the tissue.", + "Corpus uteri": "The Corpus uteri, or body of uterus, is the part of the uterus above the isthmus, comprising about two thirds of the non-pregnant organ.", + "Cortex of adrenal gland": "The outer region of the adrenal gland consisting of the zona glomerulosa, the zona fasciculata, and the zona reticularis. The adrenal cortex produces and secretes mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and adrenal androgens.", + "Cranial nerve, NOS": "Any of the 12 paired nerves that originate in the brain stem.", + "Craniopharyngeal duct": "The slender tubular part of the hypophysial diverticulum; the stalk of Rathke's pocket.", + "Descended testis": "", + "Descending colon": "The fourth portion of the large intestine (colon) that communicates with the transverse colon in the left-upper quadrant of the abdomen and the rectum below.", + "Dome of bladder": "The upper, convex surface of the bladder.", + "Dorsal surface of tongue, NOS": "", + "Duodenum": "A jointed tube 25-30 cm long that connects the stomach to the jejunum.", + "Endocervix": "The portion of the cervix which is lined by single columnar epithelium (mucosa).", + "Endocrine gland, NOS": "Ductless glands that secrete substances which are released directly into the circulation and which influence metabolism and other body functions.", + "Endometrium": "The mucous membrane comprising the inner layer of the uterine wall; it consists of a simple columnar epithelium and a lamina propria that contains simple tubular uterine glands. The structure, thickness, and state of the endometrium undergo marked change with the menstrual cycle.", + "Epididymis": "A crescent-like structure located in the upper and posterior surfaces of the testis. It consists of the efferent ductules and the duct of the epididymis. It facilitates the maturation of sperm that is produced in the testis.", + "Esophagus, NOS": "The portion of the digestive canal between the pharynx and stomach. It is about 25 cm long and consists of three parts: the cervical part, from the cricoid cartilage to the thoracic inlet; thoracic part, from thoracic inlet to the diaphragm; and abdominal part, below the diaphragm to the cardiac opening of the stomach.", + "Ethmoid sinus": "A sinus of the meatuses of the nasal cavity.", + "Exocervix": "The portion of the cervix that extends into the vaginal vault, and is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.", + "External ear": "The external part of the ear.", + "External lip, NOS": "One of two visible fleshy folds that surround the orifice of the mouth.", + "External lower lip": "The external surface of the lower lip.", + "External upper lip": "The external surface of the upper lip.", + "Extrahepatic bile duct": "The portion of the biliary tract outside the liver; the common hepatic duct joins the cystic duct to form the common bile duct.", + "Eye, NOS": "The organ of sight or vision.", + "Eyelid": "A thin membrane of skin with the purpose of covering and protecting an eye.", + "Fallopian tube": "One of a pair of tubes that extend from the uterus to each of the ovaries. Following ovulation the egg travels down the fallopian tube to the uterus where fertilization may or may not occur.", + "Female genital tract, NOS": "The external female sexual organs.", + "Floor of mouth, NOS": "The area of the mouth under the ventral surface of the tongue.", + "Frontal lobe": "The part of the brain located anterior to the parietal lobes at the front of each cerebral hemisphere.", + "Frontal sinus": "The paired, mucosal lined air spaces located above the orbit and communicating with the nasal passages.", + "Fundus of stomach": "The portion of the stomach that lies above the cardiac notch. It allows for the accumulation of gases produced by chemical digestion.", + "Fundus uteri": "The upper, rounded portion of the uterus which is opposite from the cervix.", + "Gallbladder": "A pear-shaped organ located under the liver that stores and concentrates bile secreted by the liver. From the gallbladder the bile is delivered through the bile ducts into the intestine thereby aiding the digestion of fat-containing foods.", + "Gastric antrum": "The initial part of the pyloric canal of the stomach. This site contains endocrine cells that produce gastrin and somatostatin.", + "Gastrointestinal tract, NOS": "The upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract is comprised of mouth, pharynx, esophagus and stomach while the lower GI tract consists of intestines and anus. The primary function of the GI tract is to ingest, digest, absorb and ultimately excrete food stuff.", + "Glans penis": "The most distal portion of the penis covered by the foreskin.", + "Glottis": "The space in which the vocal cords are located.", + "Greater curvature of stomach, NOS": "The lateral and inferior border of the stomach. Attached to it is the greater omentum.", + "Gum, NOS": "The soft tissue surrounding the neck of individual teeth as well as covering the alveolar bone. The tissue is fibrous and continuous with the periodontal ligament and mucosal covering.", + "Hard palate": "The bony anterior part of the roof of the mouth separating the nose from the mouth.", + "Head of pancreas": "That portion of the pancreas lying in the concavity of the duodenum.", + "Head, face or neck, NOS": "", + "Heart": "A hollow organ located slightly to the left of the middle portion of the chest. It is composed of muscle and it is divided by a septum into two sides: the right side which receives de-oxygenated blood from the body and the left side which sends newly oxygenated blood to the body. Each side is composed of two chambers: the atrium (receiving blood) and ventricle (ejecting blood).", + "Hematopoietic system, NOS": "The bodily system of organs and tissues, primarily the bone marrow, spleen, tonsils, and lymph nodes, involved in the production of blood.", + "Hepatic flexure of colon": "The bend of the colon at the juncture of its ascending and transverse portions.", + "Hypopharyngeal aspect of aryepiglottic fold": "", + "Hypopharynx, NOS": "The lower part of the pharynx that connects to the esophagus.", + "Ileum": "The final section of the small intestine.", + "Ill-defined sites within respiratory system": "Anatomic sites within the respiratory system and intrathoracic organs that are referenced in topographic category C39 of ICD-O-3.", + "Intestinal tract, NOS": "The portion of the gastrointestinal tract between the stomach and the anus. It includes the small intestine and large intestine.", + "Intra-abdominal lymph nodes": "Any lymph node within the abdomen.", + "Intrahepatic bile duct": "The bile ducts which are located within the liver. They include the small interlobular bile ducts, intrahepatic large bile ducts, and the intrahepatic portions of the left and right hepatic ducts.", + "Intrathoracic lymph nodes": "Any lymph node within the thoracic cavity.", + "Islets of Langerhans": "The pancreatic tissue that contains the islets of Langerhans. It is responsible for the production and secretions of the pancreatic hormones.", + "Isthmus uteri": "An elongated constriction of the lower part of the uterus, located at the junction of the body of the uterus and the cervix, that is composed principally of smooth muscle.", + "Jejunum": "The portion of the small intestine that extends from the duodenum to the ileum.", + "Kidney, NOS": "One of the two bean-shaped organs located on each side of the spine in the retroperitoneum. The right kidney is located below the liver and the left kidney below the diaphragm. The kidneys filter and secret the metabolic products and minerals from the blood, thus maintaining the homeostasis. On the superior pole of each kidney there is an adrenal gland. Each kidney and adrenal gland is surrounded by fat.", + "Labium majus": "One of the two longitudinal folds of skin that form the lateral boundary of the vulva. It extends from the mons pubis to the perineum.", + "Labium minus": "One of the two longitudinal folds of skin located between the labia majora.", + "Lacrimal gland": "Paired, almond-shaped exocrine glands situated superior and posterior to each orbit of the eye that produce and secrete the watery serous component of tears.", + "Laryngeal cartilage": "The nine cartilages that comprise the skeleton of the larynx, including the single thyroid, epiglottic, and cricoid cartilages, and the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages.", + "Larynx, NOS": "The cartilaginous structure of the respiratory tract between the pharynx and the trachea. It contains elastic vocal cords required for sound production.", + "Lateral floor of mouth": "", + "Lateral wall of bladder": "The aspect of the bladder wall that is located on the side.", + "Lateral wall of nasopharynx": "The aspect of the nasopharyngeal wall that is located on the side. It contains the pharyngeal opening of the auditory tube.", + "Lateral wall of oropharynx": "The aspect of the oropharyngeal wall that is located on the side.", + "Lesser curvature of stomach, NOS": "The right border of the stomach. It is concave in shape and extends from the cardiac orifice to the pyloric orifice.", + "Lingual tonsil": "The lymphoid follicles on the dorsal surface in the posterior region of the tongue.", + "Lip, NOS": "Fleshy fold which surrounds the opening of the mouth.", + "Liver": "A triangular-shaped organ located under the diaphragm in the right hypochondrium. It is the largest internal organ of the body, weighting up to 2 kg. Metabolism and bile secretion are its main functions. It is composed of cells which have the ability to regenerate.", + "Long bones of lower limb and associated joints": "", + "Long bones of upper limb, scapula and associated joints": "", + "Lower gum": "Lower Gingiva", + "Lower limb, NOS": "The limb that is composed of the hip, thigh, leg and foot.", + "Lower lobe, lung": "The bottom most subdivision of either the right or left lung.", + "Lower third of esophagus": "The lower one third of the esophagus in which the muscle layer is composed of muscle cells predominantly of the smooth type.", + "Lower-inner quadrant of breast": "The quarter of the breast which is inferior and medial.", + "Lower-outer quadrant of breast": "The quarter of the breast which is inferior and lateral.", + "Lung, NOS": "One of a pair of viscera occupying the pulmonary cavities of the thorax, the organs of respiration in which aeration of the blood takes place. As a rule, the right lung is slightly larger than the left and is divided into three lobes (an upper, a middle, and a lower or basal), while the left has two lobes (an upper and a lower or basal). Each lung is irregularly conical in shape, presenting a blunt upper extremity (the apex), a concave base following the curve of the diaphragm, an outer convex surface (costal surface), an inner or mediastinal surface (mediastinal surface), a thin and sharp anterior border, and a thick and rounded posterior border.", + "Lymph node, NOS": "A bean-shaped organ surrounded by a connective tissue capsule. It is part of the lymphatic system and is found throughout the body. It is composed predominantly of lymphocytes and its main function is immune protection.", + "Lymph nodes of axilla or arm": "One of approximately 20-30 lymph nodes in chain formation that traverse the concavity of the underarm to the clavicle.", + "Lymph nodes of head, face and neck": "Lymph nodes found within the head and neck region of the body, which drain into the deep cervical nodes, either directly or indirectly. These include the occipital, mastoid, parotid, facial, retropharyngeal, submandibular, submental, lingual and cervical lymph nodes. Any lymph node located in the head or neck.", + "Lymph nodes of inguinal region or leg": "Any lymph node that is located in the inguinal region or in either leg.", + "Lymph nodes of multiple regions": "", + "Main bronchus": "The left and right main bronchi considered as a group.", + "Major salivary gland, NOS": "An exocrine gland that secretes saliva. Salivary glands are mostly located in and around the oral cavity.", + "Male genital organs, NOS": "The external male sexual organs.", + "Mandible": "The lower jaw bone holding the lower teeth.", + "Maxillary sinus": "A pyramidal-shaped, thin-walled, air-filled cavity located in the maxilla. It is lined by mucus membrane and periosteum (mucoperiosteum) which contains cilia. It is adjacent to the nasal cavity and communicates with the middle meatus of the nose. It is the largest paranasal sinus and is composed of three recesses: alveolar, zygomatic, and infraorbital.", + "Meckel diverticulum": "A congenital pouch in the distal ileum. It may cause painless rectal bleeding and bowel obstruction.", + "Mediastinum, NOS": "A group of organs surrounded by loose connective tissue, separating the two pleural sacs, between the sternum anteriorly and the vertebral column posteriorly as well as from the thoracic inlet superiorly to the diaphragm inferiorly. The mediastinum contains the heart and pericardium, the bases of the great vessels, the trachea and bronchi, esophagus, thymus, lymph nodes, thoracic duct, phrenic and vagus nerves, and other structures and tissues.", + "Medulla of adrenal gland": "The inner region of the adrenal gland. The adrenal medulla produces, stores, and secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine.", + "Meninges, NOS": "Any one of three membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord.", + "Middle ear": "The part of the ear including the eardrum and ossicles. The middle ear leads to the inner ear.", + "Middle lobe, lung": "The smallest lobe of the right lung, situated above the oblique fissure and below the horizontal fissure.", + "Middle third of esophagus": "The middle one third of the esophagus in which the muscle layer is composed of muscle cells of the striated and smooth types.", + "Mouth, NOS": "The cavity located at the upper end of the alimentary canal, behind the teeth and gums that is bounded on the outside by the lips, above by the hard and soft palates and below by the tongue.", + "Mucosa of lip, NOS": "The lining of the fleshy folds surrounding the mouth. It is comprised of the epithelium, basement membrane, lamina propria mucosae, and lamina muscularis mucosae.", + "Mucosa of lower lip": "The lining of the inferior fleshy fold bordering the mouth. It is comprised of the epithelium, basement membrane, lamina propria mucosae, and lamina muscularis mucosae.", + "Mucosa of upper lip": "The lining of the superior fleshy fold bordering the mouth. It is comprised of the epithelium, basement membrane, lamina propria mucosae, and lamina muscularis mucosae.", + "Myometrium": "The smooth muscle lining the uterus.", + "Nasal cavity": "The proximal portion of the respiratory passages on either side of the nasal septum lying between the floor of the cranium and the roof of the mouth and extending from the face to the pharynx. The nasal cavity is lined with ciliated mucosa, extending from the nares to the pharynx.", + "Nasopharynx, NOS": "The part of the pharynx in the back of the throat, at and above the soft palate. The nasopharynx is continuous with the nasal passages.", + "Nervous system, NOS": "The entire nerve apparatus, composed of a central part, the brain and spinal cord, and a peripheral part, the cranial and spinal nerves, autonomic ganglia, and plexuses.", + "Nipple": "The pigmented protuberance on the surface of the breast through which milk is drawn from the breast.", + "Occipital lobe": "One of the four regions of cortex in each cerebral hemisphere. It is located posterior to the temporal lobe and inferior to the parietal lobe.", + "Olfactory nerve": "The first cranial nerve. It is the shortest cranial nerve and of paramount importance in the sense of smell. Its neurons are in the olfactory mucosa in the nasal cavity.", + "Optic nerve": "The second cranial nerve.", + "Orbit, NOS": "The bony cavity of the skull which contains the eye, anterior portion of the optic nerve, ocular muscles and ocular adnexa. Seven bones contribute to the structure of the orbit: the frontal, maxillary, zygomatic, sphenoid, lacrimal, ethmoid, and palatine bones.", + "Oropharynx, NOS": "The part of the pharynx between the soft palate and the upper portion of the epiglottis.", + "Other ill-defined sites": "An anatomic site that is not specified or defined well enough to associate with a specific site.", + "Other specified parts of female genital organs": "Female genital organs that are referenced in topographic category C57 of ICD-O-3.", + "Other specified parts of male genital organs": "Male genital organs that are referenced in topographic category C63 of ICD-O-3.", + "Other specified parts of pancreas": "Any component associated with the pancreas that is different from the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Ovary": "One of the paired female reproductive glands containing the ova or germ cells; the ovary's stroma is a vascular connective tissue containing numbers of ovarian follicles enclosing the ova.", + "Overlapping lesion of accessory sinuses": "", + "Overlapping lesion of biliary tract": "", + "Overlapping lesion of bladder": "", + "Overlapping lesion of bones, joints and articular cartilage": "", + "Overlapping lesion of bones, joints and articular cartilage of limbs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of brain": "", + "Overlapping lesion of brain and central nervous system": "", + "Overlapping lesion of breast": "", + "Overlapping lesion of cervix uteri": "", + "Overlapping lesion of colon": "", + "Overlapping lesion of connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues": "", + "Overlapping lesion of corpus uteri": "", + "Overlapping lesion of digestive system": "", + "Overlapping lesion of endocrine glands and related structures": "", + "Overlapping lesion of esophagus": "", + "Overlapping lesion of eye and adnexa": "", + "Overlapping lesion of female genital organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of floor of mouth": "", + "Overlapping lesion of heart, mediastinum and pleura": "", + "Overlapping lesion of hypopharynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of ill-defined sites": "", + "Overlapping lesion of larynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of lip": "", + "Overlapping lesion of lip, oral cavity and pharynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of lung": "", + "Overlapping lesion of major salivary glands": "", + "Overlapping lesion of male genital organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of nasopharynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of other and unspecified parts of mouth": "", + "Overlapping lesion of palate": "", + "Overlapping lesion of pancreas": "", + "Overlapping lesion of penis": "", + "Overlapping lesion of peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system": "", + "Overlapping lesion of rectum, anus and anal canal": "", + "Overlapping lesion of respiratory system and intrathoracic organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of retroperitoneum and peritoneum": "", + "Overlapping lesion of skin": "", + "Overlapping lesion of small intestine": "", + "Overlapping lesion of stomach": "", + "Overlapping lesion of tongue": "", + "Overlapping lesion of tonsil": "", + "Overlapping lesion of urinary organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of vulva": "", + "Overlapping lesions of oropharynx": "", + "Palate, NOS": "The roof of the oral cavity. It separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity.", + "Pancreas, NOS": "An organ behind the lower part of the stomach that is the shape of a fish and about the size of a hand. It is a compound gland composed of both exocrine and endocrine tissues. The endocrine pancreas makes insulin so that the body can use glucose (sugar) for energy. The exocrine pancreas makes enzymes that help the body digest food. Spread all over the pancreas are areas called the Islets of Langerhans. The cells in these areas each have a special purpose. The alpha cells make glucagon, which raises the level of glucose in the blood; the beta cells make insulin; the delta cells make somatostatin. There are also PP cells and D1 cells, about which little is known.", + "Pancreatic duct": "A duct joining the pancreas to the common bile duct to supply pancreatic juices.", + "Pancreatic neck": "", + "Parametrium": "The subserous connective tissue of the pelvic floor of the supracervical portion of the uterus. The parametrium extends laterally between the layers of the broad ligament.", + "Parathyroid gland": "One of two small paired endocrine glands, superior and inferior, usually found embedded in the connective tissue capsule on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland; these glands secrete parathyroid hormone that regulates the metabolism of calcium and phosphorus. The parenchyma is composed of chief and oxyphilic cells arranged in anastomosing cords.", + "Paraurethral gland": "A gland located in the anterior wall of the vagina that drains into the urethra at the opening.", + "Parietal lobe": "One of the lobes of the cerebral hemisphere located superiorly to the occipital lobe and posteriorly to the frontal lobe. Cognition and visuospatial processing are its main functions.", + "Parotid gland": "The largest of the three paired salivary glands, located in front of the ear.", + "Pelvic bones, sacrum, coccyx and associated joints": "", + "Pelvic lymph nodes": "Any lymph node within the abdominal pelvic region.", + "Pelvis, NOS": "The bony, basin-shaped structure formed by the hipbones and the base of the backbone supporting the lower limbs in humans.", + "Penis, NOS": "The male organ of urination and copulation.", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of abdomen": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of head, face, and neck": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of lower limb and hip": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of pelvis": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of thorax": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of trunk, NOS": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of upper limb and shoulder": "", + "Peritoneum, NOS": "The tissue that lines the wall of the abdominal cavity, intestine, mesentery, and pelvic organs. It consists of the parietal peritoneum and the visceral peritoneum.", + "Pharynx, NOS": "A hollow tube that starts posterior to the mouth and nasal cavity and ends superior to the trachea and esophagus.", + "Pineal gland": "A small endocrine gland in the brain, situated beneath the back part of the corpus callosum, that secretes melatonin.", + "Pituitary gland": "Pea-sized endocrine gland located at the base of the brain in the pituitary fossa. It produces and secretes hormones such as oxytocin and vasopressin, to regulate the activities of the hypothalamus.", + "Placenta": "An organ present in some vertebrates during embryonic gestation that surrounds the fetus and provides it with nutrients and oxygen, facilitates gas and waste exchange between the fetus and mother, and provides parasitic cloaking from the mother's immune system by excretion of neurokinin B.", + "Pleura, NOS": "The tissue that lines the wall of the thoracic cavity and the surface of the lungs.", + "Postcricoid region": "The portion of the hypopharynx that is located posteriorly to the larynx.", + "Posterior mediastinum": "The part of the lower portion of the mediastinum that is located behind the pericardium.", + "Posterior wall of bladder": "The posterior aspect of the bladder wall.", + "Posterior wall of hypopharynx": "The region of the hypopharynx demarcated by a plane drawn at the level of the tip of the epiglottis to a plane at the inferior border of the cricoid.", + "Posterior wall of nasopharynx": "The dorsal portion of the nasopharyngeal cavity that contains the pharyngeal tonsil.", + "Posterior wall of oropharynx": "The dorsal portion of the oropharyngeal cavity that is formed by the muscular pharyngeal wall comprising the superior and middle pharyngeal constrictor muscles.", + "Prepuce": "A covering fold of skin, often used alone to designate the preputium penis.", + "Prostate gland": "The walnut shaped accessory sex gland of the male reproductive system. It is located in the pelvis just below the bladder, surrounding the prostatic part of the urethra. The prostate gland secretes a fluid which is part of the semen.", + "Pylorus": "The lower part of the stomach that connects to the duodenum.", + "Pyriform sinus": "A pear-shaped fossa in the wall of the laryngeal pharynx lateral to the arytenoid cartilage and medial to the lamina of the thyroid cartilage.", + "Rectosigmoid junction": "The area where the sigmoid colon joins the rectum.", + "Rectum, NOS": "The terminal portion of the gastrointestinal tract, extending from the rectosigmoid junction to the anal canal.", + "Renal pelvis": "The funnel-shaped proximal portion of the ureter located within the kidney into which urine is secreted, from the collecting duct system of the kidney.", + "Reticuloendothelial system, NOS": "A widely distributed collection of both free and fixed macrophages derived from bone marrow precursor cells by way of monocytes; their substantial phagocytic activity is mediated by immunoglobulin and the serum complement system. In both connective and lymphoid tissue, they may occur as free and fixed macrophages; in the sinusoids of the liver, as Kupffer cells; in the lung, as alveolar macrophages; and in the nervous system, as microglia.", + "Retina": "A light-sensitive membrane that lines the back wall of the eyeball. The retina is continuous with the optic nerve and this way transmits optical images to the brain.", + "Retromolar area": "A triangular-shaped area of mucosa located posterior the last mandibular molar tooth.", + "Retroperitoneum": "The back of the abdomen where the kidneys lie and the great blood vessels run.", + "Rib, sternum, clavicle and associated joints": "", + "Round ligament": "Any of the round ligaments including the round ligament of the liver and the round ligament of the uterus.", + "Scrotum, NOS": "The musculocutaneous pouch that encloses the testicles.", + "Short bones of lower limb and associated joints": "", + "Short bones of upper limb and associated joints": "", + "Sigmoid colon": "The portion of the colon that connects to the descending colon above and the rectum below.", + "Skin of lip, NOS": "The skin portion of the lip that contains hair.", + "Skin of lower limb and hip": "The integumentary covering of the lower limb and hip region.", + "Skin of other and unspecified parts of face": "The integumentary covering of the face.", + "Skin of scalp and neck": "The integumentary covering of the scalp and neck.", + "Skin of trunk": "The skin or integument surrounding the trunk of the body.", + "Skin of upper limb and shoulder": "The integumentary covering of the upper limb and shoulder region.", + "Skin, NOS": "An organ that constitutes the external surface of the body. It consists of the epidermis, dermis, and skin appendages.", + "Small intestine, NOS": "The section of the intestines between the pylorus and cecum. The small intestine is approximately 20 feet long and consists of the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. Its main function is to absorb nutrients from food as the food is transported to the large intestine.", + "Soft palate, NOS": "The part of the pharynx between the soft palate and the upper portion of the epiglottis.", + "Specified parts of peritoneum": "", + "Spermatic cord": "A tube-like structure composed of the vas deferens and surrounding tissue layers, that runs from the abdomen to each of the testicles.", + "Sphenoid sinus": "Either of the paired paranasal sinuses, located in the anterior part of the body of the sphenoid bone and communicating with the superior meatus of the nasal cavity on the same side.", + "Spinal cord": "The elongated, approximately cylindrical part of the central nervous system of vertebrates that lies in the vertebral canal and from which the spinal nerves emerge.", + "Spinal meninges": "Connective tissue membranes that surround and support the spinal cord and cauda equina. They are continuous with cranial meninges, which surround and support the brain.", + "Spleen": "An organ that is part of the hematopoietic and immune systems. It is composed of the white pulp and the red pulp and is surrounded by a capsule. It is located in the left hypochondriac region. Its functions include lymphocyte production, blood cell storage, and blood cell destruction.", + "Splenic flexure of colon": "The bend at the junction of the transverse and descending colon.", + "Stomach, NOS": "An organ located under the diaphragm, between the liver and the spleen as well as between the esophagus and the small intestine. The stomach is the primary organ of food digestion.", + "Subglottis": "The area of the larynx below the vocal cords down to the trachea.", + "Sublingual gland": "A salivary gland located under the tongue in the floor of the oral cavity.", + "Submandibular gland": "One of a pair of major salivary glands located below the floor of the mouth.", + "Superior wall of nasopharynx": "The roof of the nasopharynx.", + "Supraglottis": "The upper part of the larynx, including the epiglottis; the area above the vocal cords.", + "Tail of pancreas": "The left extremity of the pancreas within the lienorenal ligament.", + "Temporal lobe": "One of the cerebral lobes. It is located inferior to the frontal and parietal lobes and anterior to the occipital lobe.", + "Testis, NOS": "Either of the paired male reproductive glands that produce the male germ cells and the male hormones.", + "Thoracic esophagus": "Clinical esophageal segment composed of smooth muscle. It includes the middle third topographic segment, as well as parts of the upper and lower thirds.", + "Thorax, NOS": "The division of the body lying between the neck and the abdomen.", + "Thymus": "A bi-lobed organ surrounded by a connective tissue capsule. It is located in the upper anterior portion of the chest, behind the sternum. It is composed predominantly of lymphocytes and fewer epithelial cells. Connective tissue septa separate the lobes into lobules. The lobules contain an outer portion (cortical zone) which is rich in lymphocytes and an inner portion (medullary zone) which is rich in epithelial cells. It is an organ essential for the development of the immune system. Its function is the maturation of the progenitor lymphoid cells to thymocytes and subsequently to mature T-cells. It reaches its greatest weight at puberty and subsequently begins to involute.", + "Thyroid gland": "An endocrine gland located at the base of the neck that produces and secretes thyroxine and other hormones. Thyroxine is important for metabolic control.", + "Tongue, NOS": "The muscular organ located in the floor of the mouth and serving as the principal organ of taste and modification of the voice in speech.", + "Tonsil, NOS": "Two masses of lymphatic tissue located one on either side of the oropharynx in the oropharyngeal isthmus.", + "Tonsillar fossa": "A triangular shaped space that lies on each side of the oropharynx and houses the palatine tonsils.", + "Tonsillar pillar": "The anterior and posterior borders of the tonsillar fossa. They are composed of muscle tissue.", + "Trachea": "The fibrocartilaginous, mucous-lined tube passing from the larynx to the bronchi.", + "Transverse colon": "The third division of the colon (large intestine). It communicates with the ascending colon in the upper right-hand quadrant of the abdomen and the descending colon in the upper left-hand quadrant.", + "Trigone of bladder": "The triangular area in the bladder mucosa that is formed by the two ureteral orifices and the urethral orifice.", + "Undescended testis": "The failure of one or both testes of a male fetus to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum during the late part of pregnancy. If not surgically corrected in early childhood, males may be at increased risk for testicular cancer later in life.", + "Unknown primary site": "Referring to the fact that the original site of growth of a metastatic cancer is unknown or uncertain.", + "Upper gum": "Upper Gingiva", + "Upper limb, NOS": "The region of the body that includes the arm, the forearm, and hand.", + "Upper lobe, lung": "The lobe of the right lung that lies above the oblique and horizontal fissures and includes the apical, posterior and anterior bronchopulmonary segments; in the left lung, the lobe lies above the oblique fissure and contains the apicoposterior, anterior, superior lingular and inferior lingular segments.", + "Upper respiratory tract, NOS": "The sinuses and those parts of the respiratory system above the trachea. It includes the nares, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, vocal cords, glottis and upper trachea.", + "Upper third of esophagus": "The upper one third of esophagus in which the muscle layer is composed of muscle cells of the striated type.", + "Upper-inner quadrant of breast": "The quarter of the breast which is superior and medial.", + "Upper-outer quadrant of breast": "The quarter of the breast which is superior and lateral.", + "Urachus": "A cord of fibrous tissue that extends from the urinary bladder to the umbilicus. The urachus is a remnant of the fetal urinary canal.", + "Ureter": "The thick-walled tube that carries urine from each kidney to the bladder.", + "Ureteric orifice": "The opening of the ureter in the bladder that is situated at the lateral angle of the trigone.", + "Urethra": "The tube carrying urine from the bladder to outside of the body.", + "Urinary system, NOS": "The organs involved in the creation and excretion of urine.", + "Uterine adnexa": "The accessory structures of the uterus, including the ovaries, fallopian tubes, broad ligament, and the ovarian and uterine ligaments.", + "Uterus, NOS": "A hollow, thick-walled, muscular organ located within the pelvic cavity of a woman. Within the uterus the fertilized egg implants and the fetus develops during pregnancy.", + "Uvula": "The fleshy lobe that hangs at the back of the soft palate.", + "Vagina, NOS": "The female genital canal, extending from the uterus to the vulva.", + "Vallecula": "A groove between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis.", + "Ventral surface of tongue, NOS": "", + "Ventricle, NOS": "The four connected cavities (hollow spaces) centrally located within the brain that connect posteriorly with the central canal of the spinal cord.", + "Vertebral column": "A series of bones, muscles, tendons, and other tissues reaching from the base of the skull to the tailbone. The vertebral column forms the axis of the skeleton and encloses as well as protects the spinal cord and the fluid surrounding the spinal cord.", + "Vestibule of mouth": "The area inside the mouth between the cheek or lips, and the teeth.", + "Vulva, NOS": "The external, visible part of the female genitalia surrounding the urethral and vaginal opening. The vulva includes the clitoris and inner as well as outer labia.", + "Waldeyer ring": "The ring of lymphoid tissue located in the pharynx, consisting of the pharyngeal, tubal, palatine, and lingual tonsils.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "sites_of_involvement": { + "column_description": "The anatomic sites of disease involvement in addition to the primary anatomic site.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "sites_of_involvement_count": { + "column_description": "The number of anatomic sites of disease.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "supratentorial_localization": { + "column_description": "Text term to specify the location of the supratentorial tumor.", + "value_data": { + "Cerebral Cortex": "The outer layer of the cerebrum composed of neurons and unmyelinated nerve fibers. It is responsible for memory, attention, consciousness and other higher levels of mental function.", + "Deep Gray (e.g. Basal Ganglia, Thalamus)": "The gray matter that includes the basal ganglia and/or thalamus.", + "Frontal lobe": "The part of the brain located anterior to the parietal lobes at the front of each cerebral hemisphere.", + "Occipital lobe": "One of the four regions of cortex in each cerebral hemisphere. It is located posterior to the temporal lobe and inferior to the parietal lobe.", + "Parietal lobe": "One of the lobes of the cerebral hemisphere located superiorly to the occipital lobe and posteriorly to the frontal lobe. Cognition and visuospatial processing are its main functions.", + "Spinal Cord": "The elongated, approximately cylindrical part of the central nervous system of vertebrates that lies in the vertebral canal and from which the spinal nerves emerge.", + "Temporal lobe": "One of the cerebral lobes. It is located inferior to the frontal and parietal lobes and anterior to the occipital lobe.", + "White Matter": "The nerve tissue forming the bulk of the deep parts of the brain and the superficial parts of the spinal cord. It is composed of nerve cell processes, i.e. extensions (axons), which connect various grey matter areas of the brain to each other and carry nerve impulses to and from the nerve cell bodies within the central nervous system (neurons). Cerebral and spinal white matter does not contain dendrites. White matter is distinguished in that it is composed of axonal nerve fibers covered by a myelin sheath.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "synchronous_malignancy": { + "column_description": "A yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether the patient had an additional malignant diagnosis at the same time the tumor used for sequencing was diagnosed. If both tumors were sequenced, both tumors would have synchronous malignancies.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "tissue_or_organ_of_origin": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the anatomic site of origin, of the patient's malignant disease, as described by the World Health Organization's (WHO) International Classification of Diseases for Oncology (ICD-O).", + "value_data": { + "Abdomen, NOS": "The portion of the body that lies between the thorax and the pelvis.", + "Abdominal esophagus": "Clinical esophageal segment composed of smooth muscle. It corresponds to the inferior part of the lower third topographic segment of the esophagus.", + "Accessory sinus, NOS": "Any one of the air-filled spaces within the ethmoid, frontal, maxillary, or sphenoid bones, which communicate with the nasal cavity.", + "Acoustic nerve": "The cochlear portion of cranial nerve VIII (the vestibulocochlear nerve), which transmits auditory sensory impulses to the cochlear nucleus in the brainstem.", + "Adrenal gland, NOS": "A flattened, roughly triangular body resting upon the upper end of each kidney; it is one of the ductless glands furnishing internal secretions (epinephrine and norepinephrine from the medulla and steroid hormones from the cortex).", + "Ampulla of Vater": "The junction of the common bile and main pancreatic ducts, which protrudes into the medial aspect of the descending duodenum at the major duodenal papilla. The flow of bile and pancreatic juices into the duodenum through the Ampulla of Vater is controlled by the sphincter of Oddi.", + "Anal canal": "The terminal section of the alimentary canal, which extends from the anorectal junction and ends at the anal opening.", + "Anterior 2/3 of tongue, NOS": "", + "Anterior floor of mouth": "", + "Anterior mediastinum": "The area between the lungs; it contains the thymus, some lymph nodes, and vessels and branches of the internal thoracic artery.", + "Anterior surface of epiglottis": "The lingual or upper surface of the epiglottis.", + "Anterior wall of bladder": "The anterior aspect of the bladder wall.", + "Anterior wall of nasopharynx": "The anterior aspect of the nasopharynx.", + "Anus, NOS": "The lower opening of the digestive tract, lying in the cleft between the buttocks, through which fecal matter is extruded.", + "Aortic body and other paraganglia": "", + "Appendix": "Small tissue projection existing as a cecal diverticulum with a questionable history of vestigial versus specialized organ.", + "Ascending colon": "The first part of the colon (large intestine) that starts in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen and ends at the transverse colon in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.", + "Autonomic nervous system, NOS": "The part of the nervous system of vertebrates that controls involuntary actions of the smooth muscles and heart and glands.", + "Axillary tail of breast": "The superolateral extension of the mammary gland into the axilla that consists of fibroadipose tissue, lymph nodes, and lymphatics.", + "Base of tongue, NOS": "The posterior one third of the tongue behind the terminal sulcus that forms the anterior aspect of the oro-pharynx responsible for swallowing and modification of the voice in speech.", + "Biliary tract, NOS": "The system that transports bile from the hepatocytes in the liver to the small intestine. It is comprised of the intrahepatic bile ducts, hepatic ducts, common bile duct, cystic duct, and the gallbladder.", + "Bladder neck": "The inferior portion of the urinary bladder which is formed as the walls of the bladder converge and become contiguous with the proximal urethra.", + "Bladder, NOS": "The distensible sac-like organ that functions as a reservoir of urine, collecting from the kidneys and eliminating via the urethra.", + "Blood": "A liquid tissue; its major function is to transport oxygen throughout the body. It also supplies the tissues with nutrients, removes waste products, and contains various components of the immune system defending the body against infection. Several hormones also travel in the blood.", + "Body of pancreas": "The part of the pancreas from the point where it crosses the portal vein to the point where it enters the lienorenal ligament.", + "Body of penis": "The portion of the penis that extends from the site of attachment to the glans, and which is covered by skin. It is formed by the joining of the two proximal free parts of the corpora cavernosa and the related free part of the corpus spongiosum.", + "Body of stomach": "The main section of the digestive tube that connects the esophagus to the small intestine. The body proper excludes the upper and lower sections of the fundus and pyloric portion respectively.", + "Bone marrow": "The tissue occupying the spaces of bone. It consists of blood vessel sinuses and a network of hematopoietic cells which give rise to the red cells, white cells, and megakaryocytes.", + "Bone of limb, NOS": "A bone within a limb of the body.", + "Bone, NOS": "Connective tissue that forms the skeletal components of the body.", + "Bones of skull and face and associated joints": "", + "Border of tongue": "", + "Brain stem": "Three sections, the midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata, that are located at the base of the brain. The brain stem regulates the central nervous system, and is vital as a conduit for motor and sensory innervations.", + "Brain, NOS": "An organ composed of grey and white matter containing billions of neurons that is the center for intelligence and reasoning. It is protected by the bony cranium.", + "Branchial cleft": "A congenital defect in the neck that occurs during early embryonic development. It is caused by developmental abnormalities of the pharyngeal arches and results in the development of a cyst or a fissure in the side of the neck.", + "Breast, NOS": "One of two hemispheric projections of variable size situated in the subcutaneous layer over the pectoralis major muscle on either side of the chest.", + "Broad ligament": "A wide fold of peritoneum that connects the uterus to the lateral walls and floor of the pelvis, and contains the ovaries, fallopian tubes, ovarian ligaments, round ligament of the uterus, and ovarian and uterine arteries.", + "Cardia, NOS": "The area around the esophagogastric mucosal junction where the esophageal mucosa transitions into the gastric mucosa.", + "Carotid body": "A cluster of cells that function as chemo-receptors, located at the bifurcation of the carotid artery. Its main purpose is to detect changes in the composition of arterial blood.", + "Cauda equina": "The collection of spinal nerve roots, arising from lumbar pairs two through five, sacral pairs one through five, and the coccygeal nerve, that branch off the conus medularis at the termination of the spinal cord, and float freely within the lumbar cistern before exiting the spinal column at the appropriate vertebra.", + "Cecum": "A blind pouch-like commencement of the colon in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen at the end of the small intestine and the start of the large intestine.", + "Central portion of breast": "The part of the breast which is in the center.", + "Cerebellum, NOS": "The portion of the brain located at the base of the skull that is responsible for balance, equilibrium and movement.", + "Cerebral meninges": "The membranes that envelop and protect the brain.", + "Cerebrum": "The part of the brain that controls muscle functions and also controls speech, thought, emotions, reading, writing, and learning. The right hemisphere controls the muscles on the left side of the body, and the left hemisphere controls the muscles on the right side of the body.", + "Cervical esophagus": "Clinical esophageal segment composed of skeletal muscle. It corresponds to the superior part of the upper third topographic segment of the esophagus.", + "Cervix uteri": "The lower part of the uterus occupying the region between the isthmus of the uterus and the vagina. It is divided into supravaginal and vaginal portions.", + "Cheek mucosa": "The mucosal membranes located on the inside of the cheek, in the buccal cavity.", + "Choroid": "A blood vessel-containing membrane of the eye that lies between the retina and the sclera.", + "Ciliary body": "Tissue located behind the iris and composed of muscle and epithelium. Its functions include the production of aqueous humor and changing the shape of the crystalline lens.", + "Clitoris": "The erectile tissue in the vulva. It is composed of the corpora cavernosa and the glans clitoris.", + "Cloacogenic zone": "The middle segment of the anal canal between the colorectal and squamous zones.", + "Colon, NOS": "The part of the large intestine measured from the cecum to the rectum consisting of ascending, transverse, descending and sigmoid portions. The purpose of the colon is to remove water from digested food prior to excretion.", + "Commissure of lip": "The junction of the upper and lower lips at the corner of the mouth.", + "Conjunctiva": "A thin, transparent tissue divided into the palpebral conjunctiva (covering the inner side of the eye lid) and the bulbar conjunctiva (covering the eyeball).", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of abdomen": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of head, face, and neck": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of lower limb and hip": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of pelvis": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of thorax": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of trunk, NOS": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues of upper limb and shoulder": "", + "Connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues, NOS": "", + "Cornea, NOS": "A dome-shaped, transparent, avascular tissue covering the front of the eye. It is composed of five layers: squamous epithelium, Bowman's membrane, stroma, Descemet's membrane, and endothelium. Refraction of light contributing to eye's focusing ability is its characteristic function. It contains unmyelinated nerve endings which are responsible for the high sensitivity of the tissue.", + "Corpus uteri": "The Corpus uteri, or body of uterus, is the part of the uterus above the isthmus, comprising about two thirds of the non-pregnant organ.", + "Cortex of adrenal gland": "The outer region of the adrenal gland consisting of the zona glomerulosa, the zona fasciculata, and the zona reticularis. The adrenal cortex produces and secretes mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and adrenal androgens.", + "Cranial nerve, NOS": "Any of the 12 paired nerves that originate in the brain stem.", + "Craniopharyngeal duct": "The slender tubular part of the hypophysial diverticulum; the stalk of Rathke's pocket.", + "Descended testis": "", + "Descending colon": "The fourth portion of the large intestine (colon) that communicates with the transverse colon in the left-upper quadrant of the abdomen and the rectum below.", + "Dome of bladder": "The upper, convex surface of the bladder.", + "Dorsal surface of tongue, NOS": "", + "Duodenum": "A jointed tube 25-30 cm long that connects the stomach to the jejunum.", + "Endocervix": "The portion of the cervix which is lined by single columnar epithelium (mucosa).", + "Endocrine gland, NOS": "Ductless glands that secrete substances which are released directly into the circulation and which influence metabolism and other body functions.", + "Endometrium": "The mucous membrane comprising the inner layer of the uterine wall; it consists of a simple columnar epithelium and a lamina propria that contains simple tubular uterine glands. The structure, thickness, and state of the endometrium undergo marked change with the menstrual cycle.", + "Epididymis": "A crescent-like structure located in the upper and posterior surfaces of the testis. It consists of the efferent ductules and the duct of the epididymis. It facilitates the maturation of sperm that is produced in the testis.", + "Esophagus, NOS": "The portion of the digestive canal between the pharynx and stomach. It is about 25 cm long and consists of three parts: the cervical part, from the cricoid cartilage to the thoracic inlet; thoracic part, from thoracic inlet to the diaphragm; and abdominal part, below the diaphragm to the cardiac opening of the stomach.", + "Ethmoid sinus": "A sinus of the meatuses of the nasal cavity.", + "Exocervix": "The portion of the cervix that extends into the vaginal vault, and is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.", + "External ear": "The external part of the ear.", + "External lip, NOS": "One of two visible fleshy folds that surround the orifice of the mouth.", + "External lower lip": "The external surface of the lower lip.", + "External upper lip": "The external surface of the upper lip.", + "Extrahepatic bile duct": "The portion of the biliary tract outside the liver; the common hepatic duct joins the cystic duct to form the common bile duct.", + "Eye, NOS": "The organ of sight or vision.", + "Eyelid": "A thin membrane of skin with the purpose of covering and protecting an eye.", + "Fallopian tube": "One of a pair of tubes that extend from the uterus to each of the ovaries. Following ovulation the egg travels down the fallopian tube to the uterus where fertilization may or may not occur.", + "Female genital tract, NOS": "The external female sexual organs.", + "Floor of mouth, NOS": "The area of the mouth under the ventral surface of the tongue.", + "Frontal lobe": "The part of the brain located anterior to the parietal lobes at the front of each cerebral hemisphere.", + "Frontal sinus": "The paired, mucosal lined air spaces located above the orbit and communicating with the nasal passages.", + "Fundus of stomach": "The portion of the stomach that lies above the cardiac notch. It allows for the accumulation of gases produced by chemical digestion.", + "Fundus uteri": "The upper, rounded portion of the uterus which is opposite from the cervix.", + "Gallbladder": "A pear-shaped organ located under the liver that stores and concentrates bile secreted by the liver. From the gallbladder the bile is delivered through the bile ducts into the intestine thereby aiding the digestion of fat-containing foods.", + "Gastric antrum": "The initial part of the pyloric canal of the stomach. This site contains endocrine cells that produce gastrin and somatostatin.", + "Gastrointestinal tract, NOS": "The upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract is comprised of mouth, pharynx, esophagus and stomach while the lower GI tract consists of intestines and anus. The primary function of the GI tract is to ingest, digest, absorb and ultimately excrete food stuff.", + "Glans penis": "The most distal portion of the penis covered by the foreskin.", + "Glottis": "The space in which the vocal cords are located.", + "Greater curvature of stomach, NOS": "The lateral and inferior border of the stomach. Attached to it is the greater omentum.", + "Gum, NOS": "The soft tissue surrounding the neck of individual teeth as well as covering the alveolar bone. The tissue is fibrous and continuous with the periodontal ligament and mucosal covering.", + "Hard palate": "The bony anterior part of the roof of the mouth separating the nose from the mouth.", + "Head of pancreas": "That portion of the pancreas lying in the concavity of the duodenum.", + "Head, face or neck, NOS": "", + "Heart": "A hollow organ located slightly to the left of the middle portion of the chest. It is composed of muscle and it is divided by a septum into two sides: the right side which receives de-oxygenated blood from the body and the left side which sends newly oxygenated blood to the body. Each side is composed of two chambers: the atrium (receiving blood) and ventricle (ejecting blood).", + "Hematopoietic system, NOS": "The bodily system of organs and tissues, primarily the bone marrow, spleen, tonsils, and lymph nodes, involved in the production of blood.", + "Hepatic flexure of colon": "The bend of the colon at the juncture of its ascending and transverse portions.", + "Hypopharyngeal aspect of aryepiglottic fold": "", + "Hypopharynx, NOS": "The lower part of the pharynx that connects to the esophagus.", + "Ileum": "The final section of the small intestine.", + "Ill-defined sites within respiratory system": "Anatomic sites within the respiratory system and intrathoracic organs that are referenced in topographic category C39 of ICD-O-3.", + "Intestinal tract, NOS": "The portion of the gastrointestinal tract between the stomach and the anus. It includes the small intestine and large intestine.", + "Intra-abdominal lymph nodes": "Any lymph node within the abdomen.", + "Intrahepatic bile duct": "The bile ducts which are located within the liver. They include the small interlobular bile ducts, intrahepatic large bile ducts, and the intrahepatic portions of the left and right hepatic ducts.", + "Intrathoracic lymph nodes": "Any lymph node within the thoracic cavity.", + "Islets of Langerhans": "The pancreatic tissue that contains the islets of Langerhans. It is responsible for the production and secretions of the pancreatic hormones.", + "Isthmus uteri": "An elongated constriction of the lower part of the uterus, located at the junction of the body of the uterus and the cervix, that is composed principally of smooth muscle.", + "Jejunum": "The portion of the small intestine that extends from the duodenum to the ileum.", + "Kidney, NOS": "One of the two bean-shaped organs located on each side of the spine in the retroperitoneum. The right kidney is located below the liver and the left kidney below the diaphragm. The kidneys filter and secret the metabolic products and minerals from the blood, thus maintaining the homeostasis. On the superior pole of each kidney there is an adrenal gland. Each kidney and adrenal gland is surrounded by fat.", + "Labium majus": "One of the two longitudinal folds of skin that form the lateral boundary of the vulva. It extends from the mons pubis to the perineum.", + "Labium minus": "One of the two longitudinal folds of skin located between the labia majora.", + "Lacrimal gland": "Paired, almond-shaped exocrine glands situated superior and posterior to each orbit of the eye that produce and secrete the watery serous component of tears.", + "Laryngeal cartilage": "The nine cartilages that comprise the skeleton of the larynx, including the single thyroid, epiglottic, and cricoid cartilages, and the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages.", + "Laryngeal commissure": "", + "Larynx, NOS": "The cartilaginous structure of the respiratory tract between the pharynx and the trachea. It contains elastic vocal cords required for sound production.", + "Lateral floor of mouth": "", + "Lateral wall of bladder": "The aspect of the bladder wall that is located on the side.", + "Lateral wall of nasopharynx": "The aspect of the nasopharyngeal wall that is located on the side. It contains the pharyngeal opening of the auditory tube.", + "Lateral wall of oropharynx": "The aspect of the oropharyngeal wall that is located on the side.", + "Lesser curvature of stomach, NOS": "The right border of the stomach. It is concave in shape and extends from the cardiac orifice to the pyloric orifice.", + "Lingual tonsil": "The lymphoid follicles on the dorsal surface in the posterior region of the tongue.", + "Lip, NOS": "Fleshy fold which surrounds the opening of the mouth.", + "Liver": "A triangular-shaped organ located under the diaphragm in the right hypochondrium. It is the largest internal organ of the body, weighting up to 2 kg. Metabolism and bile secretion are its main functions. It is composed of cells which have the ability to regenerate.", + "Long bones of lower limb and associated joints": "", + "Long bones of upper limb, scapula and associated joints": "", + "Lower gum": "Lower Gingiva", + "Lower limb, NOS": "The limb that is composed of the hip, thigh, leg and foot.", + "Lower lobe, lung": "The bottom most subdivision of either the right or left lung.", + "Lower third of esophagus": "The lower one third of the esophagus in which the muscle layer is composed of muscle cells predominantly of the smooth type.", + "Lower-inner quadrant of breast": "The quarter of the breast which is inferior and medial.", + "Lower-outer quadrant of breast": "The quarter of the breast which is inferior and lateral.", + "Lung, NOS": "One of a pair of viscera occupying the pulmonary cavities of the thorax, the organs of respiration in which aeration of the blood takes place. As a rule, the right lung is slightly larger than the left and is divided into three lobes (an upper, a middle, and a lower or basal), while the left has two lobes (an upper and a lower or basal). Each lung is irregularly conical in shape, presenting a blunt upper extremity (the apex), a concave base following the curve of the diaphragm, an outer convex surface (costal surface), an inner or mediastinal surface (mediastinal surface), a thin and sharp anterior border, and a thick and rounded posterior border.", + "Lymph node, NOS": "A bean-shaped organ surrounded by a connective tissue capsule. It is part of the lymphatic system and is found throughout the body. It is composed predominantly of lymphocytes and its main function is immune protection.", + "Lymph nodes of axilla or arm": "One of approximately 20-30 lymph nodes in chain formation that traverse the concavity of the underarm to the clavicle.", + "Lymph nodes of head, face and neck": "Lymph nodes found within the head and neck region of the body, which drain into the deep cervical nodes, either directly or indirectly. These include the occipital, mastoid, parotid, facial, retropharyngeal, submandibular, submental, lingual and cervical lymph nodes. Any lymph node located in the head or neck.", + "Lymph nodes of inguinal region or leg": "Any lymph node that is located in the inguinal region or in either leg.", + "Lymph nodes of multiple regions": "", + "Main bronchus": "The left and right main bronchi considered as a group.", + "Major salivary gland, NOS": "An exocrine gland that secretes saliva. Salivary glands are mostly located in and around the oral cavity.", + "Male genital organs, NOS": "The external male sexual organs.", + "Mandible": "The lower jaw bone holding the lower teeth.", + "Maxillary sinus": "A pyramidal-shaped, thin-walled, air-filled cavity located in the maxilla. It is lined by mucus membrane and periosteum (mucoperiosteum) which contains cilia. It is adjacent to the nasal cavity and communicates with the middle meatus of the nose. It is the largest paranasal sinus and is composed of three recesses: alveolar, zygomatic, and infraorbital.", + "Meckel diverticulum": "A congenital pouch in the distal ileum. It may cause painless rectal bleeding and bowel obstruction.", + "Mediastinum, NOS": "A group of organs surrounded by loose connective tissue, separating the two pleural sacs, between the sternum anteriorly and the vertebral column posteriorly as well as from the thoracic inlet superiorly to the diaphragm inferiorly. The mediastinum contains the heart and pericardium, the bases of the great vessels, the trachea and bronchi, esophagus, thymus, lymph nodes, thoracic duct, phrenic and vagus nerves, and other structures and tissues.", + "Medulla of adrenal gland": "The inner region of the adrenal gland. The adrenal medulla produces, stores, and secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine.", + "Meninges, NOS": "Any one of three membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord.", + "Middle ear": "The part of the ear including the eardrum and ossicles. The middle ear leads to the inner ear.", + "Middle lobe, lung": "The smallest lobe of the right lung, situated above the oblique fissure and below the horizontal fissure.", + "Middle third of esophagus": "The middle one third of the esophagus in which the muscle layer is composed of muscle cells of the striated and smooth types.", + "Mouth, NOS": "The cavity located at the upper end of the alimentary canal, behind the teeth and gums that is bounded on the outside by the lips, above by the hard and soft palates and below by the tongue.", + "Mucosa of lip, NOS": "The lining of the fleshy folds surrounding the mouth. It is comprised of the epithelium, basement membrane, lamina propria mucosae, and lamina muscularis mucosae.", + "Mucosa of lower lip": "The lining of the inferior fleshy fold bordering the mouth. It is comprised of the epithelium, basement membrane, lamina propria mucosae, and lamina muscularis mucosae.", + "Mucosa of upper lip": "The lining of the superior fleshy fold bordering the mouth. It is comprised of the epithelium, basement membrane, lamina propria mucosae, and lamina muscularis mucosae.", + "Myometrium": "The smooth muscle lining the uterus.", + "Nasal cavity": "The proximal portion of the respiratory passages on either side of the nasal septum lying between the floor of the cranium and the roof of the mouth and extending from the face to the pharynx. The nasal cavity is lined with ciliated mucosa, extending from the nares to the pharynx.", + "Nasopharynx, NOS": "The part of the pharynx in the back of the throat, at and above the soft palate. The nasopharynx is continuous with the nasal passages.", + "Nervous system, NOS": "The entire nerve apparatus, composed of a central part, the brain and spinal cord, and a peripheral part, the cranial and spinal nerves, autonomic ganglia, and plexuses.", + "Nipple": "The pigmented protuberance on the surface of the breast through which milk is drawn from the breast.", + "Occipital lobe": "One of the four regions of cortex in each cerebral hemisphere. It is located posterior to the temporal lobe and inferior to the parietal lobe.", + "Olfactory nerve": "The first cranial nerve. It is the shortest cranial nerve and of paramount importance in the sense of smell. Its neurons are in the olfactory mucosa in the nasal cavity.", + "Optic nerve": "The second cranial nerve.", + "Orbit, NOS": "The bony cavity of the skull which contains the eye, anterior portion of the optic nerve, ocular muscles and ocular adnexa. Seven bones contribute to the structure of the orbit: the frontal, maxillary, zygomatic, sphenoid, lacrimal, ethmoid, and palatine bones.", + "Oropharynx, NOS": "The part of the pharynx between the soft palate and the upper portion of the epiglottis.", + "Other ill-defined sites": "An anatomic site that is not specified or defined well enough to associate with a specific site.", + "Other specified parts of female genital organs": "Female genital organs that are referenced in topographic category C57 of ICD-O-3.", + "Other specified parts of male genital organs": "Male genital organs that are referenced in topographic category C63 of ICD-O-3.", + "Other specified parts of pancreas": "Any component associated with the pancreas that is different from the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Ovary": "One of the paired female reproductive glands containing the ova or germ cells; the ovary's stroma is a vascular connective tissue containing numbers of ovarian follicles enclosing the ova.", + "Overlapping lesion of accessory sinuses": "", + "Overlapping lesion of biliary tract": "", + "Overlapping lesion of bladder": "", + "Overlapping lesion of bones, joints and articular cartilage": "", + "Overlapping lesion of bones, joints and articular cartilage of limbs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of brain": "", + "Overlapping lesion of brain and central nervous system": "", + "Overlapping lesion of breast": "", + "Overlapping lesion of cervix uteri": "", + "Overlapping lesion of colon": "", + "Overlapping lesion of connective, subcutaneous and other soft tissues": "", + "Overlapping lesion of corpus uteri": "", + "Overlapping lesion of digestive system": "", + "Overlapping lesion of endocrine glands and related structures": "", + "Overlapping lesion of esophagus": "", + "Overlapping lesion of eye and adnexa": "", + "Overlapping lesion of female genital organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of floor of mouth": "", + "Overlapping lesion of heart, mediastinum and pleura": "", + "Overlapping lesion of hypopharynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of ill-defined sites": "", + "Overlapping lesion of larynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of lip": "", + "Overlapping lesion of lip, oral cavity and pharynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of lung": "", + "Overlapping lesion of major salivary glands": "", + "Overlapping lesion of male genital organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of nasopharynx": "", + "Overlapping lesion of other and unspecified parts of mouth": "", + "Overlapping lesion of palate": "", + "Overlapping lesion of pancreas": "", + "Overlapping lesion of penis": "", + "Overlapping lesion of peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system": "", + "Overlapping lesion of rectum, anus and anal canal": "", + "Overlapping lesion of respiratory system and intrathoracic organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of retroperitoneum and peritoneum": "", + "Overlapping lesion of skin": "", + "Overlapping lesion of small intestine": "", + "Overlapping lesion of stomach": "", + "Overlapping lesion of tongue": "", + "Overlapping lesion of tonsil": "", + "Overlapping lesion of urinary organs": "", + "Overlapping lesion of vulva": "", + "Overlapping lesions of oropharynx": "", + "Palate, NOS": "The roof of the oral cavity. It separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity.", + "Pancreas, NOS": "An organ behind the lower part of the stomach that is the shape of a fish and about the size of a hand. It is a compound gland composed of both exocrine and endocrine tissues. The endocrine pancreas makes insulin so that the body can use glucose (sugar) for energy. The exocrine pancreas makes enzymes that help the body digest food. Spread all over the pancreas are areas called the Islets of Langerhans. The cells in these areas each have a special purpose. The alpha cells make glucagon, which raises the level of glucose in the blood; the beta cells make insulin; the delta cells make somatostatin. There are also PP cells and D1 cells, about which little is known.", + "Pancreatic duct": "A duct joining the pancreas to the common bile duct to supply pancreatic juices.", + "Parametrium": "The subserous connective tissue of the pelvic floor of the supracervical portion of the uterus. The parametrium extends laterally between the layers of the broad ligament.", + "Parathyroid gland": "One of two small paired endocrine glands, superior and inferior, usually found embedded in the connective tissue capsule on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland; these glands secrete parathyroid hormone that regulates the metabolism of calcium and phosphorus. The parenchyma is composed of chief and oxyphilic cells arranged in anastomosing cords.", + "Paraurethral gland": "A gland located in the anterior wall of the vagina that drains into the urethra at the opening.", + "Parietal lobe": "One of the lobes of the cerebral hemisphere located superiorly to the occipital lobe and posteriorly to the frontal lobe. Cognition and visuospatial processing are its main functions.", + "Parotid gland": "The largest of the three paired salivary glands, located in front of the ear.", + "Pelvic bones, sacrum, coccyx and associated joints": "", + "Pelvic lymph nodes": "Any lymph node within the abdominal pelvic region.", + "Pelvis, NOS": "The bony, basin-shaped structure formed by the hipbones and the base of the backbone supporting the lower limbs in humans.", + "Penis, NOS": "The male organ of urination and copulation.", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of abdomen": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of head, face, and neck": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of lower limb and hip": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of pelvis": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of thorax": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of trunk, NOS": "", + "Peripheral nerves and autonomic nervous system of upper limb and shoulder": "", + "Peritoneum, NOS": "The tissue that lines the wall of the abdominal cavity, intestine, mesentery, and pelvic organs. It consists of the parietal peritoneum and the visceral peritoneum.", + "Pharynx, NOS": "A hollow tube that starts posterior to the mouth and nasal cavity and ends superior to the trachea and esophagus.", + "Pineal gland": "A small endocrine gland in the brain, situated beneath the back part of the corpus callosum, that secretes melatonin.", + "Pituitary gland": "Pea-sized endocrine gland located at the base of the brain in the pituitary fossa. It produces and secretes hormones such as oxytocin and vasopressin, to regulate the activities of the hypothalamus.", + "Placenta": "An organ present in some vertebrates during embryonic gestation that surrounds the fetus and provides it with nutrients and oxygen, facilitates gas and waste exchange between the fetus and mother, and provides parasitic cloaking from the mother's immune system by excretion of neurokinin B.", + "Pleura, NOS": "The tissue that lines the wall of the thoracic cavity and the surface of the lungs.", + "Postcricoid region": "The portion of the hypopharynx that is located posteriorly to the larynx.", + "Posterior mediastinum": "The part of the lower portion of the mediastinum that is located behind the pericardium.", + "Posterior wall of bladder": "The posterior aspect of the bladder wall.", + "Posterior wall of hypopharynx": "The region of the hypopharynx demarcated by a plane drawn at the level of the tip of the epiglottis to a plane at the inferior border of the cricoid.", + "Posterior wall of nasopharynx": "The dorsal portion of the nasopharyngeal cavity that contains the pharyngeal tonsil.", + "Posterior wall of oropharynx": "The dorsal portion of the oropharyngeal cavity that is formed by the muscular pharyngeal wall comprising the superior and middle pharyngeal constrictor muscles.", + "Prepuce": "A covering fold of skin, often used alone to designate the preputium penis.", + "Prostate gland": "The walnut shaped accessory sex gland of the male reproductive system. It is located in the pelvis just below the bladder, surrounding the prostatic part of the urethra. The prostate gland secretes a fluid which is part of the semen.", + "Pylorus": "The lower part of the stomach that connects to the duodenum.", + "Pyriform sinus": "A pear-shaped fossa in the wall of the laryngeal pharynx lateral to the arytenoid cartilage and medial to the lamina of the thyroid cartilage.", + "Rectosigmoid junction": "The area where the sigmoid colon joins the rectum.", + "Rectum, NOS": "The terminal portion of the gastrointestinal tract, extending from the rectosigmoid junction to the anal canal.", + "Renal pelvis": "The funnel-shaped proximal portion of the ureter located within the kidney into which urine is secreted, from the collecting duct system of the kidney.", + "Reticuloendothelial system, NOS": "A widely distributed collection of both free and fixed macrophages derived from bone marrow precursor cells by way of monocytes; their substantial phagocytic activity is mediated by immunoglobulin and the serum complement system. In both connective and lymphoid tissue, they may occur as free and fixed macrophages; in the sinusoids of the liver, as Kupffer cells; in the lung, as alveolar macrophages; and in the nervous system, as microglia.", + "Retina": "A light-sensitive membrane that lines the back wall of the eyeball. The retina is continuous with the optic nerve and this way transmits optical images to the brain.", + "Retromolar area": "A triangular-shaped area of mucosa located posterior the last mandibular molar tooth.", + "Retroperitoneum": "The back of the abdomen where the kidneys lie and the great blood vessels run.", + "Rib, sternum, clavicle and associated joints": "", + "Round ligament": "Any of the round ligaments including the round ligament of the liver and the round ligament of the uterus.", + "Scrotum, NOS": "The musculocutaneous pouch that encloses the testicles.", + "Short bones of lower limb and associated joints": "", + "Short bones of upper limb and associated joints": "", + "Sigmoid colon": "The portion of the colon that connects to the descending colon above and the rectum below.", + "Skin of lip, NOS": "The skin portion of the lip that contains hair.", + "Skin of lower limb and hip": "The integumentary covering of the lower limb and hip region.", + "Skin of other and unspecified parts of face": "The integumentary covering of the face.", + "Skin of scalp and neck": "The integumentary covering of the scalp and neck.", + "Skin of trunk": "The skin or integument surrounding the trunk of the body.", + "Skin of upper limb and shoulder": "The integumentary covering of the upper limb and shoulder region.", + "Skin, NOS": "An organ that constitutes the external surface of the body. It consists of the epidermis, dermis, and skin appendages.", + "Small intestine, NOS": "The section of the intestines between the pylorus and cecum. The small intestine is approximately 20 feet long and consists of the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. Its main function is to absorb nutrients from food as the food is transported to the large intestine.", + "Soft palate, NOS": "The part of the pharynx between the soft palate and the upper portion of the epiglottis.", + "Specified parts of peritoneum": "", + "Spermatic cord": "A tube-like structure composed of the vas deferens and surrounding tissue layers, that runs from the abdomen to each of the testicles.", + "Sphenoid sinus": "Either of the paired paranasal sinuses, located in the anterior part of the body of the sphenoid bone and communicating with the superior meatus of the nasal cavity on the same side.", + "Spinal cord": "The elongated, approximately cylindrical part of the central nervous system of vertebrates that lies in the vertebral canal and from which the spinal nerves emerge.", + "Spinal meninges": "Connective tissue membranes that surround and support the spinal cord and cauda equina. They are continuous with cranial meninges, which surround and support the brain.", + "Spleen": "An organ that is part of the hematopoietic and immune systems. It is composed of the white pulp and the red pulp and is surrounded by a capsule. It is located in the left hypochondriac region. Its functions include lymphocyte production, blood cell storage, and blood cell destruction.", + "Splenic flexure of colon": "The bend at the junction of the transverse and descending colon.", + "Stomach, NOS": "An organ located under the diaphragm, between the liver and the spleen as well as between the esophagus and the small intestine. The stomach is the primary organ of food digestion.", + "Subglottis": "The area of the larynx below the vocal cords down to the trachea.", + "Sublingual gland": "A salivary gland located under the tongue in the floor of the oral cavity.", + "Submandibular gland": "One of a pair of major salivary glands located below the floor of the mouth.", + "Superior wall of nasopharynx": "The roof of the nasopharynx.", + "Supraglottis": "The upper part of the larynx, including the epiglottis; the area above the vocal cords.", + "Tail of pancreas": "The left extremity of the pancreas within the lienorenal ligament.", + "Temporal lobe": "One of the cerebral lobes. It is located inferior to the frontal and parietal lobes and anterior to the occipital lobe.", + "Testis, NOS": "Either of the paired male reproductive glands that produce the male germ cells and the male hormones.", + "Thoracic esophagus": "Clinical esophageal segment composed of smooth muscle. It includes the middle third topographic segment, as well as parts of the upper and lower thirds.", + "Thorax, NOS": "The division of the body lying between the neck and the abdomen.", + "Thymus": "A bi-lobed organ surrounded by a connective tissue capsule. It is located in the upper anterior portion of the chest, behind the sternum. It is composed predominantly of lymphocytes and fewer epithelial cells. Connective tissue septa separate the lobes into lobules. The lobules contain an outer portion (cortical zone) which is rich in lymphocytes and an inner portion (medullary zone) which is rich in epithelial cells. It is an organ essential for the development of the immune system. Its function is the maturation of the progenitor lymphoid cells to thymocytes and subsequently to mature T-cells. It reaches its greatest weight at puberty and subsequently begins to involute.", + "Thyroid gland": "An endocrine gland located at the base of the neck that produces and secretes thyroxine and other hormones. Thyroxine is important for metabolic control.", + "Tongue, NOS": "The muscular organ located in the floor of the mouth and serving as the principal organ of taste and modification of the voice in speech.", + "Tonsil, NOS": "Two masses of lymphatic tissue located one on either side of the oropharynx in the oropharyngeal isthmus.", + "Tonsillar fossa": "A triangular shaped space that lies on each side of the oropharynx and houses the palatine tonsils.", + "Tonsillar pillar": "The anterior and posterior borders of the tonsillar fossa. They are composed of muscle tissue.", + "Trachea": "The fibrocartilaginous, mucous-lined tube passing from the larynx to the bronchi.", + "Transverse colon": "The third division of the colon (large intestine). It communicates with the ascending colon in the upper right-hand quadrant of the abdomen and the descending colon in the upper left-hand quadrant.", + "Trigone of bladder": "The triangular area in the bladder mucosa that is formed by the two ureteral orifices and the urethral orifice.", + "Undescended testis": "The failure of one or both testes of a male fetus to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum during the late part of pregnancy. If not surgically corrected in early childhood, males may be at increased risk for testicular cancer later in life.", + "Unknown primary site": "Referring to the fact that the original site of growth of a metastatic cancer is unknown or uncertain.", + "Upper Gum": "Upper Gingiva", + "Upper limb, NOS": "The region of the body that includes the arm, the forearm, and hand.", + "Upper lobe, lung": "The lobe of the right lung that lies above the oblique and horizontal fissures and includes the apical, posterior and anterior bronchopulmonary segments; in the left lung, the lobe lies above the oblique fissure and contains the apicoposterior, anterior, superior lingular and inferior lingular segments.", + "Upper respiratory tract, NOS": "The sinuses and those parts of the respiratory system above the trachea. It includes the nares, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, vocal cords, glottis and upper trachea.", + "Upper third of esophagus": "The upper one third of esophagus in which the muscle layer is composed of muscle cells of the striated type.", + "Upper-inner quadrant of breast": "The quarter of the breast which is superior and medial.", + "Upper-outer quadrant of breast": "The quarter of the breast which is superior and lateral.", + "Urachus": "A cord of fibrous tissue that extends from the urinary bladder to the umbilicus. The urachus is a remnant of the fetal urinary canal.", + "Ureter": "The thick-walled tube that carries urine from each kidney to the bladder.", + "Ureteric orifice": "The opening of the ureter in the bladder that is situated at the lateral angle of the trigone.", + "Urethra": "The tube carrying urine from the bladder to outside of the body.", + "Urinary system, NOS": "The organs involved in the creation and excretion of urine.", + "Uterine adnexa": "The accessory structures of the uterus, including the ovaries, fallopian tubes, broad ligament, and the ovarian and uterine ligaments.", + "Uterus, NOS": "A hollow, thick-walled, muscular organ located within the pelvic cavity of a woman. Within the uterus the fertilized egg implants and the fetus develops during pregnancy.", + "Uvula": "The fleshy lobe that hangs at the back of the soft palate.", + "Vagina, NOS": "The female genital canal, extending from the uterus to the vulva.", + "Vallecula": "A groove between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis.", + "Ventral surface of tongue, NOS": "", + "Ventricle, NOS": "The four connected cavities (hollow spaces) centrally located within the brain that connect posteriorly with the central canal of the spinal cord.", + "Vertebral column": "A series of bones, muscles, tendons, and other tissues reaching from the base of the skull to the tailbone. The vertebral column forms the axis of the skeleton and encloses as well as protects the spinal cord and the fluid surrounding the spinal cord.", + "Vestibule of mouth": "The area inside the mouth between the cheek or lips, and the teeth.", + "Vulva, NOS": "The external, visible part of the female genitalia surrounding the urethral and vaginal opening. The vulva includes the clitoris and inner as well as outer labia.", + "Waldeyer ring": "The ring of lymphoid tissue located in the pharynx, consisting of the pharyngeal, tubal, palatine, and lingual tonsils.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "tumor_burden": { + "column_description": "Refers to the number of cancer cells, the size of a tumor, or the amount of cancer in the body.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tumor_confined_to_organ_of_origin": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether the tumor is confined to the organ where it originated and did not spread to a proximal or distant location within the body.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "tumor_depth": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the depth of tumor invasion, measured in millimeters (mm).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tumor_focality": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe whether the patient's disease originated in a single location or multiple locations.", + "value_data": { + "Multifocal": "Arising from, pertaining to, or having many locations.", + "Unifocal": "Arising from, pertaining to, or having a single location.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "tumor_grade": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to express the degree of abnormality of cancer cells, a measure of differentiation and aggressiveness.", + "value_data": { + "G1": "A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is well differentiated.", + "G2": "A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is moderately differentiated.", + "G3": "A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is poorly differentiated.", + "G4": "A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is undifferentiated.", + "GB": "A morphologic qualifier indicating that a neoplasm is of borderline malignancy.", + "GX": "A morphologic qualifier indicating that the grade of a neoplasm cannot be assessed.", + "High Grade": "Used to describe tumor samples that exhibit poorly differentiated or undifferentiated cells. They are generally expected to be fast growing and aggressive.", + "Intermediate Grade": "A term referring to the degree of differentiation of a malignant neoplasm and indicating that it is moderately differentiated.", + "Low Grade": "Used to describe tumor samples that exhibit well to moderately well differentiated cells. They are generally expected to be slow growing and less aggressive.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "tumor_grade_category": { + "column_description": "Describes the number of levels or 'tiers' in the system used to determine the degree of tumor differentiation.", + "value_data": { + "Four Tier": "", + "Three Tier": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "tumor_regression_grade": { + "column_description": "A numeric value used to measure therapeutic response of the primary tumor and predict patient outcomes based on a three-point tumor regression grading system.", + "value_data": { + "0": "A score on the Modified Ryan Scheme for Tumor Regression that indicates a complete response, defined as having no viable cancer cells.", + "1": "A score on the Modified Ryan Scheme for Tumor Regression that indicates a near complete response, defined as the presence of single cells or rare small groups of cancer cells.", + "2": "A score on the Modified Ryan Scheme for Tumor Regression that indicates a partial response, defined as the presence of residual cancer with evident tumor regression but more than single cells or rare small groups of cancer cells.", + "3": "A score on the Modified Ryan Scheme for Tumor Regression that indicates poor or no response, defined as extensive residual cancer with no evident tumor regression.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "uicc_clinical_m": { + "column_description": "The UICC TNM Classification is an anatomically based system that records the primary and regional nodal extent of the tumor and the absence or presence of metastases. The clinical M category describes the presence or otherwise of distant metastatic spread as determined during a clinical exam.", + "value_data": { + "cM0 (i+)": "", + "M0": "", + "M1": "", + "M1a": "", + "M1b": "", + "M1c": "", + "MX": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "uicc_clinical_n": { + "column_description": "The UICC TNM Classification is an anatomically based system that records the primary and regional nodal extent of the tumor and the absence or presence of metastases. The clinical N category describes the regional lymph node involvement as determined during a clinical exam.", + "value_data": { + "N0": "", + "N0 (i+)": "", + "N0 (i-)": "", + "N0 (mol+)": "", + "N0 (mol-)": "", + "N1": "", + "N1a": "", + "N1b": "", + "N1bI": "", + "N1bII": "", + "N1bIII": "", + "N1bIV": "", + "N1c": "", + "N1mi": "", + "N2": "", + "N2a": "", + "N2b": "", + "N2c": "", + "N3": "", + "N3a": "", + "N3b": "", + "N3c": "", + "N4": "", + "NX": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "uicc_clinical_stage": { + "column_description": "The UICC TNM Classification is an anatomically based system that records the primary and regional nodal extent of the tumor and the absence or presence of metastases. The clinical stage is based on the T, N, and M categories which are determined during a clinical exam.", + "value_data": { + "Stage 0": "", + "Stage 0a": "", + "Stage 0is": "", + "Stage I": "", + "Stage IA": "", + "Stage IA1": "", + "Stage IA2": "", + "Stage IA3": "", + "Stage IB": "", + "Stage IB1": "", + "Stage IB2": "", + "Stage IC": "", + "Stage II": "", + "Stage IIA": "", + "Stage IIA1": "", + "Stage IIA2": "", + "Stage IIB": "", + "Stage IIC": "", + "Stage IIC1": "", + "Stage III": "", + "Stage IIIA": "", + "Stage IIIB": "", + "Stage IIIC": "", + "Stage IIIC1": "", + "Stage IIIC2": "", + "Stage IS": "", + "Stage IV": "", + "Stage IVA": "", + "Stage IVB": "", + "Stage IVC": "", + "Stage Tis": "", + "Stage X": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "uicc_clinical_t": { + "column_description": "The UICC TNM Classification is an anatomically based system that records the primary and regional nodal extent of the tumor and the absence or presence of metastases. The clinical T category describes the primary tumor site and size as determined during a clinical exam.", + "value_data": { + "T0": "", + "T1": "", + "T1a": "", + "T1a1": "", + "T1a2": "", + "T1b": "", + "T1b1": "", + "T1b2": "", + "T1c": "", + "T1mi": "", + "T2": "", + "T2a": "", + "T2a1": "", + "T2a2": "", + "T2b": "", + "T2c": "", + "T2d": "", + "T3": "", + "T3a": "", + "T3b": "", + "T3c": "", + "T3d": "", + "T4": "", + "T4a": "", + "T4b": "", + "T4c": "", + "T4d": "", + "T4e": "", + "Ta": "", + "Tis": "", + "Tis (DCIS)": "", + "Tis (LCIS)": "", + "Tis (Paget's)": "", + "TX": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "uicc_pathologic_m": { + "column_description": "The UICC TNM Classification is an anatomically based system that records the primary and regional nodal extent of the tumor and the absence or presence of metastases. The pathological M category describes the presence or otherwise of distant metastatic spread as determined during a pathology review.", + "value_data": { + "cM0 (i+)": "", + "M0": "", + "M1": "", + "M1a": "", + "M1b": "", + "M1c": "", + "M1d": "", + "M2": "", + "MX": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "uicc_pathologic_n": { + "column_description": "The UICC TNM Classification is an anatomically based system that records the primary and regional nodal extent of the tumor and the absence or presence of metastases. The pathological N category describes the regional lymph node involvement as determined during a pathology review.", + "value_data": { + "N0": "", + "N0 (i+)": "", + "N0 (i-)": "", + "N0 (mol+)": "", + "N0 (mol-)": "", + "N1": "", + "N1a": "", + "N1b": "", + "N1bI": "", + "N1bII": "", + "N1bIII": "", + "N1bIV": "", + "N1c": "", + "N1mi": "", + "N2": "", + "N2a": "", + "N2b": "", + "N2c": "", + "N2mi": "", + "N3": "", + "N3a": "", + "N3b": "", + "N3c": "", + "N4": "", + "NX": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "uicc_pathologic_stage": { + "column_description": "The UICC TNM Classification is an anatomically based system that records the primary and regional nodal extent of the tumor and the absence or presence of metastases. The pathological stage is based on the T, N, and M categories which are determined during a pathological review.", + "value_data": { + "Stage 0": "", + "Stage 0a": "", + "Stage 0is": "", + "Stage I": "", + "Stage IA": "", + "Stage IA1": "", + "Stage IA2": "", + "Stage IA3": "", + "Stage IB": "", + "Stage IB1": "", + "Stage IB2": "", + "Stage IC": "", + "Stage II": "", + "Stage IIA": "", + "Stage IIA1": "", + "Stage IIA2": "", + "Stage IIB": "", + "Stage IIC": "", + "Stage III": "", + "Stage IIIA": "", + "Stage IIIA1": "", + "Stage IIIA2": "", + "Stage IIIB": "", + "Stage IIIC": "", + "Stage IIIC1": "", + "Stage IIIC2": "", + "Stage IIID": "", + "Stage IS": "", + "Stage IV": "", + "Stage IVA": "", + "Stage IVB": "", + "Stage IVC": "", + "Stage Tis": "", + "Stage X": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "uicc_pathologic_t": { + "column_description": "The UICC TNM Classification is an anatomically based system that records the primary and regional nodal extent of the tumor and the absence or presence of metastases. The pathological T category describes the primary tumor site and size as determined during a pathology review.", + "value_data": { + "T0": "", + "T1": "", + "T1a": "", + "T1a1": "", + "T1a2": "", + "T1b": "", + "T1b1": "", + "T1b2": "", + "T1c": "", + "T1c2": "", + "T1mi": "", + "T2": "", + "T2a": "", + "T2a1": "", + "T2a2": "", + "T2b": "", + "T2c": "", + "T2d": "", + "T3": "", + "T3a": "", + "T3b": "", + "T3c": "", + "T3d": "", + "T4": "", + "T4a": "", + "T4b": "", + "T4c": "", + "T4d": "", + "T4e": "", + "Ta": "", + "Tis": "", + "Tis (DCIS)": "", + "Tis (LCIS)": "", + "Tis (Paget's)": "", + "TX": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "uicc_staging_system_edition": { + "column_description": "The UICC TNM Classification is an anatomically based system that records the primary and regional nodal extent of the tumor and the absence or presence of metastases. The staging edition describes the specific UICC edition used when a patient's stage was determined.", + "value_data": { + "1st": "", + "2nd": "", + "3rd": "", + "4th": "", + "5th": "", + "6th": "", + "7th": "", + "8th": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "" + } + }, + "ulceration_indicator": { + "column_description": "The formation or development of an ulcer.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "weiss_assessment_findings": { + "column_description": "Histopathologic criteria to evaluate adrenocortical tumors.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "weiss_assessment_score": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the overall Weiss assessment score, a commonly used assessment describing the malignancy of adrenocortical tumors. The Weiss score is determined based on nine histological criteria including the following: high nuclear grade, mitotic rate greater than five per 50 high power fields (HPF), atypical mitotic figures, eosinophilic tumor cell cytoplasm (greater than 75% tumor cells), diffuse architecture (greater than 33% of tumor), necrosis, venous invasion, sinusoidal invasion, and capsular invasion.", + "value_data": { + "0": "", + "1": "", + "2": "", + "3": "", + "4": "", + "5": "", + "6": "", + "7": "", + "8": "", + "9": "" + } + }, + "who_cns_grade": { + "column_description": "The WHO (World Health Organization) grading classification of CNS tumors, which is based on histological characteristics such as cellularity, mitotic activity, pleomorphism, necrosis, and endothelial proliferation (neoangiogenesis).", + "value_data": { + "Grade I": "", + "Grade II": "", + "Grade III": "", + "Grade IV": "", + "Grade Not Assigned": "", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "who_nte_grade": { + "column_description": "The WHO (World Health Organization) grading classification of Neuroendocrine Tumors.", + "value_data": { + "G1": "A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is well differentiated.", + "G2": "A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is moderately differentiated.", + "G3": "A morphologic qualifier indicating that a cancerous lesion is poorly differentiated.", + "GX": "A morphologic qualifier indicating that the grade of a neoplasm cannot be assessed.", + "Unknown": "", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "wilms_tumor_histologic_subtype": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the classification of Wilms tumors distinguishing between favorable and unfavorable histologic groups.", + "value_data": { + "Favorable": "Expressing something as positive, advantageous or desired.", + "Unfavorable": "Expressing something as negative, undesired or adverse.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "percent_follicular_component": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the percentage of follicular features found in a specific tissue sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_rhabdoid_features": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the percentage of rhabdoid features found in a specific tissue sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_sarcomatoid_features": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the percentage of sarcomatoid features found in a specific tissue sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_tumor_cells": { + "column_description": "Numeric value that represents the percentage of infiltration by tumor cells in a sample.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_normal_cells": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the percentage of normal cell content in a malignant tumor sample or specimen.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_necrosis": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the percentage of cell death in a malignant tumor sample or specimen.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_stromal_cells": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the percentage of reactive cells that are present in a malignant tumor sample or specimen but are not malignant such as fibroblasts, vascular structures, etc.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_inflam_infiltration": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent local response to cellular injury, marked by capillary dilatation, edema and leukocyte infiltration; clinically, inflammation is manifest by reddness, heat, pain, swelling and loss of function, with the need to heal damaged tissue.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_lymphocyte_infiltration": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the percentage of infiltration by lymphocytes in a solid tissue sample or specimen.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_monocyte_infiltration": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the percentage of monocyte infiltration in a sample or specimen.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_granulocyte_infiltration": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the percentage of infiltration by granulocytes in a tumor sample or specimen.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_neutrophil_infiltration": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the percentage of infiltration by neutrophils in a tumor sample or specimen.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "percent_eosinophil_infiltration": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the percentage of infiltration by eosinophils in a tumor sample or specimen.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "section_location": { + "column_description": "Tissue source of the slide.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tissue_microarray_coordinates": { + "column_description": "The alphanumeric term used to describe the coordinates of a specific tissue located on a tissue microarray slide.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "pmid": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "doi": { + "column_description": "", + "value_data": {} + }, + "age_at_last_exposure": { + "column_description": "The study participant's age at the time they were last exposed.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "age_at_onset": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to represent the age of the patient when exposure to a specific environmental factor began.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "alcohol_days_per_week": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the average number of days each week that a person consumes an alcoholic beverage.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "alcohol_drinks_per_day": { + "column_description": "Numeric value used to describe the average number of alcoholic beverages a person consumes per day.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "alcohol_frequency": { + "column_description": "Describes how often the subject drinks alcohol.", + "value_data": { + "Daily Drinker": "", + "Weekly Drinker": "" + } + }, + "alcohol_history": { + "column_description": "A response to a question that asks whether the participant has consumed at least 12 drinks of any kind of alcoholic beverage in their lifetime.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "no": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "alcohol_intensity": { + "column_description": "Category to describe the patient's current level of alcohol use as self-reported by the patient.", + "value_data": { + "Drinker": "An individual who drinks at least once per week with regularity.", + "Heavy Drinker": "A man who drinks more than 14 standard drinks per week or a woman who drinks more than 7 standard drinks per week.", + "Lifelong Non-Drinker": "An individual who does not drink at the present time and who claims that they have never been a drinker.", + "Non-Drinker": "An individual who does not drink at the present time. This is a heterogeneous group comprising both lifelong teetotallers and ex-drinkers.", + "Occasional Drinker": "An individual who drinks from time to time, but generally less than once per week.", + "Social Drinker": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "alcohol_type": { + "column_description": "A specific type of alcohol.", + "value_data": { + "Beer": "", + "Liquor": "", + "Wine": "", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "asbestos_exposure": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether the patient was exposed to asbestos.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "asbestos_exposure_type": { + "column_description": "The type of asbestos exposure the study participant experienced.", + "value_data": { + "Amosite": "", + "Crocidolite": "" + } + }, + "chemical_exposure_type": { + "column_description": "The specific type of contact with a chemical substance through touch, inhalation, or ingestion.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "cigarettes_per_day": { + "column_description": "The average number of cigarettes smoked per day.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "coal_dust_exposure": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether a patient was exposed to fine powder derived by the crushing of coal.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "environmental_tobacco_smoke_exposure": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether a patient was exposed to smoke that is emitted from burning tobacco, including cigarettes, pipes, and cigars. This includes tobacco smoke exhaled by smokers.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "exposure_duration": { + "column_description": "Text term used to describe the length of time the patient was exposed to an environmental factor.", + "value_data": { + "Six Weeks or More": "The text term used to describe a time period of six calendar weeks or longer.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "exposure_duration_hrs_per_day": { + "column_description": "The duration (in hours per day) that a person was exposed.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "exposure_duration_years": { + "column_description": "The period of time from start to finish of exposure, in years.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "exposure_source": { + "column_description": "The source or location where the patient was exposed.", + "value_data": { + "Home": "A person's place of residence.", + "Occupational": "", + "Secondary": "", + "Social": "The surroundings or environment in which social activities occur.", + "Work": "The physical location where work or employment takes place.", + "Unknown": "" + } + }, + "exposure_type": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the type of environmental exposure.", + "value_data": { + "Asbestos": "", + "Chemical": "", + "Coal Dust": "", + "Dust, NOS": "A fine powdery material such as dry earth or pollen that can be blown about in the air.", + "Marijuana": "Any part of, or extract from, the female hemp plant Cannabis sativa. Marijuana contains cannabinoids, substances with hallucinogenic, psychoactive, and addictive properties. This agent has potential use for treating cancer pain and cachexia.", + "Radiation": "", + "Radon": "", + "Respirable Crystalline Silica": "", + "Smoke": "", + "Smokeless Tobacco": "", + "Tobacco": "The dried cured leaves of the tobacco plant, Nicotiana tabacum, used for smoking, chewing, or snuff. Tobacco contains nicotine, a stimulant, and other biologically active ingredients having carcinogenic properties.", + "Wood Dust": "" + } + }, + "occupation_duration_years": { + "column_description": "The number of years a patient worked in a specific occupation.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "occupation_type": { + "column_description": "A categorization of the principal activity that a person does to earn money, as defined by the International Classification of Occupation (ISCO).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "pack_years_smoked": { + "column_description": "Numeric computed value to represent lifetime tobacco exposure defined as number of cigarettes smoked per day x number of years smoked divided by 20.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "parent_with_radiation_exposure": { + "column_description": "Indicates whether the patient's parent(s) were exposed to radiation", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "radon_exposure": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether the patient was exposed to radon.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "respirable_crystalline_silica_exposure": { + "column_description": "The yes/no/unknown indicator used to describe whether a patient was exposed to respirable crystalline silica, a widespread, naturally occurring, crystalline metal oxide that consists of different forms including quartz, cristobalite, tridymite, tripoli, ganister, chert, and novaculite.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "secondhand_smoke_as_child": { + "column_description": "The text term used to indicate whether the patient was exposed to secondhand smoke as a child.", + "value_data": { + "Yes": "The affirmative response to a question.", + "No": "The non-affirmative response to a question.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "smoking_frequency": { + "column_description": "The text term used to generally describe how often the patient smokes.", + "value_data": { + "Every day": "Occurring or done each day.", + "Some days": "A response indicating that an individual experiences or experienced something on some days.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "time_between_waking_and_first_smoke": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the approximate amount of time elapsed between the time the patient wakes up in the morning to the time they smoke their first cigarette.", + "value_data": { + "Within 5 Minutes": "An indication that less than 5 minutes passes between waking and smoking the first cigarette of the day.", + "6-30 Minutes": "An indication that between 6 and 30 minutes passes between waking and smoking the first cigarette of the day.", + "31-60 Minutes": "An indication that between 31 and 60 minutes passes between waking and smoking the first cigarette of the day.", + "After 60 Minutes": "An indication that more than 60 minutes passes between waking and smoking the first cigarette of the day.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "tobacco_smoking_onset_year": { + "column_description": "The year in which the participant began smoking.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tobacco_smoking_quit_year": { + "column_description": "The year in which the participant quit smoking.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "tobacco_smoking_status": { + "column_description": "Category describing current smoking status and smoking history as self-reported by a patient.", + "value_data": { + "1": "A person who has never smoked at the time of the interview or has smoked less than 100 cigarettes in their life.", + "2": "An adult who has smoked 100 cigarettes in his or her lifetime and who currently smokes cigarettes. Includes daily smokers and non-daily smokers (also known as occasional smokers).", + "3": "An individual who stopped smoking more than 15 years prior.", + "4": "An individual who stopped smoking within the past 15 years.", + "5": "An individual who stopped smoking an unknown number of years prior.", + "6": "An indication that a person was a smoker at the time they received a pathologic diagnosis.", + "7": "An indication that the smoking history of an individual is unavailable.", + "Current Reformed Smoker, Duration Not Specified": "", + "Current Reformed Smoker for < or = 15 yrs": "", + "Current Reformed Smoker for > 15 yrs": "", + "Current Smoker": "", + "Lifelong Non-Smoker": "", + "Smoker at Diagnosis": "", + "Smoking history not documented": "", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available.", + "Not Allowed To Collect": "An indicator that specifies that a collection event was not permitted." + } + }, + "type_of_smoke_exposure": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the patient's specific type of smoke exposure.", + "value_data": { + "Accidental building fire smoke": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced during a building fire that was not caused by deliberate human actions.", + "Accidental fire smoke, grass": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced during a grass fire that was not caused by deliberate human actions.", + "Accidental fire smoke, NOS": "Environmental exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced during a fire that was not caused by deliberate human actions.", + "Accidental forest fire smoke": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced during a forest fire that was not caused by deliberate human actions.", + "Accidental vehicle fire smoke": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced during a vehicle fire that was not caused by deliberate human actions.", + "Aircraft smoke": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when an aircraft is in operation.", + "Burning tree smoke": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when trees are undergoing combustion.", + "Coal smoke, NOS": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when coal is rapidly oxidized via combustion.", + "Cooking-related smoke, NOS": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to vaporized materials produced when food products are being cooked.", + "Electrical fire smoke": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced during an electrical fire.", + "Electronic cigarette smoke, NOS": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced by direct or nearby use of an electronic cigarette.", + "Environmental tobacco smoke": "Exposure to tobacco smoke products among individuals who do not smoke. This can result from sharing space with a smoker or from placental transfer from mother to fetus.", + "Factory smokestack smoke": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates emitted by a factory smokestack.", + "Field burning smoke": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when trees, brush and grass in a field are burning.", + "Fire smoke, NOS": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when materials are rapidly oxidized via combustion.", + "Furnace or boiler smoke": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates emitted by a boiler or furnace.", + "Gas burning smoke, propane": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when propane is rapidly oxidized via combustion.", + "Grease fire smoke": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced during a grease fire.", + "Grilling smoke": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates emitted by an indoor or outdoor grill used for cooking.", + "Hashish smoke": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced by direct or nearby use of a vaporized or combusted product made from cannabis plant resin.", + "Indoor stove or fireplace smoke, coal burning": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when coal is subjected to combustion in an indoor stove or fireplace.", + "Indoor stove or fireplace smoke, NOS": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when materials are subjected to combustion in an indoor stove or fireplace.", + "Indoor stove or fireplace smoke, wood burning": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when wood is subjected to combustion in an indoor stove or fireplace.", + "Machine smoke": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates through the direct or nearby use of a machine.", + "Marijuana smoke": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced by direct or nearby use of a vaporized or combusted product made from the leaves and flowers of the cannabis plant.", + "No Smoke Exposure": "An indication that a subject has no history of smoke exposure from any source.", + "Oil burning smoke, Kerosene": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when kerosene is rapidly oxidized via combustion.", + "Oil burning smoke, NOS": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when oils are rapidly oxidized via combustion.", + "Recreational fire smoke": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when materials (usually wood) are burned for recreational purposes.", + "Smoke exposure, NOS": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when materials undergo combustion or thermal decomposition.", + "Smokehouse smoke": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced during indoor smoke curing of food products.", + "Tobacco smoke, cigar": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced by direct or nearby use of a cigar.", + "Tobacco smoke, cigarettes": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced by direct or nearby use of a cigarette.", + "Tobacco smoke, NOS": "", + "Tobacco smoke, pipe": "Environmental, occupational or consumer-based exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced by direct or nearby use of a tobacco pipe.", + "Volcanic smoke": "Environmental exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced by a volcanic event.", + "Waste burning smoke": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when trash or waste is burned.", + "Wood burning smoke, factory": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when wood is burned in a factory setting.", + "Wood burning smoke, NOS": "Environmental or occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when wood is subjected to combustion.", + "Work-related smoke, artificial smoke machines": "Occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates during the operation of a machine that produces artificial smoke.", + "Work-related smoke, fire fighting": "Occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates while preventing, controlling or extinguishing fires.", + "Work-related smoke, foundry": "Occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates during the operation of a foundry.", + "Work-related smoke, generators": "Occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates during the operation of a power generator.", + "Work-related smoke, military": "Occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates during a military posting or deployment.", + "Work-related smoke, NOS": "Occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates produced when materials undergo combustion or thermal decomposition.", + "Work-related smoke, paint baking": "Occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates during the operation of a paint oven.", + "Work-related smoke, plastics factory": "Occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates during the manufacturing of plastics.", + "Work-related smoke, plumbing": "Occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates during the installation of plumbing pipes and fixtures.", + "Work-related smoke, soldering/welding": "Occupational exposure to airborne gases and particulates during the operation of a soldering iron or welding machine.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused." + } + }, + "type_of_tobacco_used": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the specific type of tobacco used by the patient.", + "value_data": { + "Cigar": "A compact roll of tobacco leaves prepared for smoking.", + "Cigarette": "Finely cut tobacco encased in a wrapper of thin paper and rolled for smoking.", + "Electronic Cigarette": "A battery-powered electronic device designed to atomize a nicotine-containing liquid solution for inhalation in a manner that simulates smoking a tobacco cigarette.", + "Other": "Different than the one(s) previously specified or mentioned.", + "Pipe": "A tube with a small bowl at one end, especially one used for smoking tobacco.", + "Smokeless Tobacco": "Tobacco that is not smoked but used in another form such as chewing tobacco or snuff." + } + }, + "use_per_day": { + "column_description": "The average number of times the patient used per day.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "years_smoked": { + "column_description": "Numeric value (or unknown) to represent the number of years a person has been smoking.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "age_at_index": { + "column_description": "The patient's age (in years) on the reference or anchor date used during date obfuscation.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "age_is_obfuscated": { + "column_description": "The age or other properties related to the patient's age have been modified for compliance reasons. The actual age may differ from what was reported in order to comply with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).", + "value_data": {} + }, + "cause_of_death": { + "column_description": "Text term to identify the cause of death for a patient.", + "value_data": { + "Cancer Related": "An indication or description that a relationship to cancer exists.", + "Cardiovascular Disorder, NOS": "A non-neoplastic or neoplastic disorder affecting the heart or the vessels (arteries, veins and lymph vessels). Representative examples of non-neoplastic cardiovascular disorders are endocarditis and hypertension. Representative examples of neoplastic cardiovascular disorders are endocardial myxoma and angiosarcoma.", + "End-stage Renal Disease": "Long-standing and persistent renal disease with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 15 ml/min.", + "Infection": "A disorder resulting from the presence and activity of a microbial, viral, fungal, or parasitic agent. It can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact.", + "Not Cancer Related": "A death attributed to any cause other than the progression of a cancer-related pathologic condition.", + "Renal Disorder, NOS": "A neoplastic or non-neoplastic condition affecting the kidney. Representative examples of non-neoplastic conditions include glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome. Representative examples of neoplastic conditions include benign processes (e.g., renal lipoma and renal fibroma) and malignant processes (e.g., renal cell carcinoma and renal lymphoma).", + "Spinal Muscular Atrophy": "An inherited disorder characterized by degeneration of the spinal cord and the cerebellum. Symptoms may appear at any age and include progressive loss of coordination of gait, hands, speech, and eye movements.", + "Surgical Complications": "A disease or disorder that occurs during, soon after or as a result of a surgical procedure.", + "Toxicity": "The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "cause_of_death_source": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the source used to determine the patient's cause of death.", + "value_data": { + "Autopsy": "A postmortem examination of the body that includes an examination of the internal organs and structures after dissection to determine the cause of death and the nature of pathological changes.", + "Death Certificate": "A certified document issued by either a medical practitioner or a governmental agency that details the date, location and cause of a death of an individual.", + "Medical Record": "A chronological written account of a patient's examination and treatment that includes the patient's medical history and complaints, the physician's physical findings, the results of diagnostic tests and procedures, and medications and therapeutic procedures.", + "Social Security Death Index": "A publically-accessible database derived from the Social Security Administration's (SSA) Death Master File Extract. It includes a listing of the vital statistics of a majority of decedents reported to the SSA since 1962.", + "Unknown": "Not known, not observed, not recorded, or refused.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "country_of_birth": { + "column_description": "The name of the country in which the patient is born.", + "value_data": { + "Afghanistan": "A country in southern Asia, north and west of Pakistan, east of Iran.", + "Albania": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Adriatic and Ionian Seas, between Greece and Montenegro.", + "Algeria": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Morocco and Tunisia.", + "Andorra": "A country in southwestern Europe, between France and Spain.", + "Angola": "A country in southern Africa, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Namibia and Democratic Republic of the Congo.", + "Anguilla": "A group of islands in the Caribbean Sea, east of the Virgin Islands and north of Saint Kitts and Nevis.", + "Antigua and Barbuda": "A group of islands in the Caribbean Sea, east of Saint Kitts and Nevis.", + "Argentina": "A country in southern South America, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Chile and Uruguay.", + "Armenia": "A country in southwestern Asia, east of Turkey and south of Georgia.", + "Aruba": "An island in the Caribbean Sea, north of Venezuela and west of Curacao.", + "Australia": "The continent and country between the Indian Ocean and the South Pacific Ocean, south of Asia.", + "Austria": "A country in central Europe, northeast of Italy and southeast of Germany.", + "Azerbaijan": "A country in southwestern Asia, bordering the Caspian Sea, between Iran and Russia.", + "Bahamas": "A chain of islands in the North Atlantic Ocean, southeast of Florida and north of Cuba.", + "Bahrain": "An archipelago in the Persian Gulf, on the east coast of Saudi Arabia.", + "Bangladesh": "A country in southern Asia, bordering the Bay of Bengal, between Burma and India.", + "Barbados": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, east of Saint Vincent and the Grenadines.", + "Belarus": "A country in eastern Europe, east of Poland and north of Ukraine.", + "Belgium": "A country in western Europe, bordering the North Sea, between France and the Netherlands.", + "Belize": "A country in central America, bordering the Caribbean Sea, between Guatemala and Mexico.", + "Benin": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Nigeria and Togo.", + "Bermuda": "A group of islands in the North Atlantic Ocean, east of South Carolina.", + "Bhutan": "A country in southern Asia, between China and India, east of Nepal and north of Bangladesh.", + "Bolivia": "A country in central South America, southwest of Brazil.", + "Bosnia and Herzegovina": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Adriatic Sea, between Croatia and Serbia.", + "Botswana": "A country in southern Africa, north of South Africa and east of Namibia.", + "Brazil": "A country in eastern South America, bordering the Atlantic Ocean.", + "Brunei": "A country in southeastern Asia, bordering the South China Sea and surrounded by Malaysia.", + "Bulgaria": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Black Sea, between Romania and Turkey.", + "Burkina Faso": "A country in western Africa, between Mali and Ghana.", + "Burundi": "A country in central Africa, east of the Democratic Republic of the Congo and south of Rwanda.", + "Cambodia": "A country in southeastern Asia, bordering the Gulf of Thailand, between Thailand, Vietnam, and Laos.", + "Cameroon": "A country in western Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, between Equatorial Guinea and Nigeria.", + "Canada": "A country in northern North America, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean on the east, North Pacific Ocean on the west, and the Arctic Ocean on the north, north of the conterminous US.", + "Cape Verde": "A group of islands in the North Atlantic Ocean, west of Senegal.", + "Cayman Islands": "An island group in the Caribbean Sea, south of Cuba and west of Jamaica.", + "Central African Republic": "A country in central Africa, north of Democratic Republic of the Congo, between Cameroon and South Sudan.", + "Chad": "A country in central Africa, south of Libya, between Niger and Sudan.", + "Chile": "A country in southwestern South America, bordering the South Pacific Ocean, between Argentina and Peru.", + "China": "A country in eastern Asia, bordering the East China Sea, Korea Bay, Yellow Sea, and South China Sea, south of Kazakhstan, Mongolia and Russia.", + "Colombia": "A country in northern South America, bordering the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, between Ecuador and Venezuela.", + "Comoros": "A group of islands in the Mozambique Channel, about two-thirds of the way between northern Madagascar and northern Mozambique, northwest of Mayotte.", + "Congo": "A country in western Africa, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Gabon and the Democratic Republic of the Congo.", + "Cook Islands": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, east of Australia, between Tonga and French Polynesia.", + "Costa Rica": "A country in Central America, bordering both the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, between Nicaragua and Panama.", + "Cote d'Ivoire": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Ghana and Liberia.", + "Croatia": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Adriatic Sea, between Bosnia and Herzegovina and Slovenia.", + "Cuba": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, 150 km south of Key West, Florida.", + "Curacao": "An island in the Caribbean Sea, north of Venezuela and east of Aruba, a constituent country of the Kingdom of the Netherlands.", + "Cyprus": "An island in the Mediterranean Sea, south of Turkey.", + "Czech Republic (Czechia)": "A country in central Europe, southeast of Germany and southwest of Poland.", + "Democratic Republic of the Congo": "A country in central Africa, northeast of Angola.", + "Denmark": "A country in northern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea and the North Sea, consisting of a peninsula on the north coast of Germany and several major islands.", + "Djibouti": "A country in eastern Africa, bordering the Gulf of Aden and the Red Sea, between Eritrea and Somalia.", + "Dominica": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, south of Guadeloupe and north of Martinique.", + "Dominican Republic": "A country comprising the eastern two-thirds of the island of Hispaniola, between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, east of Haiti.", + "Ecuador": "A country in western South America, bordering the Pacific Ocean at the Equator, between Colombia and Peru.", + "Egypt": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, east of Libya and north of Sudan.", + "El Salvador": "A country in Central America, bordering the North Pacific Ocean, between Guatemala and Honduras.", + "Equatorial Guinea": "A country in western Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, between Cameroon and Gabon; composed of a mainland portion and five inhabited islands.", + "Eritrea": "A country in eastern Africa, bordering the Red Sea, between Sudan and Ethiopia.", + "Estonia": "A country in eastern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea and Gulf of Finland, between Latvia and Finland.", + "Eswatini": "A country in southern Africa, between Mozambique and South Africa.", + "Ethiopia": "A country in eastern Africa, between Somalia and Sudan.", + "Falkland Islands (Malvinas)": "A group of islands in the South Atlantic Ocean, east of southern Argentina.", + "Faroe Islands": "An island group between the Norwegian Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, about one-half of the way from Iceland to Norway.", + "Federated States of Micronesia": "An island group in the North Pacific Ocean, about three-quarters of the way from Hawaii to Indonesia, west of the Marshall Islands and north of the Solomon Islands.", + "Fiji": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, southwest of Wallis and Fortuna and east of Vanuatu.", + "Finland": "A country in northern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea, between Sweden and Russia.", + "France": "A country in western Europe, bordering the Bay of Biscay and the English Channel, between Germany and Spain.", + "French Guiana": "A country in northern South America, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Brazil and Suriname.", + "French Polynesia": "An archipelago in the South Pacific Ocean, east of the Cook Islands.", + "Gabon": "A country in central Africa, bordering the Atlantic Ocean at the Equator, between Republic of the Congo and Equatorial Guinea.", + "Gambia": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean and surrounded by Senegal.", + "Georgia": "A country in southwestern Asia, bordering the Black Sea, between Turkey and Russia.", + "Germany": "A country in central Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea and the North Sea, between the Netherlands and Poland, south of Denmark.", + "Ghana": "A country in western Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, between Cote d'Ivoire and Togo.", + "Gibraltar": "A dependency in southwestern Europe, on the southern coast of Spain, bordering the Strait of Gibraltar.", + "Greece": "A country in southern Europe, bordering the Aegean, Ionian, and Mediterranean Seas, between Albania and Turkey.", + "Greenland": "An island between the Arctic Ocean and the North Atlantic Ocean, northeast of Canada.", + "Grenada": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and Atlantic Ocean, south of Saint Vincent and the Grenadines and north of Trinidad and Tobago.", + "Guadeloupe": "A group of islands in the Caribbean Seas, southeast of Montserrat.", + "Guam": "An island in the North Pacific Ocean, about three-quarters of the way from Hawaii to the Philippines, south of the Northern Mariana Islands.", + "Guatemala": "A country in Central America, bordering the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, east of Mexico and west of Belize and Honduras.", + "Guernsey": "A British Crown dependency in the English Channel, between England and France.", + "Guinea": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Guinea-Bissau and Sierra Leone.", + "Guinea-Bissau": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Guinea and Senegal.", + "Guyana": "A country in northern South America, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Suriname and Venezuela.", + "Haiti": "A country comprising the western one-third of the island of Hispaniola, between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, west of the Dominican Republic.", + "Holy See": "An enclave of Rome (Italy). Vatican City State.", + "Honduras": "A country in Central America, bordering the Caribbean Sea, between Guatemala and Nicaragua.", + "Hong Kong": "A special administrative region of China, bordering the South China Sea, east of Macao.", + "Hungary": "A country in central Europe, northwest of Romania and south of Slovakia.", + "Iceland": "A country in northern Europe, island between the Greenland Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, northwest of the UK.", + "India": "A country in southern Asia, bordering the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal, between Pakistan and China.", + "Indonesia": "A country in southeastern Asia, comprising the archipelago and islands between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, north of Australia.", + "Iran": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Gulf of Oman, the Persian Gulf, and the Caspian Sea, between Iraq and Pakistan.", + "Iraq": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Persian Gulf, between Iran and Syria.", + "Ireland": "A country in western Europe, occupying five-sixths of the island of Ireland in the North Atlantic Ocean, west of Great Britain.", + "Isle of Man": "An island in the Irish Sea, between Great Britain and Ireland.", + "Israel": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Egypt and Lebanon.", + "Italy": "A country in southern Europe, occupying a peninsula extending into the central Mediterranean Sea, northeast of Tunisia.", + "Jamaica": "An island in the Caribbean Sea, south of Cuba, between the Cayman Islands and Haiti.", + "Japan": "A country in eastern Asia, occupying an island chain between the North Pacific Ocean and the Sea of Japan, east of the Korean Peninsula.", + "Jersey": "A British Crown dependency in the English Channel southeast of Guernsey.", + "Jordan": "A country in the Middle East, northwest of Saudi Arabia.", + "Kazakhstan": "A country in central Asia, northwest of China and south of Russia.", + "Kenya": "A country in eastern Africa, bordering the Indian Ocean, between Somalia and Tanzania.", + "Kiribati": "A group of 33 coral atolls in the Pacific Ocean, south of Hawaii and northeast of Jarvis Island.", + "Kosovo": "A southeastern European country between Servia and Macedonia.", + "Kuwait": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Persian Gulf, between Iraq and Saudi Arabia.", + "Kyrgyzstan": "A country in central Asia, between southern Kazakhstan and western China.", + "Laos": "A country in southeastern Asia, north and east of Thailand, west of Vietnam.", + "Latvia": "A country in eastern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea, between Estonia and Lithuania.", + "Lebanon": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Israel and Syria.", + "Lesotho": "A country in southern Africa, an enclave of South Africa.", + "Liberia": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Cote d'Ivoire and Sierra Leone.", + "Libya": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Egypt and Algeria.", + "Liechtenstein": "A country in central Europe, between Austria and Switzerland.", + "Lithuania": "A country in eastern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea, between Latvia and Russia.", + "Luxembourg": "A country in western Europe, between France, Belgium, and Germany.", + "Macau": "A special administrative region of China, bordering the South China Sea, west of Hong Kong.", + "Madagascar": "A country in southern Africa, occupying an island in the Indian Ocean, east of Mozambique.", + "Malawi": "A country in southern Africa, east of Zambia and west of Mozambique and Tanzania.", + "Malaysia": "A country in southeastern Asia bordering Indonesia and the South China Sea, occupying a peninsula south of Thailand and the northern one-third of the island of Borneo.", + "Maldives": "A country in southern Asia, occupying a group of atolls in the Indian Ocean, south-southwest of India and north of the British Indian Ocean Territory.", + "Mali": "A country in western Africa, southwest of Algeria and east of Mauritania.", + "Malta": "A country in southern Europe, occupying islands in the Mediterranean Sea, south of Sicily (Italy).", + "Marshall Islands": "A group of atolls and reefs in the North Pacific Ocean, about one-half of the way from Hawaii to Australia, south of Wake Island and north of Nauru.", + "Martinique": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, south of Dominica and north of Saint Lucia.", + "Mauritania": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Senegal, Western Sahara, and Mali.", + "Mauritius": "A country in southern Africa, occupying an island in the Indian Ocean, off the coast of Madagascar, east of Reunion.", + "Mayotte": "A country in southern Africa, occupying an island in the Mozambique Channel, about one-half of the way from northern Madagascar to northern Mozambique, southeast of Comoros.", + "Mexico": "A country in southern North America, bordering the North Pacific Ocean and the Gulf of Mexico, south of the US.", + "Moldova": "A country in eastern Europe, northeast of Romania.", + "Monaco": "A country in western Europe, bordering the Mediterranean Sea on the southern coast of France, near the border with Italy.", + "Mongolia": "A country in northern Asia, between China and Russia.", + "Montenegro": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Adriatic Sea, between Albania and Bosnia and Herzegovina.", + "Montserrat": "An island in the Caribbean Seas, southeast of Saint Kitts and Nevis.", + "Morocco": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea, south of Spain and between Algeria and Western Sahara.", + "Mozambique": "A country in southeastern Africa, bordering the Mozambique Channel, between South Africa and Tanzania.", + "Myanmar": "A country in southeastern Asia, bordering the Andaman Sea and the Bay of Bengal, southwest of China, between Bangladesh and Thailand.", + "Namibia": "A country in southwestern Africa, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Angola and South Africa.", + "Nauru": "A country in Oceania, occupying an island in the South Pacific Ocean, south of the Marshall Islands.", + "Nepal": "A country in southern Asia, between China and India, west of Bhutan.", + "Netherlands": "A country in western Europe, bordering the North Sea, between Belgium and Germany.", + "New Caledonia": "A country in the Pacific, comprised of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, east of Australia.", + "New Zealand": "A country in the Pacific, comprised of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, southeast of Australia.", + "Nicaragua": "A country in Central America, bordering both the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, between Costa Rica and Honduras.", + "Niger": "A country in western Africa, southeast of Algeria and north of Nigeria.", + "Nigeria": "A country in western Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, between Benin and Cameroon.", + "Niue": "A country in the Pacific, occupying an island in the South Pacific Ocean, east of Tonga and south of American Samoa.", + "North Korea": "A country in eastern Asia, occupying the northern half of the Korean Peninsula, bordering the Korea Bay and the Sea of Japan, between China and South Korea.", + "North Macedonia": "A country in southeastern Europe, north of Greece, between Albania and Bulgaria.", + "Northern Mariana Islands": "A country in the Pacific, comprising islands in the North Pacific Ocean, about three-quarters of the way from Hawaii to the Philippines, north of Guam.", + "Norway": "A country in northern Europe, bordering the North Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, west of Sweden.", + "Oman": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Arabian Sea, southeast of Saudi Arabia.", + "Pakistan": "A country in southern Asia, bordering the Arabian Sea, between India on the east and Iran and Afghanistan on the west and China in the north.", + "Palau": "A country in the Pacific, comprising a group of islands in the North Pacific Ocean, southeast of the Philippines and northwest of Papua New Guinea.", + "Panama": "A country in Central America, bordering both the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, between Colombia and Costa Rica.", + "Papua New Guinea": "A country in southeastern Asia, comprising a group of islands and including the eastern half of the island of New Guinea, between the Coral Sea and the South Pacific Ocean, east of Indonesia.", + "Paraguay": "A country in central South America, northeast of Argentina.", + "Peru": "A country in western South America, bordering the South Pacific Ocean, between Chile and Ecuador.", + "Philippines": "A country in southeastern Asia, comprised of an archipelago between the Philippine Sea and the South China Sea, east of Vietnam.", + "Poland": "A country in central Europe, east of Germany.", + "Portugal": "A country in southwestern Europe, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, west of Spain.", + "Puerto Rico": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, east of the Dominican Republic and west of the British Virgin Islands.", + "Qatar": "A country in the Middle East, occupying a peninsula bordering the Persian Gulf and Saudi Arabia.", + "Reunion": "A country in southern Africa, occupying an island in the Indian Ocean, east of Madagascar and west of Mauritius.", + "Romania": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Black Sea, between Bulgaria and Ukraine.", + "Russia": "A country in northern Asia, bordering the Arctic Ocean, between Europe and the North Pacific Ocean.", + "Rwanda": "A country in central Africa, between the Democratic Republic of the Congo and Tanzania and north of Burundi.", + "Saint Helena, Ascension and Tristan da Cunha": "A group of islands in the South Atlantic Ocean, about midway between South America and Africa, west of Angola and South Africa.", + "Saint Kitts and Nevis": "A group of islands in the Caribbean Sea, east of the Virgin Islands and south of Anguilla.", + "Saint Lucia": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, south of Martinique and north of Saint Vincent and the Grenadines.", + "Saint Pierre and Miquelon": "A country in northern North America, comprised of islands in the North Atlantic Ocean, south of Newfoundland (Canada).", + "Saint Vincent and the Grenadines": "A group of islands between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, south of Saint Lucia and north of Granada.", + "Samoa": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, about half way from Hawaii to New Zealand, west of American Samoa.", + "San Marino": "A country in southern Europe, an enclave in central Italy.", + "Sao Tome and Principe": "A country in western Africa, comprised of islands in the Gulf of Guinea, straddling the Equator, west of Gabon.", + "Saudi Arabia": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Persian Gulf and the Red Sea, north of Yemen.", + "Senegal": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Guinea-Bissau and Mauritania.", + "Serbia": "A republic in southeastern Europe, between Romania and Bosnia and Herzegovina.", + "Seychelles": "A country in eastern Africa, comprised of a group of islands in the Indian Ocean, northeast of Madagascar and east of Kenya.", + "Sierra Leone": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Guinea and Liberia.", + "Singapore": "A country in southeastern Asia, comprised of the southern tip of the Malaysian peninsula and nearby islands between Malaysia and Indonesia.", + "Slovakia": "A country in central Europe, south of Poland and north of Hungary.", + "Slovenia": "A country in central Europe, bordering the Adriatic Sea, between Austria and Croatia.", + "Solomon Islands": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, east of Papua New Guinea.", + "Somalia": "A country in eastern Africa, bordering the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean, east of Ethiopia.", + "South Africa": "A country in southern Africa, at the southern tip of the continent of Africa.", + "South Korea": "A country in eastern Asia, occupying the southern half of the Korean Peninsula, bordering the Sea of Japan and the Yellow Sea.", + "South Sudan": "A country in east central Africa south of Sudan, north of Uganda and Kenya, and west of Ethiopia.", + "Spain": "A country in southwestern Europe, bordering the Bay of Biscay, Mediterranean Sea, and North Atlantic Ocean, southwest of France.", + "Sri Lanka": "A country in southern Asia, occupying an island in the Indian Ocean, southeast of India.", + "State of Palestine": "A sovereign state in western Africa consisting of the West Bank and the Gaza Strip. Its capital is Jerusalem.", + "Sudan": "A country in northeastern Africa, bordering the Red Sea, between Egypt and Eritrea.", + "Suriname": "A country in northern South America, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between French Guiana and Guyana.", + "Svalbard & Jan Mayen Islands": "A group of islands between the Arctic Ocean, Barents Sea, Greenland Sea, and Norwegian Sea, northeast of Iceland and north of Norway.", + "Sweden": "A country in northern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea, between Finland and Norway.", + "Switzerland": "A country in central Europe, east of France and north of Italy.", + "Syria": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Lebanon and Turkey.", + "Taiwan": "A group of islands bordering the East China Sea, Philippine Sea, South China Sea, and Taiwan Strait, off the southeastern coast of China north of the Philippines.", + "Tajikistan": "A country in central Asia, south of Kyrgyzstan and west of China.", + "Tanzania": "A country in eastern Africa, bordering the Indian Ocean, between Kenya and Mozambique.", + "Thailand": "A country in southeastern Asia, bordering the Andaman Sea and the Gulf of Thailand, southeast of Burma.", + "Timor-Leste": "A country in southeastern Asia, northwest of Australia in the Lesser Sunda Islands at the eastern end of the Indonesian archipelago. East Timor includes the eastern half of the island of Timor, the Oecussi (Ambeno) region on the northwest portion of the island of Timor, and the islands of Pulau Atauro and Pulau Jaco.", + "Togo": "A country in western Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, between Benin and Ghana.", + "Tokelau": "A group of three atolls in the South Pacific Ocean, about one-half of the way from Hawaii to New Zealand, west of Tuvalu and north of American Samoa.", + "Tonga": "An archipelago in the South Pacific Ocean, about two-thirds of the way from Hawaii to New Zealand, southeast of Fiji.", + "Trinidad and Tobago": "A group of islands between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, off the northeast coast of Venezuela.", + "Tunisia": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Algeria and Libya.", + "Turkey": "A country in southeastern Europe and southwestern Asia, between the Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea, east of Greece and north of Syria.", + "Turkmenistan": "A country in central Asia, bordering the Caspian Sea, between Iran and Kazakhstan.", + "Tuvalu": "A group of islands consisting of nine coral atolls in the South Pacific Ocean, about one-half of the way from Hawaii to Australia, west of Tokelau and north of Fiji.", + "Uganda": "A country in eastern Africa, west of Kenya.", + "Ukraine": "A country in eastern Europe, bordering the Black Sea, between Poland and Russia.", + "United Arab Emirates": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf, between Oman and Saudi Arabia.", + "United Kingdom": "A country in western Europe, comprising islands, including England, Scotland, Wales, and the northern one-sixth of the island of Ireland, between the North Atlantic Ocean and the North Sea, northwest of France.", + "United States": "A country in North America, between Canada and Mexico, bordering both the North Atlantic Ocean and the North Pacific Ocean.", + "Uruguay": "A country in southern South America, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Argentina and Brazil.", + "Uzbekistan": "A country in central Asia, north of Afghanistan, between Turkmenistan and Kazakhstan.", + "Vanuatu": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, about three-quarters of the way from Hawaii to Australia.", + "Venezuela": "A country in northern South America, bordering the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, between Colombia and Guyana.", + "Vietnam": "A country in southeastern Asia, bordering the Gulf of Thailand, Gulf of Tonkin, and South China Sea, alongside China, Laos, and Cambodia.", + "Virgin Islands, British": "A group of islands between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, east of the US Virgin Islands.", + "Virgin Islands, U.S.": "A group of islands between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, east of Puerto Rico and west of the British Virgin Islands.", + "Wallis and Futuna": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, about two-thirds of the way from Hawaii to New Zealand, northeast of Fiji and west of American Samoa.", + "Western Sahara": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Mauritania and Morocco.", + "Yemen": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Arabian Sea, Gulf of Aden, and Red Sea, between Oman and Saudi Arabia.", + "Zambia": "A country in southern Africa, east of Angola and north of Zimbabwe.", + "Zimbabwe": "A country in southern Africa, between South Africa and Zambia, west of Mozambique." + } + }, + "country_of_residence_at_enrollment": { + "column_description": "The text term used to describe the patient's country of residence at the time they were enrolled in the study.", + "value_data": { + "Afghanistan": "A country in southern Asia, north and west of Pakistan, east of Iran.", + "Albania": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Adriatic and Ionian Seas, between Greece and Montenegro.", + "Algeria": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Morocco and Tunisia.", + "Andorra": "A country in southwestern Europe, between France and Spain.", + "Angola": "A country in southern Africa, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Namibia and Democratic Republic of the Congo.", + "Anguilla": "A group of islands in the Caribbean Sea, east of the Virgin Islands and north of Saint Kitts and Nevis.", + "Antigua and Barbuda": "A group of islands in the Caribbean Sea, east of Saint Kitts and Nevis.", + "Argentina": "A country in southern South America, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Chile and Uruguay.", + "Armenia": "A country in southwestern Asia, east of Turkey and south of Georgia.", + "Aruba": "An island in the Caribbean Sea, north of Venezuela and west of Curacao.", + "Australia": "The continent and country between the Indian Ocean and the South Pacific Ocean, south of Asia.", + "Austria": "A country in central Europe, northeast of Italy and southeast of Germany.", + "Azerbaijan": "A country in southwestern Asia, bordering the Caspian Sea, between Iran and Russia.", + "Bahamas": "A chain of islands in the North Atlantic Ocean, southeast of Florida and north of Cuba.", + "Bahrain": "An archipelago in the Persian Gulf, on the east coast of Saudi Arabia.", + "Bangladesh": "A country in southern Asia, bordering the Bay of Bengal, between Burma and India.", + "Barbados": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, east of Saint Vincent and the Grenadines.", + "Belarus": "A country in eastern Europe, east of Poland and north of Ukraine.", + "Belgium": "A country in western Europe, bordering the North Sea, between France and the Netherlands.", + "Belize": "A country in central America, bordering the Caribbean Sea, between Guatemala and Mexico.", + "Benin": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Nigeria and Togo.", + "Bermuda": "A group of islands in the North Atlantic Ocean, east of South Carolina.", + "Bhutan": "A country in southern Asia, between China and India, east of Nepal and north of Bangladesh.", + "Bolivia": "A country in central South America, southwest of Brazil.", + "Bosnia and Herzegovina": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Adriatic Sea, between Croatia and Serbia.", + "Botswana": "A country in southern Africa, north of South Africa and east of Namibia.", + "Brazil": "A country in eastern South America, bordering the Atlantic Ocean.", + "Brunei": "A country in southeastern Asia, bordering the South China Sea and surrounded by Malaysia.", + "Bulgaria": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Black Sea, between Romania and Turkey.", + "Burkina Faso": "A country in western Africa, between Mali and Ghana.", + "Burundi": "A country in central Africa, east of the Democratic Republic of the Congo and south of Rwanda.", + "Cambodia": "A country in southeastern Asia, bordering the Gulf of Thailand, between Thailand, Vietnam, and Laos.", + "Cameroon": "A country in western Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, between Equatorial Guinea and Nigeria.", + "Canada": "A country in northern North America, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean on the east, North Pacific Ocean on the west, and the Arctic Ocean on the north, north of the conterminous US.", + "Cape Verde": "A group of islands in the North Atlantic Ocean, west of Senegal.", + "Cayman Islands": "An island group in the Caribbean Sea, south of Cuba and west of Jamaica.", + "Central African Republic": "A country in central Africa, north of Democratic Republic of the Congo, between Cameroon and South Sudan.", + "Chad": "A country in central Africa, south of Libya, between Niger and Sudan.", + "Chile": "A country in southwestern South America, bordering the South Pacific Ocean, between Argentina and Peru.", + "China": "A country in eastern Asia, bordering the East China Sea, Korea Bay, Yellow Sea, and South China Sea, south of Kazakhstan, Mongolia and Russia.", + "Colombia": "A country in northern South America, bordering the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, between Ecuador and Venezuela.", + "Comoros": "A group of islands in the Mozambique Channel, about two-thirds of the way between northern Madagascar and northern Mozambique, northwest of Mayotte.", + "Congo": "A country in western Africa, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Gabon and the Democratic Republic of the Congo.", + "Cook Islands": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, east of Australia, between Tonga and French Polynesia.", + "Costa Rica": "A country in Central America, bordering both the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, between Nicaragua and Panama.", + "Cote d'Ivoire": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Ghana and Liberia.", + "Croatia": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Adriatic Sea, between Bosnia and Herzegovina and Slovenia.", + "Cuba": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, 150 km south of Key West, Florida.", + "Curacao": "An island in the Caribbean Sea, north of Venezuela and east of Aruba, a constituent country of the Kingdom of the Netherlands.", + "Cyprus": "An island in the Mediterranean Sea, south of Turkey.", + "Czech Republic (Czechia)": "A country in central Europe, southeast of Germany and southwest of Poland.", + "Democratic Republic of the Congo": "A country in central Africa, northeast of Angola.", + "Denmark": "A country in northern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea and the North Sea, consisting of a peninsula on the north coast of Germany and several major islands.", + "Djibouti": "A country in eastern Africa, bordering the Gulf of Aden and the Red Sea, between Eritrea and Somalia.", + "Dominica": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, south of Guadeloupe and north of Martinique.", + "Dominican Republic": "A country comprising the eastern two-thirds of the island of Hispaniola, between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, east of Haiti.", + "Ecuador": "A country in western South America, bordering the Pacific Ocean at the Equator, between Colombia and Peru.", + "Egypt": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, east of Libya and north of Sudan.", + "El Salvador": "A country in Central America, bordering the North Pacific Ocean, between Guatemala and Honduras.", + "Equatorial Guinea": "A country in western Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, between Cameroon and Gabon; composed of a mainland portion and five inhabited islands.", + "Eritrea": "A country in eastern Africa, bordering the Red Sea, between Sudan and Ethiopia.", + "Estonia": "A country in eastern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea and Gulf of Finland, between Latvia and Finland.", + "Eswatini": "A country in southern Africa, between Mozambique and South Africa.", + "Ethiopia": "A country in eastern Africa, between Somalia and Sudan.", + "Falkland Islands (Malvinas)": "A group of islands in the South Atlantic Ocean, east of southern Argentina.", + "Faroe Islands": "An island group between the Norwegian Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, about one-half of the way from Iceland to Norway.", + "Federated States of Micronesia": "An island group in the North Pacific Ocean, about three-quarters of the way from Hawaii to Indonesia, west of the Marshall Islands and north of the Solomon Islands.", + "Fiji": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, southwest of Wallis and Fortuna and east of Vanuatu.", + "Finland": "A country in northern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea, between Sweden and Russia.", + "France": "A country in western Europe, bordering the Bay of Biscay and the English Channel, between Germany and Spain.", + "French Guiana": "A country in northern South America, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Brazil and Suriname.", + "French Polynesia": "An archipelago in the South Pacific Ocean, east of the Cook Islands.", + "Gabon": "A country in central Africa, bordering the Atlantic Ocean at the Equator, between Republic of the Congo and Equatorial Guinea.", + "Gambia": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean and surrounded by Senegal.", + "Georgia": "A country in southwestern Asia, bordering the Black Sea, between Turkey and Russia.", + "Germany": "A country in central Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea and the North Sea, between the Netherlands and Poland, south of Denmark.", + "Ghana": "A country in western Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, between Cote d'Ivoire and Togo.", + "Gibraltar": "A dependency in southwestern Europe, on the southern coast of Spain, bordering the Strait of Gibraltar.", + "Greece": "A country in southern Europe, bordering the Aegean, Ionian, and Mediterranean Seas, between Albania and Turkey.", + "Greenland": "An island between the Arctic Ocean and the North Atlantic Ocean, northeast of Canada.", + "Grenada": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and Atlantic Ocean, south of Saint Vincent and the Grenadines and north of Trinidad and Tobago.", + "Guadeloupe": "A group of islands in the Caribbean Seas, southeast of Montserrat.", + "Guam": "An island in the North Pacific Ocean, about three-quarters of the way from Hawaii to the Philippines, south of the Northern Mariana Islands.", + "Guatemala": "A country in Central America, bordering the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, east of Mexico and west of Belize and Honduras.", + "Guernsey": "A British Crown dependency in the English Channel, between England and France.", + "Guinea": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Guinea-Bissau and Sierra Leone.", + "Guinea-Bissau": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Guinea and Senegal.", + "Guyana": "A country in northern South America, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Suriname and Venezuela.", + "Haiti": "A country comprising the western one-third of the island of Hispaniola, between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, west of the Dominican Republic.", + "Holy See": "An enclave of Rome (Italy). Vatican City State.", + "Honduras": "A country in Central America, bordering the Caribbean Sea, between Guatemala and Nicaragua.", + "Hong Kong": "A special administrative region of China, bordering the South China Sea, east of Macao.", + "Hungary": "A country in central Europe, northwest of Romania and south of Slovakia.", + "Iceland": "A country in northern Europe, island between the Greenland Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, northwest of the UK.", + "India": "A country in southern Asia, bordering the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal, between Pakistan and China.", + "Indonesia": "A country in southeastern Asia, comprising the archipelago and islands between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, north of Australia.", + "Iran": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Gulf of Oman, the Persian Gulf, and the Caspian Sea, between Iraq and Pakistan.", + "Iraq": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Persian Gulf, between Iran and Syria.", + "Ireland": "A country in western Europe, occupying five-sixths of the island of Ireland in the North Atlantic Ocean, west of Great Britain.", + "Isle of Man": "An island in the Irish Sea, between Great Britain and Ireland.", + "Israel": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Egypt and Lebanon.", + "Italy": "A country in southern Europe, occupying a peninsula extending into the central Mediterranean Sea, northeast of Tunisia.", + "Jamaica": "An island in the Caribbean Sea, south of Cuba, between the Cayman Islands and Haiti.", + "Japan": "A country in eastern Asia, occupying an island chain between the North Pacific Ocean and the Sea of Japan, east of the Korean Peninsula.", + "Jersey": "A British Crown dependency in the English Channel southeast of Guernsey.", + "Jordan": "A country in the Middle East, northwest of Saudi Arabia.", + "Kazakhstan": "A country in central Asia, northwest of China and south of Russia.", + "Kenya": "A country in eastern Africa, bordering the Indian Ocean, between Somalia and Tanzania.", + "Kiribati": "A group of 33 coral atolls in the Pacific Ocean, south of Hawaii and northeast of Jarvis Island.", + "Kosovo": "A southeastern European country between Servia and Macedonia.", + "Kuwait": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Persian Gulf, between Iraq and Saudi Arabia.", + "Kyrgyzstan": "A country in central Asia, between southern Kazakhstan and western China.", + "Laos": "A country in southeastern Asia, north and east of Thailand, west of Vietnam.", + "Latvia": "A country in eastern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea, between Estonia and Lithuania.", + "Lebanon": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Israel and Syria.", + "Lesotho": "A country in southern Africa, an enclave of South Africa.", + "Liberia": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Cote d'Ivoire and Sierra Leone.", + "Libya": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Egypt and Algeria.", + "Liechtenstein": "A country in central Europe, between Austria and Switzerland.", + "Lithuania": "A country in eastern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea, between Latvia and Russia.", + "Luxembourg": "A country in western Europe, between France, Belgium, and Germany.", + "Macau": "A special administrative region of China, bordering the South China Sea, west of Hong Kong.", + "Madagascar": "A country in southern Africa, occupying an island in the Indian Ocean, east of Mozambique.", + "Malawi": "A country in southern Africa, east of Zambia and west of Mozambique and Tanzania.", + "Malaysia": "A country in southeastern Asia bordering Indonesia and the South China Sea, occupying a peninsula south of Thailand and the northern one-third of the island of Borneo.", + "Maldives": "A country in southern Asia, occupying a group of atolls in the Indian Ocean, south-southwest of India and north of the British Indian Ocean Territory.", + "Mali": "A country in western Africa, southwest of Algeria and east of Mauritania.", + "Malta": "A country in southern Europe, occupying islands in the Mediterranean Sea, south of Sicily (Italy).", + "Marshall Islands": "A group of atolls and reefs in the North Pacific Ocean, about one-half of the way from Hawaii to Australia, south of Wake Island and north of Nauru.", + "Martinique": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, south of Dominica and north of Saint Lucia.", + "Mauritania": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Senegal, Western Sahara, and Mali.", + "Mauritius": "A country in southern Africa, occupying an island in the Indian Ocean, off the coast of Madagascar, east of Reunion.", + "Mayotte": "A country in southern Africa, occupying an island in the Mozambique Channel, about one-half of the way from northern Madagascar to northern Mozambique, southeast of Comoros.", + "Mexico": "A country in southern North America, bordering the North Pacific Ocean and the Gulf of Mexico, south of the US.", + "Moldova": "A country in eastern Europe, northeast of Romania.", + "Monaco": "A country in western Europe, bordering the Mediterranean Sea on the southern coast of France, near the border with Italy.", + "Mongolia": "A country in northern Asia, between China and Russia.", + "Montenegro": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Adriatic Sea, between Albania and Bosnia and Herzegovina.", + "Montserrat": "An island in the Caribbean Seas, southeast of Saint Kitts and Nevis.", + "Morocco": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea, south of Spain and between Algeria and Western Sahara.", + "Mozambique": "A country in southeastern Africa, bordering the Mozambique Channel, between South Africa and Tanzania.", + "Myanmar": "A country in southeastern Asia, bordering the Andaman Sea and the Bay of Bengal, southwest of China, between Bangladesh and Thailand.", + "Namibia": "A country in southwestern Africa, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Angola and South Africa.", + "Nauru": "A country in Oceania, occupying an island in the South Pacific Ocean, south of the Marshall Islands.", + "Nepal": "A country in southern Asia, between China and India, west of Bhutan.", + "Netherlands": "A country in western Europe, bordering the North Sea, between Belgium and Germany.", + "New Caledonia": "A country in the Pacific, comprised of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, east of Australia.", + "New Zealand": "A country in the Pacific, comprised of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, southeast of Australia.", + "Nicaragua": "A country in Central America, bordering both the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, between Costa Rica and Honduras.", + "Niger": "A country in western Africa, southeast of Algeria and north of Nigeria.", + "Nigeria": "A country in western Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, between Benin and Cameroon.", + "Niue": "A country in the Pacific, occupying an island in the South Pacific Ocean, east of Tonga and south of American Samoa.", + "North Korea": "A country in eastern Asia, occupying the northern half of the Korean Peninsula, bordering the Korea Bay and the Sea of Japan, between China and South Korea.", + "North Macedonia": "A country in southeastern Europe, north of Greece, between Albania and Bulgaria.", + "Northern Mariana Islands": "A country in the Pacific, comprising islands in the North Pacific Ocean, about three-quarters of the way from Hawaii to the Philippines, north of Guam.", + "Norway": "A country in northern Europe, bordering the North Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, west of Sweden.", + "Oman": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Arabian Sea, southeast of Saudi Arabia.", + "Pakistan": "A country in southern Asia, bordering the Arabian Sea, between India on the east and Iran and Afghanistan on the west and China in the north.", + "Palau": "A country in the Pacific, comprising a group of islands in the North Pacific Ocean, southeast of the Philippines and northwest of Papua New Guinea.", + "Panama": "A country in Central America, bordering both the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, between Colombia and Costa Rica.", + "Papua New Guinea": "A country in southeastern Asia, comprising a group of islands and including the eastern half of the island of New Guinea, between the Coral Sea and the South Pacific Ocean, east of Indonesia.", + "Paraguay": "A country in central South America, northeast of Argentina.", + "Peru": "A country in western South America, bordering the South Pacific Ocean, between Chile and Ecuador.", + "Philippines": "A country in southeastern Asia, comprised of an archipelago between the Philippine Sea and the South China Sea, east of Vietnam.", + "Poland": "A country in central Europe, east of Germany.", + "Portugal": "A country in southwestern Europe, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, west of Spain.", + "Puerto Rico": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, east of the Dominican Republic and west of the British Virgin Islands.", + "Qatar": "A country in the Middle East, occupying a peninsula bordering the Persian Gulf and Saudi Arabia.", + "Reunion": "A country in southern Africa, occupying an island in the Indian Ocean, east of Madagascar and west of Mauritius.", + "Romania": "A country in southeastern Europe, bordering the Black Sea, between Bulgaria and Ukraine.", + "Russia": "A country in northern Asia, bordering the Arctic Ocean, between Europe and the North Pacific Ocean.", + "Rwanda": "A country in central Africa, between the Democratic Republic of the Congo and Tanzania and north of Burundi.", + "Saint Helena, Ascension and Tristan da Cunha": "A group of islands in the South Atlantic Ocean, about midway between South America and Africa, west of Angola and South Africa.", + "Saint Kitts and Nevis": "A group of islands in the Caribbean Sea, east of the Virgin Islands and south of Anguilla.", + "Saint Lucia": "An island between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, south of Martinique and north of Saint Vincent and the Grenadines.", + "Saint Pierre and Miquelon": "A country in northern North America, comprised of islands in the North Atlantic Ocean, south of Newfoundland (Canada).", + "Saint Vincent and the Grenadines": "A group of islands between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, south of Saint Lucia and north of Granada.", + "Samoa": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, about half way from Hawaii to New Zealand, west of American Samoa.", + "San Marino": "A country in southern Europe, an enclave in central Italy.", + "Sao Tome and Principe": "A country in western Africa, comprised of islands in the Gulf of Guinea, straddling the Equator, west of Gabon.", + "Saudi Arabia": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Persian Gulf and the Red Sea, north of Yemen.", + "Senegal": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Guinea-Bissau and Mauritania.", + "Serbia": "A republic in southeastern Europe, between Romania and Bosnia and Herzegovina.", + "Seychelles": "A country in eastern Africa, comprised of a group of islands in the Indian Ocean, northeast of Madagascar and east of Kenya.", + "Sierra Leone": "A country in western Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Guinea and Liberia.", + "Singapore": "A country in southeastern Asia, comprised of the southern tip of the Malaysian peninsula and nearby islands between Malaysia and Indonesia.", + "Slovakia": "A country in central Europe, south of Poland and north of Hungary.", + "Slovenia": "A country in central Europe, bordering the Adriatic Sea, between Austria and Croatia.", + "Solomon Islands": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, east of Papua New Guinea.", + "Somalia": "A country in eastern Africa, bordering the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean, east of Ethiopia.", + "South Africa": "A country in southern Africa, at the southern tip of the continent of Africa.", + "South Korea": "A country in eastern Asia, occupying the southern half of the Korean Peninsula, bordering the Sea of Japan and the Yellow Sea.", + "South Sudan": "A country in east central Africa south of Sudan, north of Uganda and Kenya, and west of Ethiopia.", + "Spain": "A country in southwestern Europe, bordering the Bay of Biscay, Mediterranean Sea, and North Atlantic Ocean, southwest of France.", + "Sri Lanka": "A country in southern Asia, occupying an island in the Indian Ocean, southeast of India.", + "State of Palestine": "A sovereign state in western Africa consisting of the West Bank and the Gaza Strip. Its capital is Jerusalem.", + "Sudan": "A country in northeastern Africa, bordering the Red Sea, between Egypt and Eritrea.", + "Suriname": "A country in northern South America, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between French Guiana and Guyana.", + "Svalbard & Jan Mayen Islands": "A group of islands between the Arctic Ocean, Barents Sea, Greenland Sea, and Norwegian Sea, northeast of Iceland and north of Norway.", + "Sweden": "A country in northern Europe, bordering the Baltic Sea, between Finland and Norway.", + "Switzerland": "A country in central Europe, east of France and north of Italy.", + "Syria": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Lebanon and Turkey.", + "Taiwan": "A group of islands bordering the East China Sea, Philippine Sea, South China Sea, and Taiwan Strait, off the southeastern coast of China north of the Philippines.", + "Tajikistan": "A country in central Asia, south of Kyrgyzstan and west of China.", + "Tanzania": "A country in eastern Africa, bordering the Indian Ocean, between Kenya and Mozambique.", + "Thailand": "A country in southeastern Asia, bordering the Andaman Sea and the Gulf of Thailand, southeast of Burma.", + "Timor-Leste": "A country in southeastern Asia, northwest of Australia in the Lesser Sunda Islands at the eastern end of the Indonesian archipelago. East Timor includes the eastern half of the island of Timor, the Oecussi (Ambeno) region on the northwest portion of the island of Timor, and the islands of Pulau Atauro and Pulau Jaco.", + "Togo": "A country in western Africa, bordering the Gulf of Guinea, between Benin and Ghana.", + "Tokelau": "A group of three atolls in the South Pacific Ocean, about one-half of the way from Hawaii to New Zealand, west of Tuvalu and north of American Samoa.", + "Tonga": "An archipelago in the South Pacific Ocean, about two-thirds of the way from Hawaii to New Zealand, southeast of Fiji.", + "Trinidad and Tobago": "A group of islands between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, off the northeast coast of Venezuela.", + "Tunisia": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the Mediterranean Sea, between Algeria and Libya.", + "Turkey": "A country in southeastern Europe and southwestern Asia, between the Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea, east of Greece and north of Syria.", + "Turkmenistan": "A country in central Asia, bordering the Caspian Sea, between Iran and Kazakhstan.", + "Tuvalu": "A group of islands consisting of nine coral atolls in the South Pacific Ocean, about one-half of the way from Hawaii to Australia, west of Tokelau and north of Fiji.", + "Uganda": "A country in eastern Africa, west of Kenya.", + "Ukraine": "A country in eastern Europe, bordering the Black Sea, between Poland and Russia.", + "United Arab Emirates": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf, between Oman and Saudi Arabia.", + "United Kingdom": "A country in western Europe, comprising islands, including England, Scotland, Wales, and the northern one-sixth of the island of Ireland, between the North Atlantic Ocean and the North Sea, northwest of France.", + "United States": "A country in North America, between Canada and Mexico, bordering both the North Atlantic Ocean and the North Pacific Ocean.", + "Uruguay": "A country in southern South America, bordering the South Atlantic Ocean, between Argentina and Brazil.", + "Uzbekistan": "A country in central Asia, north of Afghanistan, between Turkmenistan and Kazakhstan.", + "Vanuatu": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, about three-quarters of the way from Hawaii to Australia.", + "Venezuela": "A country in northern South America, bordering the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, between Colombia and Guyana.", + "Vietnam": "A country in southeastern Asia, bordering the Gulf of Thailand, Gulf of Tonkin, and South China Sea, alongside China, Laos, and Cambodia.", + "Virgin Islands, British": "A group of islands between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, east of the US Virgin Islands.", + "Virgin Islands, U.S.": "A group of islands between the Caribbean Sea and the North Atlantic Ocean, east of Puerto Rico and west of the British Virgin Islands.", + "Wallis and Futuna": "A group of islands in the South Pacific Ocean, about two-thirds of the way from Hawaii to New Zealand, northeast of Fiji and west of American Samoa.", + "Western Sahara": "A country in northern Africa, bordering the North Atlantic Ocean, between Mauritania and Morocco.", + "Yemen": "A country in the Middle East, bordering the Arabian Sea, Gulf of Aden, and Red Sea, between Oman and Saudi Arabia.", + "Zambia": "A country in southern Africa, east of Angola and north of Zimbabwe.", + "Zimbabwe": "A country in southern Africa, between South Africa and Zambia, west of Mozambique." + } + }, + "days_to_birth": { + "column_description": "Number of days between the date used for index and the date from a person's date of birth represented as a calculated negative number of days.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "education_level": { + "column_description": "The years of schooling completed in graded public, private, or parochial schools, and in colleges, universities, or professional schools.", + "value_data": { + "College Degree": "Completion of education at an institution of higher education created to educate and grant degrees; often a part of a university.", + "High School Graduate or GED": "", + "Professional or Graduate Degree": "", + "Some High School or Less": "Indicates a person has attended high school but did not complete high school and did not receive a high school diploma.", + "Vocational College or Some College": "Indicates that a person has attended college but that they did not receive any degree.", + "Not Reported": "Not provided or available." + } + }, + "marital_status": { + "column_description": "A demographic parameter indicating a person's current conjugal status.", + "value_data": { + "Divorced": "Indicates a person whose marriage has been legally dissolved and has not remarried.", + "Domestic Partnership": "Indicates a person who is a member of an unmarried couple, including same sex couples, living together in longstanding relationships, that are registered or unregistered.", + "Married": "Indicates a person currently joined in a legally binding matrimonial union. Classify common law marriage as married. Includes married couples living together and not living together.", + "Never Married": "Indicates a person who has never been married or whose marriages have been annulled.", + "Separated": "A person who is separated from their spouse, whether or not there is a legal arrangement.", + "Widowed": "Indicates a person who is no longer married because of the death of his/her spouse and has not remarried." + } + }, + "year_of_birth": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the calendar year in which an individual was born.", + "value_data": {} + }, + "year_of_death": { + "column_description": "Numeric value to represent the year of the death of an individual.", + "value_data": {} + } +} \ No newline at end of file diff --git a/bdikit/standards/__init__.py b/bdikit/standards/__init__.py new file mode 100644 index 00000000..04d9a9a2 --- /dev/null +++ b/bdikit/standards/__init__.py @@ -0,0 +1,3 @@ +__version__ = "0.4.0.dev0" +# To shortcut the import path +from bdikit.api import * diff --git a/bdikit/standards/base.py b/bdikit/standards/base.py new file mode 100644 index 00000000..2861afb8 --- /dev/null +++ b/bdikit/standards/base.py @@ -0,0 +1,20 @@ +import pandas as pd +from typing import List, Dict + + +class BaseStandard: + """ + Base class for all target standards, e.g. GDC. + """ + + def get_columns(self) -> List[str]: + raise NotImplementedError("Subclasses must implement this method") + + def get_column_values(self, column_names: List[str]) -> Dict[str, List]: + raise NotImplementedError("Subclasses must implement this method") + + def get_column_metadata(self, column_names: List[str]) -> Dict[str, Dict]: + raise NotImplementedError("Subclasses must implement this method") + + def get_dataframe_rep(self) -> pd.DataFrame: + raise NotImplementedError("Subclasses must implement this method") diff --git a/bdikit/standards/gdc.py b/bdikit/standards/gdc.py new file mode 100644 index 00000000..ddf83553 --- /dev/null +++ b/bdikit/standards/gdc.py @@ -0,0 +1,70 @@ +import json +import pandas as pd +from os.path import join, dirname +from typing import List, Dict +from bdikit.standards.base import BaseStandard + + +GDC_SCHEMA_PATH = join(dirname(__file__), "../resource/gdc_data.json") + + +class GDC(BaseStandard): + """ + Class for GDC standard. + """ + + def __init__(self) -> None: + self.data = None + self.__read_data() + + def __read_data(self): + with open(GDC_SCHEMA_PATH) as json_file: + self.data = json.load(json_file) + + def get_columns(self) -> List[str]: + return list(self.data.keys()) + + def get_column_values( + self, column_names: List[str] + ) -> Dict[str, List]: # get_gdc_data + column_values = {} + + for column_name in column_names: + raw_metadata = self.data.get(column_name, {}) + column_values[column_name] = list(raw_metadata.get("value_data", {}).keys()) + + return column_values + + def get_column_metadata( + self, column_names: List[str] + ) -> Dict[str, Dict]: # get_gdc_metadata + column_metadata = {} + + for column_name in column_names: + raw_metadata = self.data.get(column_name, {}) + column_metadata[column_name] = {} + column_metadata[column_name]["description"] = raw_metadata.get( + "column_description", "" + ) + column_metadata[column_name]["value_names"] = list( + raw_metadata.get("value_data", {}).keys() + ) + column_metadata[column_name]["value_descriptions"] = list( + raw_metadata.get("value_data", {}).values() + ) + + return column_metadata + + def get_dataframe_rep(self) -> pd.DataFrame: + reshaped_data = { + key: list(value["value_data"].keys()) for key, value in self.data.items() + } + + # Ensure all lists have the same length by padding with None + max_length = max(len(v) for v in reshaped_data.values()) + for k, v in reshaped_data.items(): + reshaped_data[k].extend([None] * (max_length - len(v))) + + df = pd.DataFrame.from_dict(reshaped_data, orient="columns") + + return df diff --git a/bdikit/standards/standard_factory.py b/bdikit/standards/standard_factory.py new file mode 100644 index 00000000..8b88065a --- /dev/null +++ b/bdikit/standards/standard_factory.py @@ -0,0 +1,28 @@ +from enum import Enum +from typing import Mapping, Any, Type +from bdikit.standards.base import BaseStandard +from bdikit.standards.gdc import GDC + + +class Standards(Enum): + GDC = ("gdc", GDC) + + def __init__(self, standard_name: str, standard_class: Type[BaseStandard]): + self.standard_name = standard_name + self.standard_class = standard_class + + @staticmethod + def get_instance( + standard_name: str, **standard_kwargs: Mapping[str, Any] + ) -> BaseStandard: + standards = { + standard.standard_name: standard.standard_class for standard in Standards + } + try: + return standards[standard_name](**standard_kwargs) + except KeyError: + names = ", ".join(list(standards.keys())) + raise ValueError( + f"The {standard_name} standard is not supported. " + f"Supported standards are: {names}" + ) diff --git a/bdikit/utils.py b/bdikit/utils.py index 8cbde80d..18f0f1e2 100644 --- a/bdikit/utils.py +++ b/bdikit/utils.py @@ -1,85 +1,16 @@ -import json -from os.path import join, dirname -import pandas as pd -import hashlib import os +import hashlib +import pandas as pd +from os.path import join, dirname from bdikit.download import BDIKIT_EMBEDDINGS_CACHE_DIR +from bdikit.standards.standard_factory import Standards -GDC_SCHEMA_PATH = join(dirname(__file__), "./resource/gdc_schema.json") GDC_TABLE_PATH = join(dirname(__file__), "./resource/gdc_table.csv") __gdc_df = None __gdc_hash = None -def read_gdc_schema(): - with open(GDC_SCHEMA_PATH) as json_file: - gdc_schema = json.load(json_file) - - return gdc_schema - - -def get_gdc_data(column_names): - gdc_schema = read_gdc_schema() - gdc_data = {} - - for column_name in column_names: - gdc_values = get_gdc_values(column_name, gdc_schema) - gdc_data[column_name] = gdc_values - - return gdc_data - - -def get_gdc_values(column_name, gdc_schema): - for key, values in gdc_schema.items(): - for key in values["properties"].keys(): - if column_name == key: - value_metadata = values["properties"][column_name] - if "enum" in value_metadata: - return value_metadata["enum"] - elif "type" in value_metadata and value_metadata["type"] == "number": - return None - - return None - - -def get_gdc_metadata(): - metadata = {} - gdc_schema = read_gdc_schema() - - for attrib_data in gdc_schema.values(): - for attrib_name, attrib_properties in attrib_data["properties"].items(): - metadata[attrib_name] = {} - attrib_description = attrib_properties.get("description", "") - metadata[attrib_name]["description"] = attrib_description - - value_names = attrib_properties.get("enum", []) - metadata[attrib_name]["value_names"] = value_names - - descriptions = attrib_properties.get("enumDef", {}) - value_descriptions = [] - for value_name in value_names: - description = "" - if value_name in descriptions: - description = descriptions[value_name].get("description", "") - value_descriptions.append(description) - - metadata[attrib_name]["value_descriptions"] = value_descriptions - - return metadata - - -def get_gdc_layered_metadata(): - metadata = {} - gdc_schema = read_gdc_schema() - - for subschema, values in gdc_schema.items(): - for key, data in values["properties"].items(): - metadata[key] = (subschema, data) - - return metadata - - def hash_dataframe(df: pd.DataFrame) -> str: hash_object = hashlib.sha256() @@ -106,17 +37,11 @@ def write_embeddings_to_cache(embedding_file: str, embeddings: list): def load_gdc_data(): global __gdc_df, __gdc_hash if __gdc_df is None or __gdc_hash is None: - __gdc_df = pd.read_csv(GDC_TABLE_PATH) + standard = Standards.get_instance("gdc") + __gdc_df = standard.get_dataframe_rep() __gdc_hash = hash_dataframe(__gdc_df) -def get_gdc_dataframe(): - global __gdc_df - load_gdc_data() - - return __gdc_df - - def check_gdc_cache(table: pd.DataFrame, model_path: str): global __gdc_df, __gdc_hash load_gdc_data() @@ -129,8 +54,8 @@ def check_gdc_cache(table: pd.DataFrame, model_path: str): # check if table for computing embedding is the same as the GDC table we have in resources if table_hash == __gdc_hash: model_name = model_path.split("/")[-1] - cache_model_path = os.path.join(BDIKIT_EMBEDDINGS_CACHE_DIR, model_name) - df_hash_file = os.path.join(cache_model_path, __gdc_hash) + cache_model_path = join(BDIKIT_EMBEDDINGS_CACHE_DIR, model_name) + df_hash_file = join(cache_model_path, __gdc_hash) # Found file in cache if os.path.isfile(df_hash_file):